UA Monthly Test 02

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. Both the State Government and the Central Government can tap phones of people
under the Indian Telegraphic Act, 1885.
2. Telephonic communication is under the Union List of the Seventh schedule of the
Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both1and2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Under Article 371-A of the Indian Constitution, the Acts of Parliament relating to which
of the following matters does not apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly so
decides?
1. religious or social practices of the Nagas
2. Naga customary law and procedure
3. administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga
customary law
4. ownership and transfer of land and its resources

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. Consider the following statements:

1. Delimitation Commission is a constitutional body set up from time to time for
readjustment to the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states, and division
of each state into territorial constituencies.
2. The orders issued by the Delimitation Commission are final and cannot be
challenged in any court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q4. With reference to Electronically Transmitted Postal Ballot System (ETPBS), consider the
following statements:
1. Voting through ETBPS is completely online, i.e., the voter receives and submits the
ballot paper through a portal developed by Election Commission of India.
2. Any registered voter can opt to vote through ETBPS.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q5. What makes Directive Principles of State Policy different from Fundamental Rights ?
 a) Fundamental Rights are positive in nature, while Directive Principles are negative in
nature.
b) Fundamental Rights are justiciable, while Directive Principles are not justiciable.
c) Fundamental Rights are absolute and sacrosanct and therefore cannot be amended,
while Directive Principles can be amended from time to time.
d) Fundamental Rights have been borrowed from the Soviet Constitution, while
Directive Principles have been borrowed from the US Constitution.

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the functions and powers of National
Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) :
1. It can inquire into complaints and take suo motu notice of matter relating to
deprivation and violation of child rights.
2. It promotes the incorporation of child rights into the school curriculum, training of
teachers or personnel dealing with children.
3. It may inspect any juvenile custodial home under the control of both Central and
State governments.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Which of the following are appointed by the President ‘by warrant under his hand and
seal’?
1. Governor of States
2. Chairperson of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
3. Judges of the High Courts
4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
5. Central Vigilance Commissioner

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3, 4 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q8. The motion to remove the Vice President of India can be moved in
a) Lok Sabha alone
b) Either House of Parliament
c) Joint sitting of Parliament
d) Rajya Sabha alone

Q9. Which of the following writs can be issued against private individuals?
1. Habeas corpus
2. Mandamus
3. Certiorari
4. Quo Warranto

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) None of these
Q10. Under the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person is disqualified from being
elected as a member of Parliament on which of the following grounds?
1. holding any office of profit under the Union or state government
2. person is an undischarged insolvent
3. person is convicted for any offence resulting in imprisonment for 6 months or more.
4. promoting enmity between different groups

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Q11. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG)?
a) CAG is an officer of the Parliament.
b) Constitution authorises the President to prescribe the duties and powers of the
CAG.
c) CAG can be removed by the President only in accordance with the procedure
mentioned in the Constitution.
d) CAG lays the audit report of Central Government before the Parliament.

Q12. With reference to Election Commission of India (ECI), consider the following
statements:
1. While ECI is empowered to register a political party, it is not empowered to de-
register a political party on the grounds of violating the Constitution.
2. ECI is empowered to settle disputes related to allotment of election symbols to
political parties.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both1and2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q13. In the context of the evolution of earth, consider the following processes:
1. Formation of oceans on earth
2. Flooding of earth’s atmosphere with Oxygen
3. Evolution of life on earth

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of occurrence of the given
processes?
a) 1-2-3
b) 1-3-2
c) 3-2-1
d) 3-1-2

Q14. Consider the following statements:

1. Cold currents are usually found on the west coast of the continents in the low and
middle latitudes.
2. In Northern Hemisphere, the eastern coast of higher latitudes are bordered by cold
currents.
3. Agulhas current which flows down the African coast is a cold current.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q15. Consider the following statements:

1. Blue carbon is the carbon stored in coastal and marine ecosystems.
2. Coastal ecosystems such as mangroves, tidal marshes, and seagrass meadows
sequester and store less carbon per unit area than terrestrial forests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q16. The terms Jeevamrutha, Bijamrita, Acchadana, and Whapasa are associated with
which type of farming?
a) Organic farming
b) Vertical Farming
c) Zero budget natural farming
d) Hydroponics

Q17. Which of the following is a freshwater lake?

a) Kolleru lake
b) Pangong Tso
c) Lonar lake
d) Pulicat lake

Q18. Consider the following statements:

1. Gir National Park is the only natural habitat of the Asiatic lion.
2. Asiatic Lions are designated as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the IUCN Red List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q19. Which of the following is/are consumer organisms?

1. Benthos
2. Nektons
3. Zooplanktons
4. Phytoplanktons
5. Protozoa

Choose the correct option:

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
Q20 Consider the following statements:
1. India has the largest population of wild one-horned rhinos in the world.
2. India has the largest population of wild tigers in the world.
3. India has the largest population of wild snow-leopards in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q21. Consider the following statements:

1. Forest Advisory Committee (FAC) is a statutory body constituted under the Forest
(Conservation) Act, 1980.
2. FAC considers questions on the diversion of forest land for non-forest uses such as
mining, industrial projects, townships and advises the government on the issue of
granting forest clearances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q22. Consider the following statements regarding the Indus river:

1. It originates in close vicinity of Lake Mansarovar.
2. After entering India, it flows between the Ladakh and the Zaskar Ranges.
3. Gilgit, Hunza and Kabul are tributaries of river Indus.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q23. Arrange the following passes from west to east:

1. Jelep la
2. Lipulekh pass
3. Diphu pass
4. Shipki la
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 4-2-1-3
b) 2-4-1-3
c) 1-4-3-2
d) 4-1-2-3

Q24. Which of the followings statements is/are correct regarding the term ‘Tidal Locking’?
1. The earth and the moon witness the Phenomenon of Tidal Locking.
2. Tidal locking causes the coasts to observe only a single ebb and flow in a day as
compared to the normal twice day phenomenon.
3. It occurs only when a lunar eclipse is in formation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only
 b) 1 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q25. Kerch Strait connects which of following water bodies?

a) Black Sea and Sea of Azov
b) Black Sea and Sea of Marmara
c) Sea of Marmara and Aegean Sea
d) Adriatic Sea and Mediterranean Sea

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the International Criminal Court (ICC) :
1. ICC was established by the Rome Statute that was signed in 1998 and came into
force in 2002.
2. ICC has no jurisdiction over the nationals of countries that have not joined the
Rome Statute, in any circumstance.
3. India is a member of the ICC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q27. Which of the following organizations are part of World Bank group ?
1. International Finance Corporation
2. International Monetary Fund
3. Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency
4. International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q28. With reference to the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), consider the following
statements:
1. All its members are from Asia and Africa.
2. It is headquartered at Jeddah, Saudi Arabia.
3. India is not a member of OIC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q29. World Inequality Report is published by

(a) Paris School of Economics
(b) Oxfam
(c) Economist Intelligence Unit
(d) World Economic Forum
Q30. Consider the following pairs:
International agreement Subject
1. Beijing Declaration Gender equality
2. Astana Declaration Primary healthcare
3. Yogyakarta Principles Rights of cross-border refugees
4. Istanbul Convention Mental healthcare

Which of the pairs above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Q31. Among the following, which one is the largest producer of crude oil in the world in the
last five years?
(a) USA
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Russia
(d) Iraq

Q32. Consider the following statements with reference to India’s external debt:
1. Commercial borrowings are the largest component of India’s external debt.
2. The share of short-term debt is more than the share of long-term debt in India’s
total external debt
3. US dollar denominated debt forms the largest component of India’s external debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q33. Consider the following statements :

1. Insurance density is defined as ratio of premium underwritten in a given year to the
Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
2. Insurance penetration is the ratio of premium underwritten in a given year to the
total population.
3. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) is a statutory
body that regulates insurance sector in India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None

Q34. With reference to National Agriculture Market (eNAM), consider the following
statements:
1. Central Warehousing Corporation is the lead agency for implementing eNAM.
2. Presently, only food grains and cereals are allowed to be traded on eNAM.
3. eNAM can help in providing better price discovery for farmers through transparent
auction process.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q35. Model Concession Agreement is associated with

(a) Public Private Partnership (PPP) projects
(b) Recapitalization of Banks
(c) Interest Subvention Scheme for MSMEs
(d) Education loans scheme

Q36. Consider the following statements regarding World Trade Organization (WTO):
1. The countries with GDP per capita of more than $5000 are categorised as developed
countries by WTO.
2. All decisions are made by consensus of its members
3. WTO’s Ministerial Conference meeting takes place every year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q37. Consider the following statements regarding National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI):
1. It is an initiative of Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
2. It is a statutory body under Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q38. Consider the following statements with reference to the major ports in India?
1. The major ports are under the direct administrative control of the Central
Government while other ports are under the jurisdiction of the respective maritime
states government.
2. Of the total traffic handled by all Indian Ports, more than 50 percent is handled by
major ports.
3. Kolkata Port is the only riverine major port in the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q39. In which of the following sectors is Foreign direct investment (FDI) prohibited in India?
1. Public sector banks
2. Agriculture and animal husbandry
3. Nidhi Company
4. Inventory based model of e-commerce
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4

Q40. Consider the following statements:

1. A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is a company engaged in the business of
loans and advances, acquisition of shares/stocks/bonds/debentures/securities.
2. NBFCs are registered under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949
3. NBFCs have no liquidity requirements such as statutory liquidity ratio or the
liquidity coverage ratio, except for SLR for deposit-taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q41. With reference to Priority Sector Lending Certificates (PSLCs), consider the following
statements:
1. They are tradable certificates to enable commercial banks to achieve their specified
targets for priority sector lending.
2. They are traded through RBI’s Core Banking Solution (CBS) portal - e-Kuber.
3. There is no transfer of credit risk on the underlying asset as there is no transfer of
tangible assets or cash flow.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q42. Consider the following statements:

1. The Competition Act, 2002 replaced the Monopolies and Restrictive Practices Act,
1969 (MRTP Act).
2. Competition Commission of India which is responsible for enforcing The Competition
Act, 2002 is under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q43. Which of the following organisations is mandated to enforce Foreign Exchange

Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) and Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA)?
(a) Central Bureau of Investigation
(b) Enforcement Directorate
(c) Directorate of Revenue Intelligence
(d) Intelligence Bureau

Q44. Consider the following statements regarding Government e-Marketplace (GeM) :

1. It is an online market platform to facilitate procurement of goods as well as services
by various Ministries and agencies of the Government.
2. It comes under the administrative control of Union Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
 3. Procurement of Goods and Services through GeM is mandatory for Goods or
Services available on GeM, by Government users.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q45. Consider the following statements:

1. Jharkhand is a major producer of Mica.
2. Orissa is the largest bauxite producing state in India.
3. Anthracite coal is found in Jammu and Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q46. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Bancassurance’?
(a) Agreement between a bank and an insurance company to sell insurance products to
the bank's customers
(b) Legal guarantee by banks to safeguard the deposits of their customers
(c) Efforts by large banks to increase banking penetration in rural areas
(d) Maintenance of reserve ratios by banks to prevent bank run

Q47. Public Financial Management System (PFMS) administered by

(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Office of Controller General of Accounts (CGA)
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)
(d) Indian Banks' Association

Q48. Consider the following statements regarding Negotiable Warehouse Receipts:

1. They are regulated by the Warehousing Development and Regulatory Authority
(WDRA)
2. They can be used as collateral for loans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q49. Reverse Charge Mechanism is associated with

(a) Goods and Services Tax
(b) Excise on Petrol and Diesel
(c) Pricing of imported natural gas
(d) Mechanism to disburse fertilizer subsidy

Q50. Which of the following is/are a tool for deficit financing?

1. Printing of currency
2. Borrowing from international institutes
 3. Devaluation of currency

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q51. In the context of modern history of India, Sargent Plan was related to:
a) famine policy
b) education policy
c) civil services reforms
d) judicial reforms

Q52. With reference to the Indian Councils Act 1861, consider the following statements:
1. It deprived the governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers.
2. It provided for nomination of Indians to Indian (Central) Legislative Council for the
first time.
3. It empowered the Governor-General to issue ordinances during an emergency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q53. M Singaravelu Chettiar, Muzaffar Ahmad and Shaukat Usmani were associated with
a) Congress Socialist Party
b) Communist Party of India
c) Muslim League
d) Indian National Liberal Federation

Q54. With reference to Nehru Report of 1928, consider the following statements:
1. Subhas Chandra Bose was one of the members who drafted the report.
2. It accepted all the demands put forward by the Muslim League in ‘Delhi Proposals’.
3. The Report was widely accepted by the leaders of Congress, Muslim League and
Hindu Mahasabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Q55. Consider the following statements:

1. W.C. Bonnerjea was the first Indian to become member of the British Parliament.
2. Satyendra Prasanna Sinha was the first Indian to become a member of Viceroy's
Executive Council.
3. G.V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
Q56. Consider the following statements with reference to Constituent Assembly that drafted
the Indian Constitution:
1. Constituent Assembly had no women members.
2. Each province and princely state were allotted seats in proportion to their respective
population.
3. Constituent Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q57. Arrange the following events chronologically:

1. Battle of Koregaon
2. Paika rebellion
3. Malabar rebellion
4. Santhal rebellion

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 2413
b) 2143
c) 4231
d) 2431

Q58. Consider the following statements with reference to life of M. Gandhi:

1. He never became the President of the Indian National Congress (INC)
2. He did not support the formation of Congress Socialist Party (CSP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q59 Consider the following pairs with reference to modern Indian history:
1. Introduction of Subsidiary Alliance : Richard Wellesley
2. Younghusband expedition : Curzon
3. First census : Mayo

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Q60. In the context of Vijaynagar empire, consider the following statements regarding
Amara-nayakas:
1. They were military commanders who were given territories to govern.
2. They collected taxes and other dues from peasants.
3. They could be transferred from one place to other by the King.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
 d) 1, 2 and 3

Q61. The Satavahana period witnessed overseas commercial activity. Ptolemy mentions
many ports in the Deccan. Which of the following ports is/are associated with the
Satavahanas?
1. Kalyani
2. Gandakasela
3. Ganjam
4. Kanchipuram

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a) 1 and 4 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q62. Consider the following statements:

1. Pandharpur is the main center of worship of the deity Vitthal, a local form of
Vishnu.
2. ‘Warkari’ is a religious sect that worships the presiding deity of Pandharpur.
3. Dnyaneshwar, Namdev, Eknath and Tukaram were associated with Warkari sect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q63 Which among the following rulers of the Pallava Dynasty assumed the title
‘Vatapikonda’?
(a) Aparajitavarman
(b) Narasimhavarman I
(c) Nandivarman II
(d) Mahendravarman I

Q64. Consider the following pairs:

Literary work Author
1. Mudrarakshasa Sudraka
2. Malavikagnimitra Kalidasa
3. Mricchakatika Vishakhadatta

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q65. With reference to the saint Purandara Dasa, consider the following statements:
1. He is considered the father of Carnatic Music.
2. He was a contemporary of Vijayanagar emperor Krishnadevaraya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q66. ‘Virupaksha Temple’ and ‘Hazara Rama Temple’ were notable temples constructed in
the kingdom of
(a) Chalukya
(b) Chandela
(c) Rashtrakuta
(d) Vijayanagara

Q67. Gir, Kankrej and Sahiwal are

a) styles of miniature painting
b) regional varieties of paddy
c) forms of folk theatre
d) breeds of cattle

Q68. ATLAS, CMS, ALICE, and LHCb experiments are related to:
a) Gene editing
b) Artificial Intelligence
c) Nuclear fusion
d) Particle physics

Q69. Consider the following statements with reference to LIGO Detector:

1. It is a gravitational wave observatory situated in the low earth orbit.
2. It can be used to detect electromagnetic waves from the deep space.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q70. Which of the following statements regarding neutrinos are correct ?

1. Neutrinos are the most abundant particles in the universe.
2. They are electrically neutral and massless.
3. They can be made artificially in nuclear reactors.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Q71. Which of the following are benefits of using mRNA vaccines over conventional
vaccines?
1. use of a non-infectious element
2. shorter manufacturing time
3. potential for targeting of multiple diseases

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

(a) 1 only
 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q72. Consider the following statements:

1. While QR Code needs line of sight to scan, RFID doesn’t require line of sight.
2. While QR Code is read only, RFID tags can be read and write, i.e., data can be
changed on tag.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q73. With reference to celestial bodies, ‘Makemake’, ‘Eris’ and ‘Haumea’ are
(a) Neutron stars in the Andromeda galaxy
(b) Dwarf planets in the solar system
(c) Exo planets lying in the goldilocks zone
(d) Interstellar objects recently detected in the solar system

Q74. Consider the following statements with respect to atomic clocks:

1. They use quartz crystal as their timekeeping element.
2. They are used as primary standards for international time distribution services and
in global navigation satellite systems.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q75. Which of the following best describes Drop-in Fuel?

(a) A fuel that needs a complete overhaul of existing petroleum infrastructure
(b) A highly combustible fuel with zero Sulphur and nitrogen content
(c) A fuel with high pour point which does not freeze at sub-zero temperatures
(d) A fuel fully compatible with existing petroleum infrastructure

Q76. Which of the following statements best describes “carbon fertilization”?

a) Increased plant growth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the
atmosphere
b) Increased temperature of Earth due to increased concentration of carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere
c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of increased concentration of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere
d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to the climate change brought about by the
increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere

Q77. With reference to the 'Perform Achieve and Trade' (PAT) scheme, consider the following
statements:
1. It aims to improve energy efficiency in industries by trading in 'energy efficiency
certificates'.
2. The scheme imposes mandatory specific energy consumption targets on the covered
facilities.
 3. It is implemented by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q78. With reference to United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS),
consider the following statements:
1. A state is free to enforce any of its state law in Contiguous zone and Exclusive
Economic zone (EEZ).
2. Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) is the only dispute resolution mechanism
regarding maritime boundaries under the UNCLOS.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q79. Consider the following statements with reference to International Energy Agency (IEA):
1. IEA is an intergovernmental organization established in the wake of the 1973 oil
crisis.
2. IEA publishes the World Energy Outlook report annually.
3. Only the OECD member states can become members of the IEA.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q80. Consider the following statements regarding Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear
Weapons (NPT):
1. The treaty was initiated as a response to the Indian Nuclear tests at Pokhran (1974).
2. It represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of
disarmament by the nuclear- weapon States.
3. It establishes a safeguards system under the responsibility of the International
Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q81. Which of the following best describes ‘INS Vikramaditya’ ?

(a) Amphibious warfare ship
(b) Nuclear-powered submarine
(c) Aircraft carrier
(d) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
Q82. With reference to Crime & Criminal Tracking Network and Systems (CCTNS), consider
the following statements:
1. CCTNS is a Mission Mode Project under the National e-Governance Plan.
2. National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) is the central nodal agency for managing the
nationwide implementation of CCTNS.
3. CCTNS also provides for a citizen‘s interface to provide basic services to citizens.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q83. East Asia Summit is a regional forum having members from 18 countries. Which of
the following countries are members of East Asia Summit?
1. India
2. the United States
3. Russia
4. China
5. Indonesia

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 and 5 only
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q84. “Special 301 report” is sometimes seen in news in the context of

(a) money laundering and terror financing
(b) intellectual property rights protection and enforcement
(c) global stock take of the implementation of Paris agreement
(d) list of currency manipulators

Q85. Consider the following statements:

1. Plea bargaining refers to a person charged with a criminal offence negotiating with
the prosecution for a lesser punishment than what is provided in law by pleading
guilty to a less serious offence.
2. In India, plea bargaining is not permissible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q86. Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution allows the Centre to levy cess and surcharge which the Centre
need not share with state governments.
2. While a cess are imposed for a specific purposes, surcharge is a tax on taxes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q87. Consider the following statements:
1. The total number of ministers in the council of ministers in a state shall not exceed
15 per cent of the total strength of the legislative assembly of that state.
2. The provision to limit number of ministers in the council of ministers was added by
101st Amendment Act.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q88. Which among the following benefits are available to Overseas Citizenship of India
(OCI) cardholders?
1. Multi-purpose, multiple entry, lifelong visa for visiting India
2. Exemption from registration with local police authority for any length of stay in
India
3. Right to vote in Indian elections

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q89. Consider the following statements:

1. A bill contemplating changes in name, area or boundary of a state can be introduced
in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.
2. After recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state
legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q90. Consider the following statements:

1. Foreign Contribution Regulation Act (FCRA) 2010 requires all NGOs to apply for a
license to receive foreign funding.
2. NGOs that are substantially financed by government funds fall within the ambit of
the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q91. Consider the following statements with respect to the Central Bureau of Investigation
(CBI):
1. It is a statutory body established under Delhi Special Police Establishment Act 1946
2. It is an attached office under Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions.
 3. Both Centre and State governments have concurrent control over CBI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q92. With reference to the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT), consider the following
statements:
1. It was established by the Central government under the provision of Article 323 A of
the Constitution.
2. It comprises of administrative as well as judicial members.
3. Its jurisdiction extends to all the Central civil services including members of the
defence forces.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q93. Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 is applicable to which of the
following areas?
a) 6th Schedule areas
b) 5th Schedule areas
c) Both 5th and 6th schedule areas
d) Rural areas other than 5th and 6th schedule areas

Q94. With respect to the office of the State Election Commissioner (SEC), consider the
following statements:
1. SEC is appointed by the Governor of the concerned State.
2. SEC works under the aegis of the Election Commissioner of India.
3. SEC can be removed by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 1 only
d) 2 and 3 only

Q95. Consider the following statements regarding the Central Drugs Standard Control
Organization (CDSCO):
1. It is responsible for the approval of new drugs and clinical trials in the country.
2. It functions under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q96. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of ASEAN?
 (a) Philippines, Laos, Papua New Guinea, Singapore
(b) Vietnam, East Timor, Indonesia, Thailand
(c) Cambodia, Brunei, Myanmar, Malaysia
(d) Philippines, Fiji, Laos, Taiwan

Q97. India holds ‘2+2 dialogue’ at the ministerial level with which of the following
countries?
1. the US
2. Japan
3. Australia
4. Russia
5. France
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 5 only

Q98. El Niño Modoki is associated with strong anomalous warming in the

(a) Central Tropical Pacific Ocean
(b) Eastern Tropical Pacific Ocean
(c) West Indian Ocean
(d) West Atlantic Ocean

Q99. Consider the following pairs:

Place/region in news Country
1. Wakhan Corridor Afghanistan
2. Khartoum Sudan
3. Minsk Poland

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q100. Consider the following statements:

1. Naturally, occurring Uranium contains more than 99% Uranium-233 isotope.
2. Uranium enrichment is the process of increasing the percentage of uranium-235
which undergoes fission with thermal neutrons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2