Chapter 7-11

Multiple Choice Questions

1) the phenomenon in Schizophrenia, known as 'downward drift' means which of the following?

a) Falling to the bottom of the social ladder

b) Become homeless

c) Inability to hold down a job

d) All of the above

Check your answer

2) Historically, Dementia praecox was a disease first identified by?

a) Freud

b) Beck

c) Watson

d) Kraepelin

Check your answer

3) In Schizophrenia psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations delusions, disorganised speech and

grossly disorganised or catatonic behaviours are known as:

a) Negative symptoms

b) Positive symptoms

c) Mediating symptoms

d) Catastrophic symptoms

Check your answer

4) Misinterpretation of perceptions or experiences in Schizophrenia are known as:

a) Hallucinations

b) Misperceptions

c) Delusions

d) Avolition

Check your answer

5)In Schizophrenia when an individual believes they are in danger, this is referred to as:

a) Delusions of grandeur

b) Delusions of persecution

c) Delusions of control

d) Nihilistic delusions

Check your answer

6) Which of the following refers to when an individual with Schizophrenia believes they are someone
with fame or power?

a) Delusions of grandeur

b) Delusions of control

c) Delusions of reference

d) Nihilistic delusions

Check your answer

7) In Schizophrenia the when an individual believes that messages are being sent directly to him or
her, this is referred to as:

a) Delusions of persecution

b) Nihilistic delusions

c) Delusions of reference

d) Delusions of persecution

Check your answer

8) Which of the following ways might hallucinations be experienced in Schizophrenia,?

a) Auditory

b) Olfactory

c) Gustatory

d) All of the above

Check your answer

9) In Schizophrenia a reality-monitoring deficit refers to which of the following:

 a) Problems distinguishing between thoughts and ideas they generated themselves

b) Problems with memory loss

c) Problems with spatial ability

d) Problems distinguishing between what actually occurred and what did not

Check your answer

10) Which of the following come under the term disorganised speech In Schizophrenia?

a) Derailment

b) Loose associations

c) Word salads

d) All of the above

Check your answer

11) In schizophrenia when an individual has disorganised speech the term 'clanging' refers to:

a) Individuals only communicate with words that rhyme

b) Answers to questions may not be relevant

c) Individuals communicate without completing their sentences.

d) Speech may be neither structured nor comprehensible

Check your answer

12) 'poverty of content' in Schizophrenia is when::

a) Speech appears to be detailed in terms of numbers of words, but is grammatically

incorrect

b) A tendency to jump from one topic to another within a sentence

c) Poor use of vocabulary

d) Poor use of grammar

Check your answer

13) Catatonic Behaviour in Schizophrenia is characterised by which if the following:

a) Resisting attempts to be moved

b) Maintaining rigid, immobile postures

 c) Decrease in reactivity to the environment

d) All of the above

Check your answer

14) Grossly Disorganised Behaviour in Schizophrenia is characterised by which of the following?

a) Behaviour may be childlike and silly and inappropriate for the perso's chronological
age

b) Behaviour may be inappropriate to the context

c) Behaviour may be unpredictable and agitated

d) All of the above

Check your answer

15) Affective flattening in Schizophrenia Is characterised by which of the following

a) Expressionless and unresponsive facial appearance

b) Lack of eye contact

c) Monotonous voice tone

d) All of the above

Check your answer

16) In Schizophrenia, the term anhedonia refers to?

a) An inability to enjoy food

b) An inability to express empathy

c) An inability to react to enjoyable or pleasurable events

d) An inability to react appropriately to social cues

Check your answer

17) Paranoid schizophrenia is a sub-type of Schizophrenia which is characterised by:

a) The presence of disorganised behaviour and flat or inappropriate affect

b) The presence of delusions or auditory hallucinations

c) The severe disturbances of motor behaviour

d) A lack of prominent positive symptoms with evidence of on-going negative

symptoms
Check your answer

18) ) A sub-type of Schizophrenia known as Catatonic schizophrenia is characterised by:

a) The severe disturbances of motor behaviour

b) The presence of disorganised behaviour and flat or inappropriate affect

c) The presence of delusions or auditory hallucinations

d) A lack of prominent positive symptoms with evidence of on-going negative

symptoms

Check your answer

19) A sub-type of Schizophrenia known as Residual Type schizophrenia is characterised by:

a) The presence of delusions or auditory hallucinations

b) A lack of prominent positive symptoms with evidence of on-going negative

symptoms

c) The presence of disorganised behaviour and flat or inappropriate affect

d) The severe disturbances of motor behaviour

Check your answer

20)In the Prodromal stage in Schizophrenia which of the following symptoms are evident:

a) Slow withdrawal from normal life and social interaction

b) Shallow and inappropriate emotions

c) Deterioration in personal care

d) All of the above

Check your answer

21) In the Active Stage in Schizophrenia which of the following symptoms are evident?

a) Delusions

b) Disordered speech and communication

c) Halluciantions

d) All of the above

Check your answer

22) In Schizophrenia the diathesis-stress perspective refers to which combination?

 a) Low self esteem and environmental stress

b) Genetically-inherited biological factors and environmental stress

c) Gender and environmental stress

d) Intelligence and life stress

Check your answer

23) When blood samples are collected in order to study the inheritance patterns within families that
have members diagnosed with schizophrenia. This is known as:

a) Genetic linkage analyses

b) Hemo-predisposition analysis

c) Genetic blood work

d) Psychoz-biological analysis

Check your answer

24) The biochemical theory of schizophrenia known as the Dopamine hypothesis refers to:

a) Insufficient Dopamine activity

b) Contaminated Dopamine

c) Excess Dopamine activity

d) Allergic sensitivity to Dopamine

Check your answer

25) Antipsychotic drugs such as the phenothiazines are used to help treat Schizophrenia, by:

a) Blocking the brain's dopamine receptor sites and so reducing dopamine activity

b) Increasing brain Dopamine activity

c) Replacing Dopamine with Norepinepeherine

d) Preventing re-uptake of Seretonin

Check your answer

26) Amphetamine psychosis results in disturbed behaviour patterns by:

a) Blocking the brain's dopamine receptor sites and so reducing dopamine activity
 b) `Increasing brain dopamine activity

c) Increasing production of Norepinepherine

d) Increasing levels of Cortisol

Check your answer

27) According to psychodynamic theories of Schizophrenia psychosis is caused by regression to a

previous ego state. This is known as:

a) Ego Defence

b) Discounting

c) Primary narcissism

d) Primary reformulation

Check your answer

28) Individuals with Schizophrenia who cannot infer the beliefs, attitudes and intentions of others
are said to lack:

a) Theory of Mind

b) Intelligence

c) Self esteem

d) Sense of self

Check your answer

29) in the sociogenic hypothesis of Schizophrenia which of the following are factors?

a) Stressors are associated with unemployment, poor educational levels, crime and
poverty generally

b) Jelaousy of people in a higher socioeconomic class

c) Childhood in a low socioeconomic class

d) Lack of education

Check your answer

30) Social labelling' in Schizophrenia is characterised by which of the following features?

a) Others will begin to behave differently towards sufferers, and define any deviant
behaviour as a symptom of schizophrenia
 b) The person who is diagnosed may themselves assume a 'role' as someone who has a
disorder, and play that role to the detriment of other - perhaps more adaptive - roles

c) The individual generates a self-fulfilling prophecy, in which a diagnosis leads to the

individual, their family and friends behaving in ways which are likely to maintain pathological
symptom

d) All of the above

Check your answer

Chapter 8
Multiple Choice Questions

1) With Barbiturate and Benzodiazepine Abuse and Dependency, sedative intoxication is generally
associated with:

a) Slurred speech

b) Uncoordinated motor movements

c) Impairment in attention and memory

d) All of the above

Check your answer

2) Which of the following is derived from the hemp plant "cannabis sativa"?

a) Opium

b) Marijuana

c) MDMA

d) Crack

Check your answer

3) A synthetic form of opium was developed by Germany during WWII. This is known as?

a) Prednisalone

b) Cortisone

c) Methadone

d) Polyheroin

Check your answer

4) A long-term user of cocaine may well develop symptoms of other psychological disorders, such as:
 a) Major depression

b) Social phobia

c) Eating disorders

d) All of the above

Check your answer

5) Amotivational syndrome in cannabis users suggests that those who use cannabis regualry are
more likely to:

a) Exhibit apathy

b) Exhibit loss of ambition

c) Have difficulty concentrating

d) All of the above

Check your answer

6) Lysergic Acid Diethylamide (LSD) starts to take effect around 30 to 90 minutes after taking it and
physical effects include:

a) Raised body temperature

b) Increased heart rate and blood pressure

c) Sleeplessness

d) All of the above

Check your answer

7) Individuals with Hallucinogen Dependency can spend many hours and even days recovering from
the effects of the drug some hallucinogens - such as MDMA - are often associated with physical
'hangover' symptoms. Which of the following are MDMA hangovers?

a) Insomnia

b) Fatigue

c) Drowsiness

d) All of the above

Check your answer

8) Which of the following is an important factor in substance abuse?

 a) Whether the substances are regularly used by other family members

b) Whether the family environment is rural or urban

c) Whether you are a twin

d) Whether you are born in the winter

Check your answer

9) The alcohol intoxicated individual has less cognitive capacity available to process all on-going
information, and so alcohol acts to narrow attention and means that the drinker processes fewer
cues less well. This is known as:

a) Alcohol myopia

b) Alcohol dependency

c) Alcohol abuse

d) Alcohol amnesia

Check your answer

10) In substance abuse, the term self-medication refers to?

a) Amelioration of psychological distress thorough substance use

b) Doctors prescribing their own drugs

c) Motive for using a substance

d) Deciding the drug of choice

Check your answer

11) Community-based services to offer support in substance abuse consist of self help services such
as?

a) Alcoholics Anonymous

b) Crack Crack

c) Cannabis Collective

d) Hashish Home

Check your answer

12) Drug-prevention schemes targeting young people and their parents who may be specifically at
risk provide:
 a) 24-hour telephone help lines

b) Internet web-sites

c) Treatment, and availability

d) All of the above

Check your answer

13) Local community drug prevention schemes have used which of the following?

a) Peer-pressure resistance training

b) Peer pressure

c) Peer promotion

d) Peer propaganda

Check your answer

14) Which of the following are treatments offered by residential rehabilitation centres?

a) Group work

b) Psychological interventions

c) Social skills training

d) All of the above

Check your answer

15) In aversion therapy clients are given their drug followed immediately by another drug that
causes unpleasant physiological reactions such as nausea and sickness. Rather than physically
administering these drugs in order to form an aversive conditioned response the client to imagine
taking their drug followed by imagining some upsetting or repulsive consequence. The variant on
aversion therapy is known as:

a) Covert sensitisation

b) Inverted de-sensitization

c) Overt desensitisation

d) Covert habituation

Check your answer

16) Behavioural Self-Control Training (BSCT) is based on conditioning principles. These include which
of the following?
 a) Stimulus control

b) Using rewards to reinforce abstinence

c) Learning to be aware of when and how frequently drug taking occurs

d) All of the above

Check your answer

17) Which of the following is an assumption of controlled drinking, which is a variant of Behavioural
Self-Control Training (BSCT)?

a)

In modern day western societies it is difficult to avoid alcohol altogether

b) Ensuring that alcohol consumption stays within the legal limit.

c) Making sure one never goes to the pub too late

d) Making one's own alcohol

Check your answer

18) In cognitive behavioural therapy for substance abuse individuals may hold dysfunctional beliefs
such as "If I lapse then my treatment will have failed" or "I have had one drink so I may as well get
drunk". These are known as:

a) Abstinence violation beliefs

b) Controlled drinking

c) Amotivational syndrome

d) Impulsive drinking

Check your answer

19) Detoxification is a process of systematic and supervised withdrawal from substance use that is
either managed in a residential setting or on an outpatient basis. Drug use during detoxification can
take which of the following forms?

a) Help reduce withdrawal symptoms

b) Prevent relapse

c) To wean a user onto a weaker substance

d) All of the above

Check your answer

20) In biological treatments of substance abuse an example of a user being weaned onto a weaker
substance would be which of the following?

a) Methadone maintenance programmes

b) Controlled drinking

c) Barbiturate ban

d) Amphetamine amnesty

Check your answer

21) Antabuse or disulfiram affects the metabolism of alcohol so that the normal process of
converting toxic alcohol products into non-toxic acetic acids is slowed. Which of the following are
problems associated with Antabuse?

a) It is rarely effective when patients are given the drug to take unsupervised

b) Drop-out from such programmes are high

c) In some rare cases causes liver disease

d) All of the above

Check your answer

22) Which of the following drugs are used to treat substance use disorders by attaching to endorphin
receptor sites in the brain?

a) Naltrexone

b) Naxolone

c) Buprenorfine

d) All of the above

Check your answer

23) Growing evidence to suggest that nicotine has its effects by:

a) Releasing serotonin into the cerebellum

b) Releasing dopamine in the mesolimbic system of the brain

c) Releasing GABA into the hypothalamus

d) Releasing acetylcholine into the diencephalons

Check your answer

24) Alcohol Dependence is supported specifically by evidence of tolerance effects and withdrawal
symptoms that develop within:

a) 1-2 hours of restricted consumption

b) 3-6 hours of restricted consumption

c) 4-12 hours of restricted consumption

d) 12-24 hours of restricted consumption

Check your answer

25) The term psychological dependence is used when:

a) It is clear that the individual has changed their life to ensure continued use of the
drug

b) Their activities are centred on the drug and its use

c) Leads to neglect of other important activities such as work, social and family
commitments

d) All of the above

Check your answer

26) Which of the following is an example of a substance use disorder (SUD)?

a) Alcohol related disorders

b) Caffeine related disorders

c) Inhalant related disorders

d) All of the above

Check your answer

27) Which of the following is not a hallucinogenic?

a) Cannabis

b) MDMA

c) LSD

d) Antibiotics

Check your answer

28) In the UK a male 'hazardous drinker' would consume how many drinks on a typical drinking day?

a) 5 or more standard drinks

b) 10 or more standard drinks

c) 7 or more standard drinks

d) 4 or more standard drinks

Check your answer

29) Following withdrawal after extended heavy drinking over a number of years, the drinker may
experience:

a) Delirium tremens (DTs)

b) Saccadian Dysrhythmia

c) Homeostasis

d) Leptocurtic reaction

Check your answer

30) Which of the following are the consequences of vitamin and mineral deficiencies which can lead
to dementia and memory disorders in alcohol abuse?

a) Smirnoff's syndrome

b) Korsakoff's syndrome

c) Helmert syndrome

d) Huynh-Feldt syndrome

Check your answer

Chapter 9
Multiple Choice Questions

1) Which of the following is a diagnostic criterion for anorexia nervosa in DSM-IV-TR?

a) A refusal to maintain a minimal body weight

b) A pathological fear of gaining weight

c) A distorted body image in which, even when clearly emaciated, sufferers continue to
insist they are overweight
 d) All of the above

Check your answer

2) In Restricted Type anorexia nervosa, self-starvation is NOT associated with which of the following?

a) Concurrent purging

b) Socialising

c) Body dysmorphic issues

d) Eating only certain food types

Check your answer

3) In Binge-Eating/Purging Type anorexia nervosa, self-starvation is associated with:

a) Not eating to help control weight gain

b) Not being bothered about weight gain

c) Regularly engaging in purging activities to help control weight gain

d) Eating only certain food types

Check your answer

4) High rates of comorbidity exist between anorexia and other Axis I and Axis II disorders. What
percentage of anorexia sufferers who also have a lifelong diagnosis of major depression?

a) 50-68%

b) 30-40%

c) 20-30%

d) 70-80%

Check your answer

5) In Bulimia Nervosa, the purging sub-type, vomiting is the most common form of purging. What
percentage of sufferers present with this type of purging?

a) 50-60%

b) 80-90%

c) 15-25%

d) 50-60%

Check your answer

6) In Bulimia nervosa, the nonpurging sub-type, a behaviour which is used to compensate for binging
is

a) Exercise

b) Controlling intake of certain food types

c) Withdrawing from social interaction

d) Controlling carbohydrate intake

Check your answer

7) Individuals with bulimia have a perceived lack of control over their eating behaviour, and often
report which of the following?

a) High levels of self-disgust

b) Low self-esteem

c) High levels of depression

d) All of the above

Check your answer

8) Evidence suggests a link between bulimia and Axis II borderline personality disorders (BPD). What
percent of women with bulimia meet the criteria for a personality disorder?

a) 45-55%

b) 33-61%

c) 20-30%

d) 60-65%

Check your answer

9) Which of the following figures represents the prevalence of binge-eating disorder in the general
population?

a) 1-3%

b) 5-10%

c) 15-18%

d) 7-9%

Check your answer

10) St. Catherine of Siena began self-starvation at the age of 16 years and continued until her death
in 1380 (at the age of 32). This was termed by Bell (1985) as?

a) Anorexia nervosa

b) Religious fervour

c) Holy Anorexia

d) Saintly anorexia

Check your answer

11) In the 17th century, which of the following terms was used to describe a disorder characterised
by large food intake followed by vomiting?

a) Bulimia nervosa

b) Vomitoria

c) Fames canina

d) Nuxcanina

Check your answer

12) Pick one of the following familial factors that plays a role in the development of eating
disorders?

a) Parental attitudes to sex

b) Parental obesity

c) Parental attitudes to the media

d) Parental attitudes to education

Check your answer

13) Community based twin studies suggest a heritability component of eating disorders which may
be greater than:

a) 20%

b) 80%

c) 50%

d) 10%

Check your answer

14) In animal research, lesions to which part of the brain have been shown to cause appetite loss,
resulting in a self-starvation syndrome?

a) a) Lateral hypothalamus

b) b) Cerebellum

c) c) Amygdala

d) d) Basal ganglia

Check your answer

15) Biological accounts of anorexia and bulimia suggest that maintaining a low body weight and self-
starvation may be reinforced by:

a) Endogenous opioids

b) Serotonin

c) Endorphins

d) Dopamine

Check your answer

16) Research of bulimia nervosa has found low levels of:

a) Alpha-dopamine

b) Beta-serotonin

c) Beta-endorphin

d) Alpha-amphetamine

Check your answer

17) Body dissatisfaction is defined by Polivy & Herman (2002) as:

a) The gap between one's actual weight and that of your best friend

b) The gap between one's actual and ideal weight and shape

c) The gap between one's actual weight and childhood weight

d) The number of things you would like to change about your body

Check your answer

18) Body dissatisfaction is associated with triggering bouts of:

 a) Purging

b) Binging

c) Dieting

d) Shopping

Check your answer

19) Which of the following is a prominent characteristic of individuals with eating disorders?

a) High self esteem

b) Low self esteem

c) High levels of responsibility

d) Narcissism

Check your answer

20) Which of the following characteristics has regularly been implicated in the aetiology of eating
disorders?

a) Perfectionism

b) Narcissism

c) Extraversion

d) Introversion

Check your answer

21) Prevention programmes are employed to put eating disorders into a social context. School-based
prevention programmes emphasise:

a) The role the media plays in developing extreme body shape ideals

b) The need for healthy, balanced eating

c) The need for individuals to develop positive rather than negative attitudes to their
bodies

d) All of the above

Check your answer

22) Anorexia and bulimia are frequently comorbid with major depression, thus eating disorders have
tended to be treated pharmacologically with which of the following?
 a) Antipsychotics

b) Antibiotics

c) Antihistamine

d) Antidepressants

Check your answer

23) Which of the following is a common treatment for bulimia?

a) Family therapy

b) Cognitive Behaviour Therapy

c) Psychodynamic therapy

d) Humanistic therapy

Check your answer

24) One of the most common treatments for eating disorders is:

a) Electro-convulsive therapy

b) Medication

c) Family therapy

d) Aversion therapy

Check your answer

25) In the DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa, which of the following is considered to
be a risk factor?

a) Disturbance in the way in which one's body weight or shape is experienced

b) Undue influence of body weight or shape on self-evaluation

c) Denial of the seriousness of the current low body weight

d) All of the above

Check your answer

26) A binge-eating episode is associated with which of the following according to the DSM-IV-TR
diagnostic criteria for binge eating disorder?

a) Eating much more rapidly than normal

b) Eating until feeling uncomfortably ill

 c) Eating large amounts of food when not feeling physically hungry

d) All of the above

Check your answer

27) The National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE) proposes that treatment for managing weight
gain for anorexia nervosa should include which of the following?

a) In most patients, an average weekly weight gain of 0.5-1 kg as inpatient and 0.5 kg
as outpatient

b) Regular physical monitoring, and oral multivitimin/multimineral supplement in some

cases, is recommended for inpatients and outpatients.

c) Total parenteral nutrition should not be used, unless there is significant

gastrointestinal dysfunction

d) All of the above

Check your answer

28) Selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors (specifically fluoxetine) are used to treat bulimia due to
their:

a) Acceptability

b) Tolerability

c) Reduction of symptoms

d) All of the above

Check your answer

29) The Body Mass Index (BMI) measure indicates that one would be considered overweight with a
BMI of:

a) 45-59.9

b) 20.9-30.9

c) 25-29.9

d) 55-69.9

Check your answer

30) Which of the following is a laboratory procedure developed to provide an objective behavioural
measure of the tendency to binge eat?
 a) Palatability test

b) Food pre-load test

c) Full capacity test

d) Fully loaded test

Check your answer

Chapter 10
Multiple Choice Questions

1) Sexual dysfunction is one category of disorders of sexuality and sexual functioning. The term
sexual dysfunction refers to:

a) Problems with the normal sexual response cycle

b) Sexual urges or fantasies involving unusual sources of gratification problems

c) An individual is dissatisfied with their own biological sex and have a strong desire to
be a member of the opposite sex.

d) Problems with sexual fantasies

Check your answer

2) In disorders of sexuality and sexual functioning, the term paraphilias refers to:

a) Problems with the normal sexual response cycle

b) Sexual urges or fantasies involving unusual sources of gratification problems

c) An individual is dissatisfied with their own biological sex and have a strong desire to
be a member of the opposite sex.

d) Problems with sexual fantasies

Check your answer

3) In disorders of sexuality and sexual functioning, the term gender identity disorder refers to:

a) Problems with the normal sexual response cycle

b) Sexual urges or fantasies involving unusual sources of gratification problems

c) Problems with sexual fantasies

d) An individual is dissatisfied with their own biological sex and have a strong desire to
be a member of the opposite sex

Check your answer

4) Sexual aversion disorder is associated with which of the following?

a) Anxiety

b) Disgust

c) Fear

d) All of the above

Check your answer

5) Female Sexual Arousal Disorder is defined primarily in terms of a deficiency in a physical or

physiological response, and as a result may be caused by a range of physical or physiological factors,
including:

a) Hormone imbalances

b) Diabetes

c) Medications being taken for other disorders

d) All of the above

Check your answer

6) Which of the following is characteristic of Male Erectile Disorder?

a) A failure to attain an erection from the outset of sexual activity,

b) First experiencing an erection but then losing tumescence prior to penetration

c) Losing tumescence during penetration but prior to orgasm

d) All of the above

Check your answer

7) The term performance anxiety refers to:

a) Fear of failing to achieve a sustained erection

b) Fear of having sex in a public place

c) Fear of criticism from the sexual partner

d) Fear of not achieving orgasm

Check your answer

8) Which of the following is the term for the experience of persistent or recurrent delay in or
absence of orgasm following normal sexual excitement which causes the individual marked distress
or interpersonal difficulty?

a) Dysfunctional Orgasmic Disorder

b) Aclimactic Disorder

c) Female Orgasmic Disorder

d) Female Climactic Disorder

Check your answer

9) Genital pains that can occur before, during or after sexual intercourse, and can occur in both
males and females are known as:

a) Dyspareunia

b) Dysmenhorea

c) Dyskinesia

d) Dyspraxia

Check your answer

10) The involuntary contraction of the perineal muscles surrounding the outer third of the vagina
when vaginal penetration is attempted is termed:

a) Perinealitis

b) Perivaginitis

c) Vaginitis

d) Vaginismus

Check your answer

11) In men, erectile dysfunction is associated with high levels of which of the following?

a) Testosterone

b) Prolactin

c) Estrogen

d) Prostaglandin

Check your answer

12) Which of the following is a direct treatment method which deals with symptoms of erectile
dysfunction or male and female orgasmic disorder?

a) Squeeze technique

b) Tickle technique

c) Tease technique.

d) Stroke technique

Check your answer

13) A common drug treatment for sexual dysfunction is Viagra. What is the generic term for this?

a) Fluoxitine

b) Metronydasol

c) Diclofenac

d) Sildenafil citrate

Check your answer

14) Yohimbine is a drug used to treat erectile dysfunctions, it works by:

a) Facilitating dopamine production brain

b) Facilitating norepinephrine excretion in the brain

c) Facilitating serotonin excretion in the brain

d) Facilitating testosterone production

Check your answer

15) Which of the following can be used to treatment erectile dysfunction?

a) Hoover erection device (HED)

b) Vacuum erection device (VED)

c) Piston erection tool (PET)

d) Erectile dysfunction pump (EDP)

Check your answer

16) A diagnosis of fetishism involves which of the following?

 a) Intense sexually arousing fantasies that occur while observing an unsuspecting
person who is naked, in the process of undressing, or engaging in a sexual activity

b) Sexual arousal and satisfaction from the psychological or physical suffering of others

c) Intense, recurrent sexual urges to touch and rub up against non-consenting people

d) Intense sexually arousing fantasies and urges involving non-animate objects, and
this causes them personal distress or affects social and occupational functioning

Check your answer

17) The term Frotteurism means which of the following?

a) Observing an unsuspecting person who is naked, in the process of undressing, or

engaging in a sexual activity

b) Sexual fantasies about exposing the penis to a stranger

c) Intense, recurrent sexual urges to touch and rub up against non-consenting people

d) Sexual arousal and satisfaction from the psychological and physical suffering of
others

Check your answer

18) Which of the following is a paraphilia involving sexual fantasies about exposing the penis to a
stranger, which are usually strong and recurrent to the point where the individual feels a compulsion
to expose himself?

a) Voyeurism

b) Expositionism

c) Exhibitionism

d) Frotteurism

Check your answer

19) Paedophiles become sexually aroused by sexually immature children, an alternative term for this
type of behaviour is:

a) Non consent molesters

b) Minor molester

c) Preference molesters

d) Pree-teen molester

Check your answer

20) The term hypersexuality refers to high rates of sexual activity, and has been linked with which of
the following?

a) Paraphilias

b) Anxiety

c) Depression

d) All of the above

Check your answer

21) Psychodynamic explanations of sexual sadism propose that the sadist is searching relief from
castration anxiety by:

a) Dressing in womens clothing

b) Taking on the role of castrator rather than castrated

c) Seeking out partners who have been castrated

d) Performing castration on a consenting partner

Check your answer

22) Which of the following terms were used by Polaschek & Ward (2002) to describe the concept
that, sex offenders may have developed integrated cognitive schemata that guide the offender's
interactions with their victims and justify their behaviour?

a) Justified actions

b) Cognitive dissonance

c) Implicit Theories

d) Responsibility bias

Check your answer

23) A form of aversion therapy where rather than actually experience the pairing of sexual stimuli
with aversive outcomes, the client imagines these associations during controlled treatment sessions
is known as:

a) Classical conditioning

b) Operant conditioning

c) Covert conditioning

d) Overt conditioning
Check your answer

24) The aim of Orgasmic Reorientation treatment for paraphilias is to:

a) Pair inappropriate or distressing sexual activities with an aversive stimulus

b) Suppress inappropriate or distressing sexual activities through drug

c) Suppress inappropriate or distressing sexual activities through castration

d) Suppress inappropriate or distressing sexual activities and replace them with

acceptable sexual practices

Check your answer

25) When some individuals develop feelings that they have a sense of gender that is opposite to the
biological sex they were born with, this is known as:

a) Cross gender disorder

b) Gender dysphoria

c) Gender incompatibility disorder

d) Bi-gender disorder

Check your answer

26) The DSM-IV-TR diagnostic criteria for Gender Identity Disorder (GID) involves which of the
following?

a) The individual exhibits a strong and persistent cross-gender identification

b) There must be clear evidence of persistent discomfort with their existing biological
sex, and strong feelings of their current gender role being inappropriate

c) There must be evidence of significant distress or impairment in social, occupational,

or other important areas of functioning as a result of these feelings

d) All of the above

Check your answer

27) In the treatment of sexual dysfunctions, it is important that the client is able to guide their own
behaviour and reduce anxiety. Which of the following is a means of achieving this?

a) Meditation

b) Partner-instructional training

c) Self-instructional training
 d) Group therapy

Check your answer

28) Sexual masochists can often cause their own suffering, when an individual uses a noose or plastic
bag to induce oxygen deprivation during masturbation, this is known as:

a) Necrophilia

b) Hypoxyphilia

c) Corpophilia

d) Paedophilia

Check your answer

29) Sexual dysfunction may be closely associated with relationship problems. One way that this can
be explored is through:

a) Psychoanalysis

b) Self instructional training

c) Couples therapy

d) Orgasmic reorientation training

Check your answer

30) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a risk factor for the development of paraphilias?

a) Early drug abuse

b) Hypersexuality

c) Childhood abuse

d) Childhood neglect

Check your answer

Chapter 11
Multiple Choice Questions

1) Personality disorders (PD) consist of a loosely-bound cluster of sub-types. Which of the following
common features are evident in PD?

a) they are characterized by an enduring pattern of behaviour that deviates markedly

from expectations within that culture
 b) they are associated with unusual ways of interpreting events, unpredictable mood
swings, or impulsive behaviour

c) they result in impairments in social and occupational functioning

d) All of the above

Check your answer

2) Which of the following is the most well-known of the Personality disorders ?

a) Borderline Personality Disorder

b) Melancholic Personality Disorder

c) Associative Personality Disorder

d) Dissociative Personality Disorder

Check your answer

3) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of individuals with paranoid personality disorder

a) avoidance of close relationships

b) avoidance of public places

c) are often spontaneously aggressive to others

d) often feel that they have been deeply and irreversibly betrayed by others

Check your answer

4) An Individual with a schizotypal personality disorder will usually exhibit which of the following
characteristics?

a) eccentric' behaviour marked by odd patterns of thinking and communication

b) discomfort with close personal relationships

c) often exhibit unusual ideas of reference

d) All of the above

Check your answer

5) Which of the following is a subtype of Dramatic/Emotional Personality Disorders (Cluster B)

a) Paranoid Personality Disorder

b) Schizotypical Personality Disorder

c) Histrionic Personality Disorder

 d) Schizoid Personality Disorder

Check your answer

6) The term 'sociopath' or 'psychopath' is sometimes used to describe which type of personality
disorder

a) Histrionic Personality Disorder

b) Antisocial Personality Disorder APD

c) Paranoid Personality Disorder

d) Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Check your answer

7) An individual with narcissistic personality disorder will routinely overestimate their abilities and
inflate their accomplishments, and this is characterized by which of the following?

a) a pervasive need for admiration

b) An inability to monitor reality

c) impulsive behaviour such as drug abuse

d) unusual ideas of reference

Check your answer

8) The apparent lack of empathy and the tendency to exploit others for self-benefit, has lead
psychologists to compare narcissistic personality disorder with which one of the following?

a) Histrionic Personality Disorder

b) Antisocial personality Disorder

c) Paranoid Personality Disorder

d) Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Check your answer

9) Which of the following are considered to be the main features of avoidant personality disorder?

a) persistent social inhibition

b) feelings of inadequacy

c) hypersensitivity to negative evaluation

d) All of the above

Check your answer

10) Some clinicians have come to believe that antisocial personality disorder and social phobia are
both components of a broader spectrum called:

a) Social identity spectrum

b) Broad spectrum disorder

c) social anxiety spectrum

d) generalised anxiety disorder

Check your answer

11) An Individual with Dependent Personality Disorder will exhibit which of the following?

a) submissive and clinging behaviour

b) have great difficulty making everyday decisions

c) passive behaviours

d) All of the above

Check your answer

12) An Individual with Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder will exhibit which of the following
characteristics?

a) exceptionally perfectionist tendencies

b) a preoccupation with orderliness

c) They will stick to rules

d) All of the above

Check your answer

13) Which of the following is NOT considered to be a risk factors for personality disorders ?

a) living in inner cities

b) low socioeconomic class

c) gender

d) being a young adult

Check your answer

14) The formalistic similarities between Cluster A disorders and schizophrenia have led researchers
to argue that they are part of a broader

a) Schizotypical spectrum disorder

b) schizophrenia spectrum disorder

c) social anxiety spectrum

d) Broad spectrum disorder

Check your answer

15) According to psychodynamic theory which of the following is NOT deemed to be characteristic of
the parents of an individual with paranoid personality disorder

a) demanding

b) absent

c) distant,

d) over rigid

Check your answer

16) Antisocial Personality Disorder is closely associated with criminal and antisocial behaviour.
Because of this, considerable effort has been invested in attempting which of the following?

a) to identify childhood and adolescent behaviours that may help to predict later
adolescent and adult APD

b) to ascertain whether there is an inherited or genetic component to APD

c) to identify any biological or psychological processes that may be involved in APD

d) All of the above

Check your answer

17) Personality disorders are an enduring patterns of behaviour that persist from childhood into
adulthood and because of this fact, one of the best predictors of APD in adulthood is a diagnosis of

a) Conduct disorder

b) Attention Deficit Disorder

c) Attachment Disorder

d) Childhood anxiety

Check your answer

18) Behaviour of individuals with Antisocial Personality Disorder often appears impulsive and
unpredictable due to switching quickly and unpredictably between:

a) Dysfunctional memories

b) Dysfunctional schemas

c) Dysfunctional hearing

d) Dysfunctional Balance

Check your answer

19) More recent research has linked Borderline Personality Disoder (BPD) with bipolar disorder, and
the two are often comorbid. Some individuals with BPD belong to a broader:

a) bipolar disorder spectrum

b) social anxiety spectrum

c) Social identity spectrum

d) Generalised anxiety spectrum

Check your answer

20) Evidence suggests that individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder have a number of brain
abnormalities that may give rise to impulsive behaviour. There is evidence for dysfunction in brain:

a) Circuitry

b) Dopamine

c) Anatomy

d) Corpus callosum functioning

Check your answer

21) According to psychodynamic theory individuals are sometimes motivated to respond to the
world through the perspectives they have learnt from important other people in their
developmental past. This is called:

a) Object permanence theory

b) Distorted perspective theory

c) Object-relations theory

d) Ego defence theory

Check your answer

22) Psychodynamic theories of personality disorders that individuals with weak egos engage in a
defence mechanism called:

a) Spiking

b) Splitting

c) Blanking

d) Racketeering

Check your answer

23) Narcissistic personality disorder is also closely associated with antisocial personality disorder
(APD),. Which of the following is not a way in narcissistic individuals will regularly act:

a) Self-motivated

b) Deceitful

c) Aggressive

d) Withdrawn

Check your answer

24) Which of the following is not usually associated with Avoidant Personality Disorder?

a) Low self-esteem

b) Feelings of shame

c) Feelings of guilt

d) Feelings of superiority

Check your answer

25) Which of the following is a particular example of psychodynamic treatment which attempts to
strengthen the individual's weak ego so that they are able to address issues in their life without
constantly flipping from one extreme view to another:

a) Object permanent psychotherapy

b) Selective relations psychotherapy

c) Object-relations psychotherapy

d) Goal directed psychotherapy

Check your answer

26) There is one particular form of therapy that has been successfully used to treat individuals with
personality disorders and involves providing them with insight into their dysfunctional ways of
thinking, and is designed to provide them with the necessary skills to overcome these problematic
ways of thinking and behaving. Which of the following is this therapy ?

a) Dialectical behaviour therapy

b) Psychodynamic therapy

c) Systematic desensitization

d) Exposure and response prevention

Check your answer

27) Cognitive behavioural therapy may be used to treat an individual with obsessive-compulsive
personality disorder by challenging:

a) Dysfunctional relationships

b) Dysfunctional schemata

c) Dysfunctional behaviour

d) Dysfunctional sleep patterns

Check your answer

28) In the treatments of individuals with Borderline Personality Disorder a therapist may change
dysfunctional schemata by:

a) Remothering

b) Restructuring

c) Reparenting

d) Repossessing

Check your answer

29) Which of the following could be described as a stage of schemata therapy for personality
disorder?

a) Developing self-knowledge

b) Identifying and prevent schemata avoidance responses

c) Examine the life experiences

d) All of the above

Check your answer

30) Which of the following is not a DSM-IV-TR criterion for schizoid personality disorder?

a) Neither desires nor enjoys close relationships, including being part of a family

b) Almost always chooses solitary activities

c) Has recurrent suspicions, without justification, regarding fidelity of spouse or sexual

partner

d) Shows emotional coldness, detachment, or flattened affectivity

Check your answer