21-03-2025

1016CMD303031240052 MD

BIOLOGY

1) "Rivet popper hypothesis" was given by :-

(1) David Tilman

(2) Ernst Haeckel
(3) Paul Ehrlich
(4) Robert August

2) Which of the following is not bio diversity hot spot of India ?

(1) Eastern ghats

(2) Western ghats and Sri-lanka
(3) Indo-Burma
(4) Himalaya

3) In recent years ex-situ conservation has advanced beyond keeping threatened species in
enclosures. Which one is that extended part of ex-situ conservation

(1) Cryopreservation
(2) Sacred groves
(3) Wild life sanctuaries
(4) National park

4) Species which is confined to a particular region and not found any where else is called as-

(1) Endemic
(2) Key-stone
(3) Critical-link
(4) Rare

5) Match the Column - I with Column - II.

Column - I Column - II

(A) Population (i) Unlimited resource

(B) Individual (ii) Limited Resource

(C) Exponential growth (iii) Birth

(D) Sigmoid growth (iv) Sex Ratio

(1) (A) - (i); (B) - (iii); (C) - (ii); (D) - (iv)
(2) (A) - (iv); (B) - (iii); (C) - (ii); (D) - (i)
(3) (A) - (i); (B) - (ii); (C) - (iii); (D) - (iv)
(4) (A) - (iv); (B) - (iii); (C) - (i); (D) - (ii)

6) Match the Column-I with Column-II

Column-I Column-II

(a) Exponential growth (i) GPP – R

(b) Logistic growth (ii) S = CAZ

rt
(c) Species area relationship (iii) Nt = N0e

(d) Net primary productivity (iv)

Choose the correct answer from the following options :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

3. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Which one of the following statement is incorrect.

Under normal conditions, births and deaths are the most important factors that effect
(1)
population density.
(2) Being colloidal in nature humus serves as a reservoir of nutrients.
(3) The pyramids of biomass in sea is generally upright.
(4) Species composition and stratification are the two main structural features of an ecosystem.

8) How many statement are incorrect in given below -

(I) Pacific Salmon fish, Bamboo breed only once in their life time.
(II) Birds and Mammals breed many times in their life.
(III) K is carrying capacity of exponential growth.
(IV) Birth rate is represented as per capita birth rate.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Assertion : Bacteria, fungi help in mineralization & humification of detritus.

Reason : They decompose dead organic matter into simple organic & inorganic substances.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

10) Assertion :- Calotropis is generally not eaten by herbivore.

Reason :- Calotropis are having cardiac glycosides which attack on heart.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

11) Decomposers are -

(1) Producers
(2) Consumers
(3) Fungi and Bacteria
(4) Both 2 and 3

12) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately -

(1) 180 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter.

(2) 170 billion tons (wet weight) of organic matter.
(3) 180 billion tons (wet weight) of organic matter.
(4) 170 billion tons (dry weight) of organic matter.

13) The rate of production of organic mater of an ecosystem, during photosynthesis is called -

(1) NPP
(2) GPP
(3) GPP – R
(4) Secondary productivity

14) Primary productivity is expressed in terms of -

(1) Weight (g/m2)

(2) gm–2 yr–1
(3) Energy (Kcal m–2)
(4) Both 1 and 3

15) Major abiotic components of ecosystem are :

(1) Temperature
(2) Water
(3) Light
(4) All of these

16) Statement-I : All the autotrophs of ecosystem are called producers.

Statement-II : All the heterotrophs of the ecosystem are known as consumers.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

17) Major Abiotic components of ecosystem that leads to so much variation in the __A__ and __(B)__
conditions of different habitats of ecosystem are temperature, water, light and soil :-
In above statement (A) & (B) Respectively.

(1) Physical, chemical

(2) Chemical, Physiochemical
(3) Biological, Chemical
(4) Chemicals, Biological

18) Secondary consumers are also known as :-

(1) Primary Producer

(2) Secondary Producer
(3) Tertiary Producer
(4) Primary Carnivores

19) Statement-I : Ecosystem are not exempt from the second law of thermodynamics.
Statement-II : Energy is neither created nor destroyed but only transformed from one state to
another.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

20) Mutualism between plant & animals is represented by :

(1) Termites and Trichonympha

(2) Yucca plant flowers and Pronuba insects
(3) Cyanobacteria and fungi
(4) Fungi and the roots of higher plant

21) Association between Tick bird & Rhinoceros is called .................

(1) Commensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Proto-cooperation
(4) Predation

22) Clown fish & Sea anemone is an example of :

(1) Commensalism
(2) Proto-cooperation
(3) Mutualism
(4) Predation

23) Activity of which species determine the structure of community.

(1) Endemic species

(2) Key stone species
(3) Critical link species
(4) Vulnerable species

24) A unit of land with a natural boundary having a mosaic of patches generally represent to
different :-

(1) Population
(2) Ecosystem
(3) Community
(4) Biome

25) Choose correct statement from the given below.

(a) The wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence while reaching for suitable egg laying sites
(b) Plant animal interaction often involve co-evolution of the mutualists.
(c) The clown fish gets protection from predators which stay away from stinging tentacles of sea
anemone.

(1) a, b
(2) b, c
(3) a, c
(4) a, b, c

26) Match the following column I with column II :

Column-I Column-II

Release of inorganic
(A) Fragmentation (a)
nutrients into the soil

Degradation of detritus
into simpler inorganic
(B) Leaching (b)
substances by bacterial
and fungal enzymes
 Water soluble inorganic
(C) Catabolism (c) nutrients go down into
the soil horizon

Breakdown of detritus
(D) Mineralisation (d)
into smaller particles
(1) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-b
(2) A-d, B-c, C-b, D-a
(3) A-b, B-c, C-d, D-a
(4) A-b, B-c, C-a, D-d

27) Choose the correct statement from the statements given below :

(1) The detritus food chain begins with dead organic matter.
(2) In aquatic ecosystem DFC is the major conduit for energy transfer.
(3) Sparrow feeding on seed occupy third trophic level.
(4) Sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystem on earth without exception.

28) Given below are some statements :-

(A) Totally unrelated species does not compete for the same resources.
(B) Competition is best defined as a process in which the fitness of one species is significantly
increases in the presence of another species.
(C) Competitively superior barnacle chathamalus dominates the intertidal area and excludes the
smaller barnacle Balanus, from that zone.
(D) The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos Islands became extinct within a decade after goats were
introduced on the island.
Which of the following above mentioned statements are incorrect ?

(1) B and D only

(2) A, B and C only
(3) A, B, C, D
(4) Only A and C

29) Select correct sequential steps regarding pollination in mediterranean orchid Ophrys ?
A. Bumble bee pseudocopulates with flower.
B. Transfers pollen and thus pollinates flower.
C. Petal bears resemblance to female bee.
D. Male bee attracted to what it Perceives as female bee
E. Pseudocopulates with another flower
F. Dusted with pollen grains.

(1) A → C → B → E → F → D
(2) C → D → A → F → E → B
(3) A → B → C → D → E → F
(4) D → C → A → E → F → B

30) When two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely
and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. That rule is :-
(1) Competitive exclusion principle
(2) Competitive release
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Camouflaged

31) Which of the following is not an example of parasitism ?

(1) Cuscuta on hedge plants

(2) Cuckoo lays its egg in the nest of crow
(3) Female Anopheles mosquito
(4) Copepods on marine fish

32) In the mutualistic relationship between mycorrhizal fungi and plants, what benefit do the plants
receive ?

(1) Nitrogen fixation

(2) Protection from herbivores
(3) Enhanced water and nutrient absorption
(4) Pollination services

33) Which of the following is an example of ectozooparasite?

(1) Leech on cattle

(2) Ticks on dogs
(3) Copepods on marine fish
(4) All of these

34) Process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another
species is called :-

(1) Predation
(2) Parasitism
(3) Amensalism
(4) Competition

35) The Monarch butterfly is _________ to its predator because of a special chemical present in its
body.

(1) Highly tasteful

(2) Less tasteful
(3) Highly distasteful
(4) Less distasteful

36) Select the correct sequence of ecological Hierarchy -

(1) Organism → Population → Community → Ecosystem

(2) Population → Organism → Community → Ecosystem
(3) Organism → Community → Population → Ecosystem
(4) Population → Community → Organism → Ecosystem

37) The extinction of abingdon tortoise from galapagos island due to,

(1) Mass extinction

(2) Competitive release
(3) Niche exclusion
(4) competitive exclusion

38) In the given statements how many is/are correct.

(i) Commensalism is also said as facultative Mutualism.
(ii) Commensalism confers benefits on both the interacting species and they should live together for
their survival.
(iii) Epiphyte on mango branch are the example of commensalism.
(iv) Mutualism shows co-evolution.

(1) iii, iv
(2) i, iv
(3) ii, iv
(4) i, ii

39) Vertical arrangement of various growth forms of plants according to the need of light in any
dense forest is known as :-

(1) Ecological succession

(2) Succession in forest
(3) Stratification in forest
(4) Edge effect

40) Which of the following population interaction belongs to protocooperation?

Species.
Species. A
B

(1) + –

(2) + +

(3) – –

(4) + 0
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

41) Which of the following associations of two species are not correct for proto–cooperation?
I. Clown fish – Sea anemone
II. Cattle egret birds – Cattle
III. Barnacles – Whale
IV. Crocodile – Bird

(1) I and II only

(2) III and IV only
(3) I, II and III
(4) I, II, III and IV

42) Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called...............................

(1) Ectoparasite
(2) Endoparasite
(3) Brood parasitism
(4) Holo parasite

43) Total amount of inorganic substances present in soil at particular time is called ?

(1) Producers
(2) Standing state
(3) Net primary productivity
(4) Standing Crop

44) (1) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time which is called
.
(2) Total amount of inorganic substance such as C, N, P, Ca present in a particular area at a
particular time in an ecosystem is known as .
(3) The inter connection of food chains is known as .

A → Standing crop, B → Standing state,

(1)
C → Food web
A → Standing state, B → Standing crop,
(2)
C → Food chain
A → Standing crop, B → Standing state,
(3)
C → Food chain
A → Standing state, B → Standing crop,
(4)
C → Food web

45) Those living organism which decompose the dead body of producers and consumers are known
as A . A is :-

(1) Decomposers
(2) Reducers
(3) Transformers or Osmotrophs
(4) All of the above

46) When readymade antibodies are directly given to protect the body against foreign antigens it is
called :-

(1) Active immunity

(2) Passive immunity
(3) Innate immunity
(4) 1 and 3 both

47) Assertion : Proto-oncogenes are cellular genes required for normal-growth.

Reason : Under normal conditions they could lead to the oncogenic transformation of the cell.

(1) Assertion is true but Reason is false.

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

48) Which of the following statements is incorrect about typhoid ?

(1) Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic viruses that cause typhoid.

(2) Sustained fever (39°-40°C)
(3) In severe cases of typhoid there is perforation in intestine.
(4) Typhoid is transmitted by contaminated food and water

49) Which of following cell has main role in Graft-rejection :

(1) Cytotoxic T-cells

(2) NK-cells (Natural killer)
(3) Suppressor T-cells
(4) B-cells

50) Which one of the following drugs has receptors present mainly in the brain ?

(1) Morphine
(2) Heroin
(3) Ganja
(4) Cocaine

51) Fill in the blanks.

(i) Cocaine is obtained from plant ___A___
(ii) Excessive use/dosage of cocaine causes ___B___.
(iii) Cocaine is generally taken by ____C____.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) Atropa beladona hallucination Injection

(2) Erythroxylum coca hallucination Snorting

(3) Cannabis sativa depression snorting

 (4) Erythroxylum coca pain relief Inhalation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) How many of the following drugs have hallucinogenic effects ?

(a) Excessive use of drug obtained from Erythoxylum coca.
(b) by heroine
(c) drug obtained from Papaver sominiferum
(d) Drug obtained from Atropa beladona and Datura

(1) a, b and c
(2) c and d
(3) a and d
(4) b and c

53) How many statements are correct regarding pneumonia ?

(a) It spreads by droplet or aerosol inhaling and use of glass or utensils of infected person.
(b) Infects alveoli of the lungs.
(c) Fever with chills, cough and headache.
(d) In normal cases lips and nails turns gray to bluish in colour.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

54) Statement-I : Heroin commonly called smack is chemically diacetylmorphine which is a brown,
odourless, sweet crystalline compound.
Statement-II : Heroin is a depressant and slow down body functions.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement-II correct only
(3) Statement-I correct only
(4) Both statement are incorrect

55) Match List -I with List -II

List-I List-II

A Heroin I Effect on cardiovascular function

B Ganja II Acetylation of morphine

C Cocaine III Pain Killer

D Morphine IV Producing sense of euphoria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A → I, B → II, C → III, D → IV
(2) A → IV, B → III, C → II, D → I
(3) A → III, B → IV, C → I, D → II
(4) A → II, B → I, C → IV, D → III

56) Which of the following fungi is responsible for ringworm :-

(1) Microsporum
(2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) All

57) Which of the following is not the withdrawal symptoms :

(1) Anxiety
(2) Shakiness
(3) Nausea and sweating
(4) Euphoria

58) Use of which drugs reduce the symptoms of allergy ?

(1) Anti-histamine
(2) Adrenaline
(3) Steroids
(4) All of the above

59) Smoking is associated with increased incidence of which type of cancer ?

(1) Lung
(2) Urinary bladder
(3) Throat
(4) All of the above

60)

Disease are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given below
identify the infections disease-
(I) cancer
(II) Influenza
(III) Allergy
(IV) small pox

(1) I and II
(2) II and III
(3) III and IV
(4) II and IV

61) Which of the following is called HIV factory ?

(1) RBC
(2) Macrophage
(3) Ribosome
(4) T-helper cell

62) Who disproved the 'good humor hypothesis' of health ?

(1) William crooks

(2) Hippocrates
(3) Indian ayurveda system
(4) William Harrey

63) Our health is affected by –

(1) Genetic disorder

(2) Infection
(3) Life style
(4) All of the above

64) The period between ______ of age may be thought of as adolescence period.

(1) 20-28 years

(2) 12-18 years
(3) 9-10 years
(4) 18-21 years

65) Majority of drugs are obtained from ________ and some are obtained from fungi.

(1) Animals
(2) Algae
(3) Flowering plants
(4) Bacteria

66) Virus infected cells secrete certain proteins, which protect non-infected cells from further viral
infections these proteins are called -

(1) Vaccines
(2) Antibodies
(3) Lymphocytes
(4) Interferons

67) Malaria disease caused by :

(1) Bacteria
(2) Virus
(3) Protozoa
(4) Fungus

68) Consider the following (A to C) symptoms of a disease

(A) Constipation
(B) Abdominal pain and cramps
(C) Stools with excess mucous and blood clots.
Above mention symptoms are indication of -

(1) Amoebic dysentery

(2) Malaria
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Filariasis

69) Which of the following slows down mental activity ?

(1) Smoking
(2) Opiods
(3) Cocaine
(4) All of the above

70) Antivenom against snake poison contains :-

(1) Inactivated/weakened pathogen

(2) Antigen-antibody complexes
(3) Ready made antibodies
(4) Inactivated toxins

71) Assertion :- The primitive atmosphere was reducing i.e. without oxygen.
Reason :- In the primitive atmosphere oxygen was involved in forming ozone.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are False.

72) Urey and miller experiment conducted in which year?

(1) 1951
(2) 1953
(3) 1955
(4) 1957

73) Assertion : The organs which have common origin, embryonic development and same
fundamental structure but perform similar or different functions are called as homolgous organs and
phenomenon is called homolgy.
Reason : Homolgy is due to common ancestry and based on divergent evolution.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but the Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

74) Match the columns and select the correct option using the codes given below :

Column-I Column-II

a. Coelacanth i. Reptiles went back into water

b. Sauropsids ii. Ancestors of mammals

c. Ichthyosaurs iii. Ancestors of modern day reptiles

d. Synapsids iv. Ancestors of amphibians

a b c d

(1) iv iii i ii

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) i ii iv iii

(4) iv ii i iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) The fish coelacanth caught in South Africa is an example of vertebrate transition into :-

(1) Mammals
(2) Aves
(3) Amphibians
(4) Reptiles

76) Forelimbs of humans and wings of bats are the example of :-

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Adaptive convergence
(3) Divergent evolution
(4) Natural selection

77) Ichthyosaurs, a fish like reptile evolved probably :-

(1) 500 mya
(2) 200 mya
(3) 320 mya
(4) 65 mya

78) Which one of the following factors will affect the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?

(1) Random mating

(2) Constant gene pool
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Lack of mutation

79) Who hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit ?

(1) Dryopithecus
(2) Australopithecines
(3) Homo erectus
(4) Ramapithecus

80) Which of the following is not an example of homologous organs ?

(1) Vertebrate hearts

(2) Wings of butterfly and birds
(3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita
(4) Vertebrate brains

81) Select the option which correctly represents the distribution curve for industrial melanism ?
Given that dotted line represents distribution curve after natural selection.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

82) Some characteristics of a land reptile were :

(i) 20 feet in height
(ii) Huge fearsome dagger like teeth
(iii) Biggest of all dinosaurs
Identify the dinosaur from the option given below:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

83) Mammals were evolved directly from :

(1) Therapsids
(2) Pelycosaurs
(3) Sauropsids
(4) Early reptiles

84) Which of the following statement is correct :-

(1) Mutation are random and directional.

(2) Darwinian variations are large and directional.
(3) Evolution for Darwin was gradual and slow process.
(4) Mutation are determinate and directionless.

85) Read the statement(s) carefully and fill the blanks with correct option.
I. Koala and Bandicoot shows A .
II. Lemur and spotted cuscus exhibi B .
III. C were common ancestors of triceratops and tyranosaurus.

A-Convergent evolution
(1) B-Convergent evolution
C-Thecodonts
 A-Common ancestory
(2) B-Adaptive radiation
C-Brachiosaurus
A-Adaptive radiation
(3) B-Convergent evolution
C-Thecodonts
A-Divergent evolution
(4) B-Adaptive radiation
C-Brachiosaurus

86) Which of the following was the golden age of reptiles :-

(1) Coenozoic
(2) Mesozoic
(3) Palaeozoic
(4) Proterozoic

87) Direct ancestor of homo sapiens are -

(1) Homo habilis

(2) Homo erectus
(3) Ape man
(4) Australopithecus

88) Archaeopteryx which is considered as connecting link between birds and reptiles, become
extinct during :-

(1) Triassic period

(2) Cretaceous period
(3) Jurassic period
(4) Carboniferous period

89) Which of the following had evolved from psilophyton?

(1) Sphenopsids
(2) Herbaceous lycopods
(3) Zosterophyllum
(4) Both (1) and (2)

90) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Before industrialisation more white winged moths were present.

(2) After industrialisation more black winged moths were present.
(3) Evolution is a directed process in the sense of determinism.
(4) Evolution is a stochastic process.
 PHYSICS

1) In given circuit if VA > VB then equivalent resistance between A and B is:-

(1) 3 Ω
(2) 6 Ω
(3) 11 Ω
(4) 15 Ω

2) A semiconductor material is doped with acceptor impurity with 1015 atom/cm3. If intrinsic carrier
concentration is 1010 / cm3 then concentration of electrons in semiconductor will be :-

(1) 108 cm–3

(2) 105 cm–3
(3) 1010 cm–3
(4) 1012 cm–3

3) Assertion (A) : Current in forward bias across a p-n junction is more than current in reverse
bias.
Reason (R) : In forward bias, current formed due to diffusion of majority charge carriers.

(1) A & R both are correct & R is correct explanation of A.

(2) A & R both are correct & R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

4) In given boolean expression Y equals to

Y = A ⋅ B + (A + B) ⋅ A

(1) A
(2) B
(3) A ⋅ B
(4) A + B

5) Statement I : In LED monochromatic light photons are emitted due to formation of e-hole pairs.
Statement II : In LED, energy of emitted photons is equal to or slightly less than energy gap of
material use in LED.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

6) If a small amount of antimony is added to silicon crystal then

(a) it becomes an N type semiconductor
(b) the antimony becomes an acceptor atom
(c) there will be more free electrons than holes in the semiconductor
(d) its resistance increases
Correct statements are :-

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) a, c, d
(4) a, b, c

7) Which of the following is correctly ordered according to the ascending order of energy band gap ?

(1) Silicon, Copper, Diamond

(2) Copper, Silicon, Diamond
(3) Silicon, Diamond, Copper
(4) Diamond, Copper, Silicon

8) The depletion layer in the P-N junction region is caused by-

(1) Drift of holes

(2) Diffusion of charge carriers
(3) Migration of impurity ions
(4) Drift of electrons

9) The reading of the ammeter for a silicon diode in the given circuit is-

(1) 10 mA
(2) 7.67 mA
(3) 9 mA
(4) 1 mA

10) A 24 V, 600 mW zener diode is used to provide a 24V stabilized supply as shown in the figure.

The value of the resistance R is-

(1) 320 Ω
(2) 640 Ω
(3) 960 Ω
(4) 1280 Ω

11) The output for the given circuit is -

(1) (A + B) . B
(2) A . B +
(A + B) .
(3)

(4) (A . B) .

12) The output Y of the given combination of logic gates is -

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) Velocity of light in air is 3 × 108 m/s and refractive index of water is 1.33. The time taken by light
to travel a distance of 500 m in water is :-

(1) 1.25 µs
(2) 2.22 µs
(3) 12.5 µs
(4) 22.6 µs

14) If iµj represents refractive index when a light ray goes from medium i to medium j, then the
product 2μ1 × 3μ2 × 4μ3 is equal to :-

(1) 3μ1
(2) 4μ1

(3)

(4) 4μ2

15) When an object is kept at a distance of 30 cm from a concave mirror, the image is formed at a
distance of 10 cm from the mirror. If the object is moved with a speed of 9 cm/s, the speed (in cms–1)
with which image moves at that instant is :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence 45° on an equilateral prism and emerge at an
angle 45° then the refractive index of the medium of the prism is :-

(1) 2
(2)
(3)
(4)

17) The image for the converging beam after refraction through the curved surface is formed at :-

(Radius of curvature = 10 cm)

(1) 40 cm

(2)

(3) At pole
(4) At infinity

18) The power of a biconvex lens is 20 diopter and the radius of curvature of each surface is 5 cm.
Find the refractive index of the material of lens is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The focal length of the objective and eye-piece of a telescope are respectively 100 cm and 2 cm.
The moon subtends an angle of 0.5° at the eye. If it is looked through the telescope, the angle
subtended by the moon's image will be :-

(1) 100°
(2) 50°
(3) 25°
(4) 10°

20) The focal length of the objective of a telescope is 60 cm. To obtain a magnification of 20, the
focal length of the eye piece should be :-

(1) 2 cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 4 cm
(4) 5 cm

21) Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60° as shown in figure. A ray of light incident on
one mirror is parallel to the other. What will be the angle between the first incident ray and the last

reflected ray?

(1) 120°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°
(4) 0°

22) Figure shows a mixture of blue, green and red coloured rays incident normally on a right angled
prism. The critical angles of the material of the prism for red, green and blue are 46°, 44° and 43°

respectively. The arrangement will separate :-

(1) Green colour from red and blue

(2) All the three colours
(3) Red colour from blue and green
(4) Blue colour from red and green

23) A plot of angle of deviation (δ) versus angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is shown
below. The angle of incidence for which the light ray travels parallel to the base is

(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) Data insufficient

24) A convex lens is used to produce an image on a screen. The distance between the lens and the
screen is 20 cm. If the object is placed 30 cm away from the lens, what is the focal length ?

(1) 12 cm
(2) 15 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 25 cm

25) In double slit experiment the value of λ = 500 nm the value of d = 1 mm and D = 1 m then the
minimum distance from the central maxima for which the intensity is half the maximum intensity will
be -

(1) 2.5 × 10–4 m

(2) 2 × 10–4 m
(3) 1.25 × 10–4 m
(4) 10–4 m

26) If the amplitude ratio of two sources producing interference is 3 : 5, then the ratio of intensities
at maxima and minima is-

(1) 25 : 16
(2) 5 : 3
(3) 16 : 1
(4) 25 : 9

27) In Young's double slit interference experiment, the slit separation is made 3 times. The fringe
width becomes -

(1) 1/3 times

(2) 1/9 times
(3) 3 times
(4) 9 times

28) If yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young's double slit experiment is replaced by a
monochromatic blue light of the same intensity -

(1) fringe width will decrease

(2) fringe width will increases
(3) fringe width will remain unchanged
(4) fringes will become less intense

29) Light of wavelength λ is incident on a slit of width d. The resulting diffraction pattern is
observed on a screen at a distance D. The linear width of the principal maximum is equal to the
width of the slit if D equals -
(1) (d/λ)
(2) (2λ/d)
(3) (d2/2λ)
(4) (2λ2/d)

30) In a single slit diffraction experiment first minima for λ1 = 660 nm coincides with first maxima
for wavelength λ2. Calculate λ2.

(1) 440 nm
(2) 420 nm
(3) 400 nm
(4) 220 nm

31) In the far field diffraction pattern of a single slit under polychromatic illumination, the first
minimum with the wavelength λ1 is found to be coincident with the third maximum at λ2. So -

(1) 3λ1 = 0.3λ2

(2) 3λ1 = λ2
(3) λ1 = 3.5λ2
(4) 0.3λ1 = 3λ2

32) An unpolarised beam of light of intensity I0 falls on a polariod. The intensity of the emergent
beam is -

(1)

(2) I0

(3)

(4) zero

33) Statement-I : Sound waves cannot be polarised.

Statement-II : Sound waves are longitudinal in nature.

Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation of
(1)
Statement-I
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct but Statement-II is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Statement-I
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

34) In photoelectric effect, photocurrent is directly proportional to intensity of incident radiation.

This statement is true _________.
The correct choice to fill the blank is :-

(1) In all situations

(2) Only when λ < λ0
(3) Only when λ > λ0
(4) Only for photosensitive surfaces having lower work functions.

35) The work function of a photo sensitive surface is 2.48 eV. The wavelength of incident light, if the
photocurrent is brought to zero by a stopping potential of 1.24 V, is :-

(1) 500 nm
(2) 500/3 nm
(3) 1000 nm
(4) 1000/3 nm

36) Photocurrent (ip) versus voltage (V) graph for two different experiments of photo electric effect
are shown, in which radiation beams of same intensity are falling. On the basis of graphs consider
following results :
(A) λ1 < λ2 (B) λ1 > λ2

(C) ϕ1 < ϕ2 (D) ϕ1 > ϕ2 Which of the above is/are correct ? (λ is

wavelength and ϕ is work function)

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) A and D
(4) B and C

37) A spectral emission line emitted from a specific element has frequency 1.5 × 1013 Hz. The
momentum of corresponding photon is :-

(1) 3.3 × 10–29 Kg m/s

(2) 3.3 × 10–34 Kg m/s
(3) 6.6 × 10–34 Kg m/s
(4) 6.6 × 10–30 Kg m/s

38) A proton is accelerated by 100 V and alpha particle is accelerated by 400 V. Find the ratio of de
broglie wavelength of proton to that of alpha :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
39) An electron is moving with velocity 1.45 × 106 m/s. Its de broglie wavelength is :-

(1) 0.5 Å
(2) 1.2 Å
(3) 4 Å
(4) 5 Å

40) Statement-I :- Electrons and positron are particle-antiparticle pair, they are identical in mass.
Statement-II :- Electron and positron have equal charge.

(1) Only statement-I correct.

(2) Only statement-II correct.
(3) Both statement-I & statement-II are correct.
(4) None is correct.

41) Which of the following cannot be emitted by radioactive substance during their decay ?

(1) Proton
(2) Neutrinos
(3) Helium nucleus
(4) Electrons

42) The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr's orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve
in second orbit of H-atom, then the change in angular momentum will be :-

(1)

(2) Zero
(3) L
(4) 2L

43) Binding energy of a certain nucleus is 18 × 108 J. How much is the difference between total mass
of all the nucleons and nuclear mass of the given nucleus :-

(1) 0.2 µg
(2) 20 µg
(3) 2 µg
(4) 10 µg

44) Statement-I :- Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo
fusion.
Statement-II :- For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon increases with increasing Z while for
light nuclei it decreases with increasing Z.

(1) Statement-I is true, statement-II is true, statement-II is correct explanation for statement-I.
Statement-I is true, statement-II is true, statement-II is not a correct explanation for statement-
(2)
I.
(3) Statement-I is true, statement-II is false.
(4) Statement-I is false, statement-II is true.

45) Assertion (A) :- It is easier to remove a proton from 20Ca40 nucleus as compared to a neutron.
Reason (R) :- Inside nucleus, neutrons are acted on only by attractive forces but protons are also
acted by repulsive forces.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

CHEMISTRY

1) Following order is incorrect for

(1) Leaving group ability

(2) Nucleophilicity in polar protic solvent
(3) Nucleophilicity in polar aprotic solvent
(4) Both (2) and (3)

2) Which of the following is most reactive towards SN1 reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Incorrect statement for SN1 process :

(1) Order of reaction is one
(2) Reaction proceed with racemisation
(3) Attack of nucleophile takes place always from backside of leaving group
(4) Rate of reaction is independent of conc. of nucleophile.

4)

Which of the following haloalkanes would undergo SN2 reaction at fastest rate :-

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) IV

5) A is (major) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) & (3)

6) C2H5Cl + AgF C2H5F + AgCl

The above reaction is called

(1) Hunsdiecker reaction

(2) Swart's reaction
(3) Finkelstein reaction
(4) Wurtz reaction
7) Dehydrobromination of the following in decreasing order :-

(1) III > II > I

(2) I > II > III
(3) III > I > II
(4) I > III > II

8)

Major product obtained on reaction of phenol with NaOH and carbon dioxide followed by
protonation, is:

(1) Benzoic acid

(2) Salicyaldehyde
(3) Salicyclic acid
(4) Pthalic acid

9) In the following sequence of reactions,

then compound ‘D’ is –

(1) butanal
(2) n-butyl alcohol
(3) n-propyl alcohol
(4) propanal

10) Which will give turbidity rapidly on reaction with Lucas reagent ?

(1) CH3–OH
(2) CH3–CH2–OH

(3)

(4)

11) H2COH.CH2OH on heating with periodic acid gives :-

(1)

(2) 2CO2
(3) 2HCOOH
(4)

12) Which of the following has the highest melting point?

(1) p-Dichlorobenzene
(2) m-Dichlorobenzene
(3) o-Dichlorobenzene
(4) All have the same melting point.

13) Product formed is :

(1) 2,4,6-Tribromoaniline
(2) 2-Bromophenol and 4-Bromophenol
(3) Picric acid
(4) 2,4,6-Tribromophenol

14)

Arrange the following set of compounds in order to their increasing boiling points :-
(p) Pentane-2-ol (q) Butan-1-ol

(r) Butan-2-ol (s) Propanol

(1) p < q < r < s
(2) s < q < r < p
(3) s < r < q < p
(4) s < p < r < q

15) Sodium bisulphite (NaHSO3) test is not given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Which is most reactive for nucleophilic addition reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Cyanohydrin of which of the following forms lactic acid :-

(1) CH3CH2CHO
(2) CH3CHO
(3) HCHO
(4) CH3COCH3

18) In which of the following reaction 2° Alcohol is obtained :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Which product is obtained by aldol reaction :-

(1) α – Hydroxy aldehyde or ketone

(2) β – Hydroxy aldehyde or ketone
(3) α,β – unsaturated ester
(4) β – Hydroxy acid

20) A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with conc. NaOH solution gives:-

(1) Ph –CH2OH and HCOONa

(2) PhCOONa and CH3OH
(3) PhCOONa and HCOONa
(4) PhCH2OH and CH3OH

21) Which is most reactive towards nucleophile ?

(1) CH3CONH2
(2) CH3COOCH3
(3) CH3COCl
(4) CH3COOC2H5

22) Which of the followings is not a fat soluble vitamin :-

(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin C
(4) Vitamin E

23) Insulin is -

(1) Harmone
(2) Anticeptic
(3) Antibiotic
(4) Vitamin

24) The Lassaigne's extract is boiled with conc HNO3 while testing for the halogens. By doing so it :-

(1) decomposes Na2S and NaCN, if formed

(2) helps in the precipitation of AgCl
(3) increases the solubility product of AgCl
–
(4) increases the concentration of NO3 ions

25) Which of the chemical substance is used for the detection of 'C' in organic compound ?

(1) CuO
(2) Ca(OH)2
(3) CuSO4
(4) Both (1) and (2)
26)
Identify C :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Arrange the following compounds in order of their acidic strength :-

(1) IV < I < II < III

(2) I < IV < III < II
(3) IV < II < I < III
(4) II < IV < III < I

28) Mono nitration of phenyl ethanoate mainly gives :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

29)

(1)

(2)

(3) CH3CH2–O–CH2CH3

(4)

30)
A and B will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31)
B will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) Statement-I : Glucose or Sucrose are soluble in water.

Statement-II : Cyclohexane or Benzene are insoluble in water.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

34)
Identify A :-

(1) Ph–NH2
(2) Ph–OH
(3) Ph–COOH
(4) Ph–CHO

35) In which of the following major product is not correctly formed ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Identify B in the following :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

37)
Gas will be :-

(1) CO2
(2) COCl2
(3) CO
(4) H2

38) Arrange the following in their order of rate of acidic dehydration :-

(1) I < II < III < IV

(2) IV < III < II < I
(3) III < IV < I < II
(4) II < I < III < IV

39) Which of the followings will not react with Hinsberg reagent.

(1) CH3NH2
(2) CH3NHCH3
(3) (CH3)3N
(4) C2H5–NH2

40) Which of the followings is known as Gatterman reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41) Which of the following reaction is not feasible.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) Statement-I : Amino acids are usually colourless, crystalline solids.

Statement-II : Amino acids are water insoluble.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

43) Statement-I : Enzymes are said to increase the magnitude of activation energy.
Statement-II : Almost all enzymes are globular proteins.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

44) Which of the following compound does not give Fehling's solution test :-

(1) H–CHO
(2) CH3CHO
(3) Ph-CHO
(4) CH3CH2CHO
45) In which of the following reaction product is not correctly matched.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

BIOLOGY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 1 1 4 2 3 1 1 1 4 4 2 2 4 4 1 4 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 1 2 2 4 2 1 2 2 1 3 3 4 4 3 1 4 1 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 1 1 3 2 3 3 2 4 4 4 4 4 4
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 4 4 2 3 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 1 1 3 3 2 3 2 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 1 3 3 2 2 2 1 3

PHYSICS

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 1 1 3 2 2 2 2 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 4 2 3 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 3 1 3 3 1 1 3 1 3 1 1 2 4 3 1 3 4 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 3 2 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 4 3 1 3 2 2 3 3 4 1 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 2 1
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 3 1 1 4 1 1 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 2 1 2 2 3 1
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 2 3 3 4
 SOLUTIONS

BIOLOGY

1)

NCERT XII Pg. No : 221

2) NCERT-XII Page No. # 224

3)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 225

4)

NCERT XII Page No. 224

5) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 191, 192, 194, 195

6)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 194, 195, 207, 220

7) NCERT XII, Page No. 193, 208, 213, 206

8) NCERT XII, Page No. 194-196

9)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 207

10) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 198

11) NCERT Pg. # 210

12) NCERT Pg. # 207

13) NCERT Pg. # 207

14) NCERT Pg. # 207

19) NCERT, Pg. # 209

20) NCERT, Pg. # 201

22) NCERT, Pg. # 201,202

25) NCERT Pg. # 201, 202

26) NCERT, Pg # 207, 208

27) NCERT, Pg # 209, 210

28) NCERT Pg. # 198, 199

29) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 202

30) NCERT, Pg. # 199

31) NCERT Pg. # 200

32) NCERT Pg. # 201

33) NCERT Pg. No. # 200

34) NCERT Pg. No. # 199

35) NCERT Pg. No. # 198

36) NCERT Pg. No. # 190, Module

38) NCERT XII Pg. # 201

39)

NCERT Pg # 206

42)

NCERT XII Pg. # 200

43)

NCERT-XII, Pg. 210

44) NCERT, Pg. # 210, 211

46) Module No. 11, Page No. 7

47) NCERT Pg#157

48) NCERT Pg#130

49) NCERT Pg#136

50) NCERT Pg#159

51) NCERT Pg#158,159

52) NCERT Pg#158,159

53) NCERT Pg#131

54) NCERT Pg#142

55) NCERT Pg. # 142, 143

56) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 149, Para-8.1

57) NCERT Pg. 161

58) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 153 (E), 150 (H)

59) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 160 (E), 158 (H)

60)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 154

61) Macrophage
62) Module No. # 11, Pg. No. # 3

63) Module No. # 11, Pg. No. # 3

64) NCERT (XII) Pg # 160

65) NCERT Pg. # 142

66) NCERT Pg. # 134,135

67) NCERT Pg. # 131

68) NCERT Pg. # 132

69) NCERT Pg. # 138 - 147

70) NCERT Pg. # 136 (E), 149 (H)

71) Module-11, Pg.# 87

72) 1953

73) Module-11, PG-96

74) NCERT-XII

75) NCERT, Pg. # 122(E), 133(H)

76) NCERT, Pg. # 114

77) NCERT Pg. # 124

78) NCERT, Pg. # 121

79) NCERT, Pg. # 124

80) NCERT, Pg. # 115(E), 126(H)

 81) NCERT-XII

82) NCERT-XII Page No. 114, Fig-6.2

83) NCERT XII Pg # 123

84) NCERT, Pg. # 119

85) NCERT-XII Pg. No. # 130,133, 134

86) Module 11 Pg # 91

87) Homo erectus

88) Module-11, Pg. # 91

89) NCERT Page No. 122

90) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 131, 132

PHYSICS

91) Here both diode are R.B. RAB = 2 + 5 + 4 = 11 Ω

92) ∵ ni = 1010 & nh = NA = 1015 atom / cm3

From mass-action law

cm–3

93) In forward bias

idiffusion > idrift
↓ ↓
due to majority due to minority
charge carriers charge carriers
∴ Iforward is always greater than Ireverse
94) Y = A ⋅ B + (A + B) ⋅ A
=A⋅B+A⋅A+A⋅B
=A⋅B+A+A⋅B
= A (B + 1 + B)
=A

95) In LED photons are emitted due to recombination of e-holes.

96) Antimony is pentavalent impurity so semiconductor becomes N type and impurity becomes
donor impurity.
Due to impurity conductivity increase so resistance decrease.

97) The order of energy band gap is

Conductors < Semiconductors < Insulators
0 eV 1 eV 3 eV

98) Depletion layer produce due to diffusion of majority charge carriers.

99) I = = = 7.67 mA

100) Iz = = = 25 × 10–3 A
Voltage drop across R = 32 – 24 = 8 V

R=

101) Y = (A + B ) .

102) Y =
=
=

103) v = × 108 m/s

t= = 2.22 µs

104) 2μ1 × 3μ2 × 4μ3 =

105) m =
vI = |m|2v0 = 1 cm/s

106)

i = 45°; A = 60°; e = 45°

∴ δmin = i + e – A = 45 + 45 – 60
δmin = 30°

µ=

=
µ=

107)

µ1 = 1; µ2 = ; u = 30
R = 10 cm

∴ –

108)

P=

(µ – 1)

µ–1= ⇒µ=

109)

M.P. =

α= ; fo = 100 cm; fe = 2 cm
110)

fo = 60 cm; fe = ? ; M.P. = 20

M.P. =

111)

112) Angle of incidence i = 45°

For blue and green
ic > i
For red ic < i.

113) When light ray travels parallel to the base, the light suffers minimum deviations.
So, for minimum deviation, δmin = 40°
i = e = 45° (from graph)

114) Using the lens formula:

Here, u = –30, cm, v = 20, cm

So, f = 12 cm

115)

λ = 500 nm; d = 1 mm; D = 1 m

I= cos2 (ϕ/2)

(phase difference)
∴ Path difference

Δx =

Δx = .....(i)

As Δx = ....(ii)
From (i) and (ii) y =

y=
= 1.25 × 10–4 m

116)

117)

d' = 3d;

β' = =

118)

λblue < λyellow

β= ;βαλ

119)

Width of central maxima =

As per question,
Width = d

∴d=

or D =

120)

nλ1 = [n = 1]

n2 = =
440 nm

121)

n1λ1 =
n1 = 1 n2 = 3

∴ λ1 =
λ1 = 3.5 λ2

122)

124) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 282, Part-2

Because photo-current exists only for λ < λ0

125) Using photoelectric equation

eVs = E – ϕ
1.24 eV = E – 2.48 eV

⇒ E = 3.72 eV = eV – Å

⇒ Å Å
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 284, Part-2

126) Intensity I = and for same I ⇒ x ∝ λ

from the graphs, it is clear that (ip)1 < (ip)2 ⇒ x1 < x2
⇒ λ1 < λ2 or ν1 > ν2
but here Vo is same, therefore from photo electric equation
eV0 = hν – ϕ ⇒ ν1 > ν2 means ϕ1 > ϕ2

127) p =
p = 3.3 × 10–29 Kg m/s

128) λ = ⇒λ∝

129) ∵ λ =

= 0.5 × 10–9 = 5 × 10–10 m

 =5Å

130) NCERT, Pg. # 320

Electron & positron has charges equal in magnitude but their nature is opposite.

131) Conceptual

132) NCERT, Pg. # 299

L = mvr =

133) NCERT Pg. # 311

E = mc2

= 2 × 10–8
= 20 µg

134)

(1) Fission and fusion, both are exothermic nuclear reaction.

(2) depends on mass no.not on the atomic no.

135) NCERT, Pg. # 312

CHEMISTRY

141) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page No: 166, Article No: 6.4.3, Edition 2023 - 24.

143) Phenol + NaOH → Sodium Phenoxide

Sodium Phenoxide + CO2 → Salicyclic acid
Kolbe-Schmidt reaction.

146)

147) p-Dichlorobenzene being most symmetrical; so have strongest lattice to melt.

152)

154)

Aldol is β-Hydroxy carbonyl compound.

157)

Vitamin C is water soluble.

159)

Na2S + conc. HNO3 → H2S↑

NaCN + conc. HNO3 → HCN