VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Current Affair Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 03
(CA2253)

2025
35/-
 DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number carefully and
without any omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the
Test Booklet in the Box provided alongside.
DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions in
the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test Booklet, you
have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted
to take this Test Booklet with you.
9. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN ALL THE
QUESTIONS.
i. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
ii. If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
iii. If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

 VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. Which one of the following best describes the 4. Consider the following pairs:
term “AI washing”?
City in the UNESCO UNESCO
(a) Companies exaggerating their environmental Creative Cities Creative Cities
friendliness to attract customers Network (UCCN) Network category
1. Varanasi Music
(b) Misleading advertisements about the
2. Srinagar Crafts and folk arts
operational capabilities of AI tools 3. Kozhikode Literature
(c) The use of AI in enhancing the performance 4. Hyderabad Gastronomy
of electronic devices
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(d) Businesses falsely claim to have integrated
matched?
advanced AI into their products
(a) Only one pair

2. Consider the following statements: (b) Only two pairs

A celestial body can be declared a ‘planet’ if: (c) Only three pairs
1. it orbits the Sun. (d) All four pairs
2. it is large enough for gravity to mold it into a
round shape. 5. ‘Project Nexus’, recently seen in the news, is
3. it has cleared away smaller objects around its associated with:
orbit. (a) enhancement of cross-border payments
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) development of border haats
below:
(c) improvement of road connectivity
(a) 1 and 2 only
(d) promotion of medical tourism
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
6. Consider the following statements:
(d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita,

3. Consider the following: 2023 clearly defines ‘terrorism’ as acts

1. Bamboo threatening the country's unity, integrity or

2. Kendu leaves economic security.
3. Canes 2. The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam,
4. Honey 2023 provides for community service as
5. Pulpwood punishment for petty offences.
How many of the above are classified as Minor Which of the statements given above is/are
Forest Produce (MFP) under the Forest Rights Act correct?
(FRA), 2006?
(a) 1 only
(a) Only two
(b) 2 only
(b) Only three
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Only four
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All five

Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025 1

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
7. Consider the following statements with reference 10. Consider the following statements with reference
to the Stablecoins: to the ‘Sampoornata Abhiyaan’:
1. They are cryptocurrencies that attempt to peg 1. It is a joint initiative of the Union Ministry
their market value to an external reference. of Rural Development and the Ministry of
2. They provide an alternative to the high Health and Family Welfare.
volatility of popular cryptocurrencies. 2. It aims to accelerate development through the
Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) and
3. They pursue price stability by maintaining
the Aspirational Blocks Programme (ABP).
reserve assets as collateral.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

8. Which of the following countries very recently 11. Which one of the following best describes the
have experienced the combined effects of armed term ‘Agrivoltaics’?
conflict and climate risks? (a) Integrating agricultural practices with
1. Mali renewable energy production
2. Kuwait (b) Implementing solar panels in urban areas to
3. Central African Republic (CAR) enhance rooftop gardening
4. Ghana (c) Developing large-scale solar farms in desert
5. Iraq regions to support local electricity grid
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) Using wind turbines alongside fields to
below: protect agricultural crops and livestock

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

12. With reference to the Shanghai Cooperation
(b) 2, 4 and 5 only
Organisation (SCO), consider the following
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only
statements:
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
1. It is a permanent political, economic and
military intergovernmental organisation.
9. ‘Chloramphenicol’ and ‘nitrofurans’ are
2. Belarus became the newest member of the
sometimes seen in the news in the context of: SCO grouping.
(a) artificial plant hormones for enhancing crop 3. It has an observer status in the United Nations
yields through genetic modification General Assembly (UNGA).
(b) inorganic compounds used in industrial 4. Its official languages are Russian and Chinese.
processes for probiotic synthesis How many of the above statements are correct?
(c) antibiotics used in the treatment of bacteria in (a) Only one
food-producing animals (b) Only two
(d) biomolecules used as essential nutrients in (c) Only three
aquaculture diets (d) All four

2 Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
13. The places, ‘Srikalahasti’ and ‘Pedana’ are 16. Kempen-Broek and Julian Alps were recently
associated with which one of the following art seen in the news in the context of:
forms? (a) transboundary biosphere reserves
(a) Kalamezhuthu art (b) repeated eruptions of shield volcanoes
(b) Kalamkari painting (c) subduction of continental plates
(c) Tanjore painting (d) mound-shaped calcium carbonate structures
(d) Warli art

17. Consider the following information:

14. Consider the following:
1. Forecast of a cyber security incident Gallantry Category Awarded for
Award
2. Issue licences for cybersecurity software 1. Kirti Peacetime Military and
Chakra civilian personnel
3. Take emergency measures for handling a for conspicuous
cyber security incident gallantry
2. Shaurya Wartime Gallantry otherwise
4. Issue guidelines relating to information Chakra in the face of the
security practice enemy
3. Ashok Peacetime Self-sacrifice away
5. Censor online content Chakra from the battlefield
How many of the above are the functions of the
Indian Computer Emergency Response Team In how many of the above rows is the given
(CERT-In)? information correctly matched?
(a) Only two (a) Only one
(b) Only three (b) Only two
(c) Only four (c) All three
(d) All five (d) None

15. Consider the following statements with reference 18. Codex Alimentarius Commission is associated
to the Lok Sabha Secretariat: with:
1. It is an independent body which functions (a) establishing global standards for
under the control of the President of India.
pharmaceutical drugs
2. The position of the Secretary-General of the
(b) developing guidelines for sustainable fishing
Lok Sabha is equivalent to that of Cabinet
practices
Secretary.
(c) setting standards related to food safety and
3. The Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha has
quality
the authority to order expunction if words
(d) regulating international agriculture trade
used in the House are considered defamatory.
tariffs
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025 3

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
19. With reference to the Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN),22. The “TirangaUtsav” is celebrated to remember
consider the following statements: the contributions of:
(a) Pingali Venkayya
1. It was established under the
(b) Rajendra Prasad
Telecommunication Act, 2023, replacing the
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Universal Service Obligation Fund. (d) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
2. The contributions from telecom companies to
the DBN will be credited to the Consolidated 23. Consider the following statements with reference
Fund of India (CFI). to the Space debris:
1. It includes discarded components of
3. The funds collected under the DBN are not
abandoned rockets and satellites at the end of
allowed to be used to fund research and their life.
development. 2. It is primarily found in Low Earth Orbit
Which of the statements given above are correct? (LEO).
(a) 1 and 2 only 3. The Liability Convention, 1972 makes a
launching State liable to pay compensation
(b) 2 and 3 only
for damage caused by its space objects.
(c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
20. The ‘Koyna-Warna Region’ in Maharashtra is (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
well known for:
(a) coral reef formation
24. The Government of India has launched the
(b) active fault zone ‘Project PARI’ to:
(c) temperate montane forests (a) promote international collaboration through
(d) monazite reserves cultural exchange
(b) facilitate technological innovation in rural
communities
21. With reference to the Lieutenant Governor (L-G)
(c) promote public art that combines artistic
of Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following heritage with modern themes
statements: (d) provide educational scholarships for girls
1. S/He has sole discretion to approve or reject coming from below poverty line families
proposals regarding the posting and transfer
25. Which of the following statutory grants are
of All India Services officers in Jammu and
provided by the Central Government to the States?
Kashmir. 1. Local bodies grant
2. S/He exercises discretionary powers in 2. Disaster management grant
matters such as Police and Public Order. 3. Health sector grant
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Post-devolution revenue deficit grant
Select the correct answer using the code given
correct?
below:
(a) 1 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

4 Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
26. ‘Time Crystals’ are known for which one of the 29. Consider the following statements with reference
following properties? to ‘Mitochondrial Donation’ technology:
(a) They are perpetual motion particles that 1. It is an In-Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) based
assisted reproductive technology.
strictly adhere to the laws of thermodynamics.
2. It ensures that only healthy mitochondria are
(b) They repeat in time, similar to the ordinary
passed on to an embryo.
crystals which require a continuous input of 3. It can cure people with existing mitochondrial
energy. disease.
(c) They oscillate between two states perpetually How many statements given above are correct?
without consuming or releasing energy. (a) Only one
(d) They are unstable structures that rapidly (b) Only two
dissipate energy and return to a ground state. (c) All three
(d) None

27. Consider the following statements with reference

30. Consider the following pairs:
to the Reserve Bank of India's guidelines on the
Civilian Honour Country
classification of wilful defaulters:
1. They are not applicable to Non-Banking 1. Grand Companion of the Republic of
Order of Logohu Palau
Financial Companies (NBFCs) and financial
2. Order of the Druk Gyalpo Papua New
institutions like Exim Bank and NABARD. Guinea
2. The lenders must identify and tag wilful 3. Grand Cross of the Legion France
of Honour
defaulters within six months of a loan default.
4. Order of Saint Andrew the Bhutan
3. The wilful defaulters will be eligible to get Apostle
a fresh loan immediately after their removal How many of the pairs given above are correctly
from the List of Wilful Defaulters (LWD). matched?
Which of the statements given above is/are (a) Only one pair
correct? (b) Only two pairs
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Only three pairs
(b) 2 only (d) All four pairs
(c) 1 and 3 only
31. Consider the following statements with reference
(d) 1, 2 and 3
to the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction
(BBNJ) Agreement:
28. It is a weather phenomenon in which a high- 1. It is a legally binding treaty under the United
pressure system forms over a large area by Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea
trapping warm air like a lid on a pot. It prevents (UNCLOS).
hot air from rising in the atmosphere and cooling 2. The parties to the agreement cannot exercise
which leads compressed and heated air to persist sovereign rights over marine resources
derived from the high seas.
for days or weeks, often causing deadly heat
Which of the statements given above is/are
waves. This is the most likely description of:
correct?
(a) Frontogenesis (a) 1 only
(b) Doldrums (b) 2 only
(c) Khamsin (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Heat Dome (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025 5

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
32. ‘Leang Karampuang’ cave was recently seen in 36. In India, the National Security Council falls under:
the news in which one of the following contexts? (a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(a) It is the only surviving site in the world to (b) Ministry of Defence
host the parietal cave art (c) Ministry of External Affairs
(b) It is the only cave known to host the (d) Prime Minister’s Office
polychrome paintings of local fauna
(c) It has the earliest cave paintings to be found 37. Consider the following statements with reference
in the sub-Arctic region
to the District Mineral Foundation (DMF):
(d) It is known to host the world's oldest cave
1. It is a non-profit body established under
painting.
the Mines & Minerals (Development &
33. Which one of the following best describes the Regulation) (MMDR) Act, 1957.
term ‘Zombie startups’? 2. It aims to work for the interest and benefit of
(a) Companies which run their business only persons and areas affected by mining-related
when the demand for a good is higher operations.
(b) Companies that are in operation but are 3. Its composition and functions are prescribed
struggling to generate significant revenue by the State Government.
(c) Newly formed companies with no significant Which of the statements given above are correct?
assets or operations (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) Stagnant unicorn companies which have (b) 2 and 3 only
achieved their highest selling point (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
34. Consider the following statements:
1. He was the founder of the Indian Statistical
38. In an economy, a high credit-deposit ratio
Institute
primarily implies:
2. He had set up the Central Statistical
(a) increase in lending by the bank
Organisation
3. He shaped India’s second Five Year Plan (b) decrease in lending by the bank
The above developments are attributed to which (c) increase in deposits of the bank
one of the following personalities? (d) increase in interest rates offered by the bank
(a) Sir Prafulla Chandra Ray
(b) Dinshaw Edulji Wacha 39. Consider the following statements with reference
(c) Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis to the Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence
(d) Rajani Palme Dutt (GPAI):
1. It aims to bridge the gap between theoretical
35. Consider the following statements: understanding and practical implementation
1. Census is listed in the Concurrent List of of AI.
the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of 2. It operates under the principles expressed
India. in the OECD recommendation on Artificial
2. Caste-wise enumeration of the population
Intelligence.
formally began in India after independence.
3. India has assumed its Lead Chair position for
3. Individual States cannot conduct caste
the 2023-24 term.
surveys in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

6 Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
40. The ‘Integrated Tribal Development Programme’ 44. Consider the following statements regarding the
is an initiative of which one of the following? People’s Biodiversity Register (PBR):
(a) Indian Chamber of Food and Agriculture 1. It is prepared by the respective State
(b) National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Biodiversity Boards of each State.
Federation of India (NAFED) 2. It includes details of the observed impacts of
(c) Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development climate change on biodiversity.
3. Maharashtra is the first State to complete the
Federation of India (TRIFED)
PBR for each local self-government body.
(d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Which of the statements given above is/are
Development (NABARD)
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
41. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 only
1. Producer Price Index (PPI) measures (c) 1 and 3 only
wholesale prices from the point of view of (d) 3 only
producers by tracking prices at different
stages of production. 45. Consider the following statements with reference
2. Unlike the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), the to the African Swine Fever (ASF):
PPI measures change over time in the prices 1. It is caused by a virus.
that producers receive for services. 2. It is a zoonotic disease that can spread to
Which of the statements given above is/are humans.
correct? 3. It has been declared as a global health
(a) 1 only emergency by the World Health Organisation
(b) 2 only (WHO).
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
42. What is a ‘Transposon’?
(c) 3 only
(a) It is a DNA sequence that moves from one
(d) 1 and 3 only
location of the genome to another.
(b) It is a plant hormone that promotes plant 46. Consider the following statements regarding the
growth and development. Agnipath scheme:
(c) It is a cell organelle that processes and 1. It is open for both male and female candidates
packages proteins and lipids. between the age of 171/2 to 21 years.
(d) It is a cell organelle that contains digestive 2. It provides Agniveers with a pension and
enzymes to break down excess cell parts. medical facilities post-retirement.
3. The maximum period of service for Agniveers
43. ‘Pearl Spot’ and ‘Moon wrasse’, recently seen in is ten years.
the news, are: How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) birds (a) Only one
(b) fish (b) Only two
(c) insects (c) All three
(d) reptiles (d) None

Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025 7

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
47. Consider the following statements regarding the 51. Consider the following:
SEHER program: 1. Diagnosing epilepsy
1. It is an initiative of NITI Aayog's Women
2. Monitoring the effects of anesthesia
Entrepreneurship Platform (WEP).
3. Analyzing sleeping patterns
2. It is a comprehensive credit education
program to enhance business skills among 4. Assess oxygen levels in the brain
women entrepreneurs. How many of the above are the clinical applications
Which of the statements given above is/are of Electroencephalography (EEG)?
correct? (a) Only one
(a) 1 only
(b) Only two
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Only three
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) All four

48. The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) 52. “Encarsia formosa”, a species of chalcidoid
is planning to send its astronaut to the International
wasp, has been an area of interest to agricultural
Space Station (ISS) through which one of the
scientists recently because they:
following missions?
(a) Artemis (a) provide an efficient method for controlling
(b) Hera whiteflies
(c) JAXA MMX (b) can be effectively used to pollinate flowers
(d) Axiom 4
(c) help in the decomposition of organic matter
(d) can be used to improve soil fertility
49. Consider the following:
1. Russia
2. Iraq 53. What is the correct sequence of the following
3. Saudi Arabia regions in South Asia as one proceeds from North
4. United States of Emirates (UAE) to South:
5. United States of America (USA)
1. Kalapani
Arrange the above countries in a descending order
2. Limpiyadhura
based on their current share of oil supply to India:
(a) 1-2-3-4-5 3. Tinkar
(b) 2-1-5-4-3 4. Lipulekh
(c) 1-4-3-2-5 Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) 1-5-3-2-4
below:
(a) 3-1-4-2
50. The “Blue Line” is an internationally recognized
border demarcation between: (b) 2-4-1-3
(a) Sudan and Egypt (c) 2-1-4-3
(b) Israel and Lebanon (d) 4-2-3-1
(c) Turkey and Syria
(d) Syria and Jordan

8 Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
54. With reference to the All India Services, consider 57. “Bi-metallic NiFe systems” were recently seen in
the following statements: the news in the context of:
1. During the probation period, officers receive (a) battery storage system for renewable energy
a fixed salary and travel allowance but are not
(b) hydrogen fuel cells used in drones
entitled to other benefits that a confirmed IAS
(c) alteration in the DNA structure
officer receives.
(d) oxygen production through water splitting
2. It is mandatory for an officer to report to the
government if s/he receives a gift from a
relative with a value of more than Rs. 25000. 58. With reference to the Simple Agreement for
Which of the statements given above is/are Future Equity (SAFE), consider the following
correct? statements:
(a) 1 only 1. It is a financial instrument used by start-ups
(b) 2 only
to raise capital from investors.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. It is fully or compulsorily convertible into
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
equity.
55. Consider the following pairs: 3. Unlike convertible notes, it does not accrue

International Day Date any interest.

How many of the above statements are correct?
1. World Environment Day 5th June
(a) Only one
2. World Population Day 11th July
3. World Day Against 21st June (b) Only two
Child Labour
(c) All three
4. World No Tobacco Day 31st May
(d) None
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair 59. Consider the following statements with reference
(b) Only two pairs to the status of employment in India:
(c) Only three pairs 1. The number of unincorporated enterprises has
(d) All four pairs consistently declined over the past decade.
2. The number of workers in the informal sector
56. Consider the following countries:
has steadily increased over the past five years.
1. Iceland
3. The proportion of people employed in
2. United Kingdom
3. Norway agriculture has grown over the past five years.
4. Austria Which of the statements given above is/are
5. Switzerland correct?
How many of the above are members of the (a) 3 only
European Free Trade Association (EFTA)? (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Only two
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Only three
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only four
(d) All five

Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025 9

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
60. Consider the following statements regarding the 63. The “Mashco Piro tribe”, recently seen in the
Foreigners Tribunals (FTs) in India: news, primarily inhabits the areas of:
1. These are set up by the President of India
(a) Siberian Arctic
through a notification.
2. Assam is the only State where a Foreigners (b) African Savanna
Tribunal has been set up. (c) Amazon Rainforest
3. The FTs possess powers of a civil court (d) Sahara Desert
including summoning attendance of
witnesses.
4. Their decisions are final and binding and no 64. Consider the following pairs:
further appeals can be made. River sometimes seen Source
How many of the above statements are correct? in the news
1. Shyok Rimo Glacier
(a) Only one
2. Suru Pothohar Plateau
(b) Only two
3. Teesta Zemu Glacier
(c) Only three
(d) All four How many of the pairs given are correctly
matched?
61. The “One Scientist-One Product”, recently seen
(a) Only one pair
in the news, is an initiative of:
(b) Only two pairs
(a) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(ICAR) (c) All three pairs
(b) Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (d) None
(CSIR)
(c) Department of Biotechnology (DBT)
65. Which of the following crops are commonly used
(d) Indian National Science Academy
in India for biodiesel production?
62. Which of the following statements are correct 1. Jatropha
with reference to the Great Indian Bustard?
2. Neem
1. It is listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife
3. Mahua
(Protection) Act, 1972
2. It is included in Appendix I of CITES 4. Karanja
3. It is declared as critically endangered on the Select the correct answer using the code given
IUCN Red List below:
4. It is identified as one of the species for the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
recovery programme under the Integrated
Development of Wildlife Habitats (b) 1 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
below: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

10 Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
66. Which of the following are the findings of 69. With reference to the Primary Amoebic
the Sustainable Development Goals-National Meningoencephalitis (PAM), consider the
Indicator Framework (SDG-NIF) Progress following statements:
Report, 2024? 1. It is caused by free-living amoebae, found in
1. The Gross Value Added in agriculture per freshwater sources like lakes and rivers.
worker has decreased. 2. It is most prevalent in warmer climates with
2. The proportion of men, women and children temperatures above 300 C.
of all ages living in poverty has increased. Which of the statements given above is/are
3. The percentage of the population using an correct?
improved drinking water source in rural areas (a) 1 only
has increased. (b) 2 only
4. The exclusive women Self Help Groups (c) Both 1 and 2
(SHGs) in bank-linked SHGs have increased. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: 70. With reference to the World Heritage Committee
(a) 1 and 2 only (WHC), consider the following statements:
1. It works under the United Nations Educational,
(b) 2 and 4 only
Scientific and Cultural Organization
(c) 1 and 3 only
(UNESCO).
(d) 3 and 4 only
2. It consists of 21 countries to the World
Heritage Convention that are elected to serve
67. The “Yashaswini” awareness campaign, recently
six-year terms.
seen in the news, aims to:
3. It decides whether a property is to be added to
(a) promote women's participation in sports
the World Heritage List.
(b) formalizing women-owned informal micro
4. India hosted the 46th session of the World
enterprises
Heritage Committee for the first time.
(c) provide financial literacy training for women
How many of the above statements are correct?
(d) offer legal aid to women facing domestic
(a) Only one
violence
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
68. Consider the following :
(d) All four
1. Tectonic plate movements
2. Variations in Earth's inner core rotation 71. Which one of the following groupings has adopted
3. Gravitational pull of the Moon a Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)
4. Climate change to ensure that its ambitious climate objectives are
How many of the above factors affect the length not undermined by imports of carbon-intensive
of a day on Earth? goods?
(a) Only one (a) G20
(b) Only two (b) ASEAN
(c) Only three (c) African Union
(d) All four (d) European Union

Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025 11

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
72. Consider the following pairs: 75. Consider the following:
Government Objective 1. Maldives
Portal 2. Nepal
1. Bhusanket Disseminate critical
data and information on 3. Bangladesh
landslide hazards 4. Bhutan
2. NaViGate Repository of assets Which of the following is the correct sequence of
Bharat created under national rural
development programmes the above countries in ascending order in terms of
3. Yuktdhara Host videos on various receiving grants from India?
government developments (a) 1-3-4-2
4. E-Upahaar Auction of selected gift (b) 1-2-3-4
items presented to the
President (c) 3-1-2-4
How many of the pairs given above are correctly (d) 3-1-4-2
matched?
(a) Only one pair 76. The drugs “Trastuzumab Deruxtecan, Osimertinib
(b) Only two pairs and Durvalumab”, sometimes seen in the news,
(c) Only three pairs are used for the treatment of:
(d) All four pairs (a) Cardiovascular disease
(b) Cancer
73. Consider the following statements: (c) Diabetes
1. Postal Index Number (PIN) was first (d) Neurological disorder
introduced in India during the Prime
Ministership of Indira Gandhi. 77. Consider the following:
2. The Indian Postal Service has five regional 1. Medicine
functional zones. 2. Remote sensing
3. The first digit of the PIN reflects the respective 3. Geo-mapping
State in India. 4. Space exploration
Which of the statements given above is/are How many of the above are potential applications
correct? of tunable laser systems?
(a) 1 only (a) Only one
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) Only two
(c) 3 only (c) Only three
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) All four

74. In the context of Union Budget 2024-25, the term 78. What is dark oxygen?
“climate finance taxonomy” refers to: (a) Oxygen generated during chemical
(a) classification system that ranks countries breakdown of seawater at high pressures
based on their climate change vulnerability (b) Oxygen produced by polymetallic nodules
(b) set of regulations for companies to without photosynthesis
make impactful investments towards the (c) Oxygen released during decomposition of
environment organic matter in deep oceans
(c) list of carbon-intensive industries that need to (d) Oxygen produced by deep-sea volcanic
be phased out by 2030 activity
(d) policy framework for setting mandatory
carbon pricing for all industries
12 Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
79. With reference to the State of the World’s Forests 82. PARAKH is an independent constituent unit set up
2024 Report, consider the following statements: by the National Council of Educational Research
1. Africa and South America together account and Training (NCERT) to:
for two-thirds of the global forest area.
(a) implement a nationwide teacher training
2. South and Southeast Asia contributed more
program
than half of the total mangrove global area.
3. The rate of deforestation has consistently (b) standardize school board assessments across
increased globally since 1990 due to the the country
diversion of land for urbanisation. (c) establish guidelines for digital learning
How many of the above statements are correct? platforms
(a) Only one
(d) oversee the accreditation of higher education
(b) Only two
institutions
(c) All three
(d) None
83. Consider the following statements with reference
80. The Southern Hemisphere Circumpolar to the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC):
Wavenumber-4 Pattern or W4 pattern is related to: 1. It was established following the ‘Group of
(a) deep ocean currents and their influence on
Ministers' recommendations after the Kargil
global nutrient cycles
War.
(b) coastal wind patterns and their effect on
maritime ecosystems 2. It provides initial approval for long-term
(c) sea surface temperature and its impact on the capital acquisitions in the defence sector.
weather systems 3. It is chaired by the Prime Minister of India.
(d) geomagnetic variations in relation to oceanic Which of the statements given above is/are
currents
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
81. With reference to the Pollution Under Control
(PUC) Certificate in India, consider the following (b) 1 and 3 only
statement: (c) 2 only
1. It is issued under the Air (Prevention and (d) 2 and 3 only
Control of Pollution) Act of 1981.
2. It is valid for a fixed period of one year from
84. Which one of the following species exhibits a
the date of its issuance.
unique behavior by adopting an upside-down
3. It is a prerequisite for availing third-party
insurance for vehicles. position on the walls of tree cavities during mating
How many of the above statements are correct? and egg-laying?
(a) Only one (a) Charles Darwin's frog
(b) Only two (b) Pygmy chameleons
(c) All three
(c) Electric-blue tarantula
(d) None
(d) Indian star tortoise

Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025 13

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
85. With reference to Magnetotactic Bacteria (MTB), 88. ‘Lake Kivu’, characterized by the depths saturated
consider the following statements: with trapped carbon dioxide and methane, is
1. They are prokaryotic microorganisms that situated between:
thrive in low-oxygen conditions. (a) Angola and Namibia
2. They use Earth’s magnetic field to orient (b) Niger and Chad
themselves in a north or south direction. (c) Democratic Republic of the Congo and
3. They play crucial roles in the biogeochemical Rwanda
cycling of carbon and nitrogen.
(d) Kenya and Tanzania
How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only one
89. Consider the following statements with reference
(b) Only two
to the Climate Finance Action Fund:
(c) All three
1. It was launched as an outcome of the 29th
(d) None
Conference of Parties to the UNFCCC.

86. In India, ‘Consent to Establish’ (CTE) and ‘Consent 2. It will be capitalised with contributions
to Operate’ (CTO) are granted to regulate: from fossil fuel-producing countries and
(a) industries that discharge effluents into the companies.
environment 3. It provides grant-based support to address
(b) defence industries that aim to invest in core effects of natural disasters in developing
sectors countries.
(c) manufacturing industries that use hazardous Which of the statements given above are correct?
raw material (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) mining sites that operate within protected (b) 2 and 3 only
wildlife sanctuaries (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
87. Consider the following pairs:

Important Celebrated to 90. With reference to the Charaideo Moidams,

Day
consider the following statements:
1. Vijay Diwas Mark the triumph over
Pakistan in the 1971 Indo- 1. These are located in the foothills of the Patkai
Pak War
Ranges in Assam.
2. Kargil Vijay Commemorate the triumph
Diwas in the 1999 Indo-Pak War 2. These were primarily constructed using
3. Parakram To honor Netaji Subhas marble.
Diwas Chandra Bose
4. Veer Baal To honour the martyrdom of 3. The height of a moidam often reflects the
Diwas Bhagat Singh power and status of the individual buried
How many of the pairs given above are correctly within.
matched? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one pair (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two pairs (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only three pairs (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All four pairs (d) 1, 2 and 3

14 Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
91. "Right to Shelter" is protected under which Article 95. Consider the following:
of the Constitution of India? 1. Environment Protection Act, 1986
(a) Article 14 2. Biological Diversity Act, 2002
(b) Article 15 3. Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(c) Article 19 4. Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking)
(d) Article 21 Act, 1937
How many of the above acts regulate Genetically
92. With reference to the Convention on the Protection Modified (GM) crops in India?
and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and (a) Only one
International Lakes (Water Convention), consider (b) Only two
the following statements: (c) Only three
1. It was adopted at the Rio+20 conference in (d) All four
2012.
2. It is a legally binding instrument for the
96. Consider the following pairs:
sustainable management of shared water
Region sometimes Country
resources. mentioned in the news
3. India has recently signed and ratified this 1. Hambantota Sri Lanka
convention. 2. Chornomorsk Russia
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Duqm Iran
correct?
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(a) 2 only
matched?
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (a) Only one pair
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
93. Ramjet, Scramjet and Dual Mode Ramjet (d) None
(DMRJ) are types of which one of the following
technologies? 97. Consider the following statements:
(a) Hybrid rocket engines Statement-I:
(b) Air-breathing propulsion systems Consumption of Lion’s Mane mushrooms helps
(c) Solid rocket boosters against neurological disorders.
(d) Nuclear propulsion systems Statement-II:
Lion’s Mane mushrooms are a good source of
94. Consider the following statements with reference hericenones.
to the Vishnupad Temple at Gaya: Which one of the following is correct in respect of
1. It was built under the patronage of Queen the above statements?
Ahilyabai Holkar in the 18th century. (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
2. It is situated on the bank of the Falgu River. and Statement–II explains Statement–I
3. It is famous for performing rituals in (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
remembrance of ancestors. correct, but Statement–II does not explain
Which of the statements given above are correct? Statement–I
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
(b) 2 and 3 only incorrect
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct

Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025 15

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 VAJIRAM & RAVI
98. Consider the following: 100. Operations undertaken by the Railway Protection
1. South Africa Force (RPF) to rescue children in need of care and
2. Brazil protection across various Indian Railway Zones is
3. Australia called:
4. Japan (a) Operation Madad
How many of the countries are members of both (b) Operation Nanhe Faristey
the ‘Quad’ and the ‘BRICS’? (c) Operation Muskaan
(a) Only one (d) Operation Ajay
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) None

99. Consider the following sites:

1. Saint Sophia Cathedral in Ukraine
2. Bamiyan Valley in Afghanistan
3. Saint Hilarion Complex in Gaza
How many of the above are listed in the UNESCO
list of World Heritage Sites in Danger?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None

16 Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Current Affairs Test Series – 2025

CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)

Answer Key
&
Detailed Answer Explanations
 CA Test – 03 (CA2253) - Answer Key

1. (d) 11. (a) 21. (c) 31. (c) 41. (c) 51. (d) 61. (a) 71. (d) 81. (d) 91. (d)

2. (d) 12. (d) 22. (a) 32. (d) 42. (a) 52. (a) 62. (d) 72. (b) 82. (b) 92. (a)

3. (c) 13. (b) 23. (d) 33. (b) 43. (b) 53. (b) 63. (c) 73. (a) 83. (a) 93. (b)

4. (d) 14. (b) 24. (c) 34. (c) 44. (b) 54. (c) 64. (b) 74. (b) 84. (a) 94. (d)

5. (a) 15. (a) 25. (d) 35. (d) 45. (a) 55. (c) 65. (d) 75. (c) 85. (c) 95. (c)

6. (d) 16. (a) 26. (c) 36. (d) 46. (a) 56. (b) 66. (d) 76. (b) 86. (a) 96. (a)

7. (d) 17. (b) 27. (b) 37. (d) 47. (c) 57. (d) 67. (b) 77. (d) 87. (c) 97. (a)

8. (c) 18. (c) 28. (d) 38. (a) 48. (d) 58. (b) 68. (d) 78. (b) 88. (c) 98. (d)

9. (c) 19. (a) 29. (b) 39. (d) 49. (a) 59. (a) 69. (c) 79. (d) 89. (d) 99. (c)

10. (b) 20. (b) 30. (a) 40. (b) 50. (b) 60. (b) 70. (d) 80. (c) 90. (c) 100. (b)

Q1.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● ‘AI washing’ is a term derived from greenwashing, where companies exaggerate their environmental friendliness
to appeal to customers. Similarly, businesses that claim to have integrated AI into their products, when
they’re actually using less sophisticated technology, can be accused of AI washing.
○ It also constitutes advertisements that overstate the capabilities of a company’s AI tools or mislead
consumers about features that are not yet operational in their AI products.
● The United States of America (USA) securities regulator found that the companies had made false statements to
their clients about providing ‘expert AI-driven forecasts’ and using machine learning to manage retail client
portfolios.
● The examples of AI washing are:
○ Google's Gemini AI chatbot was showcased with a video suggesting real-time object recognition, but
it was later revealed to be stitched together from text prompts.
○ Amazon's 'Just Walk Out' cashier-less technology initially claimed AI and sensor capabilities, but it was
found to depend on human reviews of shopping transactions, prompting its removal from some grocery
stores.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In the recent past, the significant growth in AI washing has raised concerns.

Q2.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The International Astronomical Union (IAU) is a group of astronomers that names objects in our solar
system. It has agreed on its own definition of the word "planet”.
● Currently, the International Astronomical Union (IAU) defines a celestial body as a ‘planet’ if it has the
following three characteristics:
○ It orbits the sun. So, point 1 is correct.

1
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ○It is large enough for gravity to mold it into a roundish shape. So, point 2 is correct.
○It has cleared away any smaller objects, other than moons and other satellites, surrounding its orbit.
So, point 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The IAU defines a celestial body as a 'dwarf planet’ if it has the following four characteristics:
○ It is in orbit around the Sun.
○ It has sufficient mass for its self-gravity to overcome rigid body forces so that it assumes
a hydrostatic equilibrium (nearly round) shape.
○ It has not cleared the neighbourhood around its orbit.
○ It is not a satellite of any space object.
Relevance: Astronomers are recently proposing a new, more quantitative definition of what makes a planet.

Q3.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Non-Timber Forest Produce (NTFP), also known as Minor Forest Produce (MFP), is a category within
forest produce that includes all plant-based products except timber. According to the Scheduled Tribes and
Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (commonly known as the
Forest Rights Act or FRA), ‘Minor Forest Produce’ encompasses items like bamboo, brushwood, stumps,
canes, Tusser cocoon, honey, waxes, lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants, herbs, roots, tubers, and
similar products. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
● The FRA, 2006 explicitly defines Minor Forest Produce as any non-timber forest product of plant origin.
These resources are vital for the livelihoods of many tribal communities, who largely reside in forested areas and
rely on MFP for income and sustenance.
● The FRA, 2006 grants these communities the "right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of
minor forest produce" that they have traditionally gathered, both within and outside village boundaries.
● Major Forest Products include timber, round wood, pulpwood, charcoal and firewood. So, point 5 is not
correct.
So, only four of the above are classified as Non-Timber Forest Produce (NTFP) under the Forest Rights
Act, 2006.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The Forest Rights Act (FRA) of 2006 acknowledges the rights of forest-dwelling tribal
communities and other traditional forest dwellers to access and manage forest resources
vital for their livelihood, habitation and socio-cultural needs.
● Key objectives:
o Rectify historical injustices faced by these communities, secure land tenure, livelihood.
o Food security for forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional dwellers.
o Promote sustainable forest conservation by involving rights holders in biodiversity
preservation and ecological balance.
Relevance: Tribal communities in Odisha are facing challenges in obtaining approvals from the forest department to sell
Kendu leaves, which are classified as minor forest produce.

2
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q4.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN):
● It was created in 2004 to promote cooperation among cities that have identified creativity as a strategic factor for
sustainable urban development. It now includes 350 cities in over a hundred countries.
○ The network is aimed at leveraging the creative, social and economic potential of cultural
industries. It was launched to promote UNESCO’s goals of cultural diversity and strengthen resilience
to threats such as climate change, rising inequality and rapid urbanisation. It encourages a culture of
creativity in urban planning and solutions to urban problems.
● Indian cities in UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN):
○ Kozhikode was recently included in the category of literature and Gwalior in the category of
music. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
○ Varanasi (music), Srinagar (crafts and folk arts) and Chennai (music) are part of the network. So,
pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.
○ UNESCO had designated Hyderabad as a UNESCO Creative City of Gastronomy in 2019. So, pair
4 is correctly matched.
● Objective of the UCCN: The network allows member cities to recognise creativity as an essential
component of urban development, notably through partnerships involving the public and private sectors and
civil society. It envisages the development of hubs of creativity and innovation and broadens
opportunities for creators and professionals in the cultural sector. These cities have to achieve the UN agenda of
sustainable development.
So, all four of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Kozhikode became part of the UNESCO Creative Cities Network (UCCN) as the city was awarded
the title of ‘City of Literature’.

Q5.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● ‘Project Nexus’ is conceptualised by the innovation hub of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS). It seeks
to enhance cross-border payments by connecting multiple domestic Instant Payment Systems (IPS)
globally. It is the first BIS Innovation Hub project in the payments area to move towards live implementation.
● The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has joined Project Nexus, facilitating instant cross-border retail payments.
India’s UPI will link with Fast Payment Systems (FPSs) of Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. The
project aims to expand to include more countries for broader cross-border payment integration.
● The RBI collaborates bilaterally with various countries to link India’s FPS - UPI with their FPSs for cross-
border Person-to-Person (P2P) and Person-to-Merchant (P2M) payments. Bilateral connectivity offers benefits to
India and its partners. A multilateral approach will enhance RBI’s efforts to expand the international reach of Indian
payment systems.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has joined Project Nexus to enhance cross-border payments.

Q6.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Recently, three new criminal codes came into effect on 1st July 2024, replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC) 1860, the
Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) 1973 and the Indian Evidence Act, 1872.

3
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023: It retains most offences from the IPC and removes sedition as an offence;
adds a new offence for acts endangering India's sovereignty, unity and integrity.
○ The IPC is replaced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) Act, 2023, adopting the Unlawful
Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (UAPA)’s definition of a 'terrorist act'. It defines terrorism as acts
threatening the country's unity, integrity, security, or economic security, or striking terror in people. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
○ It adds organised crime as an offence, including kidnapping, extortion and cyber-crime committed by crime
syndicates; petty organised crime is also an offence.
● Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS): It replaces the CrPC of 1973. It introduces
community service as punishment for petty offences like attempted suicide, theft of property under Rs
5,000, public intoxication and defamation. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023: It replaces the Indian Evidence Act of 1872. It allows electronic
evidence to have the same legal effect as paper records.
○ The revised provision states the admissibility of electronic records is subject to requiring a certificate.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Preventive Detention Powers: Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 allowed police to detain
persons not conforming to police directions to prevent cognizable offences. Ambiguity allows
detention until the person is produced before a Magistrate or 'the occasion is past'.
○ The BNSS mandates the detained person must be produced before a Magistrate or
released in petty cases within 24 hours to prevent abuse of power.
Relevance: Recently, three new criminal codes came into effect on 1st July 2024.

Q7.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Stablecoins are cryptocurrencies whose value is pegged, or tied, to that of another currency, commodity, or
financial instrument. They aim to provide an alternative to the high volatility of the most popular
cryptocurrencies, including Bitcoin (BTC), which has made crypto investments less suitable for everyday
transactions. So, statement 2 is correct.
● They are cryptocurrencies that attempt to peg their market value to some external reference. They
are more useful than volatile cryptocurrencies as a medium of exchange. So, statement 1 is correct.
● They may be pegged to a currency like the U.S. dollar or the price of a commodity such as gold. They pursue
price stability by maintaining reserve assets as collateral or through algorithmic formulas that are
supposed to control supply. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent volatility in the market of stablecoins has raised concerns over its reliability.

Q8.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● According to the International Committee of the Red Cross (ICRC) report, the combined effects of
armed conflict and climate risks undermine people's ability to manage disasters. The report highlights
that countries affected by conflict are also disproportionately impacted by climate change. This double threat
pushes people out of their homes, disrupts food production, cuts off supplies, amplifies diseases and weakens
healthcare services.

4
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● The report titled When Rain Turns to Dust, published in 2024, is primarily based on research conducted in 2019
and 2020 and focuses on three case studies: the interior of the Central African Republic (CAR), southern
Iraq and northern Mali. These regions, enduring ongoing conflict or instability, are particularly vulnerable to
climate change. Their susceptibility is partly due to their geographical location but also because of the enduring
impact of conflict on communities, systems, institutions, and authorities. So, points 1, 3 and 5 are correct.
○ Mali: Pastoralists avoided traveling with livestock due to fears of armed attacks, leading to overcrowding
near water sources and tensions with farmers.
○ Central African Republic: Displaced people in temporary settlements faced heavy rains.
○ Iraq: Residents of Faw, south of Basra, link their water and farming issues to the destruction of date palms
during the Iran-Iraq war.
● Ghana and Kuwait have not experienced the combined effects of armed conflict and climate risks. So, points
2 and 4 are not correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q9.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC), has recommended a complete ban on the import, production,
distribution and sale of two antibiotics, chloramphenicol and nitrofurans, for use in food animal
production systems.
○ These are antimicrobial drugs that are widely used in the treatment of bacteria in food-
producing animals. The misuse of these antibiotics in animals can cause the development of antibiotic-
resistant bacteria.
○ The DCC advises the Central and State Governments, as well as the Drugs Technical Advisory Board
(DTAB), on issues concerning the administration of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The Marine Products Export Development Authority (MPEDA) focuses on developing India's
seafood industry, particularly marine product exports. According to Coastal Aquaculture
Authority (CAA) guidelines, 20 antibiotics and pharmacologically active substances are
banned in shrimp aquaculture.
○ This list includes chloramphenicol and nitrofuran types such as furaltadone,
furazolidone, furylfuramide, nifuratel, nifuroxime, nifurprazine, nitrofurantoin and
nitrofurazone.
Relevance: Recently, the Drugs Consultative Committee (DCC) recommended prohibiting chloramphenicol and
nitrofurans to curb antibiotic misuse and enhance food safety.

Q10.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Union Government has launched the ‘Sampoornata Abhiyaan’ to drive rapid development in India's
underdeveloped regions, under the Aspirational Districts Programme (ADP) and Aspirational Blocks
Programme (ABP).
● It has been initiated by NITI Aayog and aims to achieve saturation in selected indicators across
targeted districts and blocks. So, statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct.

5
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● By converging existing schemes, defining clear outcomes and implementing rigorous monitoring, it seeks to
bridge developmental gaps and foster transformative changes. This concerted effort ensures a brighter
future for the nation's aspirational districts and blocks, enhancing overall socio-economic progress in these areas.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, NITI Aayog has launched the ‘Sampoornata Abhiyaan’.

Q11.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Agrivoltaics, or agro-PV, represents a solution that optimizes land use by integrating solar energy
production with agriculture. This approach involves installing solar panels on both current and fallow
agricultural land.
● It will generate renewable energy while allowing crops to be cultivated beneath or around the PV panels. This
dual-use system not only addresses issues related to land scarcity and acquisition of solar energy but also
facilitates localized energy transmission and distribution.
● It enhances sustainability by maximizing land productivity and fostering a reliable energy source that supports
local agricultural activities. It significantly boosts land productivity by 35-73%, offering a sustainable remedy for land
scarcity in solar energy.
o This setup, with solar panels elevated 2-3 meters above ground, creates a protective microclimate for crops,
akin to a natural greenhouse. It curtails soil moisture evaporation and bolsters solar panel efficiency by 2-6
degrees, akin to prolonging their operational lifespan. These benefits bolster rural employment and mitigate
financial stress in India's agricultural sector.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to the studies, Agrivoltaics can enhance land productivity and alleviate farm distress.

Q12.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO): It is a political, economic and military permanent
intergovernmental international organization. It is based in Eurasia and seeks to ensure regional peace, stability
and security. It was established in 2001. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ The SCO Charter was signed in 2002 and came into force in 2003. It is a statutory document that describes
the organization's goals, values, structure and primary activities. Its official languages are Russian and
Chinese. So, statement 4 is correct.
○ Its members include: India, Iran, Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan and
Uzbekistan. Recently, Belarus became the newest member of the SCO grouping. Afghanistan and
Mongolia hold Observer Status. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The SCO has been an observer in the United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) since 2005 and
starting from 2009, the General Assembly has included an item on “Cooperation between the United Nations and
the Shanghai Cooperation Organization” on its agenda every other year resulting in a relevant resolution. So,
statement 3 is correct.
So, all four of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Minister of External Affairs attended the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation Summit.

6
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q13.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The places ‘Srikalahasti’ and ‘Pedana’ are renowned for their
association with Kalamkari painting, a traditional Indian art form
known for its intricate hand-painted designs on fabrics.
o Srikalahasti and Pedana are located in Andhra
Pradesh and have been historical centers where Kalamkari
artists practice and preserve this ancient craft.
● Kalamkari involves using natural dyes and intricate motifs
depicting mythological themes, nature and folklore. The art form
requires meticulous skill and craftsmanship, with artists often using
special techniques to create vibrant and detailed compositions. It
continues to flourish as both a cultural heritage and a celebrated artistic tradition in India.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent studies have brought to light that the Kalamkari art form is struggling for survival in contemporary
times.

Q14.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The ‘Indian Computer Emergency Response Team’ (CERT-In) was established in 2004 and is a functional
organisation of the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, to secure Indian cyberspace.
CERT-In provides incident prevention and response services as well as security quality management services. The
Information Technology (Amendment) Act 2008, designated CERT-In to serve as the national agency to perform
the following functions in the area of cyber security:
○ Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents.
○ Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents. So, point 3 is correct.
○ Coordination of cyber incident response activities.
○ Issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes and whitepapers relating to information security
practices, procedures, prevention, response and reporting of cyber incidents. So, point 4 is correct.
○ Such other functions relating to cyber security as may be prescribed.
● CERT-In neither issues licences for cybersecurity software nor censors online content. So, points 2 and 5
are not correct.
So, only three of the above are the functions of the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-
In).
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Additionally, CERT-In serves as a central point for:

○ Reporting cyber incidents.
○ Maintaining a database of incidents.
○ Analysing trends and patterns of cyber attacks.
○ Developing preventive strategies.
○ Providing in-depth analysis of incidents to determine scope, priority and threat level.
○ Recommending recovery and containment measures.
○ Assisting with follow-up actions to prevent future incidents.
7
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Relevance: The Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) has recently issued a high-risk warning for users of
Adobe Premiere Pro and other Adobe products.

Q15.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Lok Sabha Secretariat is an independent body which functions under the ultimate guidance and control of
the Hon'ble Speaker of Lok Sabha. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● In the discharge of his constitutional and statutory responsibilities, the Speaker Lok Sabha is assisted by the
Secretary-General, Lok Sabha, (whose pay scale, position and status etc. is equivalent to that of the highest-ranking
official in the Government of India i.e. Cabinet Secretary), functionaries of the level of the Additional Secretary,
Joint Secretary and other officers and staff of the Secretariat at various levels. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ The Lok Sabha Secretariat produces background notes, information bulletins, research notes
and other materials for Members of Parliament, including briefs and research notes.
● The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the authority to order expunction if words are considered defamatory,
indecent, unparliamentary, or undignified. The Presiding Officers of both the Houses of the Parliament hold the
power to exclude unparliamentary words from Parliament's official records. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: During the recent special session of the 18th Lok Sabha, an expunction occurred in Parliamentary proceedings
during the Motion of Thanks debate.

Q16.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Biosphere reserves are nominated by national governments and remain under the sovereign jurisdiction of the
States where they are located. They are designated by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural
Organization (UNESCO) following an intergovernmental designation process under the Man and the
Biosphere Programme (MAB).
○ UNESCO has approved the designation of 11 new biosphere reserves in 11 countries, including Belgium
and Gambia for the first time and two transboundary biosphere reserves:
■ The Kempen-Broek Transboundary Biosphere Reserve is a unique natural area
spanning Belgium and the Netherlands. It encompasses diverse habitats such as wetlands,
heathlands and woodlands, supporting rich biodiversity including rare and endangered species.
■ Julian Alps Transboundary Biosphere Reserve (Italy, Slovenia) was formed due to the
merger of two Slovenian and Italian biosphere reserves which had been designated in 2003 and
2019, respectively. It boasts a patchwork of alpine mountains and karst plateaux dotted by
waterfalls and pristine lakes.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, eleven new biosphere reserves were added to the global list by UNESCO.

Q17.
Answer: b
Explanation:
The Government of India established Gallantry Awards to recognize acts of bravery and sacrifice by officers and troops
of the Armed Forces, other lawfully created Forces and civilians. They are presented by the President of India. They
are classified into two categories: gallantry in the face of the enemy and gallantry other than in the face of the enemy. The
second category of Gallantry Awards comprises the following awards:

8
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● Kirti Chakra is the second-highest peacetime gallantry award in India. It was instituted in 1952 and redesigned
in 1967. It is awarded to military and civilian personnel for conspicuous gallantry. So, row 1 is correctly
matched.
● The Shaurya Chakra is third in order of precedence of peacetime gallantry awards. It is awarded for
gallantry otherwise in the face of the enemy (not confronting the enemy directly). So, row 2 is not
correctly matched.
● The Ashok Chakra is the highest peacetime gallantry award in India. It is awarded for valor, courageous
action or self-sacrifice away from the battlefield. It is the peacetime equivalent of the Param Vir Chakra
and is awarded for the "most conspicuous bravery or some daring or pre-eminent valour or self-sacrifice" other
than in the face of the enemy. So, row 3 is correctly matched.
So, in only two of the above rows the given information is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The first category of Gallantry Awards comprises the following awards:

○ Param Vir Chakra (PVC): It is India's highest military decoration awarded for
the highest degree of valour or self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy. It is
presented to officers: men and women of all ranks of the Army, the Navy and the Air
Force, of any of the Reserve Forces, of the Territorial Army Militia and of any
other lawfully constituted Armed Forces.
○ Maha Vir Chakra (MVC): It is the second-highest military decoration in India and
is awarded for acts of conspicuous gallantry in the presence of the enemy, whether
on land, at sea or in the air. It may be awarded posthumously.
○ Vir Chakra: It is presented for acts of gallantry in the presence of the enemy, whether
on land or at sea or in the air. It is third in precedence in the wartime gallantry
awards and comes after the Param Vir Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra. It was established
by the President of India on 26 January 1950 (with effect from 15 August 1947). The
decoration may be awarded posthumously.

Relevance: The President of India recently conferred gallantry awards.

Q18.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The Codex Alimentarius Commission is an international body jointly established in 1963 by the Food and
Agriculture Organization (FAO) and the World Health Organization (WHO). Its primary role is to develop
standards, guidelines and codes of practice related to food safety and quality. These standards cover a wide
range of topics including food additives, contaminants, pesticide residues, hygiene practices, labeling and more.
● The Commission's work is crucial in promoting safe food practices globally, ensuring consumer
protection and facilitating fair practices in international food trade.
○ India was unanimously elected as a member representing the Asian region in the Executive Committee of
Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC) during its 46th meeting at the FAO Headquarters in Rome.
● India’s proposal for setting up group standards for millets was also accepted by the Commission and India’s
initiative for establishing global standards for millets was acknowledged by the Commission and supported by the
member countries.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: India recently joined the Executive Committee of the Codex Alimentarius Commission.
9
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q19.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Digital Bharat Nidhi (DBN) has been created under the Telecommunication Act, 2023 and it will replace
the Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) created under the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885. So, statement 1
is correct.
○ The erstwhile Universal Service Obligation Fund (USOF) is a pool of funds generated by a 5 percent
Universal Service Levy charged upon all the telecom fund operators on their Adjusted Gross Revenue
(AGR).
● As per the Telecommunication Act, 2023, contributions made by telecom companies towards the Digital Bharat
Nidhi will first be credited to the Consolidated Fund of India (CFI). So, statement 2 is correct.
● All revenues that the government receives, including loans raised and all money received in repayment of loans,
are credited to the CFI. The government also incurs its expenditures from this fund. The Central Government
will deposit the collected funds to the DBN from time to time.
○ Funds collected under the DBN will be used to support universal service through promoting
access to and delivery of telecommunication services in underserved rural, remote and urban
areas; fund research and development of telecommunication services, technologies and
products; support pilot projects, consultancy assistance and advisory support for improving connectivity;
and for the introduction of telecommunication services, technologies and products. So, statement 3 is
not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) released draft rules to operationalise the Digital
Bharat Nidhi.

Q20.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Koyna-Warna region:
● It is known for earthquakes caused by reservoirs since the seismic activity there is synchronised with the
dam's loading and unloading during the monsoon and post-monsoon seasons.
○ It is located in Maharashtra and faces frequent earthquakes caused due to the presence of the active
fault zone since the impoundment of the Shivaji Sagar Lake, or the Koyna Dam, in 1962.
● The Borehole Geophysics Research Laboratory (BGRL) in Maharashtra operating under the Ministry of Earth
Sciences is conducting a scientific deep-drilling program in this region to investigate the underlying causes of
frequent earthquakes.
○ This programme aims to drill the hole up to a depth of 6 km into the earth’s crust to gather data and
conduct observations to study Seismically induced earthquakes, also known as reservoir-triggered
earthquakes.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● It has revealed the presence of 1.2-km thick Deccan trap lava flows and 2,500-2,700 million
years old ancient granitic basement rocks, which will contribute to the broader understanding
of the earth's geological history and seismic activity.

10
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● Also, high-resolution images and measurements from the borehole have uncovered detailed
information about fault-fracture zones and rock deformation features. The presence of water
at depths of up to 3 km, found to be meteoric or rain-fed, indicates deep percolation and
circulation processes in the region. According to these discoveries, the minor stress
perturbations can potentially trigger earthquakes in the critically stressed Koyna region.
Relevance: The Ministry of Earth Sciences is executing India’s sole scientific deep-drilling programme in the Active fault
zone in the Koyna-Warna Region.

Q21.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The ‘Transaction of Business of the Government of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir Rules,
2019’ outlines the Conduct of Business and establishes the framework for assigning responsibilities, handling
proposals and ensuring smooth operation within the Jammu and Kashmir administration.
● According to the recent amendments to the above rules namely ‘Transaction of Business of the Government
of Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir (Second Amendment) Rules, 2024,’
○ The proposals regarding the posting and transfer of Administrative Secretaries and All India
Services officers' cadre posts must be submitted to the Lieutenant Governor by the Administrative
Secretary, General Administration Department, through the Chief Secretary. The Lieutenant
Governor has sole discretion to approve or reject these proposals, further highlighting their
oversight and control over key administrative and security functions. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ All matters connected with Prisons, the Directorate of Prosecution and the Forensic Science
Laboratory are required to be submitted to the L-G.
○ No proposal requiring the previous concurrence of the Finance Department concerning matters such as
'Police', 'Public Order', 'All India Service' and 'Anti-Corruption Bureau' can be approved or
rejected without being presented to the Lieutenant Governor through the Chief Secretary. This ensures
that the Lieutenant Governor exercises discretion in these critical areas. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) widened the ambit of the administrative role of the
Lieutenant Governor of Jammu and Kashmir.

Q22.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Pingali Venkayya: The “TirangaUtsav” is celebrated on his
birthday, August 2, to remember his contributions to the
design of the Tricolour, India's national flag. He was born
on August 2, 1878, and was a teacher, author, agriculturist and
linguist.
● At the age of 19, he joined the British Indian Army where he
participated in the Boer War in South Africa. That's where
he met Mahatma Gandhi.
● When he attended the All India Congress Committee
(AICC) session in 1906 in then Calcutta under the leadership
of Dadabhai Naoroji, he was inspired to design a flag for the Indian National Congress as he opposed the idea
of hoisting the British flag at Congress meetings.

11
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● He even published a book 'Bharatha Deshaniki Oka Jatiya Patakam' (National Flag of India) in 1916.
The draft presented to Gandhi by him had two colour bands - red and green to symbolise the two major
communities in India - Hindus and Muslims. However, Gandhi suggested adding a white colour band to
represent peace and harmony between communities along with a spinning wheel to represent the progress
of the country.
● Since 1921, his flag was used informally at all Congress meetings. The flag was adopted in its present form
during a meeting of the Constituent Assembly on July 22, 1947, just twenty days before India's
Independence. On August 15, 1947, it became the official flag of the country. The horizontal rectangular Tricolour
flag consists of saffron, white and green with the Ashoka Chakra - a 24-spoke wheel in navy blue, resting at its
centre.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the death anniversary of Pingali Venkayya was observed nationwide.

Q23.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Space debris, or space junk, consists of man-made objects left in space, ranging from defunct satellites to
tiny items like paint chips, orbiting at speeds around 18,000 miles per hour according to the National
Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). It includes discarded components of space systems,
such as satellites at the end of their life or abandoned rocket parts. So, statement 1 is correct.
● NASA estimates over 1 million pieces larger than 1 centimetre in space. The Federation of American
Scientists suggests up to 170 million pieces, mostly untrackable due to technology limitations. The Space
Surveillance Network monitors around 27,000 objects among the 55,000 debris pieces.
○ Most debris resides in Low Earth Orbit (LEO), where deliberate destruction and accidental collisions
have significantly increased debris since 2007. The lack of international laws complicates debris cleanup in
LEO. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Liability Convention of 1972 (Convention on International Liability for Damage Caused by Space
Objects): It was adopted in 1972 and it states that a launching State is liable to pay compensation for damage
caused by its space objects on the Earth's surface or to aircraft, as well as for damage caused by its faults in
space. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● The high speed of debris poses risks; even small particles can damage spacecraft and
satellites. The International Space Station has suffered damage, prompting evacuations due to
debris threats.
● According to NASA, debris can travel at speeds of up to 18,000 mph, which is "10 times
faster than the speed of a bullet, so even a tiny paint chip can rupture a spacesuit or damage
delicate solar arrays and electronics on a satellite.
Relevance: The future space-based services, explorations and operations pose a safety risk to people and property in
space and on Earth.

Q24.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Project PARI (Public Art of India) is an initiative by the Ministry of Culture, Government of India. It
is being executed by Lalit Kala Akademi and the National Gallery of Modern Art.

12
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● It seeks to bring forth public art that draws inspiration from millennia of artistic heritage (lok kala/lok
sanskriti) while incorporating modern themes and techniques. These expressions underscore the intrinsic value
that art holds in Indian society, serving as a testament to the nation's enduring commitment to creativity and
artistic expression.
● The proposed sculptures being created for Project PARI include wide-ranging ideas paying tributes to nature, ideas
inspired by the Natyashastra, Mahatma Gandhi, toys of India, hospitality, ancient knowledge, Naad
or Primeval Soun, Harmony of life, Kalpataru-the divine tree etc.
● It aims at stimulating dialogue, reflection and inspiration, contributing to the dynamic cultural
fabric of the nation. Over 150 visual artists from all over the country are working on various sites in the national
capital to beautify public spaces for the upcoming event.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Ministry of Culture recently initiated Project PARI for the 46th World Heritage Committee Meeting.

Q25.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The Constitution of India provides for two types of grants-in-aid, namely the statutory grants and discretionary grants to
the States from the Central resources.
● Statutory grants: Article 275 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to make grants to
the States which are in need of financial assistance and not to every State. These grants are charged on
the Consolidated Fund of India and are given to the States on the recommendation of the Finance Commission.
The grants recommended by the 15th Finance Commission for its award period 2021-26 include post-devolution
revenue deficit grants, local bodies grants, disaster management grants and health sector grants
through local governments. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
● Discretionary grants: Article 282 of the Constitution of India empowers both the Central and State
Governments to provide financial assistance for any public purpose, regardless of legislative jurisdiction. Under
this provision, the Central Government often extends grants to States. These grants are characterised
by their discretionary nature; the Central Government is not obligated to provide them and the decision to do so
rests solely at its discretion. The dual purpose of these grants is to support states financially in achieving their
development objectives and to influence State policies in alignment with national priorities.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: State Finance Ministers made demands for grants to infrastructure in the pre-budget meeting, which was
recently organised by the Union Finance Minister.

Q26.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Time crystals exhibit a repeating structure in space like salt or diamonds. They possess a repeating pattern in
time. This means they oscillate between two states perpetually without consuming or releasing energy.
● Scientists have managed to create these elusive structures by manipulating rubidium atoms. By subjecting
these atoms to intense laser light, they were excited into a state where their size expanded dramatically.
○ This unusual condition led to a feedback loop between the atoms and the laser light, resulting in
the formation of a time crystal. Their existence challenges fundamental physics as they seem to defy the
laws of thermodynamics, which dictate that systems tend towards disorder over time.
○ However, they exist in a quantum state where these laws don't strictly apply. These extraordinary
properties make time crystals a subject of intense research. Scientists believe they could have significant
implications for Quantum Computing and the development of highly sensitive sensors.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, researchers have been successful in making a type of oddly-behaving time crystal.
13
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q27.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has recently issued final guidelines on the classification of wilful defaulters. The
guidelines will apply to banks, Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) and financial institutions such
as the Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) and the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD). So, statement 1 is not correct.
● These guidelines direct lenders to complete identifying and tagging such a borrower within six months of it
turning bad. So, statement 2 is correct.
● The guidelines do not provide additional credit facilities to a wilful defaulter or any entity with which a wilful
defaulter is associated. The bar on additional credit facilities to a wilful defaulter or any entity with which a wilful
defaulter is associated shall be effective for one year after the wilful defaulter’s name has been removed
from the List of Wilful Defaulters (LWD). So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Wilful Defaulter:
● A borrower will be classified as a wilful defaulter if they default on loans despite having the
capacity to repay. The tag would also apply to those who have diverted funds taken from lenders
or “siphoned off the funds availed under the credit facility from lender”.
● The lenders are required to check all bad loans of ₹25 lakh and above to classify as wilful
default. This would encompass the borrower or the guarantor who has wilfully defaulted on
loans.
● If banks in their internal preliminary screenings find that a borrower has wilfully defaulted on a
loan, they would have to complete the entire process of categorising the borrower as
a wilful defaulter within six months.
Relevance: Recently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issued final guidelines on the classification of wilful defaulters.

Q28.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● ‘Heat Dome’ is a weather phenomenon in which a high-pressure system forms over a large area,
causing extremely hot and dry conditions by trapping warm air like a lid on a pot. It prevents hot air from
rising in the atmosphere and cooling which leads compressed and heated air to persist for days or weeks, often
causing deadly heat waves.
● Under a heat dome, the air can become stagnant and does not move much, which allows the heat to build
up and intensify over time. It suppresses convection and precipitation, allowing unhindered sunlight to come
to the earth's surface which elevates air temperatures further. Their intensity and duration can be influenced by
factors such as air moisture and other weather systems.
● Its formation is tied to the behaviour of the jet stream because when jet streams become bigger and
elongated, they move slowly and sometimes can become stationary. This is when a high-pressure system gets
stuck in place and leads to the occurrence of a heat dome.
● They can cause dangerous heat waves causing the temperatures to shoot up. In addition to temperatures which
are highly unfavourable for humans, they can also lead to drought conditions and wildfire as the hot
and dry weather can quickly dry out vegetation and make it more susceptible to catching fire. Climate change
contributes to warmer background temperatures and drier regions, enhancing conditions for heat domes.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) announced that June 2024 was the
Earth’s hottest June.
14
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q29.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● ‘Mitochondrial Donation’ is an assisted reproductive technology which ensures only healthy
mitochondria are passed on to an embryo, thus helping women avoid transmitting mitochondrial disease to
their biological children. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It is used with In-Vitro Fertilisation (IVF) and allows a reproductive clinic to create an embryo which
contains the:
○ nuclear DNA from a man and a woman (the prospective mother) and,
○ mitochondria in an egg donated by another woman (the mitochondrial donor). So, statement 1
is correct.
● It cannot cure people with existing mitochondrial disease or prevent mitochondrial disease caused by a
mutation in nuclear DNA. So, statement 3 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent studies suggest that scientists are preparing for a clinical trial to determine the safety and effectiveness
of mitochondrial donation.

Q30.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Grand Companion of the Order of Logohu (GCL): It is the highest civilian award in Papua New Guinea
(PNG). The recipients of this award are titled "Chief." It has been recently granted to the Prime Minister of
India (2023). So, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
● Order of the Druk Gyalpo: It is the highest civilian award in Bhutan. The Prime Minister of India has become
the first foreign Head of Government to receive this prestigious recognition (2024). It was bestowed in
acknowledgement of his outstanding contribution to the growth of India-Bhutan relations and for his distinguished
service to the Bhutanese people. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Grand Cross of the Legion of Honour: It is the highest French distinction in military or civilian orders.
The Prime Minister of India has been presented with this prestigious honour (2023). So, pair 3 is correctly
matched.
● Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle: The award is given to prominent government and public figures, military
leaders and outstanding representatives of science, culture, art, and various sectors of the economy for
exceptional services to Russia. It can also be awarded to heads of foreign states for outstanding services to
the Russian Federation. Its name comes from Saint Andrew, who is believed to be one of the apostles or 12
original followers of Jesus. Saint Andrew is regarded as the patron saint of Russia and Scotland. So, pair 4 is
not correctly matched.
So, only one of the pairs given above is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Prime Minister of India was bestowed with Russia's highest national award, the Order of St.
Andrew the Apostle.

Q31.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ) Agreement:

15
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● It is also known as the ‘High Seas Treaty’. It is an international treaty under the United Nations Convention
on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). It aims to address the growing concerns over the long-term protection of
marine biodiversity in the high seas. It sets precise mechanisms for the sustainable use of marine biological diversity
through international cooperation and coordination. So, statement 1 is correct.
○ The agreement is open for signature for two years starting September 2023. It will be an international
legally binding treaty after it comes into force. As of June 2024, 91 countries have signed the BBNJ
Agreement, and eight Parties have ratified it.
● The parties to the agreement cannot claim or exercise sovereign rights over marine resources derived
from the high seas and ensure fair and equitable sharing of benefits. It follows an inclusive, integrated, ecosystem-
centric approach based on the precautionary principle and promotes using traditional knowledge and the best
available scientific knowledge. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Cabinet approved India's signing of the Biodiversity Beyond National Jurisdiction (BBNJ)
Agreement.

Q32.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Leang Karampuang Cave:
● It is a limestone cave located on the Indonesian island of Sulawesi. Recently, scientists have discovered artwork
here, depicting three human-like figures interacting with a wild pig in what they have determined is the
world's oldest-known cave painting, created at least 51,200 years ago.
○ The newly found painting predates the cave paintings of Europe, the earliest of which is at El Castillo
in Spain, dating to about 40,800 years ago.
● Until now, the oldest-known cave painting was one at Leang Tedongnge cave in Sulawesi, from at least 45,500
years ago.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the world's oldest cave painting was found on an Indonesian island.

Q33.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Zombie startups:
● They are the companies that, while technically still in operation, are struggling to grow, innovate, or generate
significant revenue.
● These businesses are often stuck in a state of stagnation, unable to attract further investment or reach profitability,
yet they continue to exist due to prior funding or minimal operational costs.
● They are often termed as the ‘walking dead’. These startups raise a ton of money over the boom cycle but
don't produce nearly enough revenue to justify the valuation.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the micro-blogging platform Koo became the fourth startup in 2024 to enter the Zombie startups
club.

16
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q34.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis: He is also known as the father of Indian Statistics. He was a physicist by
training, a statistician. His contributions were massive on the academic side as the builder of the Indian Statistical
Institute (ISI), organizer of the Indian statistical systems and pioneer in the applications of statistical techniques
to practical problems.
● He was the architect of the second Five Year Points To Remember:
Plan (1956-61), also called the Mahalanobis ● The Ministry of Statistics and Programme
Plan. Implementation (MoSPI) on Statistics Day, 2024
● A Central Statistical Unit was established by the developed the eSankhyiki portal to provide
Government of India in 1949 to work under the real-time inputs for planners, policy-makers,
technical guidance of Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis researchers and the public at large.
as an Honorary Statistical Adviser to the cabinet. For ● The objective of this portal is to establish a
more than two years this unit was entirely staffed comprehensive data management and sharing
from and run by ISI. After two years the Central system for ease of dissemination of official
Statistical Organization was formed to statistics in the country.
coordinate all statistical activities of the
Government.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Statistics Day was celebrated to mark the birth Anniversary of P.C. Mahalanobis.

Q35.
Answer: d
Explanation:
The population census provides basic statistics on the state of human resources, demography, culture and economic
structure at local, regional and national levels.
● The census is a Union List subject in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. This means that only
the Central Government has the authority to legislate on matters related to the Census. So, statement 1 is
not correct.
● Individual States can conduct caste surveys. For instance, States like Karnataka and Bihar have conducted
their own caste surveys to gather detailed socio-economic data about different caste groups. While the Central
Government conducts the census, States can
undertake their own surveys independently. So, ● Points To Remember:
statement 3 is not correct.
● The Census Act, 1948 is the legal framework
● Caste-wise enumeration actually began during British
that governs the conduct of the census in India.
India, with the census operations conducted from
This act provides the statutory basis for the
1881 to 1931 including caste data. However, post-
collection of demographic data, and
independence, the Census of India has not included
mandates how the census is to be carried out,
caste-wise data, except for the enumeration of
ensuring the process is systematic and uniform
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. So,
across the country.
statement 2 is not correct.
So, none of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Karnataka government undertook discussions on the caste census.

17
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q36.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The National Security Council (NSC) of India is an apex body that advises the Prime Minister on national
security and strategic interests. It operates under the Executive Office of the Prime Minister.
● The NSC is headed by the National Security Advisor (NSA) and includes various key officials, including the
Chief of Defence Staff, the three service chiefs, and senior ministers.
● It ensures coordination among different Ministries and agencies related to defense, security, and intelligence.
The NSA plays a crucial role in formulating policies and strategies to address internal and external security
challenges. The structure and functioning of the NSC continue to evolve to meet contemporary security needs.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

National Security Advisor:

● The NSA deals with advisory outfits such as the National Security Advisory Board and the
Strategic Policy Group. While the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and the three service
chiefs, the Union defence, Home, Foreign and other secretaries are also required to report to
the NSA, each of them also reports to a Minister in their daily functioning.
Relevance: Recently, the former National Security Advisor (NSA) was reappointed for the third term.

Q37.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● District Mineral Foundation (DMF): It has been formed through the amendment in the Mines & Minerals
(Development & Regulation) (MMDR) Act, 1957. It is formed in all the districts affected by mining. Accordingly,
the MMDR Act provides for the establishment of DMF as a non-profit body. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The objective of the District Mineral Foundation is to work for the interest and benefit of persons and
areas affected by mining-related operations in such a manner as may be prescribed by the State
Government. So far, DMFs have been set up in 645 districts in 23 States in the country which have framed DMF
rules. The composition and functions of the District Mineral Foundation are prescribed by the State
Government. So, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Union Minister of Mines recently inaugurated the District Mineral Foundation (DMF) Gallery at Shastri
Bhawan in New Delhi.

Q38.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Credit-deposit ratio: It is a financial metric used to assess the relationship between a bank’s lending
activities (credit) and its deposit base. It is calculated by dividing the total loans extended by the bank by its
total deposits. It indicates a portion of a bank’s deposits are being used to provide loans.
● A higher credit-deposit ratio suggests that a larger portion of the deposits is being lent out as credit,
while a lower ratio indicates that more deposits are being held in reserve or invested in other assets.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has asked banks to find ways to bridge the gap between credit and deposit
growth to avoid liquidity issues.

18
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q39.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI) is a collaborative effort among multiple
stakeholders to promote the responsible development and use of AI. It was founded in 2020 with 15 member
countries, it has since expanded to include 29 member countries, encompassing a diverse array of expertise from
science, industry, civil society, international organizations, and national governments. GPAI aims to bridge the
gap between theoretical understanding and practical implementation of AI by endorsing cutting-edge
research and applied efforts in AI-related priorities. So, statement 1 is correct.
● The initiative operates under the principles expressed in the OECD Recommendation on Artificial Intelligence,
emphasizing human rights, inclusion, diversity, innovation, and economic growth. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ The OECD AI Principles guide AI actors in their efforts to develop trustworthy AI and provide
policymakers with recommendations for effective AI policies.
● The involvement of India in the GPAI has been instrumental since its inception. As a founding member, India's
commitment and leadership were recognized when it was elected as the Incoming Council Chair of GPAI in 2022,
securing a significant majority of the first-preference votes.
● Throughout the 2022-23 term, India served as the Incoming Support Chair and on December 12, 2023, it assumed
the Lead Chair position for the 2023-24 term. India is also set to serve as the Outgoing Support Chair in
the subsequent year, showcasing its continued dedication to GPAI's mission. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Global Partnership on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI):

● GPAI focuses on several key areas, including investing in AI research and development,
fostering a supportive digital ecosystem, shaping policy environments conducive to AI, building
human capacity, preparing for labor market transformations, and promoting international
cooperation for trustworthy AI.
● Through these efforts, GPAI seeks to guide AI development and use in a manner that benefits
society while upholding ethical standards and respecting human rights.
Relevance: Recently, the 6th meeting of the GPAI Ministerial Council was held.

Q40.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Integrated Tribal Development Programme is an initiative of the National Bank for Agriculture and
Rural Development (NABARD). It aims to improve the livelihoods of 413 tribal families over the next five
years by promoting diverse agricultural and non-agricultural activities.
● It follows the Wadi Model of Tribal Development, which focuses on sustainable agriculture, animal
husbandry and skill development. The model includes promoting crops like pepper, arecanut and coconut,
as well as activities like beekeeping and fish farming, to economically empower tribal communities.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) has launched the integrated
tribal development programme in Kulathupuzha.

19
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q41.
Answer: c
Explanation:
The Producer Price Index (PPI) measures the average change over time in the prices domestic producers receive for
their output. It is a measure of inflation at the wholesale level that is compiled from thousands of indexes measuring
producer prices by industry and product category.
● Producer Price Index (PPI) measures wholesale prices from the point of view of producers of goods and services
by tracking prices at different stages of production. It has replaced WPI in most countries as it is conceptually in
line with the internationally agreed System of National Accounts (SNA) to compile measures of economic activity.
So, statement 1 is correct.
● Unlike the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), the PPI measures change over time in the prices that producers receive
for goods and services. So, statement 2 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) is close to finalising a model to launch
a Producer Price Index (PPI) in India.

Q42.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Transposons: They are also known as jumping genes. They are sequences of DNA that can move or
"jump" to different parts of the genome. They are used in genetic editing and therapy due to their ability to
alter gene expression and introduce genetic changes. Researchers have harnessed these properties to develop
tools for gene therapy and genetic correction.
● They influence the effects of genes by turning ‘on’ or ‘off’ their expression using a variety of epigenetic
mechanisms. They are thus rightly called the tools of evolution, for their ability to rearrange the genome and
introduce changes.
● More than 45% of the human genome consists of transposable elements. Just as they create diversity,
they also create mutations in genes and lead to diseases. However, most of the transposons have themselves
inherited mutations and have become inactive, and thus can’t move around within the gnome.
● Over the years, researchers have attempted to resurrect inactive transposons from the genomes of the
animal kingdom, hoping that the results will be useful in biomedical applications like genetic correction to
cure a disease or for gene therapy.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recent research has found that chromosomal inversions or deletions can be possible with the help of
Transposons.

Q43.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Pearl Spot (Karimeen): It is a species of cichlid fish found in southern India. It is commonly known as
“Karimeen” in Kerala and extensively found along the east and south-west coasts of Peninsular India. It is one of
the most widely available varieties in the South, especially in the Kerala backwaters, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
It is listed as Least Concern on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
● Moon wrasse: It is a fish with vertical red lines on the body scales and a crescent moon-shaped yellow patch on
the caudal fin. The species is found in tropical and warm temperate waters of the Indo-Pacific. It is listed as Least
Concern on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent survey revealed that the world's most endangered marine mammal, the vaquita, is teetering on the
edge of extinction.

20
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q44.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Biological Diversity Act of 2002 requires local bodies, such as Panchayats, Municipalities and other
local governance structures, to prepare People’s Biodiversity Registers (PBRs). These registers document the
biological resources and traditional knowledge within their jurisdictions.
○ PBRs are primarily prepared by local bodies with support from Biodiversity Management
Committees (BMCs) at the local level. State-level biodiversity boards may provide guidance and
oversight, but the actual preparation is a grassroots effort. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● PBRs encompass a wide range of information, including the documentation of traditional knowledge held by local
communities and the observed impacts of climate change on biodiversity. This ensures a comprehensive
understanding of the region’s biological diversity. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Kerala has become the first state in India to complete the preparation of PBR for each local self-
government (LSG) body, ahead of the National Green Tribunal's deadline of January 31, 2020. This demonstrates
the state’s commitment to documenting and preserving its rich biodiversity. So, statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Kerala has become the first state in the country to prepare People's Biodiversity Registers (PBR) for each
local self-government (LSG) body.

Q45.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● African Swine Fever (ASF) is caused by the African Swine Fever virus (ASFV), which affects domestic and
wild pigs. The virus leads to severe hemorrhagic fever with high mortality rates in pigs. So, statement 1 is
correct.
○ It is not a zoonotic disease and does not spread to humans. It exclusively affects pigs and does not
pose a direct health risk to humans. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● Currently, there is no effective vaccine available for ASF. Efforts are ongoing to develop a vaccine, but as of
now, prevention relies primarily on biosecurity measures to control the spread of the virus. It has not been
declared as a global health emergency by the World Health Organisation (WHO). So, statement 3 is not
correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the African Swine Fever outbreak was reported in Kerala’s Thrissur district.

Q46.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Agniveer scheme: Its aim is to give young people the chance to experience military life without committing to a
long-term career. It also aims to increase the Armed Forces' war readiness and to teach young people military principles
and skills that they can apply in civil society. Candidates inducted through this scheme will be called Agniveers.
● The age group for recruitment into the Agniveer scheme is typically between 17.5 and 21 years, not extending
up to 25 years. This age range is designed to attract young individuals for a short-term service period. So,
statement 1 is correct.
● Agniveers are not entitled to a pension post-retirement. Instead, they receive a one-time 'Seva Nidhi'
package at the end of their four-year service period. They do, however, receive medical benefits during their
service. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The scheme mandates a service period of four years. During this time, Agniveers undergo training and serve in
various capacities within the armed forces. So, statement 3 is not correct.

21
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● It includes a compensation package for the families of Agniveers who die in the line of duty consisting of
an ex gratia payment and other benefits. This comprehensive package amounts to approximately Rs 1.65 crore,
aimed at providing financial support to the bereaved families.
So, only one of the above statements is correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent report has raised concerns over the increase in the deaths of the newly inducted Agniveers.

Q47.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● SEHER program: It was launched in 2024 and is an initiative of NITI Aayog's Women Entrepreneurship
Platform (WEP) and TransUnion CIBIL. It is a comprehensive credit education program designed to
enhance financial literacy and business skills among women entrepreneurs. This initiative is expected to
enable women to access the financial tools necessary for business growth and job creation. So, statements 1
and 2 are correct.
● This initiative supports WEP’s goal of improving financing access for women in India’s 63 million MSMEs.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Women Entrepreneurship Platform:

● It was formed in NITI Aayog in 2018 as an aggregator platform that transitioned as a public-
private partnership in 2022 to build a comprehensive ecosystem supporting women
entrepreneurs across India.
● It aims at empowering women entrepreneurs by overcoming information
asymmetry and providing continuum of support across different pillars - Entrepreneurship
promotion, Access to Finance; Market Linkages; Training and Skilling; Mentoring and
Networking and Business Development Services.
● For this, WEP adopts a wide array of interventions with a focus on convergence and
collaboration with existing stakeholders.
Relevance: WEP and Transunion Cibil have recently collaborated to enhance the financial literacy and business skills of
women entrepreneurs.

Q48.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Axiom Mission 4 (or Ax-4) is a private spaceflight to the International Space Station. It is operated by
Axiom Space and uses a SpaceX Crew Dragon spacecraft. The flight is in collaboration with NASA and will be the
fourth flight of Axiom Space after Axiom Mission 1, Axiom Mission 2 and Axiom Mission 3. It is scheduled to
launch in 2024.
● As a part of the Axiom-4 mission, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has shortlisted two of
its four trained Gaganyaan astronauts to travel to the International Space Station (ISS).
● It aims to train Indian astronauts in the operational aspects of the International Space Station (ISS).
During their fourteen-day stay, the astronauts will gain hands-on experience with ISS modules and protocols. This
mission is crucial for preparing Indian astronauts for future long-duration missions in space
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

22
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 Knowledge Box

● Artemis: It is a National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA) mission to

explore the Moon for scientific discovery, technology advancement. Under it, NASA will land
the first woman and first person of color on the Moon, using innovative technologies to explore
more of the lunar surface than ever before.
● Hera: It is a planetary defence mission under development at the European Space Agency
(ESA). It will be launched in October 2024. Its objectives are to investigate the Didymos
binary asteroid, including the very first assessment of its internal properties, and to measure
in great detail the outcome of NASA's DART mission kinetic impactor test. It will provide
information for future asteroid deflection missions and science, increasing the understanding of
asteroid geophysics as well as solar system formation and evolutionary processes
● JAXA MMX: It is a Japanese (JAXA) mission to travel to Mars and survey the its two moons,
Phobos and Deimos. It will explore both moons and collect a sample of Phobos and bring it to
Earth.
Relevance: The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) has shortlisted two of its four trained Gaganyaan astronauts
for a mission to the International Space Station (ISS).

Q49.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● According to the recent data released by the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Russia is the top
supplier of oil to India.
● Prior to the Russia-Ukraine conflict, in fiscal year 2021-22, Russian oil accounted for only 2% of India’s total
oil imports, with Iraq being the top supplier, followed by Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates
(UAE).
● The United States of America (USA) was the fifth-largest supplier. However, post-conflict, Russia
climbed to the top, driven by substantial discounts on oil prices. Despite a decrease in these discounts from over
$30 per barrel to $4-6 per barrel, India's procurement of Russian oil has continued, even amid Western concerns.
So, the correct descending order of the countries according to their crude oil export share with India is:
Russia-Iraq-Saudi Arabia-United States of Emirates (UAE)-United States of America (USA).
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Russia-Ukraine war has pushed oil as one of the top commodities in the trade ties between India and
Russia.

Q50.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Blue Line is an internationally recognized border
demarcation established in 2000 by the United Nations to
confirm the withdrawal of Israeli forces from Lebanon.
● It serves as a boundary between Israel and Lebanon and
has been a point of tension and conflict, especially involving
the presence of UN peacekeepers and the Hezbollah
militia.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the United Nations warned of 'Full-Scale' War
On Israel-Lebanon Border where Indian Peacekeepers were posted.

23
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q51.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Electroencephalography (EEG) is a diagnostic and research tool widely used in clinical settings. The term
"EEG" denotes the process of recording or visualizing. Essentially, EEG captures the electrical activity
generated by neurons in the brain as they perform various functions through the movement of electrically
charged particles, such as ions.
Points to remember:
● Clinically, EEG is used for diagnosing epilepsy
and can also detect the effects of anesthesia, ● EEG is a powerful tool in research fields such as
analyze sleep patterns, monitor neurological neuroscience, cognitive psychology,
activity during comas, and assess oxygen levels neurolinguistics and neuromarketing. It is also
in the brain. Additionally, EEG plays a crucial instrumental in the development of brain-computer
role in confirming brain death, one of the two interfaces, which enable direct communication
legally recognized forms of death in India. between the brain and external devices.
So, all four of the above are clinical applications of
Electroencephalography (EEG).
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, researchers have successfully correlated EEG data with various levels and modes of brain activity,
allowing for the reliable distinction between normal and abnormal states.

Q52.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Researchers from Shenyang Agricultural University (SAU), China, recently published a paper in the journal
Current Biology demonstrating that Wolbachia bacteria had manipulated the wasp Encarsia formosa to eliminate
its male population.
● E. formosa, a species of chalcidoid wasp, is a parasitoid of greenhouse whiteflies and was one of the first
species to be used commercially for biological pest control. It has become an area of interest to agricultural
scientists because it offers an efficient method for controlling whiteflies.
○ Whiteflies, belonging to the insect order Hemiptera, feed on plant sap, leading to productivity losses
and making them a significant agricultural pest.
○ In contrast, wasps belong to the insect order Hymenoptera. It locates whiteflies' nymphs (or larvae)
and lays eggs on them. Upon hatching, the larvae penetrate the nymph, consume its tissues, grow to
adulthood, and in the process, kill the nymph. The progeny wasps then emerge from the nymph’s carcass.
● As a parasitoid of whiteflies, the female wasp acts as a search-and-destroy weapon, rendering male wasps
superfluous to this role.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, E. formosa wasps have become an area of interest to agricultural scientists because they provide an
efficient way to control whiteflies.

Q53.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Kalapani, Limpiyadhura and Lipulekh are Indian territories
claimed by Nepal. They are the sites of boundary disputes between
India and Nepal.
● Limpiyadhura is a mountain pass located in the Zanskar range of the
Himalayas.

24
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● Lipulekh Pass is a high-altitude mountain pass located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It is one of the
trading routes between India and Tibet.
● Kalapani is a valley located in Uttarakhand. It is situated on the Kailash Mansarovar route. The Kali River in
the Kalapani region demarcates the border between India and Nepal.
● Tinkar is a village located in Darchula, bordering India in northwestern Nepal.
So, the correct sequence of the regions in South Asia as one proceeds from North to South is
Limpiyadhura-Lipulekh-Kalapani-Tinkar.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Government of Nepal has announced the release of a Rs-100 currency note featuring the country’s map,
which includes territories currently part of India.

Q54.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● In India, the actions of civil servants are governed mainly by the All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, and the
Indian Administrative Services (IAS) (Probation) Rules, 1954.
● According to All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968, officers may accept gifts from “near relatives” or “personal
friends” with whom they have “no official dealings”, on occasions such as “weddings, anniversaries, funerals and
religious functions”. However, they must report to the government any gift whose value exceeds Rs.
25000. This threshold was last updated in 2015. So, statement 2 is correct.
● During their two-year probation, which includes training at Lal Bahadur Shastri National Academy of
Administration (LBSNAA), officers follow additional conduct rules. They receive only a fixed salary and travel
allowance and are not entitled to benefits such as an official car, accommodation, or staff, which are granted to
confirmed IAS officers. They must pass an examination at the end of the period to be confirmed in their roles.
So, statement 1 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

All India Services:

● All Indian Administrative Services (IAS), Indian Police Service (IPS) and Indian Forest Service
(IFoS) officers are governed by the All India Services (Conduct) Rules from the time
they are allotted their service and begin training. AIS (Conduct) Rule states that every
service member shall at all times maintain absolute integrity and devotion to duty and shall do
nothing unbecoming of a Service member.
● All India Services (Conduct) Rules, 1968 provide a more detailed definition of what
constitutes "unbecoming" behavior. It explicitly states that officers are prohibited from using
their "position or influence" to "obtain employment for any family member with a private
organization or NGO."
Relevance: Recently, the Central Government formed a single-member committee under the DoPT to review the
documents submitted by a controversial probationary IAS officer for her civil services candidacy.

Q55.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● World Environment Day: It is led by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and has
been observed annually on 5th June since 1973. As the largest global platform for environmental awareness and
public outreach, it engages millions of people worldwide. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● World Population Day: It is observed every year on 11th July, marking the date in 1987 when the world
population reached five billion. It was established by the United Nations in 1989 to raise awareness about global
25
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 population issues. The 2024 theme, "Leave no one behind, count everyone," underscores the importance of
inclusivity. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.
● World Day Against Child Labour: It is celebrated on 12th June each year. In 2024, the theme "Let’s Act on
Our Commitments: End Child Labour!" called for collective action to eradicate child labour. This year also
marks the 25th anniversary of the adoption of the ILO Convention on the Worst Forms of Child Labour
(Convention No. 182).
○ International Yoga Day is celebrated every year on the 21st June. So, pair 3 is not correctly
matched.
● World No Tobacco Day: It is celebrated annually on 31st May. Recently the Government of India organized
an event to observe World No Tobacco Day 2024. This year's theme, “Protecting Children from Tobacco
Industry Interference,” underscores the urgent need to shield youth from the detrimental influences of tobacco
consumption. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, only three of the above pairs are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● World Youth Skills Day: It is an initiative of the United Nations and is celebrated annually
on 15th July. The day highlights the importance of equipping young people with skills for
employment, decent work, and entrepreneurship while addressing global challenges and
advancing sustainable development. The 2024 theme, "Youth Skills for Peace and
Development," emphasizes the role of youth in peacebuilding and conflict resolution.
Relevance: Recently, World Population Day has been celebrated on 11 July to focus attention on the urgency and
importance of population issues.

Q56.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The European Free Trade Association (EFTA)
is the intergovernmental organisation of Iceland,
Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. So,
points 1, 3 and 5 are correct.
● It was founded in 1960 by Austria, Denmark,
Norway, Portugal, Sweden, Switzerland and the
United Kingdom (UK) to promote closer
economic cooperation and free trade in Europe.
However, in 1972 Denmark and the UK left EFTA to
join the European Economic Community (EEC). In
1995, Austria and Sweden left EFTA. So, points 2
and 4 are not correct.
● Recently, India signed the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with the European
Free Trade Association (EFTA). This Free Trade Agreement promises enhanced cooperation on trade,
investment promotion, intellectual property and sustainable development, among other areas.
So, only three of the above are members of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA).
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

26
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 Knowledge Box

European Economic Community (EEC):

● It was a regional organization founded in 1957 by six countries (Belgium, France, Germany,
Italy, Luxembourg, and the Netherlands) to promote economic integration among its member
states.
● It was established by the Treaty of Rome, which aimed to create a common market by
eliminating trade barriers and establishing a common external trade policy.
Relevance: Recently, India signed the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with the European Free Trade
Association (EFTA).

Q57.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● A recent study by scientists from the Institute of Advanced Study in Science and Technology (IASST), under the
Department of Science and Technology (DST), has found that a bimetallic Nickel-Iron layered double
hydroxide system (Bimetallic NiFe system) is sufficient for efficient oxygen production through water
splitting.
● The study focused on the understanding of the oxygen evolution ability of Nickel-Iron Layered double hydroxides.
This is because improving the efficiency of the Oxygen evolution contributes to the overall efficiency of water-
splitting processes.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Water splitting: It is an eco-friendly method to produce hydrogen and oxygen by

breaking down water molecules. In an era where renewable energy sources are gaining
paramount importance, water splitting emerges as a beacon of hope in the quest for sustainable
energy solutions.
○ It can be reckoned as a sustainable and eco-friendly way to generate green and pure
hydrogen and oxygen on a larger scale without harming the flora and fauna.
Relevance: Recently, there has been a focus on the understanding of the oxygen evolution ability of Bimetallic NiFe
systems which will contribute to the overall efficiency of water-splitting processes.

Q58.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Simple Agreement for Future Equity (SAFE) is a
widely used financial tool in the startup ecosystem,
especially among early-stage companies. It allows startups
to secure funding while remaining flexible, without
immediately offering equity stakes or setting a fixed
valuation for their shares. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It is a quasi-debt instrument that promises investors the
option to receive stocks or preference shares at a later
date, contingent on the startup achieving certain milestones.
SAFEs do not represent an immediate equity stake
in the company; instead, equity is granted once the terms
of the SAFE are fulfilled.

27
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● Like convertible debt, SAFEs convert into stock in a future priced round. Unlike convertible notes, they are
not debt and do not require the company to pay back the investment with interest. So, statement 3
is correct.
● Under it, an investor can agree to purchase a specified number of shares at a future date for a predetermined
price. It is a convertible equity instrument, subject to the terms and conditions of its issuance. However, it
is not fully or compulsorily convertible into equity. Unlike standard convertibles, a SAFE note does not
necessarily convert into equity and may remain as debt on the startup's books. So, statement 2 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Convertible securities:
● Also known as convertible instruments or convertibles, these are the financial instruments that
allow invested capital to be converted into equity or ownership in a company at a later
date.
Relevance: Investors of Silicon Valley startups have approached the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to consider lifting the
ban on offshore investments in 'SAFE notes'.

Q59.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The informal sector of the Indian economy represents nearly half of the country's economic output and accounts
for more than three-fourths of
employment. It is vital for creating jobs and
absorbing semi-skilled and unskilled labour.
● Recent data from the Annual Survey of
Unincorporated Enterprises (ASUSE) for
2021-22 and 2022-23, released by the
National Sample Survey Office (NSSO), reveals
the following:
○ The number of unincorporated
enterprises has not consistently
declined over the past decade. It
increased between 2010 and 2015, fell
from 2015 to 2021, and then rose again
from 2021 to 2022-23, So, statement
1 is not correct.
○ Employment in the informal sector
decreased by 16.45 lakh (1.5%) from
11.13 crore in 2015-16 to 10.96 crore in
2022-23. So, statement 2 is not correct.
○ According to the PLFS 2022-23, the share of
people employed in agriculture
increased to 45.8% from 42.5% in 2017-
18. Additionally, the proportion of women
in agriculture rose sharply to 64.3% in 2022-
23 from 55.3% in 2018-19. So statement
3 is correct.
28
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) recently released data from the Annual Survey of Unincorporated
Enterprises (ASUSE) for 2021-22 and 2022-23.

Q60.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Foreigners Tribunals are quasi-judicial bodies established by the Central Government under the
Foreigners’ Act of 1946 and organized through the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order of 1964.
● The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has authorized district magistrates across all States and Union
Territories to set up these tribunals. So statement 1 is not correct.
● These have been specifically established in Assam and not in any other state. So statement 2 is correct.
● According to the Foreigners (Tribunals) Order of 1964, these tribunals have the powers of a civil court
in certain matters, such as summoning and enforcing attendance, examining witnesses under oath, and requiring
document production. So statement 3 is correct.
● They are required to serve a notice in English or the official language of the State within 10 days of receiving a
reference and must dispose of the case within 60 days. Decisions of the foreign tribunals can be appealed in the
High Court, with further appeals possible to the Supreme Court. So, statement 4 is not correct.
So, only two of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Assam government instructed the Border wing of the State’s police not to refer cases of non-
Muslims who entered India illegally before 2014 to the Foreigners Tribunals (FTs).

Q61.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The "One Scientist One Product" initiative is a strategic research program introduced by the Indian Council
of Agricultural Research (ICAR). Its goal is to boost agricultural productivity by setting distinct research
objectives for individual scientists over the next five years.
● ICAR has tasked its 5,521 scientists with developing a product, technology, model, concept, or noteworthy
publication. Each year, individual scientists or groups will identify their focus, and ICAR will track their progress.
Monitoring will occur every three months at the institute level and every six months at the headquarters.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR):

● It is an autonomous body under the Department of Agricultural Research and
Education (DARE) within the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, Government of
India.
● It was founded on July 16, 1929, as a registered society under the Societies Registration Act of
1860, following the recommendations of the Royal Commission on Agriculture.
● Its headquarters are located in New Delhi.
Relevance: The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) launched the ‘One Scientist-One Product’ programme
to improve research in the field of agriculture and animal husbandry.

29
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q62.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is a large bird that inhabits dry grasslands and scrublands. In India, it is mainly
found in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan. It is known to be a key indicator species of the grassland habitat, which
means its survival also signals the health of grassland habitats.
● It is included in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 and placed under Appendix I of the
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). So, points 1 and
2 are correct.
● It is classified as critically endangered on the IUCN Red List. Once common on the dry plains of India, there
are only an estimated 150 individuals left in the wild. There are two main threats to their existence: habitat loss
and hunting. Their natural habitat consists of large expanses of dry grasslands and scrub. So, point 3 is correct.
○ The poor frontal vision of the GIBs and their inability to swerve away from overhead power
lines in their flying path, owing to their large size, are two key factors leading to their collision with
transmission lines. A 2020 Wildlife Institute of India (WII) study estimated that 18 GIBs die annually
due to collisions with overhead high-tension power lines in the Thar landscape.
● It has also been identified as one of the species for the recovery programme under the Integrated
Development of Wildlife Habitats of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government
of India. So, point 4 is correct.
○ Over 120 Bustards are found in the desert and semi-arid landscape of Rajasthan alone; the
rest survive in the wild in other range states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh while
Madhya Pradesh, another range state, has not recorded a Bustard sighting for several years.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) allocated
funds for the conservation program of the Great Indian Bustard and Lesser Florican.

Q63.
Answer: c
Explanation:
Mashco Piro tribe:
● They are believed to be the largest uncontacted
tribe on Earth, with a population exceeding 750.
These nomadic hunter-gatherers inhabit the dense
Amazon Rainforest of the Madre de Dios Region,
near Peru's borders with Brazil and Bolivia.
● They speak a dialect of the Piro language.
● In 2002, the Peru government created the Madre de
Dios Territorial Reserve to protect the territory of the
Mashco Piro. However, their survival is threatened
due to logging activities in the region.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, rare photographs of the Mashco Piro, an
uncontacted indigenous tribe residing in the remote Peruvian Amazon were published.

30
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q64.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Shyok River originates from the Rimo Glacier in the Karakoram Range in Ladakh. It has several
tributaries, with the Nubra River and Galwan River as its left bank tributaries and the Saltoro River and Thang
River as its right bank tributaries. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● The Suru River originates from the Panzella Glacier near the Pensi La pass in the Zanskar Range, Ladakh. Its
left bank tributaries include the Dras River and the Kartse River, while its right bank tributaries are the Wakha
River and the Shafat River. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Teesta River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra (known as Jamuna in Bangladesh), flowing through India and
Bangladesh. It originates in the Himalayas near Chunthang, Sikkim and flows to the south through West Bengal
before entering Bangladesh.
○ The Zemu glacier is the largest in the Eastern Himalayas in Sikkim. It is at the base of the Kanchendzonga
and is one of the sources for the Teesta that joins the Brahmaputra. So, pair 3 is correctly
matched.
So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, a rescue mission failed due to heavy currents and high water levels in the Shyok River.

Q65.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Biodiesel is a renewable, biodegradable fuel made from natural sources like vegetable oils, animal fats
and recycled cooking oils. It serves as an alternative to conventional diesel and can be used in diesel engines
with minimal modifications.
● The following are the crops commonly used in India for biodiesel production:
○ Jatropha is a prominent biodiesel crop in India, producing oil-rich seeds ideal for cultivation in wastelands
and arid regions. So, point 1 is correct.
○ Neem also produces oil for biodiesel, though it's less utilized than Jatropha or Karanja. So, point 2 is
correct.
○ Mahua found in central and northern India, is valued in rural areas for its biodiesel-suitable oil. So, point
3 is correct.
○ Karanja is widely grown due to its adaptability and reliable oil yield for biodiesel. So, point 4 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Amid global food shortages, India's use of food crops for biofuel production has raised significant concerns
about the potential impact on food security.

Q66.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Sustainable Development Goals-National Indicator Framework (SDG-NIF) Progress Report,
2024 was created in collaboration with relevant Ministries, UN agencies and other stakeholders by the Ministry
of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI). This annual report makes it easier to track
progress toward the SDGs on a national level. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development is focused on 17
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and 169 associated goals.
● In the recent SDG report, India has made significant progress in Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) indicators
but needs to address challenges in certain areas.
National Indicator Framework Progress Report 2024 Findings:

31
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 SDG Goals National Indicator 2015-16 2023-24

Zero hunger Gross Value Added in agriculture per worker (in ₹) 61,427 87,609.
So,
point 1
is not
correct.

No Poverty Reduction in the Proportion of men, women and children of all ages 24.85% 14.96.
living in poverty So,
point 2
is not
correct.

Number of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) provided bank credit linkage 18.32 44.15
(in Lakh)

Gender Equality Exclusive women SHGs in bank-linked SHGs 88.92% 97.53%.

So,
point 4
is
correct.

Clean water and Percentage of population using an improved drinking water 94.57% 99.29%.
sanitation source in rural areas So,
point 3
is
correct.

Reduced Percentage of budget allocated for welfare of SCs and STs. 2.86% 6.19%
inequalities

Sustainable cities Percentage of wards with 100% door-to-door waste collection 43% 97%
and communities
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Other Goals under the SDGs:

● Maternal Mortality Ratio (Progress in Health and Well-being (Goal 3)): It has declined
from 130 per 1,00,000 live births in 2014-16 to 97 per 1,00,000 live births in 2018-20.
● Under-five Mortality Rate: Declined from 43 per 1,000 live births in 2015 to 32 per 1,000
live births in 2020.
● Decent Work and Employment Opportunities: The employment rate has increased due
to improved working conditions and labor rights enforcement across various sectors. So, point
2 is correct.
● Number of Waste Recycling Plants: They have increased due to enhanced capacity and
efficiency in waste management and recycling processes.
● Progress in Quality Education (Goal 4): The Gross Enrolment Ratio in Higher Secondary
Education has increased from 48.32 in 2015-16 to 57.60 in 2021-22.
Relevance: Recently, the SDG - National Indicator Framework Progress Report 2024 was published.

32
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q67.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Recently, the Union Minister for the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME),
inaugurated the first “Yashaswini” awareness campaign organized at the Rajasthan International Center.
● It is a series of mass awareness campaigns for formalizing women-owned informal micro enterprises and
providing capacity building, training, handholding and mentorship to the women-owned enterprises.
○ A series of campaigns will be organized by the Ministry of MSME in collaboration with other Central
Ministries/ Departments/ State Governments and Women's Industry Associations during FY 24-25 in
various parts, focusing on Tier 2 and 3 cities in the country.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The first “Yashaswini” awareness campaign was recently organized at the Rajasthan International Center in
Jaipur.

Q68.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Recent studies have revealed that Earth's days are gradually getting longer, and the planet may become
more unstable in the future. These studies highlight the impact of climate change on Earth's spin, showing that this
change has likely occurred for at least the past three decades.
● A day on Earth lasts about 86,400 seconds, but the exact time it takes for our planet to complete one rotation
can shift by tiny fractions of milliseconds each year. Factors contributing to this include tectonic plate
movements, variations in the inner core's Points to remember:
rotation, and the gravitational pull from the
Moon. So, points 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
● Earth's rotation has been slowing for millennia, primarily ● These studies indicate that climate change is
due to lunar tidal friction, where the Moon's currently lengthening days by approximately
gravitational effect on our oceans pulls water away from 1.3 milliseconds per century. Historically,
the poles. This process is currently lengthening our days Earth's day length has always varied; about 1
by about 2.3 milliseconds per century. billion years ago, a day likely lasted only 19
● The new research suggests that human-caused hours before gradually slowing to the 24
climate change also influences the length of hours we experience today.
Earth's days and the planet's orientation. Rapid ice
loss from polar regions like Greenland and Antarctica, driven by global warming, leads to rising sea levels. Most of
this additional water accumulates near the equator, causing Earth to bulge slightly around the middle. This
redistribution of weight slows the planet's spin, further altering the length of a day. So, point 4 is correct.
So, all four of the above factors affect the length of a day on Earth.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: According to the research, human-caused climate change is disrupting the length of Earth's days and
destabilizing the planet's orientation by continuously altering its spin.

Q69.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM) is a rare but deadly infection of the central nervous system
caused by free-living amoebae found in freshwater sources like lakes and rivers. These amoebae can lead
to two distinct conditions: Primary Amoebic Meningoencephalitis (PAM) and Granulomatous Amoebic Encephalitis
(GAE). So, statement 1 is correct.

33
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ○ PAM is caused by a type of free-living amoeba (a microscopic, single-celled organism) called Naegleria
fowleri.
○ GAE is caused by the Acanthamoeba species, Balamuthia mandrillaris.
● These infections usually occur when individuals swim or wash in warm, freshwater bodies like ponds and man-
made lakes. The amoeba infects a person when contaminated water enters through the nose.
● Naegleria fowleri thrives in temperatures above 30°C, making PAM most prevalent in warmer climates and
typically occurring during spring and summer months. So, statement 2 is correct.
● Currently, there are no standard treatment methods available for PAM. The most promising approach
involves using combination therapy with antiparasitic medications.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: In the past two months, fatalities in Kerala have been attributed to the rare and deadly infection known as
primary amoebic meningoencephalitis.

Q70.
Answer: d
Explanation:
World Heritage Committee (WHC):
● It is a committee of the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
So, statement 1 is correct.
● It consists of representatives from 21 of the state's parties to the World Heritage Convention elected
by their General Assembly. The term of office of the member of the committee is six years, but most state
parties choose voluntarily to be members of the committee for only four years to allow other state parties to be
on the committee. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It is responsible for the implementation of the World Heritage Convention. It defines the use of the World
Heritage Fund and allocates financial assistance upon requests from state parties. It has the final say on
whether a property is inscribed on the WHC. It examines reports on the state of conservation of inscribed
properties and asks state parties to take action when properties are not being properly managed. It also decides
on the inscription or deletion of properties on the List of World Heritage in Danger. So, statement 3 is
correct.
● Recently, in July 2024, India hosted the 46th session of the World Heritage Committee for the first time.
So, statement 4 is correct.
So, all four of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Prime Minister of India inaugurated the 46th Session of the World Heritage Committee in July.

Q71.
Answer: d
Explanation:
Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM):
● It is the European Union's (EU) tool to put a fair price on the carbon emitted during the production
of carbon-intensive goods that are entering the EU and to encourage cleaner industrial production in non-EU
countries.
● By confirming that a price has been paid for the embedded carbon emissions generated in the production of certain
goods imported into the EU, the CBAM will ensure the carbon price of imports is equivalent to the carbon
price of domestic production and that the EU's climate objectives are not undermined. It is designed
to be compatible with World Trade Organization (WTO) rules.
● It will enter its definitive regime in 2026, following the current transitional phase that runs from 2023 to 2025.
This phased introduction of CBAM is coordinated with the gradual phase-out of free allowances under the EU
Emissions Trading System (ETS), aimed at supporting the decarbonization of EU industries.
34
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A new report by the Centre for Science and Environment (CSE) criticizes the EU's Carbon Border
Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) as an unfair burden on developing countries.

Q72.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Bhusanket Web Portal and Bhooskhalan Mobile App: It was recently introduced by the Government of
India to disseminate critical data and information on landslide hazards, facilitating both short-range and
medium-range landslide forecasting. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
○ The Bhooskhalan Mobile App ensures the quick dissemination of daily landslide forecasts while
enabling stakeholders to share and update information on landslide occurrences.
● NaViGate Bharat Portal: It was launched as a unified bilingual platform to host videos on various
government development and citizen welfare measures. It empowers citizens by providing an interactive
platform where they can search, stream, share and download videos related to government schemes, initiatives,
and campaigns. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Yuktdhara Portal: It serves as a repository of assets (Geotags) created under various national rural
development programmes like MGNREGA, Integrated Watershed Management Programme and Rashtriya
Krishi Vikas Yojana. It aids in planning new MGNREGA assets using Remote Sensing and GIS-based information.
So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
● E-Upahaar Portal: It is an online portal launched for the auction of selected gift items presented to the
President and former Presidents. The proceeds from these auctions will be donated to assist children in
need. So, pair 4 is correctly matched.
So, only two of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Union Minister of Coal and Mines launched the Bhusanket Web Portal and Bhooskhalan Mobile
App.

Q73.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● A PIN or Postal Index Number also
called a PIN code is a six-digit number
code used by India Post (the Indian Postal
System) to segregate mail and couriers,
making delivery more efficient.
● Each PIN is assigned to a single delivery
post office, which receives all mail for
distribution to the various offices under its
jurisdiction. A postal administration which
includes the PIN code system is followed in
various nations across the world – it is a
universal way of sorting out mail and
delivery for many countries and has different
names – ZIP codes, postal codes, etc.
● It was made by Shriram Bhikaji Velankar
when he was in service in Kolkata. It was introduced on 15 August 1972 under the Prime Ministership of Indira
Gandhi. So, statement 1 is correct.

35
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● The Indian Postal Service has designated nine specific PIN regions across the country, eight of which are
geographical regions and one is reserved for the Indian Army, called the functional zone. The first digit indicates
one of the regions. The second digit indicates the sub-region or one of the postal circles (States). The third digit
indicates a sorting/revenue district. The last 3 digits refer to the delivery Post Office. So, statements 2 and 3
are not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN):

● The Department of Posts is heading an initiative to create a standardized, geo-coded
addressing system across India, aimed at simplifying the delivery of public and private services
for citizens.
● To achieve this, the Department has partnered with IIT Hyderabad to develop the National
Addressing Grid, known as the Digital Postal Index Number (DIGIPIN). This system is
set to become a cornerstone of Geospatial Governance, driving improvements in public
service delivery, enabling quicker emergency responses and significantly enhancing logistics
efficiency.
Relevance: The Department of Posts is advancing an initiative to establish a standardized, geo-coded addressing system
in India.

Q74.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● The Union Budget of 2024 proposed the development of a climate finance taxonomy to boost capital availability
for climate adaptation and mitigation efforts.
● Climate finance taxonomy refers to a set of Points to remember:
standardised regulations and guidelines to inform
companies and investors on making impactful ● The UNFCCC's first ‘Needs
investments towards environmental Determination Report’ estimates that
conservation and combating the climate crisis. developing countries will require
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer. approximately $5.8-5.9 trillion by 2030 to
Relevance: The Union Budget of 2024 includes a provision for implement their climate action plans,
developing a taxonomy for climate finance. excluding full adaptation costs.

Q75.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● According to the Union Budget 2024-25 documents released following the presentation by the Union Finance
Minister, Bhutan is now the leading recipient of the Government of India's aid to foreign countries. The budget
allocation for the Ministry of External Affairs (MEA) for FY 2024-25 is set at ₹22,155 crore.
● Following is the list of countries ranked as the top recipients of grants from India, arranged in ascending order:
o Latin American countries: ₹30 crore
o Seychelles: ₹40 crore
o Bangladesh: ₹120 crore
o Afghanistan: ₹200 crore
o African Countries: ₹200 crore
o Sri Lanka: ₹245 crore
o Myanmar: ₹250 crore

36
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 o Mauritius: ₹370 crore
o Maldives: ₹400 crore
o Nepal: ₹700 crore
o Bhutan: ₹2,068.56 crore.
So, the correct sequence of countries in ascending order of receiving aid from India as per Union Budget
2024-25 is Bangladesh-Maldives-Nepal-Bhutan.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q76.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● In the Union Budget 2024-25, the Union Finance Minister announced the exemption of customs duties on
three cancer medications: Trastuzumab Deruxtecan, Osimertinib, and Durvalumab.
● It aims to enhance the affordability of these drugs for the 2.7 million cancer patients in India.
○ Trastuzumab Deruxtecan is used for treating Breast Cancer.
○ Osimertinib is used for treating Lung Cancer.
○ Durvalumab is used for treating Lung Cancer and Biliary Tract Cancer.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Union Finance Minister of India announced the exemption of three additional cancer medicines—
Trastuzumab Deruxtecan, Osimertinib and Durvalumab—from customs duty.

Q77.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● A tunable laser is a laser light source capable of emitting coherent light across a broad range of wavelengths.
This "tuning" ability allows for precise wavelength selection, making tunable lasers ideal for applications that
demand flexibility and optimized performance.
● Tunable laser systems developed by the Raman Research Institute (RRI) are designed for use in various
high-precision fields. Their applications include quantum optics laboratories, medicine, remote sensing,
geo-mapping and space exploration. So, points 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
● According to RRI, tunable lasers, known as External Cavity Diode Lasers (ECDL), are highly precise
spectroscopic tools designed for targeting quantum systems in research and technology laboratories.
● These tunable laser systems will play a crucial role in advancing solutions across various domains, including
quantum communication, quantum technology, quantum systems, and metrology—all of which are key focus areas
of the DST-led National Quantum Mission (NQM).
So, all four of the above are potential applications of tunable laser systems developed by the Raman
Research Institute.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: NexAtom Research and Instruments will produce multi-channel, tunable laser systems with extensive
applications in both space exploration and medicine.

Q78.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Dark oxygen refers to oxygen produced by polymetallic nodules found on the seafloor. These coal-like
mineral rocks, rich in manganese and iron, generate oxygen without relying on photosynthesis. This recent
discovery could significantly alter our understanding of the origins of life on Earth.
● A recent Nature Geoscience study reveals oxygen emissions from mineral deposits 4,000 meters deep in the
Pacific's Clarion-Clipperton Zone, nearly half the height of Mount Everest.
37
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Polymetallic nodules, also known as manganese nodules, are spherical mineral concretions
found on the ocean floor that contain metals like cobalt, nickel, copper, and manganese.
They form at depths of 3,500–6,500 meters on sediment-covered ocean floors and are made
up of alternating layers of iron-rich and manganese-rich material.
Relevance: Scientists have recently discovered a strange phenomenon, dubbed “dark oxygen” in the deep sea.

Q79.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The State of the World’s Forests (SOFO) Report is published by the Food and Agriculture Organization
(FAO) of the United Nations. It provides insights into the current status of forests, their management and
their role in the global environment and economy.
● In 2020, the global forest covered approximately 4.1 billion hectares (ha), or 31 per cent of the land area. The
Russian Federation, Brazil, Canada, the United States of America and China account for 54 per
cent of the global forest area, in descending order. Another 10 countries, including Australia, the Democratic
Republic of Congo, Indonesia, Peru and India, contribute about two-thirds of the global forest area. So,
statement 1 is not correct.
● Between 2010 and 2020, India gained 266,000 hectares of forest annually, ranking third globally for forest
area growth. South and Southeast Asia contributed nearly 44 percent of the world's mangrove area,
which totals 14.8 million hectares. Although the rate of gross global mangrove loss declined by 23 percent between
2000-2010 and 2010-2020, the rate of mangrove area expansion also saw a slight decrease during this period. So,
statement 2 is not correct.
● The report estimated that between 1990 and 2020, approximately 420 million ha of forest were converted to land
use. However, the rate of deforestation has slowed down globally over the years. The deforestation rates
fell from 15.8 million ha per year between 1990 and 2002 to 10.2 million ha between 2015 and 2020. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
So, none of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the State of the World’s Forests 2024 report was released by the Food and Agriculture
Organization (FAO).

Q80.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Southern Hemisphere Circumpolar Wavenumber-4 Pattern or SST-W4 pattern refers to a specific
pattern related to Sea Surface Temperatures (SST) and their influence on climate and weather.
● This SST-W4 pattern shares some characteristics with El Niño, a climate cycle in the Pacific Ocean that influences
weather patterns worldwide and has a warming effect.
● However, the SST-W4 pattern occurs independently of El Niño and other known weather systems.
It is linked to rainfall variability over Southern continents, potentially influencing agricultural yields and water
resources. The SST-W4 pattern exhibits fluctuations on a decadal timescale.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Researchers recently used a climate emulator called SINTEX-F2 to simulate 300 years of climate conditions.

38
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q81.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● In India, the Central Motor Vehicle Rules, of 1989, make it mandatory for all motor vehicles to possess
a valid Pollution Under Control (PUC) certificate. The law applies to all types of vehicles, including two-
wheelers, cars, commercial vehicles, and transport vehicles. So, statement 1 is not correct.
● The validity of a PUC certificate is not a fixed one-year period. It is generally valid for six months from
the date of issue, although this period can vary based on State regulations and the type of vehicle. So, statement
2 is not correct.
● Recently, the Supreme Court removed the condition it had imposed by an order in 2017 that required a PUC
certificate as a prerequisite for availing third-party insurance for vehicles. So, as of now, it is not a prerequisite
to have a PUC certificate for availing third-party insurance for vehicles in India. So, statement 3 is
not correct.
So, none of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Supreme Court ordered that a Pollution Under Control (PUC) is not mandatory to renew car
insurance.

Q82.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● National Assessment Centre- PARAKH (Performance Assessment, Review and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic
Development) was set up by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) as
an independent constituent unit.
● It was set up to standardize school board assessments across the country. It will comprise leading
assessment experts with extensive knowledge of both the Indian and global education systems.
● There are four major areas of focus for PARAKH:
○ Capacity Development in Competency-Based Assessment
○ Large-Scale Achievement Survey
○ Equivalence of School Boards
○ Holistic Progress Cards for the Foundational, Preparational, Middle and Secondary Stages.
● It is one of the several initiatives taken for the implementation of the National Education Policy
2020 (NEP 2020).
● PARAKH has recommended that various educational boards create a credit transfer system that aligns with the
National Credit Framework. It is tasked with holding periodic learning outcomes tests like the National
Achievement Survey (NAS) and State Achievement Surveys.
○ It has been mandated to organise large-scale achievement surveys to periodically monitor and assess the
education of the country. As a part of its mandate, PARAKH worked with States/UTs in conducting the
State Educational Achievement Survey in 2023, assessing learners from Grades 3, 6 and 9 to gauge
competencies in Foundational Literacy, Foundational Numeracy, Language and
Mathematics at the end of foundational, preparatory and middle stages with educational blocks as the
units of assessment.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: A recent report submitted to the Education Ministry by PARAKH has recommended incorporating student
performance from Classes 9, 10, and 11 into the final Class 12 marks.

39
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q83.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body within the Ministry of
Defence for procurement. Its primary goal is to quickly meet the armed forces' approved needs, focusing on
required capabilities and efficient use of the budget. It was established in 2001 following the ‘Group of Ministers'
recommendations on 'Reforming the National Security System' after the Kargil War (1999). So, statement 1
is correct.
● It is chaired by the Defence Minister and includes members such as the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) and the
chiefs of the Army, Navy and Air Force. So, statement 3 is not correct.
● It is responsible for the following key functions:
○ In-Principle Approval of Capital Acquisitions: It provides initial approval for capital
acquisitions in the Long-Term Perspective Plan (LTPP). This includes identifying 'Make' projects
that require longer gestation periods. So, statement 2 is correct.
○ Acceptance of Necessity: It gives in-principle acceptance of the necessity for each capital acquisition
project. This approval classifies projects as:
■ ‘Buy’ Projects: Outright purchase.
■ ‘Buy and Make’ Projects: Purchase followed by licensed production or indigenous
development.
■ ‘Make’ Projects: Indigenous production and research & development.
● Monitoring Progress: It monitors the progress of major projects, based on feedback from the Defence
Procurement Board.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) chaired by the Defence Minister of India reviewed and
approved amendments to the deal for 31 MQ-9B HALE UAVs from General Atomics.

Q84.
Answer: a
Explanation:
Charles Darwin’s Frog:
● It is endemic to the Andaman Islands and belongs to the
Dicroglossidae family.
● Both male and female Charles Darwin frogs exhibit a
unique behavior by adopting an upside-down position
on the walls of tree cavities, keeping their bodies
completely above the water during mating and egg-
laying.
● Male Charles Darwin frogs produce three types of
complex calls to attract females. If their aggressive
calls fail to deter rival males, they engage in physical
combat—kicking, boxing with forelimbs and hind limbs and
even biting off body parts, sometimes resulting in the loss
of an entire head.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, researchers have suggested that habitat loss and competition for resources may be forcing Charles
Darwin’s frog to breed in unnatural sites.

40
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q85.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Magnetotactic bacteria (MTB) are prokaryotic microorganisms that align themselves along the
Earth’s magnetic field. They are found in a variety of aquatic environments, including freshwater, saline,
brackish and marine ecosystems, as well as some extreme habitats. They thrive in low-oxygen conditions,
which suggests they may represent some of Earth's earliest life forms. So, statement 1 is correct.
● They are a distinctive part of aquatic microbiomes because they use Earth’s magnetic field to orient
themselves in a north or south direction, enabling them to navigate efficiently to their preferred
microenvironments. This ability is known as magnetotaxis or microbial magnetoreception. So, statement 2
is correct.
● They also play crucial roles in the biogeochemical cycling of iron, sulfur, phosphorus, carbon and
nitrogen. Additionally, they have been found in vitro to sequester heavy metals such as selenium, cadmium, and
tellurium, highlighting their potential for use in aquatic pollution bioremediation. So, statement 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above statements are correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Researchers have discovered fossil remains of magnetic particles, known as magneto fossils produced by
magnetotactic bacteria, in rock varnish layers in Ladakh.

Q86.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● According to the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), industries
classified as 'white category' by the Central Pollution Control Board, which are deemed practically non-
polluting, will no longer need prior approval from state pollution control boards for establishment and operation
under the Air Act, 1981 and Water Act, 1974.
● The permissions known as ‘Consent to Establish’ (CTE) and ‘Consent to Operate’ (CTO) are typically
required to regulate industries that discharge effluents or emit pollutants into the environment. The
Ministry has also proposed eliminating the CTE permit for projects or activities that already require prior
Environmental Clearance (EC).
● Under the current system, the CTE is issued by the relevant State Pollution Control Board with standard or
specific conditions to ensure compliance with pollution norms. The draft notification suggests that these conditions
could be integrated into the Environmental Clearance process managed by the MoEF&CC, thus simplifying
regulatory requirements.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: White category industries will no longer need prior approval from State Pollution Control Boards to establish
and operate under the Air Act, 1981 and Water Act, 1974.

Q87.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Vijay Diwas is celebrated in India on December 16th to mark the Indian Army's triumph over Pakistan in
the 1971 Indo-Pak War. This victory led to the establishment of Bangladesh as an independent nation on
December 16, 1971. So, pair 1 is correctly matched.
● Kargil Vijay Diwas is celebrated every year on July 26th to pay tribute to the bravery of Indian soldiers who
made the ultimate sacrifice for the country during the Kargil War of 1999. This event marks the conclusion of
the Kargil War between India and Pakistan that started in May 1999. So, pair 2 is correctly matched.

41
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● The Government of India in 2021 announced that January 23rd would be observed annually as "Parakram
Diwas" to honor Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose. This day, translating to "Day of Valour," is dedicated to
celebrating Netaji’s unwavering dedication to India’s freedom. So, pair 3 is correctly matched.
● Veer Baal Diwas is observed annually on December 26th to honor the martyrdom of Baba Fateh Singh and
Baba Zorawar Singh, the sons of the 10th Guru, Guru Gobind Singh Ji. So, pair 4 is not correctly
matched.
So, only three of the pairs given above are correctly matched.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the 25th anniversary of Kargil Vijay Diwas was celebrated on 26th July.

Q88.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Lake Kivu, one of the African Great Lakes, is
located on the border between the Democratic
Republic of the Congo and Rwanda, within the
Albertine Rift, a branch of the East African Rift.
● Recent studies have revealed that the lake contains
about 55 billion cubic meters of dissolved biogas at a
depth of 300 meters.
● Lake Kivu is a geological anomaly, characterized by
its multi-layered structure with depths saturated
with trapped carbon dioxide and methane. It is one
of only three lakes with these properties, alongside Lake
Nyos and Lake Monoun in Cameroon, both of which
have experienced eruptions in the past 50 years. These eruptions released deadly gas clouds that caused fatalities
among humans and animals in their vicinity.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Government of Rwanda approved the extraction of methane from Lake Kivu to generate power
for the country's electrical grid.

Q89.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● The Climate Finance Action Fund is one of 14 initiatives in the 2024 United Nations Climate Change
Conference (UNFCCC Conference Of Parties (COP) 29) Action Agenda. It is designed to support climate
projects in developing countries, address natural disaster impacts and advance the next generation of Nationally
Determined Contributions (NDCs). Additionally, the fund aims to stimulate public and private sector
investment in research, development, mitigation and adaptation efforts. The initial fundraising target for the fund
is $1 billion. So, statement 1 is correct.
● It will be capitalised with contributions from fossil fuel-producing countries and companies across oil,
gas and coal. Azerbaijan will be a founding contributor. It will be a catalytic public-private partnership fund,
mobilising the private sector and de-risking investment. So, statement 2 is correct.
● It will also contain special facilities with concessional and grant-based support to rapidly address the
consequences of natural disasters in developing countries in need. So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, Azerbaijan has announced the creation of a new initiative called the 'Climate Finance Action Fund’
in the 29th Conference of Parties.

42
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q90.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● Charaideo Moidams are sacred burial mounds
created by the Tai-Ahom people in northeastern India,
located in the foothills of the Patkai Ranges in
Assam. These mounds, which reflect the Tai-Ahom’s
unique funerary practices, are revered as sacred by the
Tai-Ahom community. So, statement 1 is correct.
● Arriving in Assam in the 13th century, the Tai-Ahom
established Charaideo as their first city and the site
of this royal necropolis. Over a span of 600 years, from
the 13th to the 19th century CE, they constructed these
moidams, or "homes-for-spirits," integrating natural
features such as hills, forests and water to shape their
sacred landscape.
● Ahom kings and queens were buried in moidams. Unlike Hindus who practice cremation, the Ahoms
traditionally buried their dead. These structures were mainly built with bricks and stone. The outer design
usually featured an earth mound encircled by a wall made of brick or stone. So, statement 2 is not correct.
● The height of a moidam often reflects the deceased’s power and stature. Within these burial chambers,
the deceased was accompanied by items for the afterlife, as well as servants, horses, livestock and even wives. The
resemblance of these burial practices to those of ancient Egyptians has earned the Charaideo moidams the
nickname "Pyramids of Assam."So, statement 3 is correct.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

● Recently, it has been added to the World Heritage List during the 46th session of the World
Heritage Committee in 2024. India has 42 world heritage sites, out of which 34 are cultural,
7 are natural sites and 1 is mixed category. The first site in India to be listed as a World Heritage
Site was Agra Fort in 1983. That same year, the Taj Mahal, Ellora Caves, and Ajanta Caves
were also inscribed on the World Heritage List by the World Heritage Committee.
Relevance: Recently, the Charaideo Moidams from Assam has been officially inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage
List.

Q91.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Article 21 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, and it has been
interpreted by the judiciary to include the right to shelter as part of the right to a decent standard of
living.
● In Chameli Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1996), the Supreme Court declared the right to shelter as a
Fundamental Right under Article 21.
● In T.K. Rangarajan v. Government of Tamil Nadu (2003) also, the Supreme Court acknowledged that the
right to shelter is a Fundamental Right derived from the right to life under Article 21.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Supreme Court verdict on Haldwani in Uttarakhand recognised the Fundamental Right to shelter of
nearly 50,000 people accused of illegally living on railway lands.

43
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q92.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● The Convention on the Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International
Lakes (Water Convention) is a unique legally binding instrument. It promotes the sustainable
management of shared water resources, supports the implementation of the Sustainable Development Goals
and helps prevent conflicts.
● It was adopted in Helsinki in 1992 and entered into force in 1996. Initially negotiated as a regional
instrument, it was opened up for accession to all UN Member States in 2016. So, statement 1 is not correct
and statement 2 is correct.
● It requires Parties to prevent, control and reduce transboundary impact, use transboundary waters
reasonably and equitably and ensure their sustainable management. Parties bordering the same transboundary
waters have to cooperate by entering into specific agreements and establishing joint bodies.
● The convention currently has 53 parties. India has neither signed nor ratified this convention. So,
statement 3 is not correct.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Ivory Coast has recently joined the United Nations Water Convention, becoming the 10th African nation.

Q93.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Recently, the second experimental flight to demonstrate Air Breathing Propulsion Technology was
successfully conducted by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). The propulsion systems,
symmetrically mounted on either side of an RH-560 Sounding Rocket, were launched from the Satish Dhawan
Space Centre in Sriharikota.
● Currently, expendable multi-stage launch vehicles, which carry both fuel and oxidizer, are expensive and inefficient,
delivering only 2-4% of their lift-off mass to orbit. To reduce costs, the next generation of reusable launch
vehicles will need to use air-breathing propulsion systems, utilizing atmospheric oxygen to reduce propellant
needs. This promising technology is being actively developed, with Ramjet, Scramjet, and Dual Mode Ramjet
(DMRJ) as the key concepts being explored by space agencies worldwide for more cost-effective space access.
○ A ramjet is an air-breathing jet engine that compresses incoming air using the vehicle's forward
motion, without needing a rotating compressor. Fuel is injected into the combustion chamber, where it
mixes with the compressed air and ignites. Ramjet-powered vehicles require an assisted take-off to reach
the speed needed to generate thrust.
○ A scramjet engine is an improvement over the ramjet engine as it efficiently operates at hypersonic
speeds and allows supersonic combustion. Thus it is known as Supersonic Combustion Ramjet or
Scramjet.
○ A Dual Mode Ramjet (DMRJ) is a type of jet engine where a ramjet transforms into a scramjet
over Mach 4-8 range, which means it can efficiently operate both in subsonic and supersonic combustor
modes.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully carried out the second experimental
flight for the demonstration of Air Breathing Propulsion Technology.

44
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q94.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● Vishnupad Temple, located in Bihar, is a temple dedicated to
Lord Vishnu. It was constructed in 1787 under the patronage of
Queen Ahilyabai Holkar of Ahmadnagar. So, statement 1
is correct.
● It is situated on the banks of the Falgu River. Architecturally, it
is about 100 feet tall and is supported by 44 pillars, showcasing its
grandeur. Devotees visit the temple during Pitra Paksha, a period in
the Hindu calendar dedicated to performing rituals in
remembrance of their ancestors. So, statements 2 and 3
are correct.
Points to remember:

● The Mahabodhi Temple Complex at

Bodh Gaya, a UNESCO World Heritage
Site, is situated to the east of the Mahabodhi
Tree, where Gautam Buddha is believed to
have attained nirvana.
● It is distinguished by its unique design and
stands 170 feet tall.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

Queen Maharani Ahilyabai Holkar (1725–1795):

● She was the Queen of the Maratha Malwa kingdom and is celebrated as one of India's most
visionary female rulers, known for her wisdom, courage and administrative prowess.
● After the death of her husband, Khanderao Holkar, in 1754 and her father-in-law, Malhar
Rao Holkar, twelve years later, she ascended the throne. For 28 years, Ahilyabai ruled
Malwa with justice and knowledge, bringing peace, prosperity, and stability to the region. Her
capital, Maheshwar, flourished as a center of literary, musical, artistic, and industrial endeavors.
Relevance: The Union Finance Minister of India announced the corridor projects for the Vishnupad Temple at Gaya and
the Mahabodhi Temple at Bodh Gaya in Bihar.

Q95.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● A Genetically Modified Organism (GMO) is any living organism whose genetic material has been modified to
include certain desirable techniques. In crops, genetic modification involves the manipulation of DNA instead
of using controlled pollination— the conventional method to improve crops— to alter certain characteristics
of the crop.
○ To genetically modify a crop, the desired gene is first identified and isolated from the source organism.
This gene is then integrated into the DNA of the target crop. The resulting genetically modified crop
undergoes rigorous testing in both laboratory and field conditions to evaluate its performance.

45
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ● India has a stringent regulatory framework to safeguard animal health, human safety, and biodiversity during the
development, cultivation, and transboundary movement of genetically modified (GM) crops. The key legislations
governing GM crops in India include:
○ Environment Protection Act, 1986 (EPA). So, point 1 is correct.
○ Biological Diversity Act, 2002. So, point 2 is correct.
○ Plant Quarantine Order, 2003
○ GM Policy under Foreign Trade Policy
○ Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. So, point 3 is correct.
○ Drugs and Cosmetics Rule (8th Amendment), 1988
● The regulations broadly encompass:
○ All activities related to the research and development of GMOs
○ Field and clinical trials involving GMOs
○ Intentional or accidental release of GMOs into the environment
○ The import, export, and production of GMOs.
● Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937 does not regulate Genetically Modified (GM) crops
in India. So, point 4 is not correct.
So, only three of the above acts regulate Genetically Modified (GM) crops in India.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently the Supreme Court has asked the Central Government to formulate a national policy concerning
GM crops for research.

Q96.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Hambantota Port: It is an inland port situated in a natural
harbor near the town of Hambantota in Sri Lanka's Southern
Province and is currently under construction. Upon
completion, it will become the largest port in Sri Lanka, second
only to the Colombo Port in the Western Province. So, pair 1
is correctly matched.
● Chornomorsk Port: It is situated in Ukraine on the
northwestern
shore of the Black
Sea at Sukhyi
Estuary,
southwest of
Odesa and holds a
strategic position
at the crossroads
of major transport
corridors linking
Europe and Asia. So, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
● Duqm Port: It is a strategically vital maritime hub overlooking both the Arabian Sea and the Indian Ocean. It is
located on Oman's southeastern coast and is positioned near Iran's Chabahar port, enhancing its significance
in regional trade and logistics. So, pair 3 is not correctly matched.
So, only one of the pairs given above is correctly matched.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

46
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
Q97.
Answer: a
Explanation:
● Lion’s Mane Mushrooms are large, white and shaggy, resembling a lion’s mane as they grow. These edible
mushrooms have been valued for centuries in traditional medicine due to their numerous health benefits. One of
their key bioactive compounds, hericenones, belongs to a class of benzaldehydes known for promoting
nerve growth.
○ Hericenones encourage neurons to form new connections in the brain and aid the growth and
repair of nerve cells. This ability to stimulate neurogenesis suggests that Lion’s Mane Mushrooms may
offer protection against dementia, alleviate mild depression and anxiety and accelerate recovery from
nervous system injuries. Moreover, they hold the potential to treat neurodegenerative cognitive
disorders like Alzheimer’s disease. So, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
● Lion’s Mane Mushrooms are nutrient-dense and low in calories, making them an excellent addition to a healthy
diet. They are rich in fiber, vitamins and minerals, including potassium, copper, and vitamin B5. To extend
their shelf life, these mushrooms can be dried and later rehydrated when needed for cooking.
So, both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct and Statement–II explains Statement–I.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, researchers in cognitive science have made a promising discovery by identifying hericenones, an
active compound found in Lion’s Mane Mushrooms.

Q98.
Answer: d
Explanation:
● BRICS is an acronym for the informal grouping of the world’s leading emerging economies: Brazil, Russia,
India, China and South Africa. It was formalized during the first BRIC Foreign Ministers' meeting in 2006, with
South Africa joining in 2010. At the 15th BRICS summit held in Johannesburg, South Africa, the group admitted
five new members: Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia and the United Arab Emirates (UAE).
● The Quad, known as the 'Quadrilateral Security Dialogue' (QSD), is an informal strategic forum comprising
the United States of America, India, Australia and Japan. It was established in 2007 with a primary
objective to ensure a free, open, prosperous and inclusive Indo-Pacific region.
● India is the only country that is a member of both the Quad and BRICS and it is a founding member of
both groups.
● South Africa is part of BRICS but not the Quad. So, point 1 is not correct.
● Brazil is part of BRICS but not the Quad. So, point 2 is not correct.
● Similarly, Australia and Japan are members of the Quad but not BRICS. So, points 3 and 4 are not correct.
So, none of the above countries are members of both the ‘Quad’ and the ‘BRICS’.
Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.
Relevance: Recently, the Quad Foreign Ministers’ meeting was held in Japan.

Q99.
Answer: c
Explanation:
● The List of World Heritage in Danger is designed to inform the international community of conditions which
threaten the very characteristics for which a property was inscribed on the World Heritage List. It thus aims to
encourage corrective actions.
● World Heritage sites face significant threats from armed conflict, natural disasters, pollution, poaching,
uncontrolled urbanization and unchecked tourism. These dangers can be either 'ascertained,' meaning
imminent and proven, or 'potential,' referring to possible future threats that could harm the site's heritage values.
● The following are the sites listed as World Heritage in Danger due to various threats:
47
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 ○ The Saint Sophia Cathedral in Kyiv, Ukraine, was listed due to the risk of destruction from the
ongoing Russian offensive. So, point 1 is correct.
○ The Bamiyan Valley in Afghanistan, home to the iconic giant Buddha statues destroyed by the Taliban
in 2001, was placed on the Danger List in 2003 due to its fragile condition from military action and neglect.
So, point 2 is correct.
○ The Saint Hilarion complex in Gaza, one of the oldest monasteries in the Middle East, was recently
added to the Danger List due to the impact of Israel’s war on Gaza. So, point 3 is correct.
So, all three of the above are listed in the UNESCO list of World Heritage Sites in Danger.
Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.
Relevance: The Saint Hilarion complex has been added to UNESCO's list of World Heritage sites in danger due to the
ongoing conflict in Gaza.

Q100.
Answer: b
Explanation:
● Over the past seven years, the Railway Protection Force (RPF) has led an initiative called 'Nanhe Faristey,'
focused on rescuing children in need of care and protection across Indian Railway Zones. From 2018 to May
2024, this operation successfully rescued 84,119 children who were at risk at stations and on trains, preventing
them from falling into danger.
● 'Nanhe Faristey' serves as a crucial lifeline for children in precarious situations. The data from 2018 to
2024 highlights the RPF's steadfast commitment, adaptability and resilience. Each rescue underscores the RPF’s
dedication to protecting the most vulnerable members of society.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Knowledge Box

●Operation Madad: It was launched by the Southern Naval Command (SNC) in 2018, to
support the state administration and conduct disaster relief operations in response to the
severe flooding in Kerala.
● Operation Muskaan: It is a Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) initiative aimed at locating
and rehabilitating missing children. This month-long campaign involves State Police personnel
taking various measures to identify, rescue, and reunite missing children with their families.
● Operation Ajay: It was launched to facilitate the return from Israel of those Indians who
wish to come back home as a series of brazen attacks on Israeli towns by Hamas militants over
the weekend triggered fresh tensions in the region.
Relevance: Under 'Operation Nanhe Faristey,' the RPF has rescued 84,119 children over the past seven years.

48
Vajiram & Ravi PowerUp Current Affairs Test Series – 2025
CA Test – 03 – (CA2253)
 UPSC PRELIMS MOCK OMR ANSWER SHEET
DATE : TEST SUBJECT - .............................................................................

TEST NUMBER - ..................

Questions Attempted ____ Total Marks ____ Time Taken : ____ RESULT
Answers Wrong ____ (-)Negative marking____ Time Left : ____
Marks Obtained ____