IAS Exam Congress

IASEC Essentials

Thematic Test Series

(For CSE Prelims-2025)
Full length Test - 02

TTS-02
TTS-1k20

(November 28, 2024)

TARGET-2025 TTS-25, Test-02

 IAS Exam Congress
Q1. Consider the following pairs: Q4. ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’, seen in
1. Kursk region — Ukraine news, is a national campaign to
2. Nuseirat camp — Bangladesh (a) rehabilitate the homeless and
3. Ramenskoye — Russia destitute persons and provide them
4. Khuzestan — Iran with suitable sources of livelihood

How many of the pairs given above is/are (b) release the sex workers from their

correctly matched? practice and provide them with

alternative sources of livelihood
(a) Only one
(c) eradicate the practice of manual
(b) Only two
scavenging and rehabilitate the
(c) Only three
manual scavengers
(d) All four
(d) release the bonded labourers from
their bondage and rehabilitate them
Q2. With reference to the early history of
India, which of the following is the correct
Q5. Consider the following statements :
identification of the two places called as
1. West Bengal is the only state of India
Dilmun and Makan?
that has both land border and coastal

TTS-02
(a) These were the earliest trade centres
border.
developed by the Guptas in Southern
2. Telangana is the only state of India
country which shares border with four other
(b) These were the types of temples of Indian states.
early Rig Vedic Period exclusively used Which of the statements given above is/
by Aryans are correct?
(c) These were two intermediate trading (a) 1 only
stations dating to Indus Valley Period (b) 2 only
(d) These were the earliest port cities of (c) Both 1 and 2
the Eastern India dating back to (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Chalcolithic period
Q6.Recently seen in news, the Lomonosov
Q3. Which of the following Indian states floating power unit located in Russia is
have the longest coastal border in India? based on the direct application of
(a) Gujarat (a) Nuclear energy
(b) West Bengal (b) Solar energy
(c) Maharashtra (c) Waste to Energy
(d) Tamil Nadu (d) Wind energy

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress

TTS-02
Built on the legacy of TTS (for Prelims), PARAKH aims to plug in the gaps in
your preparations and allows you to practice answer writing in a very organised
and comprehensive manner. It is based on the themes used very often by UPSC in setting
official CSM papers.

Registrations for PARAKH: click me

PARAKH is a full fledged Test Series for Mains - 2025.

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q7. Consider the following languages: Q10. Which one of the following features
1. Gujarati of the constitution of India reflect that it
2. Tamil follows a flexible constitutional scheme?
3. Konkani (a) Judiciary cannot interpret the
4. Prakrit constitution and restricts itself to
5. Sanskrit
procedural correctness
How many of these languages have been
(b) Some parts of the constitution can be
given the status of classical languages by
government of India? amended only as laid out under the
(a) Only two article 368
(b) Only three (c) Original constitution is supreme and
(c) Only four
judiciary shall adhere to these
(d) All five
fundamental principles

Q8. Which of the following are essential (d) Constitution is a living charter of
components of Pradhan Mantri Rashtriya rights which adapts to emerging socio-
Krishi Vikas Yojana (PM-RKVY)?

TTS-02
economic debates
1. Rainfed area development
2. Soil management
3. Food security Q11. Consider the following statements:

4. Crop Residue Management 1. Under Article 25 of the Constitution of

5. Agriculture based exports India, State can make any law to

Select the correct answer using the code regulate or restrict any economic or
given below: financial which maybe associated with
(a) 1, 2 and 3 religious practices.
(b) 2, 3 and 4 2. As per the Constitution of India, the
(c) 1, 3 and 5 freedom to manage religious affairs
(d) 1, 2 and 4 includes the right to determine the
essential practices of a religious
Q9. Under the ambit of which of the denomination.
following articles the employees are Which of the statements given above is/
legally bound to receive a wage not less are correct?
than the minimum wage notified by the
(a) 1 only
state?
(b) 2 only
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 23 (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Article 46 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Article 51A

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q12. Consider the following statements: Q14. Which of the following are part of
1. No discussions can take place in the the Electoral College that elects the
Parliament with respect to conduct of President of India?
any Judge of the Supreme Court or of 1. Elected Members of Lok Sabha
a High Court in the discharge of his 2. Nominated Members of Rajya Sabha

duties under any circumstances. 3. Elected Members of the Legislative

Assembly of Delhi
2. Parliament by moving a motion can
4. Nominated Members of the State
pray to the President to remove a
Legislative Assemblies
judge of the Supreme Court or of a
Select the correct answer using the code
High Court.
given below:
3. No person who has held office as a
(a) 1 and 2
Judge of the Supreme Court or High (b) 1, 2 and 3
court shall plead or act in any court (c) 1 and 3
or before any authority within the (d) 3 and 4
territory of India or outside India.
How many of the statements given above Q15. Consider the following statements:
1. As per the Constitution, no person

TTS-02
is/are correct?
can be a member of both the Houses
(a) Only one
of Parliament.
(b) Only two 2. Per Constitution of India, if a Member
(c) Only three of Parliament is absent continuously
(d) None of these for 90 days from the Lok Sabha or the
Rajya Sabha without permission, she
is disqualified.
Q13. With reference to the Personality 3. A member of Parliament can resign
Rights, consider the following statements: from the house by writing to the chair
but the chair can reject such request.
1. Personality rights refer to the right of
How many of these is/are correct?
a person to protect his/her
(a) Only one
personality under the right to privacy (b) Only two
or property. (c) All three
2. Personality rights are same as (d) None

publicity rights.
Q16. Which of the following was the first
Which of the statements given above is/ vehicle for allowing emissions trading in
are correct? greenhouse gases?
(a) 1 only (a) Paris Agreement
(b) 2 only (b) Vienna convention
(c) Kyoto Protocol
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Copenhagen Accord
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02

 IAS Exam Congress
Q17. Consider the following statements: Q19. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Statement I:
The difference in the duration of day and Ocean acidification increases the growth
night increases as one moves from the rates for some marine organisms with
Equator to poles. calcareous skeletons.
Statement II: Statement II:
The variation in length of days and nights As ocean acidification rises, the hydrogen
is caused by the tilt of the Earth's axis ion concentration in water increases
and its orbit around the Sun. limiting the access to carbonate ions.
Select the correct answer using the code Select the correct answer using the code
given below: given below:
(a) Both the statements are individually (a) Both the statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually (b) Both the statements are individually
true but Statement II is not the correct true but Statement II is not the correct
explanation of Statement I explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false false

TTS-02
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true true

Q18. Consider the following statements:

Q20. Consider the following statements:
Statement I:
Statement I:
No mass or energy is exchanged between
the Earth system and the rest of the Some Hyena species are insectivores.
universe. Statement II:
Statement II: Spotted hyenas are known to survive
The earth system as a whole is a closed infection with rabies virus.
system. Select the correct answer using the code
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
given below: (a) Both the statements are individually
(a) Both the statements are individually
true and Statement II is the correct
true and Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually
(b) Both the statements are individually
true but Statement II is not the correct
true but Statement II is not the
correct explanation of Statement I explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false false
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
true true

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q21. In context of Nuclear energy, which Q24. Consider the following statements:
of the following is/are benefit/benefits of 1. Encryption is used to protect sensitive
developing the Small Modular Reactors data, like banking information and
(SMRs) by developing countries like medical records.
India?
2. Encryption requires mathematical
1. Existing coal plant sites can be
computation so complex that it in
utilised for SMR deployment
general cannot be solved by even the
2. Low enriched uranium fuel may be
most powerful supercomputers.
used for producing energy
3. Asymmetric encryption uses four
3. Nuclear fusion can be directly used to
extract energy for domestic purposes different but linked keys to solve a
mathematical problem.
How many of the statements given above
is/are correct? How many of the statements given above
(a) Only one is/are correct?
(b) Only two (a) Only one
(c) All three (b) Only two
(d) None (c) All three
(d) None

TTS-02
Q22. Drone attacks are becoming
pertinent threats in recent times. In this Q25. Consider the following:
context, which of the following
1. Hummingbirds
technologies can be deployed for drone
detection? 2. Moths
1. RADAR 3. Butterflies
2. Radio frequency detection Which of these is/are generally known to
3. Infrared cameras contribute to pollination?
4. Geospatial technology
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 and 3
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 3 and 4 Q26. In what context, oxygenators also
called ‘bubblers’, are sometimes seen in
Q23. Bepi Colombo is an international
the news?
mission that will study the magnetic field
(a) To treat oil spills
of associated with
(a) Mars (b) To generate energy from fuel cells
(b) Saturn (c) Electric vehicles
(c) Mercury (d) River pollution
(d) Venus

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q27.Consider the following statements: Q30. With reference to Indian economy,
1. At present, India doesn’t export any consider the following statements:

oilseeds or oilseed based products. 1. The rate of growth of Real Gross

Domestic Product (GDP) has steadily
2. At present, India imports more than
increased in the last decade.
half of the total domestic demand of
2. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) at
oilseeds. market prices (in rupees) has steadily
Which of these statements is/are correct? increased in the last decade.
(a) 1 only Which of the statements given above is/
(b) 2 only are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (a) 1 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2

Q28. Consider the following: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Land on lease
Q31. Which of the following activities are
2. Water tanker
being undertaken under the BharatMala
3. Furniture and fixtures
Project?

TTS-02
4. Marketable securities
1. Development of Multi Modal Logistics
How many is/are example/examples of
Park (MMLP)
Fixed capital?
2. Development of Economic Corridors
(a) Only one
3. Development of greenfield ports
(b) Only two
4. Development of port connectivity
(c) Only three
roads
(d) All four Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Q29. Consider the following statements: (a) 1 and 4
1. Derivatives are financial contracts (b) 2, 3 and 4
which strictly derive their value from (c) 1, 2 and 4
an underlying physical asset or a (d) 1, 2 and 3
commodity.
2. Prices for derivatives derive from the Q32. The emigration of highly-skilled
fluctuations in prices of underlying people from the developing countries is
assets.
known as
Which of these is/are correct?
(a) the brain drain
(a) 1 only
(b) human capital deterioration.
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) declining net productivity.

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) labor degradation

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q33. Consider the following statements Q36. Consider the following statements:
about Sinking Fund : Statement I :
1. It is a method of repayment of public Post 1991 reforms, the price volatility
debt. of agricultural commodities in domestic
2. It is created by the government out of markets has increased.
budgetary revenues every year. Statement II :
India’s agricultural market has been
3. State Governments generally maintain
completely liberalised under the new
a Consolidated Sinking Fund (CSF)
economic policy.
with the Central government to meet
Select the correct answer using the
the constitutional requirements.
code given below:
How many statements given above is/are (a) Both the statements are individually
correct? true but Statement II is the correct
(a) Only one explanation of Statement I
(b) Only two (b) Both the statements are individually
(c) All three true but Statement II is not the
(d) None correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false

TTS-02
Q34. Niti Aayog reports often talk about a
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
National Indicator Framework (NIF). In
true
what context is it being discussed?
(a) improvements in the efficiency of
Q37. Which of the following regarding
governments’ departments
Gross Value Added (GVA) is correct?
(b) monitoring outcomes on SDGs
(a) GVA at market prices equals GVA at
(c) evaluation of outcome budgets of factor cost plus net production taxes.
individual ministries/departments (b) GVA at factor cost equals GVA at basic
(d) reforms in the civil services prices plus net product taxes.
(c) No GVA at basic prices equals GVA at
Q35. SWIFT (The Society for Worldwide factor costs plus net production taxes.
(d) GVA at market prices equals GVA at
Interbank Financial Telecommunication)
basic prices plus net production
frequently mentioned in the news, is taxes.
essentially a
Q38. In essence which of the following act
(a) Global financial intelligence agency
as the source of Fundamental Rights
(b) Global terror finance detection system given to citizens?
(c) Global money transfer system (a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Parliament of India
(d) Global stock market information
(c) Constituent Assembly
sharing system
(d) Constitutional Court

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q39. The purpose of Directive Principles Q43. Which of the following statements
of State Policy is to with regards to the Civil Disobedience
(a) lay down positive instructions which movement is/are correct ?
would guide State Policy at all level 1. The movement received massive
(b) implement Gandhiji's idea for a response from business groups and
decentralized state peasantry
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by
2. The movement coincided with large
the government
scale labour upsurge in Maharashtra
(d) promote welfare of the backward
3. The movement was marked by the
sections of the society
mass participation of lawyers and
students
Q40. Enforcement Directorate (ED) works
Select the correct answer using the code
under the department of
given below:
(a) Department of Revenue
(a) 1 only
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Department of Internal Security
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Financial Intelligence Unit
(d) 1, 2 and 3

TTS-02
Q41. Consider the following statements:
Q44. With respect to seals found in Indus
1. Green house gas emissions from
Valley Civilisation, consider the following
rice cultivation can be reduced by
statements:
switching to "sprinkler irrigation".
1. Seals were used primarily in trade as
2. Methane is mostly emitted from
a designatory device.
Agriculture, human, animal and
2. Some seals were made of steatite,
municipal-wastes (solid and liquid).
soapstone and silver.
Which of the statements given above is/
3. The formal imagery on the seals was
are correct? mostly carried of plants.
(a) 1 only 4. Some seals carried illustrated scenes
(b) 2 only of people probably engaged in some
(c) Both 1 and 2 religious activities.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Seals were often accompanied by
some inscriptions of four to seven
Q42. The stylistic compositions of Sungas characters in Indus script.
How many of the statements given above
terracottas are typically
is/are correct?
(a) handmade
(a) Only one
(b) single-mould impressed (b) Only two
(c) double-mould impressed (c) Only three
(d) wheel-turned (d) Only four

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q45. Who among the following was Q48. Shyamji Krishna Varma was
associated with the Benares Sanskrit associated with which of the following:
College? 1. Arya Samaj
(a) Warren Hastings 2. India House
(b) Curzon 3. Jugantar Party
(c) Dalhousie Select the correct answer using the code
(d) Rippon given below:
(a) 1 and 2
Q46. Consider the following statements: (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
1. The new ensign of Indian Navy is
(d) 2 and 3
consisted of the national flag on the
upper canton and a blue octagon
Q49. Consider the following statements:
encasing the national emblem. Statement I :
2. The octagon element in new insignia After the Gandhi-Irwin Pact Congress was
has been inspired by the seal of Chola ready to suspend the Civil disobedience
Emperor Rajendra I. movement.
Statement II :
3. Indian Navy’s motto is “Sam No

TTS-02
The government promised to release all
Varuna” which is taken from the Rig political prisoners not convicted of
Veda. violence.
How many of these is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
(a) Only one
(a) Both the statements are individually
(b) Only two
true but Statement II is the correct
(c) All three explanation of Statement I
(d) None (b) Both the statements are individually
true but Statement II is not the
correct explanation of Statement I
Q47. With respect to Indian History, in
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
which one of the following contexts the
false
Draksharamam and Tripurantakam are (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
generally important? true
(a) Some Hindu temples have been found
here Q50. Who among the following leaders
established the Central Hindu School in
(b) Buddha visited these places
1898?
(c) Study Kakatiya inscriptions (a) Annie Beasant
(d) Special coins of Chola period have (b) Mother Teresa
been recovered from here (c) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(d) Sarojini Naidu

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q51. Consider the following: Q53. Which among the following was
1. Kavirajamarga NOT recommendation of Nehru Report?

2. Ramayana by Kamban (a) Dominion Status

3. Ratirahasya (b) Separate Electorate

How many of the books listed above was/ (c) Unitary and Democratic Centre

were written during ninth century? (d) Adult Suffrage

(a) Only one

Q54. Consider the following statements
(b) Only two
about Indigo Revolt of 1859:
(c) All three
1. It was directed against the petty
(d) None Zamindars and ex-employees of the
planters.
Q52. Consider the following statements: 2. It was supported by intelligentsia
Statement I : of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/
Dadabhai Naoroji argued that what was
are correct?
being drained out was 'potential surplus'
(a) 1 only

TTS-02
that could generate more economic
(b) 2 only
development in India if invested in India.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Statement II : (d) Neither 1 nor 2
The Imperialists believed that India was
brought into the large capitalist world Q55. What was the primary occupation of
market and that was in itself a progress Pattanulkars who were active in fifteenth
towards modernisation. century India?

Select the correct answer using the (a) Silk weaving

(b) Temple priests
code given below:
(c) Music maestro
(a) Both the statements are individually
(d) Playwrights
true but Statement II is the correct
explanation of Statement I
Q56. Which one of the following Acts
(b) Both the statements are individually reserved seats for women in Legislatures
true but Statement II is not the in accordance with the allocation of seats
correct explanation of Statement I for different communities?
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is (a) The Government of India Act, 1858
false (b) The Indian Councils Act, 1909
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is (c) The Government of India Act, 1919

true (d) The Government of India Act, 1935

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q57. Which one of the following was the Q60. With respect to Indian history, what
largest administrative unit in the Mughal were the following?
period? mahin, pat, kirpas and salabati
(a) Suba (a) denominations of coins
(b) Sarkar (b) methods of assessment of crop
(c) types of textiles
(c) Pargana
(d) categories of military men
(d) Bigha

Q61. With respect to Indian Art and

Q58. Consider the following: Culture, what is common to the following
All goods must pass this way, as from places?
Gujarat, Tatta (or Sind); from Kabul, 1. Amaravati
Kandahar, or Multan, to the Deccan; from 2. Jaggayapeta
the Deccan or Burhanpur to those places, 3. Nagarjuna Konda
or to Lahore; and from Bengal and whole Select the correct answer using the given
east country; there are no practicable below options:
alternative routes and the roads carry (a) All are known to house Jaina Basadis
indescribable quantities of merchandise, (b) All are known to host Shiva Temples

TTS-02
especially cotton goods. (c) All are known to host Buddhist Stupa
In context of which of the following cities (d) All were capital cities of same dynasty
had Pelsaert written as described in the
above paragraph? Q62. Consider the following statements:
(a) Allahabad Statement I :
(b) Agra Patches of coral reef can be found in the
(c) Dilli inter-tidal areas of a coast.
(d) Panipat Statement II :
There are no atolls found in India.
Select the correct answer using the
Q59. Consider the following:
code given below:
1. Panna was known for diamond mining
(a) Both the statements are individually
during Delhi Sultanate period.
true but Statement II is the correct
2. Spindle was for the first time used in explanation of Statement I
India during the times of Balban. (b) Both the statements are individually
Which of the statements given above is/ true but Statement II is not the
are correct? correct explanation of Statement I
(a) Only 1 (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(b) Only 2 false
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 true

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q63. Which of the following is generally Q66. Which of the following is the most
considered as the most prominent source appropriate definition of ‘social good’ ?
for Mesenchymal stem cells in humans? (a) Social good is a set of corporate
(a) Umbilical cord
initiatives that aim to enhance the
(b) Bone marrow
social contract of corporations by
(c) Appendix
promoting practices that are better for
(d) Gall bladder
the environment and overall society.
(b) Social good is any public good which
Q64. Consider the following statements:
can’t be utilised by private enterprises
1. Negative Air Ions (NAIs) can reduce
PM levels in the atmosphere. for production or purchase or sale.
2. Water-generated NAIs have shown (c) Social good is a set of private goods
some ability to inhibit cancer cells. that is free to be used by general
Which of the statements given above is/ public.
are correct? (d) Social good is a set of public goods
(a) 1 Only which are produced by collective
(b) 2 Only choice and shared costs.
(c) Both 1 and 2

TTS-02
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q67. With respect to the concepts
economics, how many of the following are
Q65. Consider the following statements: generally classified as imperfect
1. A higher money multiplier means new competition?
1. Monopoly
money will be created by the banking
2. Duopoly
system for a given increase in the high
3. Monopsony
powered money. 4. Oligopoly
2. High-powered money is the sum of Select the correct answer using the code
commercial bank reserves and given below:
currency (notes and coins) held by the (a) Only one

Public. (b) Only two

(c) Only three
3. Money supply is determined by
(d) All four
required reserve ratio and the excess
reserve ratio of commercial bank. Q68. Credit Information Companies
How many of the statements given above (CICs) in India are licensed and regulated
is/are correct? by
(a) Only one (a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Only two (b) SEBI
(c) All three (c) NABARD
(d) None (d) NPCI

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q69. Consider the following statements: Q72. Consider the following statements:
1. As the price of a commodity falls, 1. As per the constitution of India, only a
consumers move toward it from member of parliament in Lok Sabha
relatively more expensive goods. can become the Prime Minister of the
2. The higher the price at which the good country.
can be sold, the more of it producers 2. According to the constitution of India,
there is an upper limit on the total
will supply.
number of cabinet ministers in the
Which of the statements given above is/
executive.
are correct?
3. Deputy Prime Minister (DyPM) is not
(a) 1 only
mentioned anywhere in constitution.
(b) 2 only How many of the statements given above
(c) Both 1 and 2 is/are correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only one
(b) Only two
Q70. In the welfare paradigm, how many (c) All three
of the following will come under the social (d) None
security system?
1. Old age pension Q73. With respect to Indian Parliament,

TTS-02
2. Support to sufferers of occupational consider the following statements:
hazards 1. Every Indian citizen has a
3. Aid to differently abled fundamental right to petition to the
4. Subsidy to a farmer Parliament in the form of an appeal
5. Unemployment support to the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code 2. Petitions can be sent to either
given below: House in respect of any Bills/
(a) Only one other matters that are pending
(b) Only two before the House.
(c) Only three Which of the statements given above is/
(d) None of these are correct?
(a) 1 only
Q71. With respect to the evolution of (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
anti-defection laws in Indian Polity, which
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
of the following Lok Sabhas was the first
to discuss this issue in the form of a
Q74. After how many days of absence
resolution?
(a) Third from Parliament without permission can

(b) Fourth a Member of Parliament be disqualified?

(c) Fifth (a) 30 days

(d) Eighth (b) 45 days
(c) 60 days
(d) 90 days

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q75. Consider the following statements: Q78. Which of the following is the correct
1. National Ganga Council is a statutory description of places around and between
body. two gravitationally bound bodies where a
2. National Ganga Council is chaired by third object could stay stationary relative
to the other two?
the Prime Minister.
(a) L-Point
Which of the statements given above is/
(b) Oberth Effect
are correct?
(c) G-Point
(a) 1 only
(d) Gravitational lensing
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
Q79. Consider the following statements:
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Electrospun nanofibrous aerogels hold
great potential for separating oily
Q76. Consider the following statements: wastewater during oil spill accidents.
1. Earth’s magnetic field shields space 2. Nano-porous aerogels are not suitable
station crew from much of the for sensors due to their high porosity.
radiation that can damage the DNA in Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
human cells.
(a) Only 1
2. International space station is orbiting

TTS-02
(b) Only 2
more than 500 miles above Earth. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements is/are correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only Q80. Consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. Genetic engineering involves the direct
manipulation of an organism's DNA.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Genetic engineering can be used to
create genetically modified organisms
Q77. Consider the following statements: (GMOs) for agricultural purposes.
1. Cholera is a water -borne disease Which of the statements given above is/
primarily caused by a bacteria. are correct?
2. It is an acute diarrheal illness caused (a) Only 1
primarily by infection of the intestine. (b) Only 2
3. In particular, malnourished children
(c) Both 1 and 2
are at a higher risk of mortality.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Currently, there is no vaccine for
Cholera.
Q81. In which of the following contexts is
How many is/are correct?
micro-fabrication, sometimes seen in the
(a) Only one
news?
(b) Only two
(a) Solar engineering
(c) Only three
(b) Semiconductor Manufacturing
(d) All four
(c) Heavy Metal pollution
(d) Nuclear Energy

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02

 IAS Exam Congress
Q82. Consider the following statements: Q85. Consider the following statements:
1. Oropouche virus outbreaks have Statement I :
recently occurred in Amazon Basin Cyanobacteria is capable of nitrogen
states. fixation.
2. Oropouche virus can be passed from Statement II :
a pregnant person to their fetus. Cyanobacteria has a special enzyme
3. Oropouche virus is spread to people called Nitrogenase.

primarily by the bite of infected biting Select the correct answer using the
code given below:
midges.
(a) Both the statements are individually
How many of the statements given above
true but Statement II is the correct
is/are correct?
explanation of Statement I
(a) Only one
(b) Both the statements are individually
(b) Only two
true but Statement II is not the
(c) Only three correct explanation of Statement I
(d) None (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false
Q83. Consider the following chemicals: (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is
1. Dioxins true

TTS-02
2. Triclosan
3. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) Q86. Which of the following plants is
4. Benzene well-known for its medicinal properties,
particularly cardiac glycosides which are
5. Bisphenol A (BPA)
used to treat various heart conditions?
How many of the above are known to
(a) Common foxglove
belong to class of compounds identified
(b) Lady’s glove
as the Endocrine - disrupting chemicals (c) Hollyhock
(EDCs)? (d) Dog flower
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
Q87. Consider the following:
(c) Only four
1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA)
(d) All five
2. Gold
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Q84. Which of the following is a class of
4. Reserve Tranche Position
compounds reported to generally found in
the products of cosmetics, fragrances, How many of the above is/are generally
and children’s toys and used as liquid included in Foreign Exchange Reserves
plasticizers? (FER) of RBI?
(a) Triclosan (a) Only one
(b) Phytoestrogens (b) Only two
(c) Dioxins (c) Only three
(d) Phthalates (d) All four

TARGET-2025
IASEC
TTS-25, Test-02
 IAS Exam Congress
Q88. Consider the following statements: Q90. Which of the following countries is
Statement I : the largest exporter of refined petroleum
Head-line inflation refers to the rate of in the world?
change in the Consumer Price Index (a) India
Number, a measure of the average price (b) Saudi Arabia
of standard basket of goods and services
(c) USA
consumed by a typical family.
(d) Russia
Statement II :
Core inflation measures the change in
Q91. Consider the following statements:
average consumer prices after excluding
1. At present, Uttar Pradesh has the
from the Consumer Price Index certain
largest crop area under sugarcane
items of volatile prices such as food and
production.
fuel.
Select the correct answer using the 2. At present, Punjab is the largest
code given below: producer of raw cotton.
(a) Both the statements are individually 3. National Turmeric Board (NTB) is a
true but Statement II is the correct

TTS-02
statutory body.
explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually How many of the statements given above
true but Statement II is not the is/are correct?
correct explanation of Statement I
(a) Only one
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is
false (b) Only two
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is (c) All three
true (d) None

Q89. Which one of the following is likely

Q92. Consider the following statements:
to affect India's existing Balance of
1. India meets all of her Potash fertiliser
Trade negatively?
requirement through imports.
(a) Depreciation of rupee against dollar
2. India is the world’s largest importer of
(b) Implementation of a Minimum Import
fertilisers.
Price on raw materials
Which of the statements given above is/
(c) Adoption of a expansionary monetary are correct?
policy by RBI (a) 1 only
(d) Increase in external borrowing by the (b) 2 only
government (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

TARGET-2025 TTS-25, Test-02

 IAS Exam Congress
Q93. Which one of the following birds is a Q97. Consider the following pairs:
migratory bird? 1. St. Petersburg Declaration — Leopard
2. Kunmin Declaration — Biodiversity
(a) Great Indian Bustard
3. Copenhagen accord — Climate change
(b) Northern Bald Ibis
4. Washington Convention — CITES
(c) Little Florican How many of the above are correctly
(d) Spoon-billed Sandpiper matched?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
Q94. Consider the following:
(c) All four
1. Avalanche
(d) NONE
2. Earthquake
3. Heavy rainfall
Q98. Consider the following:
4. Decline in groundwater levels
How many of the above are likely to cause 1. Denmark
a landslide? 2. Poland
(a) Only two
3. Russia
(b) Only three
(c) All four 4. Germany

TTS-02
(d) None How many of these is/are neighbouring
countries of Baltic Sea?
Q95. Consider the following statements:
(a) Only one
1. Snake venom is known to produce
neurotoxins. (b) Only two
2. Hunting of any snake species in India (c) Only three
is a prohibited under wildlife laws.
(d) Only four
Which of the statements given above is/
are correct?
(a) 1 only Q99. With reference to the international
(b) 2 only
relations, which of the following religious
(c) Both 1 and 2
groups or group of people have worked or
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
is working for formation of a zionist state?
Q96. Kanha National Park belongs to
(a) Kurds
which of the following biogeographical
areas in the world ? (b) Jews
(a) Tropical Sub-humid Forest (c) Hamas
(b) Tropical Humid Forests
(d) Palestinians
(c) Tropical Dry Forests
(d) Tropical Moist Forests

TARGET-2025 TTS-25, Test-02

 IAS Exam Congress
Q100. Consider the following species:
1. Gibbons
2. Gorillas
3. Bonobos
4. Orangutans
How many of the above belong to the
great non-human apes family?
(a) Only two
(b) Only three
(c) All four
(d) None

TTS-02

This test paper was created and

curated by Kaptaan Jack Sparrow for
@iasexamcongress.

…Concluded…

TARGET-2025 TTS-25, Test-02