COMPREHENSIVE EXAMINATION

DCF

1. Which of the following is a valid binary number?

o A) 10101

o B) 20201

o C) 2A01

o D) 1010B

o Answer: A) 10101

2. Which of the following logic gates is known as the "universal gate"?

o A) AND Gate

o B) OR Gate

o C) NOT Gate

o D) NAND Gate

o Answer: D) NAND Gate

3. What is the result of an AND operation between 1101 and 1011?

o A) 1111

o B) 1001

o C) 1010

o D) 1000

o Answer: B) 1001

4. Which arithmetic circuit is used to perform addition and subtraction of binary numbers?

o A) Half adder

o B) Full adder

o C) Subtractor

o D) Multiplier

o Answer: B) Full adder

5. Which of the following is the main function of a multiplexer?

o A) To increase data rate

o B) To select one of many input lines

 o C) To store data

o D) To decode data

o Answer: B) To select one of many input lines

6. What is the function of a demultiplexer?

o A) To combine several inputs into one output

o B) To select one input from many outputs

o C) To distribute one input to many outputs

o D) To add binary numbers

o Answer: C) To distribute one input to many outputs

7. Which of the following is an example of a combinational logic circuit?

o A) Flip-flop

o B) Multiplexer

o C) Counter

o D) Register

o Answer: B) Multiplexer

8. Which type of encoder converts an active input line into its corresponding binary code?

o A) Decimal to binary encoder

o B) Priority encoder

o C) Octal encoder

o D) BCD encoder

o Answer: B) Priority encoder

9. What is the purpose of a decoder in digital circuits?

o A) To encode data into binary form

o B) To convert binary data into readable output

o C) To convert a binary code into its corresponding output line

o D) To store binary data

o Answer: C) To convert a binary code into its corresponding output line

10. Which of the following is used for sequential logic design?

• A) AND gate
• B) NOR gate

• C) Flip-flops

• D) XOR gate

• Answer: C) Flip-flops

11. What is the function of a D flip-flop?

• A) Stores one bit of data

• B) Adds binary numbers

• C) Decodes binary input

• D) Multiplies binary numbers

• Answer: A) Stores one bit of data

12. Which number system uses digits from 0 to 7?

• A) Binary

• B) Octal

• C) Decimal

• D) Hexadecimal

• Answer: B) Octal

13. In which number system is the base 16 used?

• A) Binary

• B) Octal

• C) Decimal

• D) Hexadecimal

• Answer: D) Hexadecimal

14. Which logic gate gives the output 1 when all inputs are different?

• A) AND gate

• B) OR gate

• C) XOR gate

• D) NOR gate

• Answer: C) XOR gate

15. Which of the following represents the binary number 1101 in decimal?
• A) 13

• B) 14

• C) 15

• D) 16

• Answer: A) 13

16. Which circuit is used to perform multiplication in binary?

• A) Multiplier circuit

• B) Adder circuit

• C) Shift register

• D) Encoder

• Answer: A) Multiplier circuit

17. What is the maximum number of inputs for a 4-to-1 multiplexer?

• A) 1

• B) 2

• C) 4

• D) 16

• Answer: C) 4

18. What is the function of a shift register?

• A) To add numbers

• B) To store and shift data

• C) To multiply numbers

• D) To decode binary input

• Answer: B) To store and shift data

19. Which of the following is a sequential circuit that has memory?

• A) AND gate

• B) Flip-flop

• C) XOR gate

• D) Multiplexer

• Answer: B) Flip-flop
20. Which type of memory element stores data temporarily and is used in counters and
registers?

• A) Flip-flop

• B) Latch

• C) Register

• D) All of the above

• Answer: D) All of the above

21. Which of the following is true about a half adder?

• A) It adds two binary numbers and produces a sum and carry output.

• B) It adds three binary numbers.

• C) It produces only a sum output.

• D) It adds more than two binary numbers.

• Answer: A) It adds two binary numbers and produces a sum and carry output.

22. Which of the following is the basic unit of storage in memory circuits?

• A) Bit

• B) Byte

• C) Word

• D) Word register

• Answer: A) Bit

23. Which gate is represented by the following truth table: 1, 0, 1, 0?

• A) AND gate

• B) OR gate

• C) XOR gate

• D) NAND gate

• Answer: C) XOR gate

24. Which logic gate has the following truth table: 0, 1, 1, 1?

• A) AND gate

• B) OR gate

• C) NOT gate
• D) NOR gate

• Answer: B) OR gate

25. How many input lines are required for an 8-to-1 multiplexer?

• A) 8

• B) 3

• C) 2

• D) 1

• Answer: B) 3

26. What is the output of a 2-input NAND gate if both inputs are 1?

• A) 0

• B) 1

• C) Undefined

• D) 2

• Answer: A) 0

27. Which of the following is a primary use of flip-flops in digital circuits?

• A) Memory storage

• B) Data conversion

• C) Multiplexing

• D) Data transmission

• Answer: A) Memory storage

28. What does a priority encoder do?

• A) Converts a priority input into binary code

• B) Converts binary data to decimal form

• C) Encodes a data stream into digital format

• D) Determines the highest priority input and encodes it

• Answer: D) Determines the highest priority input and encodes it

29. Which number system is used in digital circuits to simplify logic design?

• A) Binary

• B) Decimal
• C) Octal

• D) Hexadecimal

• Answer: A) Binary

30. Which of the following is the result of the binary addition of 1011 and 1101?

• A) 11000

• B) 11010

• C) 10000

• D) 11111

• Answer: A) 11000

31. Which of the following gates has the property of being true when at least one input is
true?

• A) NAND gate

• B) NOR gate

• C) AND gate

• D) OR gate

• Answer: D) OR gate

32. What is the main function of a full adder?

• A) To add two binary digits and a carry input

• B) To subtract binary numbers

• C) To divide binary numbers

• D) To multiply binary numbers

• Answer: A) To add two binary digits and a carry input

33. Which of the following is used in a binary multiplication circuit?

• A) AND gate

• B) XOR gate

• C) OR gate

• D) NOT gate

• Answer: A) AND gate

34. How many states are there in a 2-bit counter?

• A) 2

• B) 4

• C) 6

• D) 8

• Answer: B) 4

35. What is the purpose of a register in a digital circuit?

• A) To store data

• B) To perform calculations

• C) To decode data

• D) To multiply data

• Answer: A) To store data

36. Which type of memory element stores a bit of data for an indefinite period until it is
explicitly cleared?

• A) Latch

• B) Flip-flop

• C) Register

• D) All of the above

• Answer: B) Flip-flop

37. Which of the following is an example of a combinational logic circuit?

• A) Flip-flop

• B) Multiplexer

• C) Counter

• D) Register

• Answer: B) Multiplexer

38. Which logic gate has an output of 1 only when both inputs are the same?

• A) XOR gate

• B) AND gate

• C) NOR gate

• D) XNOR gate
• Answer: D) XNOR gate

39. Which of the following represents the decimal number 12 in binary?

• A) 1010

• B) 1101

• C) 1001

• D) 1100

• Answer: D) 1100

40. What is the output of a 3-input AND gate when all inputs are 1?

• A) 1

• B) 0

• C) Undefined

• D) 2

• Answer: A) 1

41. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a flip-flop?

• A) Stores a single bit of data

• B) Has a feedback loop

• C) Affects the output only on a clock edge

• D) Performs binary arithmetic operations

• Answer: D) Performs binary arithmetic operations

42. What is the function of a half subtractor in digital circuits?

• A) To add two binary digits

• B) To subtract two binary digits

• C) To multiply binary numbers

• D) To divide binary numbers

• Answer: B) To subtract two binary digits

43. What type of flip-flop has both the SET and RESET inputs?

• A) D flip-flop

• B) JK flip-flop

• C) T flip-flop
• D) SR flip-flop

• Answer: D) SR flip-flop

44. Which of the following can be used to perform binary to BCD conversion?

• A) Decoder

• B) Encoder

• C) Shift register

• D) Binary to BCD converter

• Answer: D) Binary to BCD converter

45. What is the key characteristic of sequential logic circuits?

• A) Output depends only on current inputs

• B) Output depends on previous inputs and current inputs

• C) Output is always zero

• D) Output is determined by external signals

• Answer: B) Output depends on previous inputs and current inputs

46. Which of the following gates performs the logical operation of "not AND"?

• A) NAND gate

• B) NOR gate

• C) XOR gate

• D) AND gate

• Answer: A) NAND gate

47. What is the binary result of the addition of 1110 and 1011?

• A) 10101

• B) 10001

• C) 11001

• D) 11101

Answer: A) 10101

48. Which of the following is the primary use of an encoder in digital circuits?

• A) To encode a priority signal into binary form

• B) To decode data into a readable format

 • C) To add binary numbers

• D) To store data

Answer: A) To encode a priority signal into binary form

49. What is the function of the NOT gate?

• A) It inverts the input signal

• B) It passes the input signal unchanged

• C) It adds binary digits

• D) It multiplies binary digits

Answer: A) It inverts the input signal

50. Which of the following is the main difference between a latch and a flip-flop?

• A) A latch is level-triggered, while a flip-flop is edge-triggered

• B) A flip-flop is level-triggered, while a latch is edge-triggered

• C) A flip-flop stores multiple bits, while a latch stores only one bit

• D) A latch has no feedback loop, while a flip-flop does

Answer: A) A latch is level-triggered, while a flip-flop is edge-triggered

DSA

Data Structures and Algorithms

1. Which of the following is the correct order of elements in a stack (LIFO)?

o A) First In First Out

o B) Last In First Out

o C) First Come First Serve

o D) Random Access

o Answer: B) Last In First Out

2. Which operation is used to remove an element from the top of the stack?

o A) Enqueue

o B) Dequeue

o C) Push
 o D) Pop

o Answer: D) Pop

3. What is the time complexity of searching for an element in a binary search tree (BST)?

o A) O(n)

o B) O(log n)

o C) O(n^2)

o D) O(1)

o Answer: B) O(log n)

4. Which of the following sorting algorithms has the best average case time complexity?

o A) Bubble Sort

o B) Quick Sort

o C) Selection Sort

o D) Insertion Sort

o Answer: B) Quick Sort

5. Which of the following algorithms uses a divide-and-conquer approach?

o A) Merge Sort

o B) Bubble Sort

o C) Selection Sort

o D) Linear Search

o Answer: A) Merge Sort

6. Which algorithm is based on the idea of breaking a problem into smaller subproblems
and solving them recursively?

o A) Dynamic Programming

o B) Divide and Conquer

o C) Greedy Algorithm

o D) Backtracking

o Answer: B) Divide and Conquer

7. Which of the following is a heuristic approach used for optimization problems?

o A) Binary Search
 o B) Hill Climbing

o C) Quick Sort

o D) Merge Sort

o Answer: B) Hill Climbing

8. What is the base case of recursion?

o A) A recursive call

o B) A condition that stops further recursion

o C) A loop

o D) A function that calls itself

o Answer: B) A condition that stops further recursion

9. Which of the following is the backtracking technique used for solving problems like
puzzles or games?

o A) Dynamic Programming

o B) Depth-First Search

o C) Recursion

o D) Backtrack Programming

o Answer: D) Backtrack Programming

10. Which of the following is true about recursion in algorithms?

o A) It always reduces the problem size by 1

o B) It calls a function without returning control

o C) It may result in an infinite loop if the base case is not defined

o D) It always solves the problem in linear time

o Answer: C) It may result in an infinite loop if the base case is not defined

Database Systems

11. Which of the following is a valid definition of a database?

o A) A collection of tables with rows and columns

o B) A group of interconnected applications

o C) A set of data files

 o D) A collection of algorithms for data retrieval

o Answer: A) A collection of tables with rows and columns

12. Which of the following tasks is the responsibility of a Database Administrator (DBA)?

o A) Designing user interfaces

o B) Writing applications using SQL

o C) Managing database security and performance

o D) Writing database queries

o Answer: C) Managing database security and performance

13. Which of the following is the correct definition of normalization in databases?

o A) Process of designing efficient queries

o B) Process of combining data from multiple tables

o C) Process of organizing data to reduce redundancy

o D) Process of adding indices to speed up queries

o Answer: C) Process of organizing data to reduce redundancy

14. Which of the following is a benefit of using the Entity-Relationship (ER) model?

o A) It helps in defining the relationships between entities

o B) It creates physical storage structures

o C) It simplifies the process of writing SQL queries

o D) It reduces the number of tables in the database

o Answer: A) It helps in defining the relationships between entities

15. Which of the following SQL commands is used to retrieve data from a database?

o A) SELECT

o B) INSERT

o C) DELETE

o D) UPDATE

o Answer: A) SELECT

16. What does the Structured Query Language (SQL) 'WHERE' clause do?

o A) Specifies the table from which data should be selected

o B) Filters records based on a condition

 o C) Groups the records based on a condition

o D) Limits the number of records retrieved

o Answer: B) Filters records based on a condition

17. Which of the following is a Procedural Language used in database systems?

o A) PL/SQL

o B) SQL

o C) NoSQL

o D) DDL

o Answer: A) PL/SQL

18. Which of the following is an example of an exception handler in databases?

o A) Trigger

o B) Constraint

o C) Stored Procedure

o D) Error message

o Answer: D) Error message

19. Which of the following best describes the architecture of a Hierarchical Database
Management System (DBMS)?

o A) Data is organized in tables with rows and columns

o B) Data is organized in a tree-like structure with parent-child relationships

o C) Data is stored in a key-value store

o D) Data is stored in a graph-like structure with nodes and edges

o Answer: B) Data is organized in a tree-like structure with parent-child relationships

20. Which of the following is true about a database index?

o A) It reduces the size of the database

o B) It speeds up data retrieval

o C) It stores data permanently

o D) It can only be used for numeric data types

o Answer: B) It speeds up data retrieval

Data Structures and Algorithms

21. Which data structure is used to implement recursion?

• A) Queue

• B) Stack

• C) Linked List

• D) Array

• Answer: B) Stack

22. What is the best case time complexity of the Quick Sort algorithm?

• A) O(n log n)

• B) O(n)

• C) O(n^2)

• D) O(1)

• Answer: A) O(n log n)

23. What is the worst-case time complexity of Merge Sort?

• A) O(n)

• B) O(n log n)

• C) O(n^2)

• D) O(1)

• Answer: B) O(n log n)

24. Which of the following search algorithms is the most efficient for searching a sorted
array?

• A) Linear Search

• B) Binary Search

• C) Jump Search

• D) Exponential Search

• Answer: B) Binary Search

25. Which data structure uses the FIFO (First In, First Out) principle?

• A) Stack

• B) Queue
• C) Linked List

• D) Tree

• Answer: B) Queue

26. What is the space complexity of Quick Sort in the worst case?

• A) O(log n)

• B) O(n)

• C) O(n log n)

• D) O(1)

• Answer: B) O(n)

27. Which of the following is a characteristic of a greedy algorithm?

• A) It always provides an optimal solution

• B) It considers all possible solutions before making a decision

• C) It chooses the best option available at the moment

• D) It uses recursion to solve problems

• Answer: C) It chooses the best option available at the moment

28. In which scenario would you use the Backtracking algorithm?

• A) Solving optimization problems

• B) Searching for a specific element in an array

• C) Solving constraint satisfaction problems like puzzles

• D) Sorting an unsorted array

• Answer: C) Solving constraint satisfaction problems like puzzles

29. Which of the following is an example of a Divide and Conquer algorithm?

• A) Binary Search

• B) Quick Sort

• C) Merge Sort

• D) All of the above

• Answer: D) All of the above

30. Which of the following algorithms is used for solving the "Knapsack Problem"?

• A) Divide and Conquer

 • B) Greedy Algorithm

• C) Dynamic Programming

• D) Backtracking

• Answer: C) Dynamic Programming

Database Systems

21. Which of the following SQL statements is used to update existing data in a table?

• A) INSERT

• B) UPDATE

• C) DELETE

• D) SELECT

• Answer: B) UPDATE

22. Which of the following is a key feature of the Entity-Relationship (ER) model?

• A) It represents real-world entities and their relationships

• B) It helps in writing efficient SQL queries

• C) It directly manages the physical storage of data

• D) It is used for data retrieval in hierarchical databases

• Answer: A) It represents real-world entities and their relationships

23. Which of the following is the correct normalization process step for converting a table
to 1NF (First Normal Form)?

• A) Remove transitive dependencies

• B) Ensure atomicity of values

• C) Eliminate partial dependencies

• D) Remove redundant data

• Answer: B) Ensure atomicity of values

24. What is the primary purpose of an Index in a database?

• A) To store the data permanently

• B) To speed up the retrieval of records

• C) To perform data validation

• D) To establish referential integrity

• Answer: B) To speed up the retrieval of records

25. What type of relationship does a "1:N" (One to Many) cardinality represent in an ER
diagram?

• A) One entity in one table is related to one entity in another table

• B) One entity in one table is related to many entities in another table

• C) Many entities in one table are related to one entity in another table

• D) Many entities in one table are related to many entities in another table

• Answer: B) One entity in one table is related to many entities in another table

26. Which of the following is true about a Foreign Key in a relational database?

• A) It uniquely identifies a record in a table

• B) It is used to enforce referential integrity between tables

• C) It stores data permanently in the database

• D) It is used to join tables in SQL queries

• Answer: B) It is used to enforce referential integrity between tables

27. Which SQL command is used to delete a table from a database?

• A) REMOVE

• B) DELETE

• C) DROP

• D) TRUNCATE

• Answer: C) DROP

28. What is the purpose of the 'GROUP BY' clause in SQL?

• A) To select multiple tables in a single query

• B) To filter records based on a condition

• C) To aggregate data into groups

• D) To update existing records in a table

• Answer: C) To aggregate data into groups

29. Which of the following is a feature of the Relational Database Management System
(RDBMS)?
 • A) It uses a tree structure for data storage

• B) It stores data in tables with rows and columns

• C) It can only store text data

• D) It does not support SQL queries

• Answer: B) It stores data in tables with rows and columns

30. Which of the following is the primary role of a Database Management System (DBMS)?

• A) It stores data in the cloud

• B) It manages the interaction between the database and applications

• C) It provides a user interface for querying data

• D) It organizes data in the form of entities and attributes

• Answer: B) It manages the interaction between the database and applications

Programming in C

Programming in C

1. Which of the following is a valid declaration of an array in C?

o A) int arr(5);

o B) int arr[5];

o C) array[5] int;

o D) int[5] arr;

o Answer: B) int arr[5];

2. What is the purpose of the 'break' statement in a loop in C?

o A) It skips the current iteration and moves to the next iteration

o B) It exits the loop completely

o C) It pauses the execution of the program

o D) It stops the execution of the program

o Answer: B) It exits the loop completely

3. Which of the following functions is used to get input from the user in C?

o A) scanf()

o B) printf()
 o C) input()

o D) get_input()

o Answer: A) scanf()

4. What is the return type of a function that does not return any value in C?

o A) void

o B) int

o C) char

o D) float

o Answer: A) void

5. In C, what is the size of an integer variable?

o A) 2 bytes

o B) 4 bytes

o C) 8 bytes

o D) 16 bytes

o Answer: B) 4 bytes

Object-Oriented Programming (OOP)

6. What is a constructor in object-oriented programming?

o A) A function that returns the object's reference

o B) A special function used to initialize an object

o C) A method that destroys the object

o D) A method that copies data from one object to another

o Answer: B) A special function used to initialize an object

7. What is the purpose of a destructor in C++?

o A) To initialize an object

o B) To copy the object’s data

o C) To free resources before the object is destroyed

o D) To create an object from a class

o Answer: C) To free resources before the object is destroyed

 8. Which concept allows a class to inherit attributes and methods from another class in
OOP?

o A) Encapsulation

o B) Abstraction

o C) Inheritance

o D) Polymorphism

o Answer: C) Inheritance

9. Which of the following is an example of function overloading in C++?

o A) Defining two functions with the same name but different parameter types

o B) Using different names for each function

o C) Using the same function name with no parameters

o D) Defining functions in different classes with the same name

o Answer: A) Defining two functions with the same name but different parameter types

10. Which keyword is used to define a base class in C++ for inheritance?

• A) parent

• B) super

• C) base

• D) class

• Answer: D) class

Discrete Mathematics

11. Which of the following is a graph with no cycles called?

• A) Complete Graph

• B) Bipartite Graph

• C) Directed Acyclic Graph (DAG)

• D) Tree

• Answer: D) Tree

12. Which of the following is true about a directed graph (digraph)?

• A) Edges have no direction

 • B) Each edge has an associated direction from one vertex to another

• C) All vertices are connected by an edge

• D) It contains no loops

• Answer: B) Each edge has an associated direction from one vertex to another

13. In graph theory, what is a 'path' defined as?

• A) A sequence of vertices connected by edges

• B) A set of vertices in the graph

• C) A closed loop with no repeated edges

• D) A single vertex in the graph

• Answer: A) A sequence of vertices connected by edges

14. What is the truth value of the logical expression (p ∧ q) ∨ (¬p ∧ r) when p = true, q = false,
and r = true?

• A) True

• B) False

• C) Undefined

• D) Cannot be determined

• Answer: A) True

15. Which of the following is true about a tree in graph theory?

• A) It is a connected graph with no cycles

• B) It can have multiple roots

• C) It is a graph with only directed edges

• D) It is a graph that contains loops

• Answer: A) It is a connected graph with no cycles

Operations Research

16. In Linear Programming Problems (LPP), what does the objective function represent?

• A) A constraint that limits the decision variables

• B) The goal of the optimization (e.g., maximizing or minimizing)

• C) The resources required for a solution

• D) A condition for feasibility

• Answer: B) The goal of the optimization (e.g., maximizing or minimizing)

17. Which of the following is a characteristic of a feasible solution in LPP?

• A) It satisfies all the objective functions

• B) It satisfies all the constraints of the problem

• C) It violates at least one constraint

• D) It is the optimal solution

• Answer: B) It satisfies all the constraints of the problem

18. Which method is commonly used to solve the transportation problem in operations
research?

• A) Simplex Method

• B) Hungarian Method

• C) North-West Corner Method

• D) Least Cost Method

• Answer: C) North-West Corner Method

19. In project scheduling, which technique is used to determine the minimum time required
to complete a project with multiple dependent tasks?

• A) PERT (Program Evaluation Review Technique)

• B) Gantt Chart

• C) Monte Carlo Simulation

• D) Critical Path Method (CPM)

• Answer: D) Critical Path Method (CPM)

20. What is the key feature of the assignment problem in operations research?

• A) It involves assigning jobs to workers to minimize the total cost or maximize profit

• B) It involves determining the optimal sequence of jobs for a single worker

• C) It deals with finding the maximum flow in a network

• D) It aims to schedule tasks to minimize project duration

• Answer: A) It involves assigning jobs to workers to minimize the total cost or maximize profit
 OPERATING SYSTEMS

Operating Systems

1. Which of the following is the primary role of an operating system?

o A) To execute user applications directly

o B) To manage hardware resources and provide services for software applications

o C) To control the flow of data in a network

o D) To monitor user activities on the computer

o Answer: B) To manage hardware resources and provide services for software

applications

2. Which of the following components is not part of the computer system architecture?

o A) CPU

o B) Memory

o C) Disk Storage

o D) Compiler

o Answer: D) Compiler

3. What is the purpose of the kernel in an operating system?

o A) To manage the system’s graphical user interface

o B) To manage hardware and system resources such as CPU, memory, and devices

o C) To execute user-level applications

o D) To provide network services

o Answer: B) To manage hardware and system resources such as CPU, memory, and
devices

4. Which operating system structure uses both a monolithic kernel and microservices?

o A) Microkernel structure

o B) Hybrid structure

o C) Layered structure

o D) Monolithic structure

o Answer: B) Hybrid structure

5. What is the main goal of process scheduling in an operating system?

 o A) To manage memory allocation

o B) To ensure that each process gets the CPU for a specific amount of time

o C) To assign priorities to processes

o D) To create and terminate processes

o Answer: B) To ensure that each process gets the CPU for a specific amount of time

Process Concept and Scheduling

6. Which of the following is true about a process in an operating system?

o A) A process is a program that is not currently executing

o B) A process is an instance of a running program that is managed by the operating

system

o C) A process is a physical device used for data storage

o D) A process cannot be terminated once started

o Answer: B) A process is an instance of a running program that is managed by the

operating system

7. In which CPU scheduling algorithm does the process with the smallest burst time get
the CPU next?

o A) Round Robin

o B) Shortest Job First (SJF)

o C) First Come First Serve (FCFS)

o D) Priority Scheduling

o Answer: B) Shortest Job First (SJF)

8. Which of the following is the correct order of process states in a typical operating
system?

o A) New -> Ready -> Running -> Blocked -> Terminated

o B) Running -> Ready -> Blocked -> New -> Terminated

o C) New -> Running -> Blocked -> Ready -> Terminated

o D) Ready -> New -> Blocked -> Running -> Terminated

o Answer: A) New -> Ready -> Running -> Blocked -> Terminated
 9. Which of the following is a process that is temporarily removed from the running queue
and placed in a waiting queue?

o A) Blocked Process

o B) Ready Process

o C) Running Process

o D) Zombie Process

o Answer: A) Blocked Process

10. In which scheduling algorithm does each process get an equal share of the CPU time,
rotating in a circular order?

• A) Round Robin

• B) Shortest Job First

• C) First Come First Serve

• D) Multilevel Queue Scheduling

• Answer: A) Round Robin

Memory Management

11. Which memory allocation method divides memory into fixed-size partitions and
allocates them to processes?

• A) Paging

• B) Segmentation

• C) Contiguous Memory Allocation

• D) Virtual Memory

• Answer: C) Contiguous Memory Allocation

12. In which memory management scheme are processes divided into fixed-size blocks
called pages?

• A) Segmentation

• B) Virtual Memory

• C) Paging

• D) Contiguous Memory Allocation

• Answer: C) Paging
 13. Which of the following is a disadvantage of contiguous memory allocation?

• A) External fragmentation

• B) Internal fragmentation

• C) Complex memory management

• D) High overhead for memory allocation

• Answer: A) External fragmentation

14. What is the main purpose of segmentation in memory management?

• A) To reduce fragmentation

• B) To allow the system to allocate memory dynamically based on logical divisions

• C) To create multiple address spaces

• D) To implement virtual memory

• Answer: B) To allow the system to allocate memory dynamically based on logical divisions

15. Which memory management technique allows a process to access more memory than
is physically available by using a portion of the disk as if it were RAM?

• A) Virtual Memory

• B) Segmentation

• C) Paging

• D) Contiguous Allocation

• Answer: A) Virtual Memory

Virtual Memory

16. In demand paging, what happens when a page fault occurs?

• A) The process is suspended

• B) The page is loaded from disk into memory

• C) The program terminates

• D) The CPU is restarted

• Answer: B) The page is loaded from disk into memory

17. Which of the following is a major disadvantage of virtual memory?

• A) Increased CPU performance

 • B) External fragmentation

• C) Page faults leading to overhead and slow performance

• D) Simplified memory management

• Answer: C) Page faults leading to overhead and slow performance

18. What is the primary function of a page table in a virtual memory system?

• A) It tracks the location of processes in memory

• B) It maps virtual addresses to physical addresses

• C) It manages memory fragmentation

• D) It stores data that is not currently in use

• Answer: B) It maps virtual addresses to physical addresses

19. Which of the following is used to reduce page fault rate in virtual memory?

• A) FIFO (First-In-First-Out) Page Replacement Algorithm

• B) Least Recently Used (LRU) Page Replacement Algorithm

• C) Optimal Page Replacement Algorithm

• D) All of the above

• Answer: D) All of the above

20. What is the term for a situation where a computer's performance slows down due to too
many page faults?

• A) Thrashing

• B) Fragmentation

• C) Deadlock

• D) Segmentation Fault

• Answer: A) Thrashing

File Concepts and Protection

21. What is the function of a file system?

• A) To store data in the main memory

• B) To manage file storage and retrieval on disk

• C) To protect files from unauthorized access

• D) To manage file operations in the user space

• Answer: B) To manage file storage and retrieval on disk

22. Which of the following is a key feature of a directory structure in an operating system?

• A) It organizes files in a hierarchical structure for easy navigation

• B) It encrypts file data for security

• C) It stores files in contiguous blocks of memory

• D) It automatically backs up files to an external device

• Answer: A) It organizes files in a hierarchical structure for easy navigation

23. Which of the following is a security measure used to protect files in an operating
system?

• A) Encryption

• B) User permissions

• C) File access control lists (ACLs)

• D) All of the above

• Answer: D) All of the above

24. What is the purpose of a file access control list (ACL)?

• A) To allocate space for files

• B) To manage the directory structure

• C) To define who can access a file and the types of operations they can perform

• D) To back up files periodically

• Answer: C) To define who can access a file and the types of operations they can perform

25. Which of the following is a benefit of a linked allocation file system?

• A) It reduces fragmentation

• B) It allows fast access to files stored on disk

• C) It ensures all files are stored in contiguous blocks

• D) It makes file access time predictable

• Answer: A) It reduces fragmentation

 COMPUTER NETWORKS

Data Communication and Networks

1. What is the primary function of a data communication system?

o A) To manage network security

o B) To exchange data between devices

o C) To control the flow of data on a network

o D) To store data on remote servers

o Answer: B) To exchange data between devices

2. Which of the following is a key difference between analog and digital communication?

o A) Analog signals are represented by binary digits, while digital signals use
continuous waves

o B) Analog communication uses continuous signals, while digital communication

uses discrete signals

o C) Digital communication is slower than analog communication

o D) Analog signals are more robust to noise than digital signals

o Answer: B) Analog communication uses continuous signals, while digital

communication uses discrete signals

3. Which of the following is a disadvantage of analog signals?

o A) They can be easily encoded for secure transmission

o B) They are less susceptible to noise and distortion

o C) They suffer from signal degradation over long distances

o D) They require more bandwidth than digital signals

o Answer: C) They suffer from signal degradation over long distances

4. Which of the following types of signal is used in digital communication?

o A) Continuous sine waves

o B) Discrete pulses or voltage levels

o C) Analog waveforms

o D) Radio waves

o Answer: B) Discrete pulses or voltage levels

Transmission Impairment

5. What is the main cause of transmission impairment in data communication?

o A) Network congestion

o B) Noise and distortion

o C) Low-frequency signals

o D) High data rates

o Answer: B) Noise and distortion

6. Which of the following is a common method of mitigating transmission impairments?

o A) Error detection and correction

o B) Reducing the signal frequency

o C) Increasing the transmission speed

o D) Using analog modulation

o Answer: A) Error detection and correction

Data Link Layer: Error Detection and Correction

7. What is the primary function of the data link layer in the OSI model?

o A) To route data between different networks

o B) To ensure reliable communication over a physical link

o C) To encrypt data for secure transmission

o D) To manage congestion in the network

o Answer: B) To ensure reliable communication over a physical link

8. Which of the following is an example of error detection in the data link layer?

o A) Parity bit

o B) IP address

o C) TCP checksum

o D) Sequence number

o Answer: A) Parity bit

9. Which error detection technique is most commonly used in Ethernet networks?

o A) CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)

 o B) Checksum

o C) Hamming code

o D) Parity bit

o Answer: A) CRC (Cyclic Redundancy Check)

10. Which method is used for error correction in the data link layer?

• A) Forward Error Correction (FEC)

• B) Retransmission requests

• C) Both A and B

• D) Data compression

• Answer: C) Both A and B

Wired LAN: IEEE Standards and Standard Ethernet

11. Which IEEE standard defines the specifications for Ethernet?

• A) IEEE 802.11

• B) IEEE 802.3

• C) IEEE 802.5

• D) IEEE 802.15

• Answer: B) IEEE 802.3

12. Which of the following is true about Standard Ethernet (IEEE 802.3)?

• A) It is a wireless LAN standard

• B) It uses coaxial cables for data transmission

• C) It uses the CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) protocol

• D) It is limited to 10 Mbps data transfer speeds

• Answer: C) It uses the CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection)
protocol

13. What type of topology does Standard Ethernet use?

• A) Star topology

• B) Bus topology

• C) Ring topology
 • D) Mesh topology

• Answer: B) Bus topology

Wireless LAN

14. Which IEEE standard defines wireless LAN (WLAN) specifications?

• A) IEEE 802.3

• B) IEEE 802.5

• C) IEEE 802.11

• D) IEEE 802.15

• Answer: C) IEEE 802.11

15. Which of the following is a characteristic of Wireless LAN (WLAN)?

• A) It uses physical cables to transmit data

• B) It operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands

• C) It uses CSMA/CD to control access to the medium

• D) It only supports data rates up to 10 Mbps

• Answer: B) It operates in the 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency bands

16. Which protocol is commonly used in WLANs for authentication and encryption?

• A) HTTP

• B) SSL/TLS

• C) WPA/WPA2

• D) FTP

• Answer: C) WPA/WPA2

Transport Layer

17. Which of the following is the main responsibility of the transport layer in the OSI model?

• A) Establishing, maintaining, and terminating connections between hosts

• B) Routing data between different networks

• C) Ensuring data is delivered reliably and in order

• D) Managing network congestion

 • Answer: C) Ensuring data is delivered reliably and in order

18. Which protocol is used in the transport layer for reliable communication between
processes?

• A) TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)

• B) IP (Internet Protocol)

• C) UDP (User Datagram Protocol)

• D) ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)

• Answer: A) TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)

19. Which transport layer protocol is best suited for applications that require low latency
and can tolerate some data loss, such as online gaming?

• A) TCP

• B) UDP

• C) FTP

• D) HTTP

• Answer: B) UDP

Application Layer

20. Which layer of the OSI model handles end-user services like web browsing and email?

• A) Transport Layer

• B) Data Link Layer

• C) Application Layer

• D) Network Layer

• Answer: C) Application Layer

21. What is the main function of the Domain Name System (DNS) in the Internet?

• A) To route data packets between devices

• B) To assign IP addresses to domain names

• C) To handle data encryption and decryption

• D) To establish communication sessions between devices

• Answer: B) To assign IP addresses to domain names

22. Which protocol is primarily used for retrieving web pages in the World Wide Web?

• A) DNS

• B) FTP

• C) HTTP

• D) Telnet

• Answer: C) HTTP

23. Which version of HTTP introduced support for persistent connections, where multiple
requests and responses can be sent over the same connection?

• A) HTTP/1.0

• B) HTTP/1.1

• C) HTTP/2

• D) HTTP/3

• Answer: B) HTTP/1.1