09 MARCH 2025 VITAL, T-15 No.

: 4124297

A & T-11
Test Booklet Code

This Booklet contains 28 pages.

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answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test
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 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

5 The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor increases

PHYSICS when electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength shorter
The frequencies of the series-limit of the Lyman & than 2400 is incident on it. The band gap of the semiconductor
1
(in eV) is: (h = 6.63 × 10 −34
J-s)
Balmer series of lines are ν and νB , respectively. Then, the
L
1. 0.33 eV
frequency (ν − ν ) belongs to:
L B
2. 0.80 eV
1. Lyman series
3. 0.52 eV
2. Balmer series
4. 0.10 eV
3. Paschen series
4. none of the above A logic gate circuit has two inputs, and and an
6 A B,

2 In the circuit provided, resistor-1 has a resistance of 2 Ω, output, Y . The voltage waveforms corresponding to A, B, and
Y are shown below.
and resistor-2 has a resistance of 4 Ω. The circuit is connected
to a 12 V power source.

The logic gate represented by the circuit is:

1. AND gate 2. OR gate
3. NOR gate 4. NAND gate
Which of the following best describes the relationship
between the potential drop across resistor-1 (ΔV ) and 1
7 The Zener diode has a voltage, Vz = 30 V. The current
resistor-2 (ΔV )? 2
passing through the diode for the following circuit is:
1. ΔV = ΔV
1 2

2. ΔV = 2ΔV
1 2

3. ΔV = 4ΔV
1 2

4. ΔV + ΔV = 12 V
1 2

3 112
Xe −−−−−−−−−−−→
x, y
108
51
Sb
54

Of the two charged particles emitted, x is very light & both x

& y are positively charged. Then x, y are:
1. β ,α
−
2. β ,α
+

3. β ,β
− +
4. β, α
1. 3 mA
Two point charges, each of magnitude are placed at 2. 6 mA
4 +q,
3. 9 mA
two adjacent corners of a cube. What is the total electric flux 4. 12 mA
passing through all six faces of the cube?
q 2q
8 A transmission line supplies input power at 2200 V to a
1. 2.
3ε0 ε0
step-down transformer with a primary winding of 1000 turns.
q
3. 4.
4q
To obtain an output power at 220 V, the number of turns in
4ε0 ε0 the secondary winding is:
1. 50 2. 100

3. 1000 4. 1000

1
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

9 In a moving coil galvanometer, if the number of turns in 14

the coil increase by 25%, the change in voltage sensitivity is:
1. zero
2. 1%
3. 25%
4. 50%

The reactance of a series LCR circuit is, in magnitude: The separation between the plates of the capacitor C is x.
10 2

The overall capacitance between A & B plotted as a function

(choose the most appropriate option) of x, is represented by the graph:
1. high at high frequencies
2. low at high frequencies
3. high at very high and, at very low frequencies
4. low at very high and, at very low frequencies 1. 2.

11 Given below are two statements:

Light waves of two different wavelengths, if
allowed to superpose on a screen, will form
Assertion (A):
an interference pattern but it will change with
time.
Light waves show interference and 3. 4.
Reason (R):
diffraction.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct When a current flows through a conductor, the drift
2.
explanation of (A). 15 i

3. (A) is True but (R) is False. velocity of free electrons is v. If the current is increased to 2i,
and the cross-sectional area of the conductor is doubled, what
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
will be the new drift velocity of the free electrons?
v v

12 The ratio of the mass densities of the nuclei 40

Ca and 1. 2.
4 2
16
O is close to: 3. v 4. 4v

1. 0.1
2. 2
3. 5 Based on the information provided below, answer the
4. 1 questions (16-19).
ABCD shows the cross-section of a specially cut prism,

13 Two coils are placed near each other, allowing a time- where diagonal AC is ⊥ CD. The remaining angles are as
varying current in one coil to induce a time-varying current in shown. Light falls on the surface AB, undergoes refraction
the other. The mutual inductance between the coils depends and then reflection on BC (silvered); thereafter exiting
on: through surface AD. When this prism is used for a
1. the rate of change of current in the two coils particular wavelength at the "minimum deviation", the
refracted ray from the surface AB is parallel to the
2. the materials of the wires used in two coils
diagonal AC.
3. the currents in the two coils
4. the relative position and orientation of the two coils

2
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

20 D1 , D2 , D3 one identical diodes: each having a

threshold voltage of 0.6 V, beyond which the current
increases exponentially in forward bias. The diodes don't
conduct in reverse bias. i is the current flowing in at A, when
VAB
= V A
− V B > 0. The variation of i versus V is bestAB

given by:

1. 2.

16 What is the angle BCD?

1. 90∘

2. 120 ∘

3. 135 ∘

4. 150 ∘

3. 4.
17 What is the angle between a ray entering AB and the
corresponding ray leaving AD?
1. 90∘

2. 45∘

3. 120 ∘
21 Two square metal plates A and B are made of the same
4. 150 ∘
material and have identical thickness t. The side length of
plate B is twice that of plate A. A current I is passed
18 What is the angle of emergence of the ray leaving the perpendicularly through the thickness of each plate in their
surface AD, given that the angle of incidence of the series combination (as shown in the diagram). The ratio of the
corresponding ray on AB is i? (Assume that the prism is set resistance of two plates
RA
will be:
for minimum deviation.) RB

1. i
2. 90 − i
∘

3. 90 + i
∘

The value depends on the refractive index of the material,

4.
μ.
1 1
1. 2.
19 Consider two extreme parallel rays incident on the 4 2

3. 1 4. 4
surface AB of this prism, at an angle of incidence i (in air):
one at A, other at B. The prism is at "minimum deviation" for An electron is in the state in an -atom.
these rays. What is the optical path difference between these 22 (I) n = 3 H

rays, within the prism? Take the refractive index as μ. Radiation corresponding to the transition from n = 3 to n = 2
1. μ ⋅ AD in H-atoms, is incident onto the former electron (I) & is
2. μ ⋅ AC absorbed. The final kinetic energy of the electron (I) is:
3. μ ⋅ CD 1. zero 2. 1.51 eV

4. μ ⋅ AB 3. 3.4 eV 4. 0.38 eV

3
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

23 A standard Young's double-slit experiment is carried out 24 Match the magnetic fields mentioned in Column-I with
with identical slits, and the source (S) kept symmetrically, far their correct values in Column-II.
away from the slits along the normal. The screen is kept Column-I Column-II
parallel to the double-slit far away. The intensity of the central
maximum is I . Some questions are asked about physical
0

quantities in Column-I & their answers are provided in

Column-II, in a different order.
μ0 i
(A) (I) √3
2πr

Field at O due to a semi-infinite straight

wire at a distance r from it.

Column-I Column-II
Phase difference between the interfering
(A) (I) 0.5
waves at the central fringe (B) (II)
μ0 i

Phase difference between the waves midway 2πr

(B) between the 1st minimum & 1st maximum (II) 1.0
Field at centre O of a semi-circular
(as a multiple of π) segment carrying current i; the radius
Intensity at the point midway between the being r.
st
(C) 1 maximum & the 1st minimum (in terms (III) 1.5

of I )
0

The average intensity on the screen (as a

(D) (IV) 0
multiple of I )
0

μ0 i
(C) (III)
1. - - - -
A IV, B II, C II, D I 4r

2. - - - -
A I, B II, C III, D I

3. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-I Field at O on the angular bisector of a

120 -bent wire carrying current i, at a
∘
4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-II

distance r from the bend.

μ0 i
(D) (IV)
4πr

A pair of parallel semi-infinite wire

segments carrying currents i (each), with
a separation 2r. The magnetic field at the
mid-point O, between their ends.

1. - - - -
A II, B I, C III, D IV

2. - - - -
A II, B III, C I, D IV

3. - - - -
A IV, B III, C I, D II

4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

4
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

25 A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field. 29 A solar cell is a:

After passing through a layer of lead, it loses half of its kinetic 1. forward biased Zener diode.
energy. How does the radius of its curvature change? 2. type of light-emitting diode.
1. It becomes twice the original radius. 3. diode working on the principle of photo-voltaic effect.
2. It becomes √2​times the original radius. 4. type of photo-diode with external biasing.
3. It becomes half the original radius.
1
30 Two identical bar magnets are kept as shown in the
4. It becomes ​times the original radius.
√2 figure. The direction of the resultant magnetic field, indicated
by the arrowhead at the point P is:
26 North and south poles are induced on the upper solenoid
when the circuit key (K) is switched on (closed). When the
upper circuit is switched on, in the lower circuit:

1. 2.

3. 4.

31 A coil is wound on a cylindrical core in the form of a

closely packed helix. If all the linear dimensions of the
solenoid are increased by a factor of 2, while keeping the
number of turns per unit length constant, the self-inductance
1. ends A, B become N , S poles increases by a factor of:
2. ends A, B become S, N poles 1. 16
3. ends A, B both become N -poles 2. 12
3. 8
4. ends A, B both become S -poles 4. 4

27 The velocity of electromagnetic waves in a material A current flows through a cell with an EMF and
32 i E

c
medium is (c = 3 × 10
8
m/s). Its permeability is nearly internal resistance r, as shown in the diagram.
√2

equal to the free space permeability, μ . Its permittivity ε is:

0

(ε is free space permittivity)

0

1. √2ε 0

2. 2ε 0

3. 1.5ε 0 Consider the following statements:

4. 3ε 0 (A) The cell absorbs energy at the rate of Ei.
(B) The cell stores chemical energy at the rate of (Ei − i 2
r).

28 The de-Broglie wavelength of the electron accelerated

(C) The potential difference across the cell is E + ir.
through a potential difference V equals the de-Broglie (D) Some heat is produced in the cell.
wavelength of an electron in the ground state of the hydrogen
atom. The value of V is:
Choose the correct option from the options given below:
1. 13.6 volts
2. 27.2 volts 1. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. 10.2 volts 2. (A) and (B) only
4. 6.8 volts 3. (A) and (D) only
4. (A), (B), (C), and (D)

5
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

33 In the given figure, points A, B, and C form the vertices 36 The correct unit of the quantity hc (h: Planck's constant,
of an equilateral triangle with side length 10 m. Point D lies
−5
c: speed of light in vacuum), is:
at the midpoint of the line segment joining B and C, while 1. eV/A˚
point E is in the same plane as A, B, and C, and is equidistant 2. eV-A˚
from all three vertices. Positive charges of magnitude 3. eV-s
Q = 1.1 × 10 C are placed at points A, B, and C.
−15

4. eV/s

37 The stopping potential for electrons emitted from a

photosensitive surface illuminated with light of wavelength
491 nm is 0.710 V. When the wavelength of the incident light
changes, the stopping potential increases to 1.43 V. The new
wavelength is approximately:
1. 329 nm
2. 309 nm
3. 382 nm
4. 400 nm

What is the direction of the electric field at the point D? Two long co-axial conducting cylinders, separated by a
38
1. It points up (↑).
small radial distance, have a mutual capacitance of C . Three- 0
2. It points down (↓). fourths of the (angular) space between the conductors is filled
3. It points into the page. by a dielectric of relative permittivity K (the remaining is air).
4. It has zero magnitude. The new capacitance is:

34 A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm

and an eyepiece of focal length 5.0 cm. The magnifying
power of the telescope for viewing a distant object is:
1. 28
2. 17
3. 32
4. 34

35 Two very large conducting wires, shaped into circles of

radius R, carry currents i1 , i2 . The force between them is
3K+1 K+3
(R ≫ d) : 1. C0 2. C0
4 4

4 4K
3. 3K+1
C0 4. 3K+1
C0

39 The time taken by sunlight to pass through a glass slab of

thickness 5 mm and refractive index 1.5 is:
5 5
2
1. ( ) × 10
−8
s 2. ( ) × 10
−11
s
R R 3 2
1. μ0 i 1 i 2 2. μ0 i 1 i 2
d d 5 5

R
3. ( ) × 10
−11
s 4. ( ) × 10
−8
s
3 2
3. μ0 i 1 i 2
2
4. μ0 i 1 i 2
d

6
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

40 In the given circuit, a potential difference is applied 43 A rod of length L rotates with a small uniform angular
between points A and B, and the equivalent resistance velocity ω about its perpendicular bisector. A uniform
between these points is R. magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The
potential difference between the centre of the rod and an end
is:
2 2
BωL BωL
1. 2.
8 2

2
BωL
3. 4. zero
4

44 A dipole (p) is placed in a uniform electric field (E0 )

Then:
along its axis. The potential at a point a distance R, axially in
(A) No current flows through the 5 Ω resistor. front of the dipole, is observed to be equal to that at a
(B) R = 15 Ω symmetric point (B) which is at a distance R behind it:
(C) R = 12.5 Ω VA = V . The dipole moment, p, equals:
B

18
(D) R = Ω
5

Choose the correct option from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (A) and (D) only 1. 4πε0 E0 R
3
2. 8πε0 E0 R
3

4. (B), (C) and (D) only 3. 2πε0 E0 R

3
4. ε 0 E0 ⋅ (
4
πR )
3

41 Given below are two statements:

45 The work functions of Caesium (Cs), Potassium (K),

The electric potential of a charged ring or an

and Sodium (Na) are 2.14 eV, 2.30 eV and 2.75 eV
Assertion (A): arc of a ring at its centre depends only on the
respectively. If incident electromagnetic radiation has an
total charge and the radius.
incident energy of 2.20 eV, which of these photosensitive
The potential due to a point charge depends surfaces may emit photoelectrons?
on the charge and the distance therefrom; for 1. Na only
Reason (R):
a collection of charges, it is the sum of the 2. Cs only
potential due to each charge. 3. both Na and K
4. K only
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).

2.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct CHEMISTRY
explanation of (A). If x is specific resistance (in cm) of an electrolyte
46
−1
S
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
solution and y is the molarity of the solution, then Λm (in
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
) is given by:
2 −1
Scm mol

42 Which of the following phenomena establishes the 1.

1000x
2. 1000
y

x
y
transverse nature of light waves? xy
1000
1. interference of light 3. 4.
xy 1000
2. diffraction of light
3. scattering of light
4. polarisation of light

7
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

47 The correct statement among the following about the

Which of the following inference(s) can be drawn from the
structural isomers of C5H11Br is:
above data?
It has a total of 8 structural isomers, 4 are primary alkyl
1. a. Rate constant of the reaction is 10 . −4

bromide isomers and 2 are tertiary alkyl bromide isomers.

b. Rate law of the reaction is k[A][B].
It has a total of 7 structural isomers, 4 are primary alkyl
2. Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the
bromide isomers and 2 are tertiary alkyl bromide isomers. c.
concentration of both the reactants.
It has a total of 8 structural isomers, 4 are primary alkyl
3. bromide isomers and 3 are secondary alkyl bromide Mark the correct option pertaining to question asked above:
isomers. 1. a, b and c
2. a and b
It has a total of 7 structural isomers, 3 are secondary alkyl
4. 3. b and c
bromide isomers and 1 is a tertiary alkyl bromide isomer.
4. c alone

48 The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is : Which of the following compounds gives positive
51
Tollen's Test?

1. 2.

1. 2-Methyl-6-nitro-3-oxohept-4-enal
2. 2, 6-Dimethyl-6-nitro-oxohex-4-enal
3. 2-Methyl-6-nitrohept-4-en-1, 3-dione 3. 4.
4. 2-Methyl-6-nitro-3-oxohept-3-enal

49 Consider the given two statements:

Assertion 52 Consider the given two statements:
NH3 is more polar than NF 3.
(A):
[Co(NO2)3(NH3)3] does not show optical
The N – H dipole is directed towards N while in Assertion (A):
Reason isomerism.
the case of NF , towards F, as F is more
(R): 3
Reason (R): It has a plane of symmetry.
electronegative.
Options:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1.
1. explanation of (A).
explanation for (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2.
2. explanation of (A).
explanation for (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True

The following data pertain to the reaction between A and 53 For the ions Zn
2+
, Ni
2+
, Cu
2+
and Cr , which of the
2+

50
following statements is correct?
B:
2+ and Cr
1. Zn ions are colourless while ions
2+ 2+ 2+

[A] [B] Rate Ni , Cu

S.No −1 −1 −1 −1 are coloured.
mol. L mol. L mol. L sec

I 1 × 10
−2
2 × 10
−2
2 × 10
−4 2. All the ions are coloured.
3. All the ions are colourless.
II 2 × 10
−2
2 × 10
−2
4 × 10
−4

III 2 × 10
−2
4 × 10
−2
8 × 10
−4
4. Zn and Cu
2+ 2+
are colourless, while Ni2+ and Cr2+ are
coloured.

8
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

54 Consider the given two statements: 57 Consider the given two statements:
Assertion o-Dichloro benzene has a higher melting point p-Toluidine is a stronger base than m-
Assertion (A):
(A): than p-dichlorobenzene. toluidine.
Reason The stronger the Van der Waal's forces of The methyl group from m-position exerts a
(R): attraction, the higher the melting point. Reason (R): smaller electron-donating inductive (+l)
effect than from p-position.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct Options:
1.
explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
2.
explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. explanation for (A).
4. (A) is false but (R) is true. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
55 Consider the following compounds:
58 Which of the following pairs will give a positive test
with Tollen's reagent?
1. Glucose and Sucrose
(A) 2. Fructose and Sucrose
3. Acetophenone and Hexanal
4. Glucose and Fructose

59 A basic radical among the following that cannot be

(B) precipitated by
H2 S gas in the presence of N H is: 3

1. M n 2+

2. N i 2+

3. Cd 2+

(C) 4. Ca 2+

60 Match the following ions from List-I with their

corresponding electron configuration from List-II and select
(D) the correct option.
List-I (Ion) List-II (electron configuration)
Which of the following options correctly represents the Br a. Mn 2+
(i) 3
3d 4s
1

atoms which are more reactive in SN1 mechanism? b. V +

(ii) 5
3d 4s
0

1. (A) Br – (a); (B) Br – (a); (C) Br – (a); (D) Br – (a) c. Cr

+
(iii) 6
3d 4s
0

2. (A) Br – (a); (B) Br – (b); (C) Br – (b); (D) Br – (a)

3. (A) Br – (b); (B) Br – (b); (C) Br – (b); (D) Br – (a) d. Fe 2+

4. (A) Br – (a); (B) Br – (b); (C) Br – (b); (D) Br – (b) 1. a→(i), b→(ii), c→(iii), d→(iii)
2. a→(iv), b→(ii), c→(ii), d→(i)
56 A 0.5 g/L solution of glucose is found to be isotonic with 3. a→(ii), b→(i), c→(ii), d→(iii)
a 2.5 g/L solution of an organic compound. What will be the 4. a→(ii), b→(i), c→(iii), d→(iii)
molecular weight of that organic compound?
61 In a binary mixture of components A and B, a positive
1. 300
2. 600 deviation from Raoult's law is observed under the following
3. 900 conditions:
4. 200 A - B interaction is stronger than A - A and B - B
1.
interaction.
A - B interaction is weaker than A - A and B - B
2.
interaction
3. ΔV mix < 0, ΔS > 0.
mix

4. ΔV mix = 0, ΔS > 0.
mix

9
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

62 The major product (P) of the following reaction is:

1. 2.

3. 4.

1. 2.

65 Two components A and B form an ideal solution. The

mole fractions of A and B in the ideal solution are XA and XB ,​
respectively, while in the vapor phase, their mole fractions are
YA ​ and YB ​. Then, the slope and intercept of the plot of
1
vs
1
​will be:
YA XA
3. 4.
∘ ∘ ∘ ∘ ∘ ∘
P P − P PB P − P
A B A A B
1. ∘
,
∘
2. ∘
,
∘
PB PB P P
A A

∘ ∘ ∘
PB PB P
Identify the product labeled (P) in the given-below
A

63 3. ∘
,
∘ ∘
4. ∘
PA − PB ,
∘

∘
PA PB − PA PB
sequential reaction:
66 The difference of secondary and primary valencies of
cobalt in the complex [Co(en) ]Br is: 3 3

1. Two 2. Three
3. Zero 4. One

67
1. 2. The flow of current ceases when the cell
Assertion(A):
potential (Ecell​) becomes zero.
At (Ecell​) = 0, the cell reaction
Reason(R):
attains equilibrium.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
3. 4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.

64 The product (P) formed in the following reaction is:

10
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

68 Determine the relationship between the standard cell 71 The correct statement regarding inner transition elements
potentials and equilibrium constants for the following is:
reactions: The general electronic configuration of actinoids is [Xe]
54

1.
(a) A + B ⇌ C + D with E = x volts and K = K
0
eq 1 4f
1−14
5d
0−1
6s
2

2A + 2B ⇌ 2C + 2D with E
0
= y volts and The general electronic configuration of lanthanoids is
(b) 2. 86
Keq = K2 1−14 0−1 2
[Rn] 5f 6d 7s

1. x = y, K = K 1 2 3. Alkalies have no action on actinoids.

2. x = 2y, K = 2K 1 2
4. The principal oxidation state of lanthanoids is +1.
3. x = y, K = K 1
2
2

4. x = y, K = K
2 2
In the reaction: A+2B→6C+2D, if the initial rate
1 2
72
69 The structure of major monohalogenated product in the −
d[A]
at t = 0 is 2.6 × 10 −2
M sec
−1
, what will be the value
dt
following reaction is: d[B]
of − at t = 0?
dt

1. 8.5 × 10 −2
M sec
−1

2. 2.5 × 10 −2
M sec
−1

3. 5.2 × 10 −2 −1
M sec

4. 7.5 × 10 −2 −1
M sec

1. 2.
73 Match the reactions from Column-I with their respective
names from Column-II and select the correct option.
Column-II
Column-I
3. 4. None of the above. (Name of
(Reaction)
reaction)
dry ether Wurtz-
(A) 2C H Br + 2Na ⟶2 5
(i) Fittig
70 In the given reaction, product A is: C H + 2NaBr
4 10 reaction
Swartz
(B) CH Br + AgF ⟶ CH F + AgBr (ii)
3
reaction 3

dryether
Fittig
(C) C6 H5 Br + 2Na + BrC2 H5 ⟶
(iii)
C6 H5 C2 H5 + 2NaBr
reaction
dry ether
Wurtz
(D) 2C6 H5 Br + 2Na ⟶
(iv)
C6 H5 − C6 H5 + 2NaBr
reaction
1. 2.
1. (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
2. (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
3. (A) → (iv), (B) → (ii), (C) → (i), (D) → (iii)
4. (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii)
3. 4. None of these.

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74 Match the biological molecules from Column-I with 77 Identify the reaction that produces the correct major
their respective characteristics/examples from Column-II and products under the given condition.
choose the correct option:
1.
Column-I
Column-II
(Biological
(Characteristics/Examples)
Molecules)
Pentose sugar in 2.
(A) (i) Ascorbic acid
DNA
(B) RNA (ii) Globular protein
(C) Albumin (iii) Uracil 3.
(D) Vitamin (iv) Furanose structure

4.
1. (A) → (iv), (B) → (iii), (C) → (ii), (D) → (i)
2. (A) → (iii), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
3. (A) → (ii), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (i)
4. (A) → (i), (B) → (ii), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv) 78 Which of the following reagents can be used to oxidize
primary alcohols to aldehydes?
75 Consider the given the electrochemical series ranking of
I. CrO in anhydrous medium
3

metals in decreasing electropositivity: II. KMnO in acidic medium

4

Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag III. Pyridinium chlorochromate

Predict the outcome when a copper spoon is used to stir a IV. Heat in the presence of Cu at 573K
solution of aluminum nitrate. Choose the correct option:
1. The spoon gets coated with aluminium. 1. (I, II, III)
2. An alloy of aluminium and copper is formed. 2. (II, III, IV)
3. No reaction occurs. 3. (I, III, IV)
4. The solution starts turning blue. 4. (I, II, IV)

76 Match Column-I with Column-II and mark the correct 79 Compound 'A' in the following reaction is:
option.
Column-I Column-II
(Ligand Name) (Type of Ligand)
i. NO
−

2
a. Hexadenate
ii. OH
−
b. Didentate 1. 2.
iii. C2 O
2−

4
c. Monodentate
iv. EDTA d. Ambidentate
3. 4.
Codes:
1. i=d, ii=c, iii=b, iv=a
2. i=c, ii=d, iii=b, iv=a
3. i=c, ii=d, iii=a, iv=b
4. i=a, ii=c, iii=b, iv=d

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80 A homogeneous catalytic reaction takes place through the 83 The vapour pressure curves of the same solute in the
three alternative plots A, B, and C shown in the given figure. same solvent are shown. The curves are parallel to each other
Which one of the following indicates the relative ease with and do not intersect. The concentrations of solutions are in
which the reaction can take place? order of:

1. A > B > C
2. C > B > A 1. I < II < III
3. A > C > B 2. I = II = III
4. A = B = C 3. I < III < II
4. III < II < I
81 Total number of primary and secondary amines possible
84 For reaction A ⟶ B, the rate constant
with the molecular formula C4H11N, respectively, are:
1. 4 and 2 2. 4 and 3 k1 = A 1 e
−Ea /(RT )
1
and
3. 3 and 3 4. 5 and 3 for the reaction X ⟶ Y , the rate constant
−Ea2 /(RT )
k2 = A 2 e .

82 Consider the given two statements: If 8

A1 = 10 , A2 = 10
10
and Ea
1
= 600 cal/mol,

Ea = 1800 cal/mol,
Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones in 2

Assertion (A): then the temperature at which k1 = k2 is:

nucleophilic addition reactions.
(Given : R = 2cal/K − mol )
The magnitude of the positive charge present
Reason (R): on the carbonyl carbon of aldehydes is 1. 1200 K 2. 1200 × 4.606 K

greater than that of ketones. 3.

1200
K 4.
600
K
4.606 4.606

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 85 The number of moles of MnO₄⁻ being reduced to Mn²⁺
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct under acidic conditions by 4.517 × 10²⁴ electrons are:
2. 1. 1.5 moles
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. 7.5 moles
3. 2.5 moles
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
4. 5.0 moles

86 The complex that is utilized for inhibiting the

proliferation of cancer cells is:
1. Cis-platin
2. EDTA
3. Cobalt
4. Ethanol-1,2-diamine

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87 Nessler's reagent is used to detect: 92 Which of the following factors directly contribute to an
increase in population size?
1. CrO 2−

4
1. Natality and immigration
2. P O 3− 2. Mortality and emigration
3. Natality and emigration
4

3. M nO
−

4
4. Mortality and immigration
4. N H +

93 Which of the following statements correctly compares

88 Consider the following compounds:
the Grazing Food Chain (GFC) and the Detritus Food Chain
A. Cl CHCOOH 2 (DFC)?
B. ClCH COOH 2 In an aquatic ecosystem, the Grazing Food Chain (GFC) is
C. ClCH CH COOH the major conduit for energy flow, while in a terrestrial
2 2
1.
D. C H CH COOH
ecosystem, a much larger fraction of energy flows through
6 5 2
the Detritus Food Chain (DFC).
The increasing order of pKa values of the compound (A to D)
follows the order: In all ecosystems, energy flows mainly through the
1. D < C < B < A 2. Grazing Food Chain, as decomposers play a minimal role
2. B < C < D < A in energy transfer.
3. C < B < D < A The Detritus Food Chain dominates in aquatic ecosystems,
4. A < B < C < D 3. while the Grazing Food Chain is dominant in terrestrial
ecosystems.
89 The ratio of σ and π in pyrophosphoric acid is: Energy transfer through the Detritus Food Chain is always
4.
1. 1:6 more efficient than in the Grazing Food Chain.
2. 5:3
3. 6:1 94 Which of the following correctly differentiates
4. 2:3 cleistogamy from chasmogamy?
Cleistogamous flowers open at maturity and promote
90 Consider the given two statements:
1. cross-pollination, whereas chasmogamous flowers remain
Assertion K4[Fe(CN)6] is diamagnetic and closed and undergo self-pollination.
(A): [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3 is paramagnetic. Both cleistogamous and chasmogamous flowers open, but
2.
Hybridisation of central metal in K4[Fe(CN)6] cleistogamous flowers prevent cross-pollination.
Reason
Cleistogamous flowers are always sterile, whereas
(R): is sp3d2 while in [Fe(H2O)6]Cl3, it is d2sp3. 3.
chasmogamous flowers produce viable seeds.
Cleistogamous flowers remain closed, ensuring self-
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 4. pollination, while chasmogamous flowers open at
1.
explanation of (A). maturity, allowing cross-pollination.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A). Consider the given two statements:
95
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
An X-linked recessive trait is transmitted
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Assertion (A):
from a carrier female to her male offspring.
Males inherit only one X chromosome,
BIOLOGY Reason (R):
which they receive from their mother,
making them more susceptible to X-linked
91 Identify the incorrect statement about global biodiversity: recessive disorders.
1. More than 70% of all recorded species are animals.
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
Insects make up less than 50% of all known animal
2. 2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
species.
Plants (including algae, fungi, bryophytes, gymnosperms, 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
3. 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
and angiosperms) make up about 22% of total species.
4. Angiosperms are more successful than gymnosperms

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96 Why is the pyramid of energy always upright in all 100 Polyembryony, as observed in species like Citrus and
ecosystems? Mango, refers to which of the following phenomenon?
Higher trophic levels accumulate more energy over time, The formation of multiple embryos from a single zygote
1. 1.
preventing energy loss. due to excessive mitotic divisions.
Energy is lost as heat at each trophic level, leading to The development of multiple embryos in an ovule due to
2. decreasing energy availability as one moves up the trophic 2. the proliferation of nucellar cells surrounding the embryo
levels. sac.
Energy flows back from higher trophic levels to primary The occurrence of multiple ovules within a single seed
3. 3.
producers, maintaining an equilibrium. leading to the formation of numerous embryos.
All energy produced at lower trophic levels is completely The differentiation of synergids and antipodal cells into
4. 4.
transferred to the next level without any loss. functional embryos within the embryo sac.

97 What is the purpose of a test cross in genetics? 101 This microbe is involved in the production of Swiss
To identify whether an organism with a dominant trait is cheese. During the fermentation process, it produces carbon
1. dioxide as a metabolic byproduct, creating the characteristic
homozygous or heterozygous.
2. To ensure all offspring display the dominant trait. holes in the cheese. Additionally, it contributes to the distinct
flavour of the cheese.
3. To study how two different genes assort independently.
Which microbe is this?
4. To remove recessive traits from a population. 1. Lactobacillus acidophilus
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
98 What was Severo Ochoa's contribution to genetic 3. Propionibacterium shermanii
research? 4. Aspergillus niger
1. Proved that DNA, not proteins, is the genetic material.
102 Consider the given two statements:
2. Developed a cell-free system for protein synthesis.
Developed methods for synthesizing RNA with defined The sewage water is treated till the
3. Assertion (A): Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is
sequences.
Discovery of the enzymatic synthesis of RNA by reduced.
4. BOD indicates the rate of uptake of oxygen
polynucleotide phosphorylase Reason (R):
by microorganisms in a sample of water.
99 Which of the following best defines an ecosystem?
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).
A group of populations of different species interacting in a
1. 2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
specific area, forming a stable unit of life.
A large geographic region characterized by specific 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. climatic conditions and dominant plant and animal 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
species.
The global ecological system integrating all living 103 Which of the following best describes the impact of
3.
organisms and their relationships with the environment. invasive alien species?
A self-regulating system consisting of biotic and abiotic Alien species always benefit the native ecosystem by
1.
4. components that interact with each other through energy increasing biodiversity and improving habitat stability.
flow and nutrient cycling. When introduced into a new habitat, some alien species
2. become invasive and can cause the decline or extinction of
indigenous species by outcompeting them.
Only intentional introductions of alien species cause
3. ecological damage, while unintentional introductions are
harmless.
The introduction of an alien species always leads to the
4.
extinction of native species in an ecosystem.

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104 Which of the following sets of features accurately 107 Identify the incorrect statement about decomposition:
describes Watson and Crick’s double helix model of DNA? 1. Decomposition requires oxygen and microbial activity.
Two strands are antiparallel, bases are paired by hydrogen The rate of decomposition is influenced by detritus
1. bonds, strands have a sugar-phosphate backbone, and 2.
composition and climate.
DNA has a left-handed helical structure. Detritus rich in lignin and chitin decomposes faster than
Two strands are parallel, bases are paired by covalent 3.
nitrogen-rich detritus.
2. bonds, strands have a sugar-phosphate backbone, and Warm and moist conditions speed up decomposition,
DNA has a right-handed helical structure. 4.
while cold and anaerobic conditions slow it down.
Two strands are antiparallel, bases are paired by ionic
3. bonds, strands have a sugar-ribose backbone, and DNA What was Har Gobind Khorana's key contribution to the
has a right-handed helical structure.
108
deciphering of the genetic code?
Two strands are antiparallel, bases are paired by hydrogen
4. bonds, strands have a sugar-phosphate backbone, and He developed a cell-free system for protein synthesis that
1.
DNA has a right-handed helical structure. helped in decoding the genetic code.
He discovered the enzyme polynucleotide phosphorylase,
The embryo sac exhibits a characteristic distribution of 2. which polymerized RNA in a template-independent
105 manner.
cells. Identify the correct grouping:
He synthesized RNA molecules with defined
Three cells at the micropylar end forming the egg combinations of bases (homopolymers and copolymers)
1. apparatus, three antipodals at the chalazal end, and two 3.
using a chemical method, enabling the study of specific
polar nuclei in the center. codon sequences.
Two synergids and one egg cell at the chalazal end, three He demonstrated the proof that codons were quadruplets
2. antipodals at the micropylar end, and two polar nuclei in 4.
using his innovative chemical methods
the center.
Two egg cells and one synergid at the micropylar end, Consider the given two statements:
3. three antipodals at the chalazal end, and one polar nucleus
109
in the center. Seeds are considered the basis of agriculture
Two synergids and one polar nucleus at the micropylar Assertion (A): as they enable food production and crop
4. end, three egg cells at the chalazal end, and two antipodals propagation.
in the center. Dehydration and dormancy of mature seeds
are crucial for storage of seeds which can be
Reason (R):
Match the structural components of an ovule with their used as food throughout the year and also to
106 raise crops in the next season.
correct function.
Ovule
Function Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Part 1.
explanation of (A).
Acts as a nutritive tissue for the embryo
A. Funicle 1. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
sac. 2.
explanation of (A).
The region where the ovule is attached to
B. Hilum 2. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
the funicle.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
C. Nucellus 3. A channel facilitating pollen tube entry.
The stalk connecting the ovule to the Consider the given two statements:
D. Micropyle 4.
placenta.
110
1. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3 DNA polymerase adds nucleotides only in
Assertion (A):
2. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4 the 5’→3’ direction.
3. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2 DNA replication occurs in a semi-
Reason (R):
4. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 conservative manner.

1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

16
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

111 Identify the incorrect statement about a typical 115 What is the relationship between the strength of linkage
microsporangium: and recombination frequency?
In a transverse section, a typical microsporangium appears Stronger linkage results in a higher recombination
1.
1. near circular and is surrounded by four wall layers: the frequency.
epidermis, endothecium, middle layers, and the tapetum. Recombination frequency and linkage strength are
2.
The innermost wall layer, the tapetum, nourishes the independent of each other.
2. developing pollen grains and possesses dense cytoplasm Stronger linkage results in a lower recombination
and often more than one nucleus. 3.
frequency.
The function of the outer three wall layers includes Higher recombination frequency indicates stronger
3. protection and aiding in the dehiscence of anther to release 4.
linkage.
pollen.
The outer three wall layers of the microsporangium 116 How many of the following species interactions are
4. function solely for nourishment of the developing pollen
correctly matched according to the given table?
grains.
Interaction Effect on Species A Effect on Species B
Mutualism + +
112 What is the function of RNA Polymerase III?
Competition + -
1. Transcribes mRNA.
2. Transcribes rRNA (28S, 18S, 5.8S). Predation - +
3. Transcribes 5S rRNA, tRNA, and snRNAs. Parasitism + -
4. Transcribes only tRNA.
1. One pair is correctly matched.
113 Which statement correctly describes biodiversity 2. Two pairs are correctly matched.
hotspots? 3. Three pairs are correctly matched.
4. All four pairs are correctly matched.
Regions with moderate species richness and widely
1.
distributed species. Which of the following statements correctly describes
Large land areas with fewer endemic species and little
117
2. the catalytic role of ribosomes in bacteria?
habitat destruction.
Areas focused on a few key species with little impact on Ribosomes catalyse the formation of peptide bonds using
3. 1.
global biodiversity. 16S rRNA, which functions as an enzyme.
Regions with high species richness, many endemic Ribosomes catalyse peptide bond formation through
4. 2.
species, and rapid habitat loss. proteins associated with the 23S rRNA in bacteria.
Ribosomes use the 5S rRNA as the primary catalyst for
3.
This microbe is used as a biological control agent, peptide bond formation in bacteria.
114
Ribosomes catalyse the formation of peptide bonds using
specifically in integrated pest management programs. It 4.
23S rRNA, which functions as a ribozyme.
infects and kills insect pests without harming non-target
organisms, making it environmentally friendly. It belongs to a
118 Which of the following statements about Down’s
group of viruses that specifically target arthropods.
Which microbe is this? syndrome is incorrect?
1. Ortho paramyxovirus It is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21 due to
2. Baculovirus 1.
nondisjunction during gamete formation.
3. Retrovirus Individuals with Down’s syndrome exhibit intellectual
4. Gemini virus 2. disability, characteristic facial features, and developmental
delays.
It is an X-linked recessive disorder inherited from the
3.
mother.
4. The risk of Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age.

17
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

119 The sequence of chromosome 1, which was the last of 123 Which of the following sets of processes occur during
the 24 human chromosomes (22 autosomes and X and Y post-transcriptional modifications in eukaryotes?
chromosomes) to be sequenced, was completed in: Addition of 3' cap, splicing of introns, attachment of a
1. May 1996 1.
poly-A tail
2. May 2003 Addition of 5' cap, splicing of introns, removal of poly-A
3. May 2006 2.
tail
4. May 2010
Addition of 5' cap, splicing of introns, addition of a poly-
3.
Which of the following correctly differentiates a A tail
120 Splicing of exons, removal of 5' cap, addition of poly-A
nucleoside from a nucleotide? 4.
tail
A nucleoside has a phosphate group attached to the
1. nitrogenous base, whereas a nucleotide lacks a phosphate Why are female flower buds bagged before the flowers
group.
124
open during artificial hybridisation?
A nucleotide contains only a pentose sugar, while a
2. To ensure that only the desired pollen is used for
nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous base and phosphate.
1. fertilization by preventing unwanted pollen from reaching
There is no difference between a nucleoside and a
3. the stigma.
nucleotide; they are interchangeable terms.
To prevent water from entering the flowers and damaging
A nucleoside consists of a nitrogenous base and a pentose 2.
the reproductive structures.
4. sugar, while a nucleotide additionally contains a
phosphate group. To allow the stigma to mature in a controlled environment,
3.
ensuring higher fertility rates.
To protect the flower from insects and animals that might
121 What is the concept of dominance in genetics? 4.
damage the petals during the hybridisation process.
Dominance refers to a trait that is expressed only in the
1.
presence of two identical alleles. Which pests are controlled by the biocontrol agents
125
Dominance refers to the interaction between two alleles,
dragonfly and ladybird beetle?
2. where one allele masks the expression of the other in a
heterozygous condition. Dragonfly controls aphids, and ladybird beetle controls
1.
mosquito larvae.
Dominance refers to the equal expression of both alleles in
3. Dragonfly controls mosquito larvae, and ladybird beetle
a heterozygous organism. 2.
controls aphids.
Dominance refers to the blending of traits from both
4. Dragonfly and ladybird beetle both control mosquito
alleles in the offspring. 3.
larvae.
Match the following types of fruits with their correct 4. Dragonfly and ladybird beetle both control aphids.
122
descriptions:
Type of Fruit Description
126 What is brood parasitism?
Develop from the ovary of a 1. A parasite feeds on the blood of its host for survival.
A. True fruits 1. A bird lays its eggs in the nest of another bird, relying on
flower. 2.
Develop from parts other than the the host to incubate and raise its young.
B. False fruits 2. A bird removes the host’s eggs and replaces them with its
ovary. 3.
Parthenocarpic own eggs for incubation.
C. 3. Develop without fertilization. A predator bird steals eggs from the nest of another bird
fruits 4.
1. A-2, B-1, C-3 for consumption.
2. A-1, B-3, C-2
3. A-3, B-1, C-2
4. A-1, B-2, C-3

18
 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

127 Cuscuta is a parasitic plant commonly found growing 131 A double-stranded DNA molecule like the one shown in
on hedge plants. Which of the following statements about the given figure contains 2000 base pairs, and 20% of its bases
Cuscuta is correct? are thymine (T). Based on this information, deduce the total
Cuscuta is an autotrophic plant that synthesizes its own number of thymine bases and cytosine bases in the given
1. DNA molecule?
food using chlorophyll.
Cuscuta has retained its chlorophyll but lost its ability to
2.
absorb nutrients from the soil.
Cuscuta derives its nutrition entirely from the host plant,
3.
as it has lost its chlorophyll and leaves during evolution.
Cuscuta is a symbiotic plant that provides nutrients to the
4.
host plant in return for shelter.

128 Which enzymes are used to make fruit juices clearer?

1. Amylases and lipases
1. 400 thymine bases; 1200 cytosine bases
2. Pectinases and proteases
2. 800 thymine bases; 800 cytosine bases
3. Streptokinase and lipases 3. 800 thymine bases; 1200 cytosine bases
4. Cellulases and DNA polymerases 4. 800 thymine bases; 600 cytosine bases

129 Consider the given statements regarding the female 132 Which of the following correctly defines the template
gametophyte in angiosperms: and coding strands during transcription?
The female gametophyte develops from a The template strand is the DNA strand that is transcribed,
Statement
megaspore and is seven-nucleate and eight- 1. while the coding strand has the same sequence as the RNA
A:
celled at maturity. (except T is replaced by U).
Statement It consists of one egg cell, two synergids, three The coding strand is transcribed to form RNA, while the
2.
B: antipodal cells, and two polar nuclei. template strand remains inactive.
Statement The polar nuclei fuse to form a diploid primary Both template and coding strands are transcribed during
3.
C: endosperm nucleus before fertilization. RNA synthesis.
The coding strand has a complementary sequence to the
Statement A is correct, Statement B is incorrect, 4. mRNA, while the template strand matches the mRNA
1.
Statement C is correct sequence exactly.
Statement A is correct, Statement B is correct,
2.
Statement C is correct 133 What is the correct description of genes and alleles?
Statement A is correct, Statement B is correct, Genes are units of inheritance containing information for
3.
Statement C is incorrect 1. traits, and alleles are different genes coding for unrelated
Statement A is incorrect, Statement B is correct, traits.
4.
Statement C is incorrect Genes are the physical carriers of hereditary material,
2.
while alleles are identical copies of the same gene.
130 Which of the following is incorrect about polygenic Genes are units of inheritance containing information for
inheritance? 3. traits, and alleles are slightly different forms of the same
1. Polygenic traits show a gradient rather than distinct forms. gene that code for contrasting traits.
Traits like human height and skin colour follow polygenic Genes and alleles are unrelated entities with no role in
2. 4.
inheritance. contrasting traits.
Polygenic traits are influenced only by genetic factors, not
3.
the environment.
The number of dominant or recessive alleles affects the
4.
degree of expression.

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 YATIN (VITAL, T-15 and T-11)

134 Which of the following correctly differentiates 139 Why was the transgenic cow Rosie considered
euchromatin from heterochromatin? significant in biotechnology?
Euchromatin is transcriptionally active and loosely It produced genetically modified cow milk with a higher
1.
1. packed, while heterochromatin is tightly packed and fat content for better commercial use.
transcriptionally inactive. It produced milk enriched with human alpha-lactalbumin,
2.
Euchromatin is found only in prokaryotes, whereas making it more suitable for human infants.
2.
heterochromatin is present in eukaryotes. It was the first cloned animal that could produce medicinal
3.
Heterochromatin undergoes frequent transcription, while proteins in its milk.
3.
euchromatin remains permanently silent. It was developed using CRISPR technology to enhance
4.
Heterochromatin contains all coding genes, while milk yield and improve resistance to diseases.
4.
euchromatin consists of repetitive DNA sequences.
140 Which of the following correctly describes RNA
135 Which of the following statements about the human
interference (RNAi)?
genome is incorrect? RNAi is a process in prokaryotic cells where mRNA
1. The human genome has about 3.16 billion base pairs. 1. molecules degrade spontaneously without any external
The largest human gene is dystrophin, spanning 2.4 triggers.
2.
million bases. RNAi enhances gene expression by stabilizing mRNA
2.
3. More than 50% of human genes have unknown functions. molecules and increasing their rate of translation.
4. Humans have 80,000 to 1,40,000 genes. RNAi is a method used only in genetic engineering and
3.
does not occur naturally in living organisms.
136 Which of the following sexually transmitted diseases RNAi is a cellular defense mechanism in all eukaryotic
4. organisms, where double-stranded RNA (dsRNA) binds to
(STDs) is not completely curable?
specific mRNA molecules and prevents their translation.
1. Hepatitis-B 2. Syphilis
3. Gonorrhea 4. Chlamydia Consider the given two statements:
141
The Urey-Miller experiment, conducted in 1953, was a Sertoli cells play a key role in the process of
137 Assertion (A):
spermatogenesis.
groundbreaking study in understanding the chemical origins of
Sertoli cells provide nourishment to
life. Consider the following statements regarding their
Reason (R): developing spermatozoa and facilitate
experiment:
spermiogenesis.
The experiment simulated the conditions of
early Earth’s atmosphere by using a mixture
Statement A: Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
of methane, ammonia, hydrogen, and water 1.
vapor, exposing it to sparking electricity. explanation of (A).
The experiment successfully demonstrated Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
that complex biomolecules such as RNA and explanation of (A).
Statement B: 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
DNA could be synthesized from simple
molecules under early Earth conditions. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Which of the following is correct?
1. Both Statement A and Statement B are correct. 142 The first successful gene therapy was performed in
2. Both Statement A and Statement B are incorrect. 1990 to treat which genetic disorder?
3. Statement A is correct but Statement B is incorrect. 1. Cystic fibrosis
4. Statement A is incorrect but Statement B is correct 2. Hemophilia
3, ADA-SCID
What is the term used to describe the series of 4. Sickle cell anemia
138
processes, including separation, purification, formulation, and
quality control, that a product undergoes after the biosynthetic
stage?
1. Upstream processing
2. Downstream processing
3. Quality assurance
4. Clinical trials

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143 Which of the following correctly defines a proto- 148 How did Thomas Robert Malthus influence Charles
oncogene? Darwin's theory of evolution?
A gene that prevents uncontrolled cell division and Malthus proposed the idea of natural selection as a
1. 1.
promotes apoptosis in normal cells. mechanism for evolution.
A mutated version of a normal gene that leads to Malthus argued that species remain static over time, which
2. 2.
uncontrolled cell proliferation, causing cancer. Darwin adapted in his work.
A normal gene that has the potential to become an Malthus' work on population growth inspired Darwin to
3.
3. oncogene when mutated or abnormally expressed, leading consider the struggle for existence in nature.
to cancer. Malthus provided evidence for genetic mutations leading
4.
A gene responsible for repairing damaged DNA to prevent to evolutionary changes.
4.
mutations.
149 According to the Medical Termination of Pregnancy
144 What is the term used to describe the vertical
(MTP) Act, which of the following is NOT a valid reason for
distribution of different species occupying various levels in an abortion?
ecosystem? 1. Risk to the life or health of the pregnant woman.
1. Zonation 2. Severe abnormalities in the foetus.
2. Species composition
3. Pregnancy due to rape or incest.
3. Biotic interaction
4. Stratification 4. Financial inability to raise a child.

150 What is the difference between ZIFT (Zygote Intra

145 Why is misuse of amniocentesis banned in India?
1. It is a highly invasive procedure with severe health risks. Fallopian Transfer) and IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer)?
It is expensive and not accessible to the general ZIFT transfers zygotes (up to 8 blastomeres) into the
2. 1. fallopian tube, while IUT transfers embryos with more
population.
than 8 blastomeres into the uterus.
It is misused for sex determination, leading to female
3. ZIFT transfers embryos at any stage into the fallopian
foeticide.
2. tube, while IUT transfers them into the uterus regardless
4. It provides inaccurate results regarding genetic disorders.
of blastomere count.
Consider the given two statements: ZIFT is used for natural conception enhancement, whereas
146 3.
IUT is an in-vitro fertilization technique.
The primary and secondary immune ZIFT transfers fertilized eggs into the uterus, while IUT
responses are carried out with the help of two 4.
Statement I: transfers unfertilized eggs into the fallopian tube.
special types of lymphocytes, B-lymphocytes
and T-lymphocytes respectively. What role do macrophages play in the life cycle of
151
The T-cells themselves secrete antibodies,
Statement II: HIV?
which help B cells to fight against pathogens.
Macrophages act as HIV factories, continuously producing
1. new virus particles as the viral DNA integrates into the
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. host genome.
2. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect. Macrophages engulf and destroy the HIV virus,
3. Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct. 2.
preventing its replication.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. Macrophages only serve as transporters of HIV but do not
3.
actively participate in viral replication.
147 What is drug addiction? Macrophages provide an acidic environment that
4.
1. A habit of taking medicines regularly for good health. inactivates the HIV virus.
A psychological urge to use drugs repeatedly for their
2.
effects.
3. A temporary use of drugs with no long-term impact.
A condition where drugs are used only for medical
4.
treatment.

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152 What is the correct definition of genetic equilibrium? 156 What was the primary reason for the success of the
The state in which new alleles constantly appear due to Green Revolution in increasing food production?
1.
mutation and are balanced by natural selection. The introduction of genetically modified crops that could
A condition where genetic variation is completely 1. withstand all environmental conditions and had enhanced
2. nutritional value.
eliminated in a population, leading to a single phenotype.
The condition where the rate of mutations equals the rate The development of high-yielding crop varieties and
3. 2. improved management practices, along with extensive use
of migration in a population.
A state in which allele frequencies in a population remain of agrochemicals such as fertilizers and pesticides.
4. constant over generations, provided that evolutionary The expansion of agricultural land and complete
3.
forces like mutation, selection, and gene flow are absent. elimination of traditional farming techniques.
A shift towards organic farming and the large-scale
153 Why is it scientifically correct to say that the sex of the 4. replacement of fertilizers with natural composts and
manure.
baby is determined by the father and not the mother?
Reasons:
157 Identify the incorrect statement about PCR:
The father's sperm determines the sex of the baby
because it can carry either an X chromosome (resulting PCR amplifies specific DNA sequences exponentially
(A) 1.
in a female child) or a Y chromosome (resulting in a using thermal cycling.
male child). The process requires DNA polymerase, primers,
2.
The mother contributes only an X chromosome through nucleotides, and a template DNA.
(B) her egg, leaving the father's sperm (X or Y) to determine Taq polymerase, derived from Escherichia coli, is
the sex of the baby. 3.
commonly used in PCR.
1. Only A is correct. Denaturation, annealing, and extension are the three main
2. Only B is correct. 4.
steps of PCR.
3. Both A and B are correct.
4. Neither A nor B is correct. Match the following processes in detritus
158
Which of the following does not affect Hardy-Weinberg decomposition with their correct descriptions:
154
Process Descriptions
equilibrium?
1. Genetic drift The breakdown of detritus into
2. Random mating A. Fragmentation I. smaller particles by detritivores like
3. Natural selection earthworms.
4. Mutation The movement of water-soluble
inorganic nutrients into the soil
B. Leaching II.
155 Consider the given two statements: horizon, where they precipitate as
unavailable salts.
In the absence of fertilization, the corpus
Assertion (A): The degradation of detritus into
luteum degenerates.
C. Catabolism III. simpler inorganic substances by
The degeneration of the corpus luteum bacterial and fungal enzymes.
causes disintegration of the endometrium,
Reason (R):
leading to menstruation and marking the start
1. A-II, B-I, C-III
of a new cycle.
2. A-I, B-III, C-II
3. A-I, B-II, C-III
Choose the correct option: 4. A-III, B-II, C-I
1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A). 159 What is the primary mode of action of intrauterine
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. copper contraceptives (CuT) in preventing pregnancy?
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 1. They release hormones to suppress ovulation.
2. They create a physical barrier to sperm entry.
They release copper ions that suppress sperm motility and
3.
fertilization.
4. They prevent implantation by thickening cervical mucus.

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160 All of the following hormones are secreted by the 165 Consider the following statements regarding the
placenta except: limitations of ecological pyramids:
1. Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) Ecological pyramids do not consider that the same species
2. Human placental lactogen (hPL) A.
can belong to two or more trophic levels.
3. Relaxin Ecological pyramids accurately represent complex food
4. Prolactin B.
webs found in nature.
Which of the following correctly describes the two Ecological pyramids exclude saprophytes, even though
161 C.
they play a critical role in ecosystems.
phases of the ovarian cycle? Which of the following is correct?
The follicular phase involves follicle development, 1. Only A and B are correct.
estrogen secretion, and endometrial growth, while the 2. Only A and C are correct.
1.
luteal phase involves corpus luteum formation and 3. Only B and C are correct.
progesterone secretion. 4. All A, B, and C are correct.
The follicular phase is characterized by corpus luteum
2. formation, while the luteal phase involves follicle 166 Identify the incorrect statement regarding gel
development. electrophoresis:
Both the follicular and luteal phases involve only estrogen Gel electrophoresis is used to separate DNA fragments
3. 1.
secretion. based on their size.
The luteal phase occurs before ovulation, and the Agarose gel is commonly used as the medium for DNA
4. 2.
follicular phase occurs after ovulation. separation.
Smaller DNA fragments migrate faster through the gel
162 Which of the following is a characteristic of an ideal 3.
matrix than the larger fragments.
contraceptive? DNA fragments move toward the negative electrode due
4.
1. Decreases sexual drive and potency of the user. to their negative charge.
2. Prevents pregnancy permanently with no reversibility.
User-friendly, effective, reversible, and has no or minimal 167 Which of the following is NOT a natural method of
3.
side effects. contraception?
4. Requires surgical intervention for use. 1. Periodic abstinence
2. Lactational amenorrhea
163 Which of the following statements about restriction 3. Lactational amenorrhea
4. Lippes’ Loop
enzymes is incorrect?
Restriction enzymes are also called molecular scissors Which gas was absent in free form in any significant
1.
because they cleave DNA at specific sequences.
168
amounts in the primeval Earth's atmosphere at the time of the
They are naturally found in eukaryotic cells to protect
2. origin of life?
against viral DNA.
1. Methane 2. Ammonia
EcoRI is a restriction enzyme that recognizes the sequence
3. 3. Oxygen 4. Hydrogen
GAATTC.
Restriction enzymes often create sticky ends, facilitating
4. 169 What is the most important cause driving animals and
ligation.
plants to extinction in contemporary times?
164 What is the scutellum in seeds? 1. Overexploitation of natural resources
1. A protective outer covering of the seed. 2. Habitat loss due to deforestation and land conversion
2. A specialized cotyledon found in monocots. 3. Pollution of air and water resources
3. The part of the embryo that develops into roots. 4. Introduction of invasive species in natural habitats
4. A structure that stores food in dicot seeds.
170 Which cyanobacterium fixes nitrogen using heterocysts
and is used as a biofertilizer in paddy fields?
1. Azotobacter 2. Frankia
3. Clostridium pasteurianum 4. Anabaena

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171 What is the significance of the acrosome in sperm cells? 176 Consider the given two statements:
The acrosome contains enzymes that help the sperm Taq polymerase is used in PCR because it
1. penetrate the zona pellucida and plasma membrane of the Assertion (A): remains stable at high temperatures required
ovum during fertilization. for DNA denaturation.
The acrosome provides ATP to the sperm, enabling Most DNA polymerases denature at high
2.
flagellar movement and motility. Reason (R): temperatures, making them unsuitable for
The acrosome stores genetic material, which is delivered PCR amplification.
3.
to the ovum upon fertilization.
The acrosome acts as a sensory organ that detects the 1. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.
presence of the ovum and directs sperm movement. 2. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
172 Regarding Active Immunity:
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
It involves the production of antibodies by the immune
I: Which microbe is responsible for the holes and flavour
system. 177
II: Vaccination is an example of active immunity. in Swiss cheese?
III: It provides immediate protection against pathogens. 1. Lactobacillus acidophilus
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
Options I II III 3. Propionibacterium shermanii
4. Aspergillus niger
1. T T F
2. F T T Which of the following statements about pathogens is
178
3. T F F
incorrect?
4. T T T
Pathogens include bacteria, viruses, fungi, protozoans, and
1.
helminths, all of which can cause diseases in humans.
173 What is the correct definition of saltation in
Most parasites are considered pathogens as they harm the
evolutionary biology? 2.
host by living in or on them.
The gradual accumulation of small variations in a Pathogens that enter the gut must be able to survive in
1. population over time, leading to the formation of new 3.
highly acidic conditions and resist digestive enzymes.
species. All microorganisms present in the human body are
The sudden appearance of a new species or major 4.
considered pathogens as they interact with host cells.
2. variation due to large-scale mutations or abrupt changes in
the genome. Which of the following statements most accurately
179
The migration of individuals between populations, leading
3. represents the definition of biotechnology given by the
to the mixing of genetic material.
European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB)?
The survival of individuals with advantageous traits that
4. The use of biological techniques to manipulate genetic
allow them to adapt to their environment.
1. material for improving industrial and medical
applications.
174 The embryo at which stage is referred to as a morula? The study and application of biological systems to develop
2.
1. Zygote (Single-celled fertilized egg) technologies for environmental sustainability.
2. Embryo with 2 to 4 blastomeres The process of altering genetic makeup of organisms
3. Embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres 3. through molecular techniques to enhance their
Embryo with about 100 cells and having a hollow productivity.
4. The integration of natural science with organisms, cells,
structure 4.
and molecular analogues to develop products and services.
175 Which of the following represents the correct
180 What percentage of insect species are phytophagous
recognition sequence of EcoRI restriction enzyme?
1. 5’-GGATCC-3’ (plant-eating)?
2. 5’-GAATTC-3’ 1. Around 10% 2. Around 25%
3. 5’-AAGCTT-3’ 3. Around 50% 4. Around 70%
4. 5’-GCGGCCGC-3’

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