DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

Test Booklet Series

PREFIT – 2025
T.B.C : P-SIA-F-UPGI
POLITY
Serial : PFB1-2025
TEST – 06 F
Time Allowed : One Hour Maximum Marks : 100

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK THAT
THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS,
ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. ENCODE CLEARLY THE TEST BOOK SERIES A, B, C OR D AS THE CASE MAY BE IN THE
APPROPRIATE PLACE IN THE ANSWER SHEET.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test Booklet in the Box
provided alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item comprises
four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In
case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the
best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.

6. All items carry equal marks.

7. Sooner than you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with your
Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take
away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for Wrong answers :
THERE WILL BE A PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE
TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third (0.66) of the marks assigned to that question
will be deducted as a penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be the same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE ASKED TO DO SO

(1-F)
SIA-F-GS I
 (2-F)
SIA-F-GS I
1. With reference to the Charter Act of 1813, How many of the above pairs are correctly
consider the following statements matched?
1. It asserted the British Crown's sovereignty (a) Only one
over the Company's territories in India. (b) Only two
2. It allowed the Christian missionaries to (c) Only three
arrive in India to enlighten people. (d) All four
3. It attempted to introduce a system of open
competition for the selection of civil 3. Consider the following statements with
servants. reference to the working of the Constituent
4. It authorized local governments to punish Assembly.
persons for not paying taxes. 1. The Muslim League participated in the first
5. It deprived the governors of Bombay and Constituent Assembly meeting held in
Madras of their legislative powers. 1946.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Following the French practice, Dr.
correct? Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
temporary President of the Constituent
(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Assembly.
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
3. The Constituent Assembly elected two Vice-
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Presidents and one President.
How many of the above statements are correct?
2. Consider the following pairs
(a) Only one
S.
Acts Features (b) Only two
No
(c) All three
1. Indian Established new
(d) None
Councils legislative councils in
Act of 1861 Bengal, North-Western
4. The Constitution of India advocates a Secular
provinces and Punjab.
State. Which of the following provisions in
2. Indian It associated Indians
the Indian Constitution has secular features?
Councils with the executive
1. Article 18
Act of 1892 councils of the Viceroy
2. Article 14
and Governors.
3. Article 16
3. Government It introduced
4. Article 17
of India Act bicameralism and
5. Article 30
of 1919 direct elections in India
for the first time. 6. Article 44

4. Government It empowered the Select the correct answer using the code given

of India Act Viceroy to issue below :

of 1935 ordinances without the (a) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

concurrence of (b) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6 only
the legislative council (c) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
during an emergency. (d) 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

(3-F)
SIA-F-GS I
5. Consider the following pairs: 8. Consider the following statements with
S. Features of reference to Constitutional Amendments and
Borrowed from
No Constitution
parts.
1. Judiciary - US Constitution
1. Part IV-A and Part XIV-A were added by the
2. Parliamentary - British
privileges Constitution 42nd Amendment Act of 1976.
3. Joint sitting - Weimar 2. Part VII was added by the 7th Amendment
of the two Constitution of Act of 1956.
Houses of Germany
3. Part IX-A was added by the 74th
Parliament.
4. Election of - Canadian Amendment Act of 1992, while Part IX-B

members of Constitution was added by the 44th Amendment Act of

Rajya Sabha. 1978.
How many of the above pairs are correctly
Which of the statements given above is/are
matched?
correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Only three (b) 1 only
(d) All four (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only
6. The 71st Constitution Amendment Act added
which of the following languages?
(a) Sindhi, Manipuri and Nepali 9. With reference to democratic devices, consider
(b) Manipuri, Nepali and Maithili the following statements
(c) Bodo, Dongri and Santhali
1. A Plebiscite is a method of settling proposed
(d) Manipuri, Nepali and Konkani
legislation by direct vote of the electorate.

7. Consider the following pairs. 2. Initiative is a method by which the people

S. can propose a bill to the legislature for
Parts Subject matter
No enactment.
1. Part VI - The State governments
3. A Referendum is a method of obtaining the
2. Part X - The Scheduled and
opinion of the Indian people on any issue of
Tribal Areas
3. Part XIII - Tribunals public importance.
4. Part XVII - Emergency provisions Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above pairs are correctly
correct?
matched?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only one
(b) Only two (b) 2 only

(c) Only three (c) 3 only

(d) All four (d) 2 and 3 only

(4-F)
SIA-F-GS I
10. With reference to a republic, consider the Which of the statements given above is/are
following statements correct?
1. In a republic, the head of the state is always
(a) 1 and 2 only
elected directly for a fixed term.
2. A republic means vesting political (b) 2 and 3 only
sovereignty in the people and not in a single (c) 2 only
individual. (d) 3 only
3. All public offices in a republic are open to
every citizen without discrimination.
Which of the statements given above is/are 13. "We, the XXXXX people, desire peace for all
correct? time and are deeply conscious of the high ideals
(a) 1 only
controlling human relationships". The
(b) 1 and 2 only
philosophy of this Constitution is thus based
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only on the ideal of peace.
The above paragraph refers to which of the
11. With reference to keywords in the Preamble,
following Constitutions?
consider the following statements:
1. The ideal of social, economic and political (a) USA
justice has been taken from the French (b) Japanese
Revolution of 1789-1799. (c) Australia
2. The Preamble secures its Indian citizens'
(d) Weimar Constitution of Germany
liberty of thought, expression, and faith
through fundamental rights.
3. The Indian Constitution contains Part III 14. Consider the following statements.
provisions to ensure civic equality, whereas Statement I –
political equality is ensured through
The Indian Federation is a Union.
provisions outside Part III.
How many of the above statements are correct? Statement II –
(a) Only one The Indian states have no right to secede
(b) Only two from the Federation.
(c) All three
Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) None
below :
12. With reference to the amenability of the (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true,
Preamble, consider the following statements :
and Statement II is the correct explanation
1. The Preamble has been amended only once
of Statement I.
through the 44th Amendment Act 1978.
2. The words Secular, Integrity and Socialist (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true,
have been added through the Amendment but Statement II is not the correct
in the Preamble.
explanation of Statement I.
3. In the Keshavananda Bharati case,
the Supreme Court held that no (c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
amendment can be made to the basic (d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is
structure of the Preamble. true.

(5-F)
SIA-F-GS I
15. Who is empowered by the Indian Constitution Select the correct answer using the code given
to 'admit into the Union of India, or establish, below :
new states on such terms and conditions as it (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only

thinks fit'? (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
1. Parliament
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
2. State Legislature with legislative assemblies
3. President
18. With reference to Jammu and Kashmir,
4. Prime Minister
consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. The Constitution (Application to Jammu
below : and Kashmir) Order, 2019, extended all the
(a) 1 only provisions of the Indian Constitution to
(b) 1 and 2 only Jammu and Kashmir.
(c) 3 only 2. The above order removed Article 370 from
(d) 1 and 4 only the Indian Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
16. Which of the following involves Constitutional
(a) 1 only
Amendment?
(b) 2 only
1. Indian territory ceded to a foreign country
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. Boundary dispute settlement between India
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
and other countries
3. India acquiring foreign territories 19. Which of the following rights are conferred by
Select the correct answer using the code given the Indian Constitution to Indian citizens only
below : but denies the same to aliens:
(a) 1 only 1. Right to contest for Parliament and state
(b) 1 and 3 only legislative assembly membership
(c) 2 only 2. Right to vote in elections for Lok Sabha and

(d) 1, 2 and 3 state legislative assembly

3. Right to Equality of opportunity in public
employment
17. The 100th Constitutional Amendment Act of
4. Cultural and educational rights
2015, which exchanged territories between
5. Holding public offices like President,
India and Bangladesh, modified the provisions
Attorney General of India and High Court
relating to the territories of judges
1. West Bengal Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Assam below :
3. Meghalaya (a) 1 and 2 only
4. Tripura (b) 3 and 4 only
5. Sikkim (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

6. Mizoram (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

(6-F)
SIA-F-GS I
20. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to government forms: correct?
1. In a parliamentary form of government, the (a) 1 only
executive enjoys the right to get the (b) 2 only
Legislature dissolved. (c) 1 and 3 only
2. The ministers operate on the principle of
(d) 2 and 3 only
secrecy of procedure in the Presidential
form of government.
23. With reference to the changes in the
Which of the statements given above is/are
Constituent Assembly, consider the following
correct?
statements:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 1. The Assembly can abrogate or alter any law

(c) Both 1 and 2 made by the British Parliament with respect

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 to India.

2. The Assembly was made a provisional
21. Which of the following is/are the features of a Parliament.
unitary government? 3. The Assembly became a fully sovereign
1. Written Constitution body, which means it can frame its own
2. Division of powers Constitution of its choice.
3. Bicameral or unicameral legislature The above changes of the Assembly were made
4. Supremacy of the Constitution
by which of the following?
5. Independent Judiciary
(a) Objectives Resolution
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) Independence Act, 1947
below :
(c) First election of 1951-52
(a) Only one
(d) Separation of Pakistan
(b) Only three
(c) Only four
(d) All five 24. Why is the Indian Constitution so bulkier, and
what are the factors behind it?
22. With reference to the Constituent Assembly, 1. India's diversity
consider the following statements: 2. Government of India Act of 1935
1. The representatives of the princely states 3. Legal luminaries' authority in the
were elected by members of the community Constituent Assembly
in the provincial legislative Assembly. 4. Single Constitution
2. The Constituent Assembly comprised Select the correct answer using the code given
representatives of all sections of the Indian
below :
society.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. The Assembly included all important
(b) 1 and 3 only
personalities in India, including Mahatma
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Gandhi.
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(7-F)
SIA-F-GS I
25. With reference to the term Socialist in 27. The Union of India includes which of the

the Indian context, consider the following following?

1. States
statements
2. Union territories
1. The Indian Constitution never had a
3. Territories acquired by the Government of
socialist content before the 42nd
India at any time
Amendment added the term to the Select the correct answer using the code given
Preamble in 1976. below :
2. The Congress party decided to establish a (a) 1 only

socialistic pattern of society in the Karachi (b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only
session of 1931.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. India's democratic socialism believes in a

mixed economy in which the public and

28. Consider the following statements with
private sectors can coexist. reference to the reorganization of states:
How many of the above statements are correct? 1. The territorial integrity or continued
(a) Only one existence of any state is guaranteed by the

(b) Only two Constitution.

2. The bills regarding the reorganization of
(c) All three
states and union territories are considered
(d) None
amendments under Article 368.
Which of the statements given above is/are
26. Consider the following statements with correct?
reference to India (a) 1 only
1. India ceased to be a British dominion on (b) 2 only

August 15, 1947, by declaring herself a (c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
sovereign republic.

2. Pakistan continued to be a British

29. Arrange the following in the chronological order
Dominion until 1956.
1. Nehru-Noon Agreement
3. India became a member of the United 2. Radcliffe Award
Nations Organisation after independence. 3. Bagge Award
How many of the above statements are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given

(a) Only one below :

(a) 2-3-1
(b) Only two
(b) 3-1-2
(c) All three
(c) 1-2-3
(d) None
(d) 1-3-2

(8-F)
SIA-F-GS I
30. With reference to the acquisition of Indian How many of the above statements are correct?
citizenship, consider the following statements. (a) Only one
1. If any foreign territory becomes a part of (b) Only two
India, the Indian government specifies (c) All three
those territory people can be citizens of (d) None
India.
2. Under this clause, no such people have 33. Consider the following statements with
become citizens of India since reference to the procedure for Constitutional
independence. amendment:
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. An amendment can be initiated only by the
correct? introduction of a bill in Lok Sabha.
(a) 1 only 2. The bill can be introduced only by a
(b) 2 only minister and not a private member.

(c) Both 1 and 2 3. There is no provision for holding a joint

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of
deliberation and passage of the bill.
4. Though the President cannot withhold this
31. In which of the following states, persons who
bill, he can return the bill for
are non-native to that state cannot be
reconsideration of the Parliament.
appointed for non-Gazetted posts?
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Andhra Pradesh
correct?
2. Himachal Pradesh
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. Telangana
(b) 2 and 3 only
4. Karnataka
(c) 3 only
5. Manipur
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
below :
34. With reference to committees for state
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
reorganisation, consider the following
(b) 5 only
statements.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
1. The Linguistic Provinces Commission
(d) 1 and 3 only
under S.K. Dhar recommended the
reorganisation of states on the basis of
32. Which of the following rights have been
administrative convenience.
conferred to the Overseas Citizen of India 2. The JVP committee rejected language as the
Cardholder? basis for the reorganisation of states.
1. He shall be eligible for election as President 3. The Fazal Ali Commission accepted the
and Vice-President. theme of one language-one state formula.
2. He shall be entitled to registration as a How many of the above statements are correct?
voter. (a) Only one
3. He shall be eligible for appointment to (b) Only two
public services and posts in connection (c) All three
with affairs of the Union or of any State. (d) None

(9-F)
SIA-F-GS I
35. With reference to the change of names to the Which of the statements given above is/are
states/union territories, arrange the following correct?
in chronological order (a) 1 only
1. Mysore as Karnataka (b) 2 only
2. Uttaranchal as Uttarakhand (c) Both 1 and 2
3. United Provinces as Uttar Pradesh (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Orissa as Odisha
Select the correct answer using the code given 38. Consider the following pairs
below : S. Amended
Amendments
No provisions
(a) 2-1-3-4
1. First - Provided for the
(b) 1-3-2-4
Amendment saving of laws
(c) 2-4-3-1
Act, 1951 providing for the
(d) 3-1-2-4
acquisition of
estates.
36. With reference to renunciation, consider the
2. Seventh - Extended the
following statements
Amendment reservation of seats
1. Any Indian citizen can renounce his Indian
Act, 1956 for the SCs and STs
citizenship at any time. and special
2. If such a declaration is made during a war representation for
period in which India is engaged, then the Anglo-Indians in
renunciation will be withheld by the Central the Lok Sabha and
Government. the state legislative
3. When a person renounces his Indian assemblies for a
citizenship, his/her minor child of that period of ten years
person does not lose Indian citizenship 3. Seventeenth - Prohibited the
automatically. Amendment acquisition of land
Which of the statements given above is/are Act, 1964 under personal
correct? cultivation unless
(a) 1 and 2 only the market value of
(b) 2 only the land is paid as
(c) 3 only compensation.
(d) 2 and 3 only 4. Forty-Fourth - Restored the
Amendment jurisdiction of the
37. With reference to the amendment by a special Act, 1978 Supreme Court and
the high courts with
majority of the Parliament, consider the
respect to judicial
following statements.
review and issue of
1. A special majority means only the majority
writs.
of two-thirds of the members of each House
How many of the above pairs are correctly
present and voting.
matched?
2. Under this clause, amendments can be
(a) Only one
made to fundamental rights, directive
(b) Only two
principles of State Policy and the Goods and
(c) Only three
Services Tax Council. (d) All four

(10-F)
SIA-F-GS I
39. What are the federal features adopted in the 41. Consider the following:

Indian Constitution? States where

S. Wildlife
they are
1. Veto Over State Bills No Sanctuaries
located
2. All-India Services
1. Rollapadu Wildlife - Telangana
3. Division of Powers
sanctuaries
4. Dual Polity 2. Thanthai Periyar - Tamil Nadu
5. Appointment of Governor Wildlife
Select the correct answer using the code given sanctuaries

below : 3. Wayanad Wildlife - Kerala

sanctuary
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
How many of the above pairs are correctly
(b) 3 and 4 only
matched?
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(a) Only one Pair
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Only two Pair
(c) All three Pair
40. With reference to features of Parliamentary (d) None of the pairs

government, consider the following statements.

42. Consider the following statements:
1. The leader of the majority party is
Statement-I:
appointed as the Prime Minister by the
The Indian Gharial species can tolerate
President.
temperatures from 23°Celsius to
2. The Council of Ministers are collectively 35°Celsius.
responsible to the Parliament. Statement-II:
3. A person cannot be a minister without The Indian Gharial species are not found in

being a member of the Parliament. Rajasthan.

Which one of the following is correct in respect
4. The Prime Minister is the leader of the
of the above statements?
Council of Ministers, the leader of the
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Parliament and the leader of the party in
correct, and Statement-II explains
power. Statement-I.
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct? correct, but Statement-II doesn't explain

(a) 1 and 2 only Statemen-I.

(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
incorrect.
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct.

(11-F)
SIA-F-GS I
43. With reference to India, "Kolam, Gadaba and 45. Consider the following:

Chuktia Bhunjia" is associated with S. Environmental

Objective
No Conventions
(a) Dance forms
1. Minamata - To protect from
(b) Intricate Floral Art
Convention Mercury pollution
(c) Tribal Groups 2. Basel - Trans-boundary

(d) Festivals Convention movement of

Hazardous Waste
3. Rotterdam - Prior informed
44. Consider the following:
Convention consent was
Statement-I:
required for trade
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a in Nuclear

statutory organization that aims to prevent Chemicals and

pesticides.
the control and abatement of both air and
4. Stockholm - Protect the
water pollution.
Convention environment from
Statement-II: ozone pollution.
The CPCB is constituted under the How many of the above pairs given above is/are

Environmental Protection Act 1986. correctly matched?

(a) Only one Pair
Which one of the following is correct in respect
(b) Only two Pair
of the above statements?
(c) Only three Pair
(a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (d) All four Pair

correct, and Statement-II explains

Statement-I. 46. What is Micellar Water, recently mentioned in

the news:
(b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(a) It is very gentle solution to remove
correct, but Statement-II doesn't explain
impurities from your skin.
Statemen-I. (b) It is a molecular water consumed by

(c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is astronauts in space.

(c) It is a nutrient fortified water, mostly
incorrect.
consumed by sports personnel.
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is
(d) A biosensor used for accurate detection of
correct.
pathogens in water.

(12-F)
SIA-F-GS I
47. The term "Brumation" recently seen in the news 50. Consider the following statements:
is related to, 1. Coal Mine Provident Fund Organisation
(a) It is a period of Dormancy or slowed activity was established in the year 1948 to
seen in reptiles. provide social security benefits for coal
(b) A state of dormancy during hot and dry sector workers.
periods 2. The Organization works under the aegis of
(c) A short state of reduced physiological
Ministry of Coal.
activity, typically lasting for hours or days
3. C-DAC launched C-CARES portal to
(d) It is a period of high fertility in insects,
facilitate settlement of Provident fund and
where the climatic condition support higher
pension claims of coal sector workers.
reproduction
How many of the above statements is/ are
correct?
48. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Only one
the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation
(AMOC): (b) Only two

1. AMOC is driven by temperature and salinity (c) All three

differences, playing a crucial role in (d) None

redistributing heat globally.
2. A collapse of AMOC could lead to colder
European winters and a rise in Atlantic Sea
levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Consider the followings statements:

1. Central Processing Centre provides
centralized processing of applications for
voluntary closure of companies.
2. Ministry of Corporate affairs operationalize
central processing centres to facilitate Ease
of Doing Business.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

(13-F)
SIA-F-GS I