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Test 15 - Solution

The document provides solutions to a test on environmental topics, focusing on climate change mitigation strategies, ocean acidification, and the role of the Governor in India. It discusses various techniques like cirrus cloud thinning and stratospheric aerosol injection to combat global warming, as well as the factors contributing to ocean acidification. Additionally, it clarifies the distinction between good and bad ozone, the impact of certain gases on ozone depletion, and the concept of carbon farming.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

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Test 15 - Solution

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Mohan Sai

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SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Q.1) In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning
technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?
a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
d) Reducing the global warming

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes and trap the long wave radiation and reflect sunlight. Thinning
cirrus clouds reduces their heat trapping capacity.
In the Stratospheric Aerosol Injection (SAI) technique, reflective sulphate aerosol particles are injected
into the stratosphere which aids in reflecting most of the sunlight back into space and creating a dimming
effect and cooling the planet. Thus both these techniques are used with respect to reducing the global
warming.
Source: UPSC CSE Pre 2019
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies
Subtopic:)

Q.2) Consider the following:

1. Increase in the absorption of anthropogenic CO2 emitted into the atmosphere by the oceans.
2. Increase in the Eutrophication process in oceans.
3. Enhanced weathering of rocks like limestone or basalt and subsequent runoff to the oceans.
4. Change in the ocean circulation pattern
Which of the above factors can promote ocean acidification?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Ocean acidification refers to a reduction in the pH of the ocean over an extended period, typically decades
or longer, which is caused primarily by uptake of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere, but can also be
caused by other chemical additions or subtractions from the ocean.
Statement 1 is correct. Ocean Acidification is a continuous decrease in the pH of the ocean water, caused
by the increased absorption of Carbon Dioxide (CO2) from the atmosphere. When CO2 dissolves in
seawater, it forms carbonic acid, lowering the pH of the seawater.
Statement 2 is correct. Eutrophication in the ocean occurs when the environment becomes enriched with
nutrients, increasing the amount of plant and algae growth in the oceans. It sets off a chain reaction in the
ecosystem, starting with an overabundance of algae and plants. The excess algae and plant matter
eventually decompose, producing large amounts of carbon dioxide. This lowers the pH of seawater,
leading to ocean acidification.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Weathering of rocks like basalt leads to oceans becoming alkaline. Alkalinity is
produced through the slow weathering of rocks, such as limestone or basalt, and subsequent runoff of the
alkaline molecules into the ocean.

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9311740400, 9311740900 | https://academy.forumias.com | admissions@forumias.academy | helpdesk@forumias.academy

[1]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Statement 4 is correct: Changes in ocean circulation patterns can affect the pH of surface waters.
Upwelling, for example, transports acidic water from deep inside the ocean to the top. Deep waters are
more acidic than surface waters because the CO2 produced by deep-sea organisms during respiration is
not used by photosynthesis due to the lack of sunlight in the deep.
Source:) https://cag.gov.in/uploads/media/9-Selected-Perspectives-on-Ocean-Acidification-
0668fc5e840aba2-55322739.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/53826/1/Unit-6.pdf
https://dste.py.gov.in/pczma/Pdf/Reports/Ocean%20Acidification,%20NCSCM.pdf
https://oceanservice.noaa.gov/facts/eutrophication.html
https://ugc.berkeley.edu/background-content/ocean-
acidification/#:~:text=For%20example%2C%20a%20long%2Dterm,the%20surface%20of%20the%20oce
an.
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Ocean acidification and ozone depletion
Subtopic:)

Q.3) The term ‘carbon farming’ sometimes seen in the news best refers to:
a) The early fertilization of crops due to the increase in carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
b) combining regenerative agricultural practices with carbon sequestration to mitigate climate change and
enhancing agricultural productivity.
c) Using the atmosphere’s carbon dioxide to replace the synthetic fertilizers used in agriculture.
d) Growing crops that are rich in tapping carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Carbon farming implements regenerative agricultural practices that restore ecosystem health while
improving agricultural productivity and soil health, and mitigating climate change by enhancing carbon
storage in agricultural landscapes and reducing greenhouse gas emissions. The practice is easy to adopt
across various agro-climatic zones. It can also help ameliorate soil degradation, water scarcity, and
challenges related to climate variability. A simple implementation of carbon farming is rotational grazing.
Others include agroforestry, conservation agriculture, integrated nutrient management, agro-ecology,
livestock management, and land restoration.

[2]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Source:) https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/what-is-carbon-farming-
explained/article68147027.ece
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies
Subtopic:)

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: Tropospheric ozone is considered to be bad ozone.
Statement-II: Tropospheric ozone is a major component of photochemical smog.
Statement-III: Tropospheric ozone is a long lived climate pollutant.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I.
c) Only one of Statement-II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I.
d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct.

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement-I is correct. Tropospheric ozone is considered to be bad ozone formed in the lower
atmosphere (troposphere) that harms plants and animals.
There is ‘good’ ozone also; this ozone is found in the upper part of the atmosphere called the stratosphere,
and it acts as a shield absorbing ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
Statement-II is correct. The photochemical smog is formed in a series of chemical reactions of secondary
pollutants in the atmosphere in the presence of sunlight. Photochemical smog appears mostly in urban
areas, which have exhaust from vehicles. The photochemical smog is formed when the primary pollutants
like NOx and hydrocarbons are captured in the lower atmosphere on exposure to UV radiation from the
sun. Tropospheric ozone is a major component of photochemical smog.
Photochemical smog is harmful to human health as it may induce respiratory issues in humans. Similarly it
harms the environment and damages crops. Since, tropospheric ozone helps in the formation of
photochemical smog, it is considered to be bad ozone.
Statement-III is incorrect. Tropospheric (or ground-level) ozone is a short-lived climate pollutant that
remains in the atmosphere for only hours to weeks.
Source:)
https://ncert.nic.in/textbook/pdf/lebo116.pdf#:~:text=You%20have%20earlier%20studied%20in%20th
e%20Chemistry,shield%20absorbing%20ultraviolet%20radiation%20from%20the%20sun.
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/86526/1/Block-2.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/25157/1/Unit-20.pdf
https://www.ccacoalition.org/short-lived-climate-pollutants/tropospheric-ozone
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change and its Impact
Subtopic:)

Q.5) With reference to the Office of Governor in India, consider the following statements:
Statement I: The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise of his/her official
powers and duties during his/her tenure.
Statement II: Article 361 of the Indian Constitution provides the absolute immunity to the Governor from
both civil and criminal proceedings.

[3]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II is the correct explanation for
Statement I
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is not the correct explanation for
Statement I
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Article 361 of the Indian Constitution provides for the protection of the President and Governors. The
Supreme Court has agreed to examine the question of Constitutional immunity granted to the Governor of
States under Article 361.
Statement I is correct: As per Article 361(1) of Indian Constitution, the Governor of a State, shall not be
answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any
act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.
Statement II is incorrect: Article 361 does provide certain immunities to the Governor, but it is not
absolute immunity. The Governor is immune from legal proceedings regarding official acts but can still
face civil proceedings after two months' notice for acts not related to official duties.
As Statement I refers to a broader principle that the Governor is not answerable to the courts for official
actions, while Statement II specifically refers to criminal and civil immunity, which does not fully explain
the non-accountability mentioned in Statement I. Hence option c is correct- Statement I is correct, but
Statement II is incorrect.
Source: SFG ESSENTIAL, CURRENT AFFAIRS, QUARTERLY COMPILATION (July–September 2024), Page: 1-
2
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Executive
Subtopic:)

Q.6) Consider the following gases:

1. Carbon Dioxide (CO₂)
2. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)
3. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)
4. Halons
5. Nitrous Oxide (N₂O)
How many of the above gases contribute to the depletion of the ozone layer?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

Ans) b
Exp) option b is the correct answer.
Ozone is a natural gas and an allotrope of oxygen consisting of three atoms of oxygen bound together.
Ozone is found in two different layers of atmosphere; Ozone in the troposphere is bad as it leads to smog
formation while stratospheric ozone is good because it protects life on earth from the harmful UV rays of
the sun.

[4]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Ozone layer depletion is primarily caused by the release of certain man-made chemicals that contain
chlorine or bromine, which actively destroy ozone molecules in the stratosphere. While many greenhouse
gases affect climate change, not all of them are responsible for ozone depletion. For Phasing down the
Ozone Depleting Substances (ODS) Montreal Protocol has been implemented world-wide.
Option 1 is incorrect. Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) is the most abundant greenhouse gas emitted through human
activities like fossil fuel burning, deforestation, and industrial processes. It contributes significantly to
global warming by trapping heat in the troposphere. However, CO₂ is chemically stable in the stratosphere
and does not interact with ozone molecules. It neither releases nor catalyzes the release of reactive
atoms like chlorine or bromine that could destroy ozone. Therefore, while CO₂ is a major concern for
climate change, it is not involved in ozone layer depletion.
Option 2 is incorrect. HFCs were developed as substitutes for ozone-depleting substances like CFCs and
HCFCs under the Montreal Protocol. They are used mainly in refrigeration, air-conditioning, aerosols,
and foam products. HFCs contain fluorine, not chlorine or bromine, and hence do not break down ozone
in the stratosphere. However, they are potent greenhouse gases, with a Global Warming Potential (GWP)
hundreds to thousands of times higher than CO₂.
Due to this, the Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol now targets HFCs for phasedown—but for
climate change, not ozone depletion reasons.
Option 3 is correct. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are synthetic compounds once widely used in
refrigerators, air conditioners, spray cans, and foam-blowing agents. In the stratosphere, UV radiation
breaks CFCs down, releasing chlorine atoms, which are extremely reactive. A single chlorine atom can
destroy over 100,000 ozone molecules before becoming inactive. CFCs have long atmospheric lifetimes
and were the main cause of the Antarctic ozone hole, discovered in the 1980s. Their production and use
are now banned under the Montreal Protocol (1987), though past emissions continue to affect ozone.
Option 4 is correct. Halons are chemically similar to CFCs but contain bromine instead of chlorine. They
were primarily used in fire suppression systems, especially in places like aircraft, computer rooms, and
defense installations. Bromine is even more destructive to ozone than chlorine—up to 50 times more
potent in catalytic ozone destruction. Like CFCs, halons are long-lived in the atmosphere and continue to
harm ozone even decades after release. Due to their high ozone-depletion potential, halons have also been
phased out under the Montreal Protocol.
Option 5 is correct. Nitrous Oxide (N₂O) is a greenhouse gas produced mainly from agricultural fertilizers,
biomass burning, fossil fuel combustion, and industrial processes. In the stratosphere, N₂O reacts to form
nitric oxide (NO), which then enters a catalytic cycle that breaks down ozone molecules. While N₂O is less
publicized, it is currently the largest ozone-depleting emission not yet regulated by the Montreal
Protocol. It is also the third most significant greenhouse gas after CO₂ and methane. Thus, N₂O plays a
dual negative role: it warms the planet and erodes the ozone layer.
Source: ForumIAS Red book - A Summary Environment & Ecology - 3rd Edition - Climate Change – Ozone
Depletion – Page 165; https://www.unep.org/ozonaction/who-we-are/about-montreal-
protocol#:~:text=Another%20group%20of%20substances%2C%20hydrofluorocarbons,global%20CO2%2
0emissions%20by%202050.
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Ocean acidification and ozone depletion
Subtopic:)

[5]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Q.7) Consider the following pairs:

Terms Description
1. Greenhushing Companies intentionally underreport or conceal
sustainability initiatives to avoid scrutiny.
2. Greenlighting Company emphasizing green features or initiatives to
divert attention away from its less environmentally
friendly practices
3. Greenshifting Company shifting the responsibility of environmental
sustainability onto consumers.
4. Greencrowding Companies dilute accountability for their sustainability
practices by merging into larger groups or coalitions that
aim to address environmental issues.
How many of the above given pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Ans) d
Exp) option d is the correct answer.
In the realm of corporate sustainability, various terms have emerged to describe deceptive or evasive
practices related to environmental responsibility. Understanding these terms is crucial for identifying and
addressing such behaviours.
Pair 1 is correct. Greenhushing means that a company deliberately hides or avoids talking about its
environment-friendly actions. The reason they do this is to avoid criticism or public scrutiny. For instance,
if a company begins using recycled materials but does not share this with the public, fearing people might
still point out its other polluting activities, it is practicing greenhushing. The company is being quiet about
something good because it fears being questioned further.
Pair 2 is correct. Greenlighting is when a company promotes a small eco-friendly initiative to draw
attention away from the harmful parts of its operations. For example, a company may advertise that it
uses eco-friendly paper in its offices, while at the same time, it might be producing huge amounts of
industrial waste. By highlighting the small good part, they try to make people ignore the big bad part. This
is misleading and creates a false image of being sustainable.
Pair 3 is correct. Greenshifting refers to a situation where companies shift the blame for environmental
problems onto consumers. They avoid taking responsibility for their own polluting practices. For example,
a plastic packaging company might tell customers to recycle more, without changing their own use of
harmful materials. They make it look like it’s the consumer’s fault, even when their own operations are the
main problem.
Pair 4 is correct. Green crowding is a tactic where companies seek anonymity or dilute accountability
for their sustainability practices by merging into larger groups or coalitions that aim to address
environmental issues. For instance, a big oil company may become a member of a green business coalition,
but continue polluting heavily. By being part of a group, they try to appear responsible, without actually
changing anything.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/greenhushing-what-is-it-and-why-do-
companies-do-it ; https://sustainability-directory.com/corporate/esg/what-is-greenlighting/ ;
https://sustainability-directory.com/corporate/esg/laying-on-the-guilt-trip-greenshifting/ ;
https://sustainability-directory.com/corporate/esg/greencrowding-a-new-form-of-greenwashing/

[6]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

https://www.esgvoices.com/post/green-claims-terms-greenwashing-greenshifting-and-more-
explained
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.8) Consider the following statements:

Statement I: Since 1979, the Arctic has warmed around four times faster than the global average.
Statement II: There is a lack of convection in higher latitudes like the Arctic.
Statement III: Land surfaces covered with snow generally have a higher albedo compared to bare surfaces.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct but only one of them explains Statement-I.
c) Only one of Statement-II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I.
d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct.

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement I is correct: The Arctic region has been experiencing rapid warming, with temperatures rising
nearly four times faster than the global average since 1979. This phenomenon, known as Arctic
amplification,is influenced by several key factors. The global temperatures have increased by around 1.3
degrees Celsius compared to the 1850-1900 baseline. However, this rise in temperatures is not uniform
across the planet. For instance, the Arctic has warmed 3.8 times faster than the global average since the
late 1970s, according to a 2022 study.
Statement II is correct: Convection occurs when air close to the ground is heated by the warm surface of
the Earth. In the tropics, where more sunlight can reach the surface compared to the Arctic, strong
convection takes place, causing warm air to rise. This vertical mixing distributes heat throughout the
atmosphere. However, in the Arctic, due to weak convection, the extra warming from the greenhouse
gases is not able to mix vertically and the heat remains concentrated near the surface. Thus Statement
II is the explanation for Statement I.
Statement III is correct: The relative amount (ratio) of light that a surface reflects compared to the total
incoming sunlight is called albedo. A surface with a high albedo will reflect more sunlight than a surface
with low albedo. Surfaces with high albedos include sand, snow and ice, and some urban surfaces, such as
concrete or light-colored stone. Surfaces with low albedos include forests, the ocean, and some urban
surfaces, such as asphalt. Thus, it is correct that snow has higher albedo but it is not an explanation for
why the Arctic has warmed four times faster than global average.
Correct explanation is: Sea ice keeps temperatures down in the polar regions, as its bright, white surface
reflects more sunlight back to space than liquid water. As the ice cover in the Arctic is melting, more land
or water is getting exposed to the Sun and more heat is getting absorbed, leading to a rise in
temperatures.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/why-temperatures-at-north-
pole-reached-20-degrees-celsius-above-average-9819140/
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change and its Impact
Subtopic:)

[7]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Q.9) Consider the following objectives:

1. Achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.
2. Reducing the emissions intensity of GDP by 45% by 2030, compared to 2005 levels.
3. Generating 50% of cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy
resources by 2030 .
4. Creating an additional carbon sink of 5 billion tonnes of CO₂ equivalent through additional forest and
tree cover by 2030.
How many of the above objectives has India submitted to United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) as a part of its updated Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs)?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
India’s climate commitments are submitted to the UNFCCC as part of its Intended Nationally Determined
Contributions (INDCs). India initially submitted its INDCs in 2015 ahead of the Paris Agreement, and later
updated its targets at COP26 in Glasgow (2021) under the umbrella of Panchamrit—a five-fold strategy for
climate action. This reflects India’s roadmap toward reducing emissions and promoting sustainable
development.
Statement 1 is incorrect. India committed to reaching net-zero carbon emissions by the year 2070. This
means that the total greenhouse gases India emits by then will be balanced by the amount it removes from
the atmosphere.
However, it is important to note that it is not a part of the INDC targets. It has updated its INDC targets at
the COP26 conference as part of India’s Panchamrit (five-point) climate pledge. These updated targets
will help India move towards Net Zero goal by 2070. It is a long term goal.
Statement 2 is correct. In its original INDC submitted in 2015, India had pledged to reduce the emissions
intensity of its GDP by 33% to 35% by 2030, compared to 2005 levels. However, this target was later
revised and updated to 45%. The updated commitment demonstrates a stronger ambition and was formally
communicated in 2022. This target is now part of India’s revised NDC, aligned with the announcements
made under the Panchamrit strategy.
Statement 3 is correct. India originally committed to achieving 40% of its electric power capacity from
non-fossil fuel sources by 2030 in its 2015 INDC. This target was successfully met ahead of schedule and,
therefore, the goal was revised upward to 50% as announced in the COP26 summit. This updated target
now forms part of India’s enhanced climate action strategy.
Statement 4 is incorrect. This target was part of India’s original INDC submitted in 2015. India committed
to creating additional forest and tree cover that could absorb between 2.5 and 3 billion tonnes of CO₂
equivalent by the year 2030 (not 5 billion tonnes). This target continues to be part of India’s current
commitments.
Source: https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1795071 ;
https://climateactiontracker.org/countries/india/targets/ ;
https://unfccc.int/sites/default/files/NDC/2022-
08/India%20Updated%20First%20Nationally%20Determined%20Contrib.pdf
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

[8]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Q.10) Which of the following institutions releases the Container Port Performance Index?
a) Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation (APEC)
b) World Bank
c) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)
d) World Trade Organisation (WTO)

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option b is correct: The Container Port Performance Index is published by the World Bank and the S&P
Global Market Intelligence. It gives a comparable assessment of the performance of ports based on vessel
time in ports. It ranks 405 container ports globally. Its primary aim is to identify areas for enhancement
for the benefit of multiple stakeholders in the global trading system and supply chains.
The index has been designed to act as a point of reference for important stakeholders in the global
economy, including port authorities and operators, national governments, development agencies, and
other public and private stakeholders in trade, logistics, and supply chain services.
Knowledge Base:
Highlights of the 2023 Container Port Performance Index:
1) The top 5 positions have been taken by Yangshan (China), Salalah (Oman), Cartagena (Colombia),
Tangier (Morocco) and Tanjung (Malaysia).
2) Visakhapatnam Port jumped from 115 in 2022 to 19 in the 2023 rankings, becoming the first Indian
port to reach the Global Top 20.
3) Mundra Port has risen to 27th rank (48 in 2022).
4) 7 other Indian ports have featured among top 100: Pipavav (41), Kamarajar (47), Cochin (63), Hazira (68),
Krishnapatnam (71), Chennai (80) and Jawaharlal Nehru (96).
Source: SFG ESSENTIAL, CURRENT AFFAIRS, QUARTERLY COMPILATION (July–September 2024), Page:
30-31
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Container Port Performance Index
Subtopic:)

Q.11) Consider the following:

1. Aerosols
2. Foam agents
3. Fire retardants
4. Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Options 1, 2, 3 are correct: HFCs are entirely man-made. They are primarily produced for use in
refrigeration, air-conditioning, insulating foams and aerosol propellants, with minor uses as solvents and
for fire protection.

[9]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Option 4 is incorrect: Although HFCs are entirely produced for use in refrigeration, insulating foams and
aerosol propellants and air-conditioning, with minor uses as flame retardants but they are not used for
making lubricants.
Source: UPSC CSE Pre 2023
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change and its Impact
Subtopic:)

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding the Perform, Achieve & Trade (PAT):
1. It is implemented by Solar Energy Corporation of India Limited under the Ministry of New and Renewable
energy (MNRE).
2. It is a regulatory instrument to reduce Specific Energy Consumption in energy intensive industries,
through an associated market based mechanism.
3. Thermal Power Plants, textiles and cement industries are covered under this scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Perform, Achieve & Trade (PAT) Scheme is implemented by the Bureau of
Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the Ministry of Power, not the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI)
under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE).
Statement 2 is correct: PAT is a market-based compliance mechanism that aims to improve energy
efficiency in energy-intensive industries by setting specific targets and allowing trading of Energy Saving
Certificates (ESCerts).
Statement 3 is correct: The PAT scheme covers multiple industrial sectors, including Thermal Power
Plants, Cement, Textiles, Iron & Steel, Paper & Pulp, Fertilizers, Refineries etc. The Perform-Achieve-
Trade (PAT) scheme currently covers designated consumers from thirteen energy-intensive sectors,
including thermal power plants, refineries, iron & steel, and textiles. With the launch of the Carbon Credit
Trading Scheme (CCTS) in June 2023, nine GHG-intensive sectors (e.g., refineries, iron & steel, textiles) will
transition to CCTS by 2026-27, while the remaining four sectors, including thermal power plants, will stay
under PAT.
Source:) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) | BUREAU OF ENERGY EFFICIENCY, Government of India,
Ministry of Power
Press Release: Press Information Bureau
Andhra Pradesh is best performing State under PAT scheme: BEE chief
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies
Subtopic:)

Q.13) Consider the following:

1. Growth of invasive alien species
2. Destruction of kelp forests
3. Coral Bleaching
4. Harmful Algal Bloom

[10]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

5. Death of several marine species

How many of the above are likely adverse impacts of marine heat waves?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Marine heat waves (MHWs) are prolonged periods of abnormally high sea surface temperatures. They
have severe consequences for marine ecosystems, disrupting biodiversity, fisheries, and oceanic weather
patterns.
Option 1 is correct: Warmer Ocean temperatures create favorable conditions for invasive alien species
that thrive in higher temperatures.These species can outcompete native marine life, altering food chains
and destabilizing ecosystems.
Option 2 is correct: Kelp forests, which are vital underwater ecosystems, suffer extreme damage during
marine heat waves. Elevated temperatures weaken kelp and make them more susceptible to grazing by
marine herbivores like sea urchins, leading to widespread loss of these forests.
Option 3 is correct: Coral bleaching is one of the most well-known consequences of marine heat waves.
When ocean temperatures rise beyond a threshold, corals expel the symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) that
provide them with nutrients and color. This results in coral bleaching, making them more vulnerable to
disease and mortality.
Option 4 is correct: Warmer waters can trigger harmful algal blooms (HABs). These blooms can produce
toxins that are dangerous to marine life and humans. They deplete oxygen levels in the water, leading to
dead zones where marine organisms cannot survive.
Option 5 is correct: Heat waves cause large-scale fish, marine mammals and sea birds die-offs due to
oxygen depletion and thermal stress. Warmer waters hold less dissolved oxygen, making it difficult for fish
to survive.
Source:) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/marine-heat-waves-impact-
cause-explained-8855048/
In hot water: exploring marine heatwaves - NOAA Research
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change and its Impact
Subtopic:)

Q.14) With reference to Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL),consider the following statements:
1. It is a joint venture of Public Sector Undertakings under the Ministry of Power, Government of India.
2. It is responsible for implementation of the PM-KUSUM scheme in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL) is a registered company and a joint
venture of NTPC Limited, Power Finance Corporation Limited, REC Limited, and POWERGRID Corporation

[11]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

of India Limited. It operates under the Ministry of Power, Government of India and focuses on energy
efficiency projects.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The PM-KUSUM (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan
Mahabhiyan) scheme is implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), not EESL.
The scheme primarily promotes solar energy adoption in the agricultural sector by supporting the
installation of solar pumps and grid-connected solar power plants.
Source:) About Us - Energy Efficiency Services Limited
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=1604289
https://pmkusum.mnre.gov.in/
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.15) Which one of the following statements is correct regarding “Snowblind Malware”, recently seen in the
news?
a) It is a zero-day exploit targeting Linux operating systems.
b) It is malware targeting GPS systems of military satellites.
c) It is malware designed to steal banking credentials by bypassing security features of Android devices.
d) It is ransomware attacking healthcare facilities across Europe.

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
A new malware Snowblind is targeting Android users to steal banking credentials. Snowblind Malware is an
Android banking malware designed to steal banking credentials by bypassing security features. It uses
a built-in Android security feature to bypass anti-tamper mechanisms. The malware repackages apps to
avoid detection of accessibility features that can extract sensitive information like login credentials and
gain remote access to the app.
The malware uses the 'seccomp' (Secure Computing) feature, which is part of the Linux kernel and
Android OS, to bypass anti-tampering protections. This allows it to gain access to app features without
detection. Snowblind has the capability to deactivate security features like biometric authentication and
two-factor verification, making it easier for attackers to gain unauthorized access to banking apps. The
malware is mostly active in Southeast Asia, although the exact number of affected devices is unknown.
Users are advised to avoid installing apps from untrusted sources and to remain vigilant about the app
permissions and behaviours.
Source: SFG ESSENTIAL, CURRENT AFFAIRS, QUARTERLY COMPILATION (July–September 2024), Page: 54
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Snowblind Malware
Subtopic:)

Q.16) Consider the following processes:

1. Permafrost melting
2. Increasing density and area of forests
3. Increasing water vapour concentration in atmosphere
How many of the above are considered positive feedback mechanisms of climate change?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All Three
d) None

[12]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Positive feedback mechanisms in climate change are processes that amplify or accelerate the effects of
global warming. These feedbacks create a loop where an initial change in the climate leads to further
changes that enhance the original effect, often making the situation worse.
Option 1 is correct: Permafrost stores vast amounts of organic carbon. As global temperatures rise,
permafrost thaws, releasing methane and carbon dioxide, potent greenhouse gases, into the atmosphere.
This increased concentration of greenhouse gases further traps heat, leading to more warming and
consequently, more permafrost melting, creating a self-reinforcing cycle. Thus, the permafrost melting
represents a positive feedback mechanism.
Option 2 is incorrect: Forests absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere during photosynthesis. An
increase in forest density and area would lead to more carbon dioxide being absorbed, thus reducing the
greenhouse effect. Hence, this is a negative feedback mechanism.
Option 3 is correct: Water vapour is the most abundant greenhouse gas. As temperature rises, more water
evaporates, increasing water vapour in the atmosphere. This traps more heat, causing further warming.
This is strong positive feedback.
Source:) https://www.egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/53802/1/Unit-4.pdf
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change and its Impact
Subtopic:)

Q.17) Super-critical (SC), Ultra-super-critical (USC), and the Advanced Ultra Super Critical (AUSC)
technologies, recently seen in news, aim to improve the efficiency of:
a) Hydrogen fuel cells
b) Hydro-electric turbines
c) Coal-based thermal power plants
d) Solar photovoltaic cells

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Super-critical (SC), Ultra-super-critical (USC), and Advanced Ultra Super Critical (AUSC) technologies
are advanced thermal power generation technologies that have been in the news due to their potential to
enhance the efficiency and reduce emissions of coal-based power plants.
These technologies are critical for countries like India, where coal remains a major energy source, and
balancing environmental concerns with energy demands is a key priority. The technologies work by
operating at higher temperatures and pressures than conventional sub-critical boilers, thereby achieving
greater thermal efficiency and lower carbon dioxide emissions per unit of electricity generated.
Source:) https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/eschapter/echap10.pdf
https://www.financialexpress.com/business/infrastructure-what-is-a-supercritical-thermal-power-
plant-know-how-nlc-india-limiteds-first-coal-based-supercritical-thermal-power-plant-nuppl-would-
work-3131420/
https://indianexpress.com/article/india/ultra-supercritical-thermal-power-plants-proposed-in-
nagpur-5159484/
https://www.financialexpress.com/business/industry-funds-tie-up-for-demonstrative-ausc-thermal-
power-project-by-end-of-march-r-k-singh-2215355/
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies

[13]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Q.18) Consider the following factors:

1. Rise in sea surface temperature
2. Oil spills
3. Growth of sea grasses near coral reefs
How many of the above factors can contribute to the increased rates of coral bleaching?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Coral bleaching occurs when corals are stressed by changes in environmental conditions, causing them to
expel the symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae) that live in their tissues. These algae not only provide corals with
food but also give them their color. Without them, corals turn white and become vulnerable to disease and
death.
Option 1 is correct: Rise in sea surface temperature is a primary driver of coral bleaching. Corals are very
sensitive to temperature changes, and elevated temperatures stress them, causing them to expel their
symbiotic algae (zooxanthellae).
Option 2 is correct: Oil spills are a form of chemical pollution that can coat coral surfaces, reduce oxygen
exchange, and introduce toxins. Oil spills can directly damage and kill corals, and weaken them, making
them more susceptible to temperature related bleaching.
Option 3 is incorrect: Sea grasses are not a cause of coral bleaching. In fact, they often have a positive role
in marine ecosystems by improving water quality and reducing sedimentation. Their presence near reefs
is beneficial, not harmful.
Source:) https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2041457
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/pollution/oil-spill-could-devastate-mauritius-coral-reefs-say-
experts-72761
https://icriforum.org/about-coral-reefs/coral-reefs-and-seagrass/
https://ocean.si.edu/ocean-life/plants-algae/seagrass-and-seagrass-
beds#:~:text=Their%20roots%20trap%20and%20stabilize%20the%20sediment%2C,absorbing%20nutrie
nts%20in%20runoff%20from%20the%20land.
https://forumias.com/blog/fifth-mass-coral-bleaching-event/
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/tropical-seagrass-meadows-are-sand-factories-
that-could-protect-coral-reef-islands-from-sea-level-rise-87763
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Ocean acidification and ozone depletion
Subtopic:)

Q.19) Consider the following events:

1. The First World Climate Conference (WCC) was organized.
2. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was established.
3. The First United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) was held.
4. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) came into force.
Arrange the above events in the correct chronological order:
a) 1-2-3-4
b) 1-3-2-4
c) 3-1-2-4

[14]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

d) 3-2-1-4

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Event 1: First World Climate Conference (WCC): Held in 1979 in Geneva, this conference was organized by
the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) and marked one of the first major international meetings
on climate change.
Event 2: Establishment of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC): The
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was established in 1988 by the WMO and the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to assess scientific information related to climate change.
Event 3: United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED): Also known as the Earth
Summit, this conference took place in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14 June 1992, focusing on sustainable
development and resulting in key documents and agreements.
Event 4: UNFCCC Entering into Force: The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(UNFCCC), adopted during the Earth Summit in 1992, entered into force on 21 March 1994, aiming to
stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations to prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the climate
system.
Source:) https://wmo.int/media/magazine-article/history-of-climate-
activities#:~:text=The%201979%20World%20Climate%20Conference%2C%20now%20usually%20referre
d%20to%20as,February%201979%20(Figure%202).
https://www.ipcc.ch/about/
https://www.un.org/en/conferences/environment/rio1992
https://unfccc.int/process-and-meetings/what-is-the-united-nations-framework-convention-on-
climate-change
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.20) Consider the following statements:

1. Junk DNA refers to non-coding regions of DNA that do not participate in coding for proteins.
2. In humans, the majority of DNA is non-coding, whereas bacteria have a higher proportion of coding
DNA.
3. Junk DNA has been shown to have no functional activity or significance in genetic processes at all.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 2 and 3 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Researchers have used AI to discover potential cancer drivers hidden within the so-called ‘junk’
regions of DNA.
Statement 1 is correct: Junk DNA refers to non-coding regions of DNA that do not code for proteins.
DNA contains instructions (coding) that are used to create proteins in the cell. However, the amount of
DNA contained inside each cell is vast and not all of the genetic sequences present within a DNA molecule
actually code for a protein.

[15]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Statement 2 is correct: In humans, the majority of DNA (approximately 98%) is non-coding, whereas
bacteria have a higher proportion of coding DNA (around 90-95%). This is because bacteria have smaller
genomes and more efficient gene organization.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Recent research suggests that some junk DNA may have functional activity,
indicating that it might play roles that are not yet fully understood, such as exaptation. It plays important
roles in gene regulation, cell differentiation, and other biological processes. These regions can act as
enhancers, promoters, or insulators, influencing the activity of genes.
Source: SFG ESSENTIAL, CURRENT AFFAIRS, QUARTERLY COMPILATION (July–September 2024), Page:
56
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Junk DNA
Subtopic:)

Q.21) With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change
into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable
Development (WBCSD).
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statements 1 and 2 are correct and 3 is incorrect: The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) is an
initiative of the European Union (EU) to strengthen dialogue and cooperation on climate change with
developing countries most vulnerable to climate change.
The GCCA focuses on the Least Developed Countries (LDCs) and the Small Island Developing States ( SIDS),
which are often the most affected by climate change but have the fewest resources to tackle it. The
initiative was launched in 2007 and is coordinated by the European Commission (EC) (and not by World
Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)).
Source: UPSC CSE Pre 2017
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.22) Consider the following statements about the Montreal Protocol:

1. It primarily aims to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases from various sources.
2. It is one of the few environmental treaties to achieve universal ratification.
3. The Kigali amendment to the protocol aims to phase down the production and consumption of
hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only

[16]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

d) 3 only

Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a landmark international agreement,
signed in 1987, designed to protect the Earth's ozone layer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. The Montreal Protocol regulates the production and consumption of nearly
100 man-made chemicals referred to as ozone depleting substances (ODS). When released into the
atmosphere, those chemicals damage the stratospheric ozone layer, Earth’s protective shield that protects
humans and the environment from harmful levels of ultraviolet radiation from the sun.
Statement 2 is correct. Adopted on 16 September 1987, the Montreal Protocol is to date one of the rare
environmental treaties to achieve universal ratification. It has been ratified by 198 parties (197 states and
the European Union), making it the first universally ratified treaty in United Nations history.
Statement 3 is correct. The Kigali amendment to the protocol addresses climate change by phasing down
the production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
1. Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), were introduced as non-ozone depleting alternatives to support the timely
phase-out of CFCs and HCFCs.
2. HFCs are now widespread in air conditioners, refrigerators, aerosols, foams and other products.
3. While these chemicals do not deplete the stratospheric ozone layer, some of them have high global
warming potential and thus, the Kigali amendment was brought about to phase them out.
Knowledge Base:
The Montreal Protocol phases down the consumption and production of the different ODS in a step-wise
manner, with different timetables for developed and developing countries (referred to as “Article 5
countries”). Under this treaty, all parties have specific responsibilities related to the phase out of the
different groups of ODS, control of ODS trade, annual reporting of data, national licensing systems to
control ODS imports and exports, and other matters. Developing and developed countries have equal but
differentiated responsibilities, but most importantly, both groups of countries have binding, time-targeted,
and measurable commitments.
Source:) https://www.unep.org/ozonaction/who-we-are/about-montreal-protocol
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.23) Consider the following statements:

1. It is convened by the United Nations Environment Programme – Finance Initiative (UNEP-FI).
2. It was launched in the year 2021.
3. It is a group of leading banks from around the world committed to aligning their lending and investment
activities with the goal of achieving Net Zero greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
Which one of the following organizations/initiatives is described in the above statements?
a) Net Zero Banking Alliance (NZBA)
b) Network for Greening the Financial System (NGFS)
c) Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials (PCAF)
d) Task force on climate-related financial disclosures (TFCD)

Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: The Net Zero Banking Alliance (NZBA) is a bank-led initiative and is convened by the
UN Environment Programme Finance Initiative (UNEP FI). It brings together leading banks around the

[17]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

world to align their lending and investment portfolios with net-zero emissions by 2050, which aligns
with global climate goals. The Net Zero Banking Alliance (NZBA) is a global initiative that plays a key role in
the financial sector’s response to climate change. It was launched in 2021. It functions under the umbrella
of the Glasgow Financial Alliance for Net Zero (GFANZ).
Option b is incorrect: The Network for Greening the Financial System is a global network of central banks
and supervisory authorities advocating a more sustainable financial system. It aims to analyse the
consequences of climate change for the financial system and to redirect global financial flows in order to
enable low-carbon economic growth. It was created at the Paris One Planet Summit in 2017 and its
secretariat is hosted by the Banque de France.
Option c is incorrect: Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials (PCAF) is a global partnership of
financial institutions that work together to develop and implement a harmonized approach to assess and
disclose the greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions associated with their loans and investments. It was launched
in 2015.
Option d is incorrect: Task Force on Climate-related Financial Disclosures (TFCD) was created in 2015 by
the Financial Stability Board (FSB) to develop consistent climate-related financial risk disclosures for
companies, banks, and investors in providing information to stakeholders.
Source:)
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/green-banks-coalition-goes-bust-biggest-american-
fossil-funders-exit-net-zero-alliance
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/addressing-climate-risks-for-climate-finance-takes-
centrestage-76748
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.24) What is the primary objective of the Global Matchmaking Platform, recently seen in the news?
a) To address the issue of deforestation and forest degradation caused due to forest fires by connecting to
technical and financial solutions.
b) To promote decarbonisation of heavy-emitting industries in emerging and developing economies by
connecting to technical and financial solutions.
c) To facilitate financing to the environmentally friendly infrastructure projects in Least Developed
Countries by connecting to technical and financial solutions.
d) To improve coordination between local people with academicians for effectively addressing
environmental issues by connecting to technical and financial solutions.

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
1. The Global Matchmaking Platform is designed to fast-track the decarbonisation of heavy-emitting
industries in emerging and developing economies by connecting to technical and financial solutions.
2. It was Conceptualized at COP28 of UNFCCC and officially launched at COP29.
3. It was launched by the United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and the Climate
Club .
4. The matchmaking process aims to address the unique needs of different countries and provide the right
support.
Source:) https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/cop29-climate-club-launches-global-
matchmaking-platform-for-industrial-decarbonisation
https://globalmatchmakingplatform.climate-club.org/
Subject:) Environment

[18]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization

Subtopic:)

Q.25) Consider the following statements about the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha of the Parliament of India:
1. According to the Constitution of India, election of the Deputy Speaker needs to be held within 14 days
if his/her office falls vacant.
2. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker
shall be held on a date as fixed by the President.
3. S/he can resign by submitting his/her resignation to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 3

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Recently, there have been some concerns regarding the appointment of the Deputy Speaker in the Lok
Sabha.
Statement 1 is incorrect. As per Article 93 of the Constitution of India, the Lok Sabha is required to elect a
Deputy Speaker, whenever his office becomes vacant. The Article does not specify a time frame for this
election.
Statement 2 is incorrect. As per Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha,
the election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on a date fixed by the Speaker.
Statement 3 is correct. As per Article 94 of the Constitution of India, the Deputy Speaker can resign by
submitting his resignation to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. He can also be removed from the Office by a
resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the then members (absolute majority) of the House.
Source: SFG ESSENTIAL, CURRENT AFFAIRS, QUARTERLY COMPILATION (July–September 2024), Page: 2
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Legislature
Subtopic:)

Q.26) Consider the following statements:

Statement-I: India’s per capita carbon emissions is higher than that of the global average.
Statement-II: India is the third largest fossil carbon dioxide (CO2) emitting country in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II does not explain Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement I is incorrect: As per Economic Survey 2023-24, India’s per capita carbon emissions are only
about one-third of the global average, despite its size and rapid economic growth.
Statement II is correct: India ranks as the third-largest emitter of carbon dioxide globally, after China and
the United States. The largest absolute contributions to global fossil CO2 (carbon dioxide) emissions were

[19]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

from China (31%), the United States (13%), India (8%), and the EU 27 (7%). These four regions account for
59% of global fossil CO2 emissions, while the rest of the world contributed 41%. EU-27 represents 27 of the
most economically developed European countries.
Source:)
https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/eschapter/echap10.pdf
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/global-carbon-dioxide-emissions-set-
to-rise-08-over-2023-indias-contribution-to-go-up-46/article68860602.ece
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change and its Impact
Subtopic:)

Q.27) The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting (BRSR) framework, recently seen in news, is
developed by:
a) National Institution for Transforming India (NITI) Aayog
b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
c) Centre for Science and Environment (CSE)
d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
1. The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is a framework developed by the
Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to promote responsible and sustainable business practices
among listed companies in India.
2. BRSR was introduced in 2021 as a successor to the earlier Business Responsibility Reporting (BRR)
framework
3. The BRSR framework requires the top 1,000 listed companies (by market capitalization) on Indian stock
exchanges to report their ESG-related information in a structured manner.
4. It encompasses a wide range of parameters, including environmental impact, social initiatives,
governance practices, stakeholder engagement, and business ethics.
5. The objective is to provide stakeholders with a holistic view of a company's sustainability performance
and its contribution to the overall well-being of society.
Source:) https://www.indiabudget.gov.in/economicsurvey/doc/eschapter/echap10.pdf
Page 291
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies
Subtopic:)

Q.28) Consider the following statements regarding the Green Credit Programme (GCP):
1. It is a market-based mechanism which incentivises voluntary environmental activities of
people/organizations across diverse sectors through the issue of green credits.
2. The Forest Survey of India is designated as the implementing agency of GCP.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

[20]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Green Credit Programme (GCP) incentivises voluntary plantation activities around the country through
the issue of green credits, which shall be tradable across an under-development market platform.
Statement 1 is correct: The Green Credit Programme (GCP), notified in 2023, is a market-based
mechanism designed to incentivize voluntary environmental actions such as tree plantation. Participants
earn green credits, which are tradable units, based on scientifically defined methodologies. These credits
can be used to meet environmental commitments and promote sustainable practices. Individuals and
entities would be allowed to finance afforestation activities on these enlisted land parcels, in exchange for
green credits.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) is designated as
GCP administrator and is responsible for implementation and management of GCP. Green credits are
issued two years after the plantation of trees following a thorough evaluation by the ICFRE.
Source:) https://www.ceew.in/cef/quick-
reads/explains/gcp#:~:text=What%20is%20the%20Green%20Credit,an%20under%2Ddevelopment%20
market%20platform.
https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1967476
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.29) Consider the following reports related to climate change:

1. State of the Global Climate Report
2. Emissions Gap Report
3. Greenhouse Gas Bulletin
4. Adaptation Gap Report
How many of the above reports are published by the World Meteorological Organization (WMO)?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations dedicated
to meteorology, operational hydrology, and related geophysical sciences.. It publishes key reports that are
foundational to international climate action:
Option 1 is correct: State of the Global Climate Report – Published annually by WMO, this report provides
data on climate trends such as rising global temperatures, sea-level rise etc. The recent State of the Global
Climate 2024 confirms that 2024 was the warmest year on record, with a global temperature of 1.55 ± 0.13
°C above the pre-industrial baseline.
Option 3 is correct: Greenhouse Gas Bulletin – Also released by WMO, this bulletin monitors atmospheric
concentrations of the main greenhouse gases: carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), and nitrous oxide (N₂O).
As per the recent report, greenhouse gas levels around the globe surged to a new record in 2023, rising by
more than 10% in just two decades.
The other two reports are not published by WMO:
Option 2 is incorrect: Emissions Gap Report – Released by the United Nations Environment Programme
(UNEP), this report assesses the gap between projected greenhouse gas emissions and the reductions

[21]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

required to meet the temperature targets under the Paris Agreement. It evaluates national pledges (NDCs)
and outlines pathways to bridge the gap.
Option 4 is incorrect: Adaptation Gap Report – Also published by UNEP, this report evaluates the current
state of climate adaptation efforts globally. It covers progress on adaptation planning, implementation, and
financing, and identifies shortcomings, especially in developing countries.
Source:) https://www.unep.org/resources/emissions-gap-report-
2024#:~:text=As%20climate%20impacts%20intensify%20globally,the%20challenge%20of%20global%20
warming.
https://www.unep.org/resources/adaptation-gap-report-
2024#:~:text=The%20report%20calls%20for%20nations%20to%20step,nationally%20determined%20co
ntributions%2C%20due%20in%20early%202025.
https://wmo.int/news/media-centre/greenhouse-gas-concentrations-surge-again-new-record-
2023#:~:text=The%20WMO%20Greenhouse%20Gas%20Bulletin,larger%20sources%20of%20greenhous
e%20gases.
https://wmo.int/publication-series/state-of-global-climate-
2024#:~:text=The%20clear%20signs%20of%20human,to%20protect%20lives%20and%20livelihoods.
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.30) Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Water Convention:
1. It aims to ensure the sustainable use of transboundary water resources by facilitating cooperation.
2. It is a legally binding instrument that promotes the sustainable management of shared water resources.
3. The convention replaces the bilateral and multilateral agreements for specific basins or aquifers.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The United Nations Water Convention, also known as the Convention on the
Protection and Use of Transboundary Watercourses and International Lakes, promotes the protection
and sustainable use of transboundary waters in a reasonable and equitable manner. It requires countries
to use shared water resources fairly, manage them sustainably, and cooperate to reduce transboundary
impacts.
Statement 2 is correct: The convention is indeed a legally binding international instrument. It was
adopted in Helsinki in 1992 and entered into force in 1996. It aims to promote the sustainable management
of shared water resources, prevent conflicts, support the implementation of the Sustainable Development
Goals (SDGs), and foster peace and regional cooperation.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The convention does not replace bilateral or multilateral agreements for
specific water bodies like basins or aquifers. Instead, it complements and encourages the establishment,
implementation, and further development of such agreements. Countries that share transboundary
waters are expected to cooperate by entering into specific agreements and creating joint bodies to manage
these resources, but the convention itself serves as a framework to guide these efforts.
Source: SFG ESSENTIAL, CURRENT AFFAIRS, QUARTERLY COMPILATION (July–September 2024), Page:
39

[22]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Subject:) Current Affairs

Topic:) United Nations Water Convention
Subtopic:)

Q.31) In the context of India’s preparation for climate-smart agriculture, consider the following statements:
1. The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by the climate change, Agriculture
and Food Security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under the consultative group on International Agricultural Research
(CGIAR) headquartered in France.
3. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the
CGIAR’s research centres.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. The Climate-Smart Village project in India is a program of CGIAR Research
Program on Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS). The CCAFS started piloting the
Climate-Smart Village in 2012 in Africa (Burkina Faso, Ghana, Mali, Niger, Senegal, Kenya, Ethiopia,
Tanzania, and Uganda) and South Asia (Bangladesh, India, and Nepal).
Statement 2 is correct. Climate Change, Agriculture and Food Security (CCFAS) is carried out under
CGIAR (formerly the Consultative Group for International Agricultural Research). The headquarters of
CGIAR is in Montpellier, France. CGIAR is a global partnership that unites international organizations
engaged in research about food security.
Statement 3 is correct. International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) is a
CGIAR Research Center. ICRISAT is a non-profit, non-political public international research organization
that conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa with a wide array of
partners throughout the world.
Source: UPSC CSE Pre 2021
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies
Subtopic:)

Q.32) Article 2 of the Paris Agreement on Climate Change is related to:

a) assisting member countries in implementing their Nationally Determined Contributions through
voluntary international cooperation.
b) the goal of limiting global temperature increase to well below 2 degrees Celsius, while pursuing efforts
to limit the increase to 1.5 degrees.
c) the importance of averting, minimizing and addressing loss and damage associated with the adverse
effects of climate change.
d) a global stocktake every 5 years, to assess collective progress toward achieving the purpose of the
agreement.

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.

[23]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

1. The Paris Agreement aims to keep global temperature rise of this century well below 2 degrees Celsius
above pre-industrial levels and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase even further to 1.5
degrees Celsius.
Option a is incorrect: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement assists governments in implementing their
NDCs(nationally determined contributions) through voluntary international cooperation. It provides the
framework for countries to voluntarily cooperate in mitigating the greenhouse gas emissions and achieve
their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) through market and non-market mechanisms.
Option b is correct: Article 2 of the Paris Agreement- seeks to strengthen the global response to climate
change, reaffirms the goal of limiting global temperature increase to well below 2 degrees Celsius, while
pursuing efforts to limit the increase to 1.5 degrees.
Option c is incorrect: Loss and damage is addressed under Article 8 of the Paris Agreement. It refers to
the need to address the adverse impacts of climate change that cannot be mitigated or adapted to, such as
rising sea levels, extreme weather events, and loss of biodiversity. The Warsaw International Mechanism
for Loss and Damage, established in 2013, is central to this effort, focusing on supporting vulnerable
countries and communities.
Option d is incorrect: The Global Stocktake is addressed under Article 14 of the Paris Agreement. It is a
periodic process, occurring every five years, to assess the collective progress made by countries towards
achieving the long-term goals of the Paris Agreement, including limiting global temperature rise to well
below 2°C and pursuing efforts to limit it to 1.5°C. It evaluates progress in mitigation, adaptation, and the
means of implementation.
Source:) https://unfccc.int/most-requested/key-aspects-of-the-paris-agreement
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.33) If a chemical is added to the Annexure III of the Rotterdam Convention, what does it indicates:
a) the international trade of that chemical is completely banned.
b) the chemical is subject to the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure.
c) the chemical shall not be used in agriculture or the food processing industry.
d) approval of the government will be required to use that chemical in industries.

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Rotterdam Convention aims to promote shared responsibility and co-operation in the international
trade of certain hazardous chemicals. It provides a framework for countries to exchange information about
chemicals that may pose risks to human health and the environment. If a chemical is added to Annex III
of the Rotterdam Convention, it means that the chemical is now subject to the Prior Informed Consent
(PIC) procedure.
Under the PIC procedure, countries must inform each other before exporting or importing a chemical listed
in Annex III. The importing country has the right to either consent to or refuse the import of that chemical,
based on their national regulations and risk assessment. This procedure is designed to ensure that
countries are fully aware of the chemicals being traded and can make informed decisions to protect human
health and the environment..
Source:) https://www.pic.int/Portals/5/ConventionText/UNEP-FAO-RC-CONVTEXT-2017.English.pdf
https://www.pic.int/Implementation/FinalRegulatoryActions/FRAEvaluationToolkit/RiskEvaluationsth
atsatisfyAnnexII/tabid/4997/language/en-US/Default.aspx
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization

[24]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Q.34) Consider the following pairs of carbon and their descriptions:

Type of Carbon Description
1. Teal Carbon Carbon stored in non-tidal
freshwater wetlands.
2. Black Carbon Carbon released through the
burning of fossil fuels.
3. Grey Carbon Carbon stored in terrestrial plants
and forests
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Carbon exists in multiple forms in the environment. Each type of carbon—based on its source, behaviour,
or storage—plays a unique role in the Earth’s carbon cycle and influences climate change differently.
Pair 1 is correct. Teal Carbon refers to the carbon stored in non-tidal freshwater wetlands, such as
peatlands, swamps, and inland marshes. These ecosystems act as significant carbon sinks, capable of
storing large amounts of organic carbon both in vegetation and in their water-logged soils. This carbon
sequestration plays a vital role in climate mitigation. Unlike Blue Carbon, which is associated with coastal
and marine ecosystems, Teal Carbon is specific to inland freshwater systems.
Pair 2 is correct. Black Carbon (also known as soot) is a type of carbonaceous particulate matter formed
by the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels, biofuels, and biomass. It is a short-lived but highly potent
climate pollutant, with strong light-absorbing properties that contribute to atmospheric warming. It is
especially harmful in snow-covered regions, where it reduces surface albedo and accelerates melting. Black
Carbon is not stored but emitted into the atmosphere, and it plays a significant role in air pollution and
climate change.
Pair 3 is incorrect. Grey Carbon refers to the embodied carbon released during industrial processes,
particularly those involved in manufacturing and infrastructure development. This includes carbon
emissions from the production of cement, steel, and other construction materials. Grey Carbon is also
associated with the indirect emissions that occur across a product’s supply chain. However, carbon stored
in terrestrial ecosystems like forests, grasslands, and soil is called Green Carbon.
Knowledge Base:

[25]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/indias-first-teal-carbon-
study-bets-on-wetlands-to-address-the-challenges-of-climate-adaptation-and-
resilience/article68618586.ece ; https://www.ccacoalition.org/short-lived-climate-pollutants/black-
carbon#:~:text=Black%20carbon%2C%20commonly%20known%20as,%2C%20agriculture%2C%20and%
20human%20health. ; https://www.usgs.gov/media/images/carbon-rainbow
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies
Subtopic:)

Q.35) With reference to the Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) in India, consider the
following statements:
1. It is also known as Bhu-Aadhaar and it is a unique alphanumeric code assigned to each individual land
parcel.
2. It is a permanent unique id for a land parcel for all time.
3. It is being implemented by the Survey of India (SoI) in collaboration with the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: The Unique Land Parcel Identification Number (ULPIN) is also referred to as Bhu-
Aadhaar. Its purpose is to ensure a standardized system for the identification of land parcels across the
country. It is a unique identifier where each land parcel in India will have a unique 14-digit number that
can be used to access land records and other relevant data. ULPIN may include ownership details of the
plot besides its size and longitudinal and latitudinal details.
Statement 2 is incorrect: ULPIN is not a permanent unique id for a land parcel. It can change if the
geometry of the parcel changes i.e. in case of mutation etc.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The ULPIN project is being implemented by the Department of Land Resources,
Ministry of Rural Development.
Source: SFG ESSENTIAL, CURRENT AFFAIRS, QUARTERLY COMPILATION (July–September 2024), Page: 60
https://dolr.gov.in/frequently-asked-questions/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Government Schemes in News
Subtopic:)

Q.36) Cloud-seeding a technique used to modify weather by enhancing the cloud's ability to generate
rain.In this context consider the following statements:
Statement I: Cloud seeding can be achieved by releasing Silver iodide in the atmosphere.
Statement-II: Silver iodide aids in the creation of ice nuclei in the clouds.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.

[26]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Cloud seeding, also known as artificial rain, is a weather modification technique that aims to enhance
precipitation by introducing substances into clouds to stimulate rainfall.
Statement-I is correct. The science behind cloud seeding involves dispersing materials such as silver
iodide, potassium iodide, or dry ice into clouds or atmosphere to encourage the formation of rain or snow.
Statement-II is correct. Silver iodide and dry ice serve as nuclei around which water droplets are
formed. Silver iodide (AgI) is a common ice nucleus used in cloud seeding because it has a crystal structure
similar to ice, making it an effective surface for water vapor to freeze onto. Dry ice (solid carbon dioxide) is
another effective ice nucleus, as its extremely cold temperature can induce ice formation in supercooled
clouds.
Thus, both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
Source:) https://www.indiatoday.in/science/story/what-is-cloud-seeding-the-science-behind-
artificial-rain-that-delhis-air-needs-2635857-2024-11-19
https://www.hindustantimes.com/india-news/what-is-cloud-seeding-all-about-artificial-rain-used-
when-aqi-is-high-101732095089202.html
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies
Subtopic:)

Q.37) Sometimes seen in the news, the Changwon Initiative is related to:
a) Transboundary movement of Hazardous substances
b) Cryosphere preservation
c) Combating land degradation and desertification
d) Marine pollution control

Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The Changwon Initiative was launched by the Republic of Korea during the 10th session of the
Conference of the Parties (COP10) to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
in 2011, held in Changwon, South Korea. Its primary goal is to support global efforts in achieving Land
Degradation Neutrality (LDN), which aims to balance land degradation with land restoration, thereby
maintaining or improving the amount of healthy and productive land resources. The initiative focuses on
enhancing scientific processes, mobilizing resources, facilitating partnerships, and promoting sustainable
land management practices to combat desertification and land degradation worldwide.
Source: https://www.unccd.int/resources/publications/changwon-initiative-first-decade-highlights ;
https://www.unccd.int/land-and-life/land-degradation-neutrality/overview
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.38) Recently seen in news, the term "hydroclimate whiplash" refers to:
a) sudden changes in atmospheric pressure leading to storms.
b) rapid shifts between extremely wet and extremely dry weather conditions.

[27]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

c) long phases of flooding conditions in a region.

d) immediate transitions from calm to windy conditions.

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Hydroclimate whiplash refers to rapid swings between intensely wet and dangerously dry weather
conditions in a region. This phenomenon has become more frequent globally due to climate change,
leading to increased occurrences of both floods and droughts. For instance,
Los Angeles has also experienced wildfires due to Hydroclimate whiplash. These abrupt transitions pose
challenges for water management, disaster preparedness, and ecosystem stability, as infrastructure and
natural systems struggle to adapt to such volatile conditions.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/climate-change/what-is-hydroclimate-whiplash-and-how-
did-it-fuel-the-los-angeles-wildfires
https://indianexpress.com/article/opinion/editorials/express-view-on-california-fires-failure-to-
extinguish-9781090/
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change and its Impact
Subtopic:)

Q.39) Consider the following statements about The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI):
1. It is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Power, Government of India.
2. It annually organizes the World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS).
3. One of its goals is to enable sustainable food production and nutritional security through bio-based
agricultural inputs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 3 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans) c
Exp) option c is the correct answer.
The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is a globally recognized, independent research organization
that works towards sustainable development. Based in New Delhi, TERI engages in research, policy
advocacy, and capacity-building across areas such as energy, environment, climate change, and resource
efficiency. It is not a government body but collaborates with national and international stakeholders to
promote sustainability.
Statement 1 is incorrect. TERI is an independent, not-for-profit research institute. It is not under the
Ministry of Power or any other government ministry. While it partners with government agencies, it
functions autonomously.
Statement 2 is correct. The World Sustainable Development Summit (WSDS) is TERI’s annual flagship
event. It brings together global leaders, researchers, and policymakers to discuss pathways for sustainable
development.
Statement 3 is correct. TERI’s goals are:
● Enhancing access to clean energy for all
● Helping a global transition to renewable energy pathways
● Enhance energy efficiency, especially in industries, public utilities and buildings

[28]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

● Facilitating more efficient use of materials, especially iron and cement

● Enhancing conservation, utilization of and access to water, including watershed management
● Enabling the planning and governance of environmentally sustainable cities through green buildings
and through management of solid waste, sewage, sanitation, mobility and air quality
● Building resilience to adverse impacts of climate change due to cyclones and variations in hydrology
and temperature
● Accelerating pollution abatement through innovative policies and environment treatment products
● Enhancing ecosystem services, especially in forestry and biodiversity
● Developing green mobility solutions
● Enabling sustainable food production and nutritional security through quality planting material,
bio-based agricultural inputs and crop diversification
● Developing innovative solutions for clean air, regionally and in cities
Source: https://www.teriin.org/mission-and-goals ; https://www.teriin.org/event/world-sustainable-
development-summit-
2024#:~:text=The%2023rd%20edition%20of%20the,Sustainable%20Development%20and%20Climate%2
0Justice.
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.40) Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by
hydrogen?
a) Hydrogen peroxide
b) Hydronium
c) Oxygen
d) Water vapour

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Option d is correct: The exhaust air from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles (FCEVs) powered by hydrogen
consists of pure water vapor. FCEVs emit only water vapor, making them locally emission-free and
contributing to cleaner air in cities.
Source: UPSC CSE Pre 2024
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies
Subtopic:)

Q.41) Consider the following statements:

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus
cause a warming effect.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

[29]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Whether a given cloud will heat or cool the surface depends on several factors, including the cloud’s
altitude, its size, and the make-up of the particles that form the cloud.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the
Earth.
Statement 2 is incorrect: High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time,
they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward,
thereby warming the surface of the Earth.
Source: UPSC CSE Pre 2022
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change and its Impact
Subtopic:)

Q.42) Consider the following gases:

1. Water Vapour
2. Chlorofluorocarbon
3. Perfluorocarbon
4. Sulphur Hexafluoride
5. Argon
6. Xenon
How many of the gases given above are greenhouse gases?
a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The atmosphere of our planet earth acts as an insulating blanket, which could trap the solar radiation to
keep the earth warm enough to support the living things. The greenhouse gases (GHGs) in the atmosphere
are responsible for trapping the heat radiated from the Earth Surface. Thus, our planet earth requires the
natural greenhouse effect to maintain the global temperature to support life. However, lately, the
concentration of the GHGs has been increasing at an alarming rate.
Option 1 is correct. Water Vapour is a greenhouse gas. It's the most abundant GHG on earth.
Option 2 is correct. Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) is a greenhouse gas. CFCs are very effective at trapping
heat in the atmosphere, contributing to the greenhouse effect and global warming. CFCs are also known
for their ability to deplete the ozone layer in the stratosphere, which protects us from harmful ultraviolet
radiation.
Option 3 is correct. Perfluorocarbon (PFC) is a greenhouse gas. PFCs have a 100-year global warming
potential between 6,500 and 9,200, meaning they trap significantly more heat than carbon dioxide.
Option 4 is correct. Sulphur Hexafluoride is a greenhouse gas. It is a synthetic, colorless, odorless, and
non-flammable gas used in the electrical industry, particularly in high-voltage equipment like circuit
breakers and gas-insulated switchgear.
Option 5 is incorrect. Argon is not a greenhouse gas. It is a noble gas that is chemically inert and doesn't
interact with infrared radiation, which is crucial for trapping heat in the atmosphere.
Option 6 is incorrect. Xenon is not a greenhouse gas. It is not considered a greenhouse gas because of its
chemical inertness and lack of interaction with infrared radiation.

[30]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Source:) https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/60009/1/Unit12.pdf
https://egyankosh.ac.in/bitstream/123456789/83531/3/Block-1.pdf
https://science.nasa.gov/earth/climate-change/steamy-relationships-how-atmospheric-water-vapor-
amplifies-earths-greenhouse-
effect/#:~:text=Water%20vapor%20is%20Earth's%20most,gases%20keep%20our%20planet%20livable.
https://www.eea.europa.eu/help/glossary/eea-glossary/perfluorocarbon
https://www.bbc.com/news/science-environment-
49567197#:~:text=It's%20the%20most%20powerful%20greenhouse,prevent%20short%20circuits%20and
%20accidents.
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change and its Impact
Subtopic:)

Q.43) Consider the following pairs:

Term Description
1. Carbon Footprint It refers to the total set of greenhouse gas emissions emitted directly
or indirectly by an individual or entity.
2. Climate Sensitivity It refers to the total net amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) that can still
be emitted by human activities while limiting global warming to a
specified level.

3. Carbon Bombs An oil or gas project that will result in at least a billion tonnes of CO2
emissions over its lifetime.
4. Carbon Budget The global temperature rise following a doubling of CO2 concentration
in the atmosphere compared to pre-industrial levels.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correctly matched: A carbon footprint refers to the total amount of greenhouse gas (GHG)
emissions, expressed in carbon dioxide equivalents (CO2e), emitted directly and indirectly by an
individual, organization, product, or activity. It accounts for emissions from various sources such as
transportation, electricity usage, industrial production, and agriculture.
Pair 2 is incorrectly matched: Climate sensitivity is a term used by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
Change (IPCC) to describe to what extent rising levels of greenhouse gases affect the Earth’s temperature.
Climate sensitivity is typically defined as the global temperature rise following a doubling of CO2
concentration in the atmosphere compared to pre-industrial levels. Pre-industrial CO2 was about 260
parts per million (ppm), so a doubling would be at roughly 520 ppm. This metric helps scientists predict
long-term climate changes and assess the severity of global warming.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: A carbon bomb refers to “an oil or gas project that will result in at least a
billion tonnes of CO2 emissions over its lifetime.”
Whenever coal, oil, or gas is extracted it results in pollution and environmental degradation. Further,
carbon emissions take place in particularly large amounts when fuel is burned.

[31]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Pair 4 is incorrectly matched: A carbon budget refers to the total net amount of carbon dioxide (CO2) that
can still be emitted by human activities while limiting global warming to a specified level. It provides a
scientific guideline for emission reductions to prevent catastrophic climate change.
Source:) https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=1946395
https://ccd.gujarat.gov.in/what-is-carbon-
footprint.htm#:~:text=A%20carbon%20footprint%20is%20the,by%20an%20individual%20or%20entity.
https://www.metoffice.gov.uk/research/climate/understanding-climate/climate-sensitivity-
explained#:~:text=How%20is%20climate%20sensitivity%20defined,be%20at%20roughly%20520%20pp.
https://www.nature.org/en-us/get-involved/how-to-help/carbon-footprint-
calculator/#:~:text=What%20is%20a%20carbon%20footprint,start%20making%20a%20big%20differenc
e.
Explained: What are ‘carbon bombs’, why environmentalists want them defused? | Explained News - The
Indian Express
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change Mitigation Strategies
Subtopic:)

Q.44) With reference to the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), consider the following
statements:
1. It was an outcome of the Stockholm Conference on the Human Environment in 1972.
2. Along with the World Meteorological Organization (WMO), it established the Intergovernmental Panel
on Climate Change (IPCC).
3. It releases the State of Global Air Report annually.
4. It started the Earth Hour initiative to promote awareness about environmental issues among the general
public.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 and 4
d) 3 and 4

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is the leading global authority on the environment,
working to coordinate international environmental efforts and assist countries in implementing sound
environmental policies.
Statement 1 is correct: UNEP was created in 1972 following the Stockholm Conference on the Human
Environment, which was the first major UN conference on environmental issues.
Statement 2 is correct: In 1988, UNEP and the World Meteorological Organization (WMO) jointly
established the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) to provide scientific assessments on
climate change.
Statement 3 is incorrect: State of Global Air Report is released by the Health Effects Institute (HEI), an
independent U.S.-based nonprofit research organization, in partnership with UNICEF.
Important Reports by UNEP are Emission Gap Report, Global Environment Outlook, and Adaptation Gap
Report.
Statement 4 is incorrect: Earth Hour is a global movement uniting people to take action on environmental
issues and protect the planet. It is organized by the World Wildlife Fund (WWF). It takes place towards

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SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

the end of March every year. “Earth Hour” encourages people to switch off all lights for an hour, from 8:30
p.m. to 9:30 p.m. local time, to promote awareness of climate change challenges and energy conservation.
Source:) https://www.un.org/en/conferences/environment/stockholm1972
https://wmo.int/topics/climate-
change#:~:text=WMO's%20response,and%20adapt%20to%20its%20impacts.
https://www.unep.org/resources/emissions-gap-report-
2024#:~:text=It's%20Climate%20Crunch%20Time.&text=The%202024%20UNEP%20Emissions%20Gap,A
n%20error%20occurred.
https://www.unep.org/who-we-are/frequently-asked-
questions#:~:text=UNEP%20is%20part%20of%20the,to%20the%20UN%20General%20Assembly.
Subject:) Environment
Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization
Subtopic:)

Q.45) Recently seen in news, the term "Axis of Resistance" refers to:
a) an alliance of governments and non-state groups that is opposing USA and Israeli influence in the
Middle East region.
b) a coalition of public and private entities that aims to report and prevent human rights violations in the
Middle East.
c) an intergovernmental organization that works to safeguard the economic interests of the Gulf region.
d) a group of Arab nations that have committed to prevent the proliferation of nuclear weapons in the
Gulf region.

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The Axis of Resistance is an informal Iranian-led political and military coalition in the Middle East.
It is an informal, loose knit alliance that includes both Sunni and Shia Muslim groups and Governments
in Yemen, Syria, Lebanon, Gaza and Iraq.
It was formed to deter threats from Israel and the US — Iran has seen Israel’s creation in 1948 as a means
for the US (and the West) to influence the region for its strategic interests.
How and when was the coalition formed?
The roots of the ‘axis of resistance’ go back to the Iranian Revolution of 1979. To expand its political and
military influence in the region where most powers are Sunni-majority nations, Iran’s new regime began to
support non-state actors. Another reason for this support was to deter threats from Israel and the US. This
support led to formation of an alliance between non-state groups and some regional governments.
Groups that are part of the Iran-led ‘axis of resistance’:
1) Hezbollah: It is a Shiite militant organisation. It was formed to fight Israeli forces that had invaded
Lebanon in 1982. Hezbollah is the biggest and most powerful member of the axis.
2) Hamas: A Palestinian Sunni militant group that has been running the region of Gaza since 2007.
3) PIJ: It is a Sunni Islamist militant group, which aims to establish an Islamic state in Palestine.
4) Houthis: It is a Zaydi Shia militant group which has been involved in the civil war in Yemen for over a
decade. They seized Sana’a, Yemen’s capital, in 2014, and today control northern Yemen.
Source: SFG ESSENTIAL, CURRENT AFFAIRS, QUARTERLY COMPILATION (July–September 2024), Page: 13
https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-axis-of-resistance-9487863/
Subject:) Current Affairs
Topic:) Axis of Resistance
Subtopic:)

[33]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Q.46) If ADOPT is coded as 27641 and BEACH is coded as 83152, then how will IMAGE be coded?
a) 57147
b) 57149
c) 67147
d) 67149

Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Here, the coded pattern is as follows:
A = 1, D = 4, O = 15 = 1 + 5 = 6, P = 16 = 1 + 6 = 7, T = 20 = 2 + 0 = 2;
Now reverse the order of codes for all digits and we get: 27641.
Similarly, B = 2, E = 5, A = 1, C = 3, H = 8; now reverse all the digits we get: 83152.
Similarly, I = 9, M = 13 = 1 + 3 = 4, A = 1, G = 7, E = 5; now reverse all the digits we get, i.e.,
57149, as the desired code.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

Q.47) Study the following information and answer the questions given below:
Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F, and G, are sitting in a row but not necessarily in the same order. All are facing
the north. A sits second to the left of B. Two people are sitting between B and D, who are not adjacent to A.
E is neither adjacent to B nor A. Neither E nor A sits at any of the ends of the row. Three people are seated
between C and F; F is not adjacent to E. Who among the following is/are sitting between A and C?
a) G and B
b) Only E
c) F and D
d) Only B

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
A sits second to the left of B.
A_B
Two people are sitting between B and D, who are not adjacent to A.
A_B_D
E is adjacent to neither B nor A.
Case I: A __ B _ _D E
Case II: A _ B _ E D_
Neither E nor A sits at the end of the row.
Hence, Both case I and II are eliminated.
Thus, _ A _ B _ E D
Three people are seated between C and F; F is not adjacent to E.
F A _B C E D
Therefore, the final arrangement is as below:
FAGBCED
Hence, only G and B sit between A and C.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning
Subtopic:)

[34]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Q.48) There are five student clubs in a university: Debate, Music, Drama, Science, and Art.
Following are schedule of each of these clubs:
1. The Debate club meets every 3rd day.
2. The Music club meets every 4th day.
3. The Drama club meets every 5th day.
4. The Science club meets every 6th day.
5. The Art club meets every 8th day.
How many times do all the five clubs meet on the same day within 240 days (inclusive)?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 5
d) 10

Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
We need to determine how often all the clubs meet on the same day.
This happens when the day count is a common multiple of 3, 4, 5, 6, and 8.
therefore, the LCM of (3, 4, 5, 6, 8)= 120
Thus, all five clubs meet together every 120 days.
Hence, in 240 days, all clubs will meet , 240/120= 2 times
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Q.49) There are two groups X and Y having 40 and 50 students, respectively. In Group X, the highest score
is 85 and the lowest score is 70. In Group Y, the highest score is 95 and the lowest score is 80. Five students
are shifted from Group X to Group Y.
Consider the following statements:
1. The average score of Group Y will definitely decrease.
2. The average score of Group X will definitely increase.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The average score of a group is given by:
Average = (Total Sum of Scores/Number of Students)
d
If students with lower scores move from one group to another, the average of the first group increases,
while the average of the second group decreases (and vice versa).
1. Effect on Group Y's Average
The lowest score in Group X is 70 and the highest is 85.
The lowest score in Group Y is 80, meaning Group Y has higher scores overall.
If the five students moving from Group X have scores in the range of 70 to 85, then they may have lower
scores than the average of Group Y.

[35]
SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

If they have scores below Group Y's average, the average of Group Y will decrease.
However, if the transferred students had scores higher than Group Y’s average, then the average of Group
Y could increase.
Since we do not know the exact scores of the transferred students, the average may or may not decrease.
Therefore, Statement 1 is NOT necessarily true.
2. Effect on Group X's Average
If lower-scoring students are moved, the remaining students in Group X will have a higher average, so
Group X’s average will increase.
Now, If higher-scoring students are moved, the remaining students in Group X will have a lower average,
so Group X’s average will decrease.
Since both cases are possible, Statement 2 is also not necessarily true.
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Quantitative Aptitude and Data Interpretation
Subtopic:)

Direction for the following one (1) item: Read the following three passages and answer the item that
follows the passage.

Passage I
Embracing gratitude can be a transformative experience in our lives. By taking just a few moments each
day to jot down three things we are thankful for, we can boost our happiness. This can also act as a gentle
reminder of the good things in our life, especially during challenging times. People who regularly express
gratitude often find themselves feeling more optimistic and less weighed down by stress. It’s like planting
seeds of positivity in our mind, which gradually grow into a protective shield against negativity.

Q.50) Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage?
a) The feeling of happiness is strongly tied to the expression of gratitude.
b) Being thankful for the good things in life helps us navigate tough times.
c) Gratitude shields us from negative thoughts by guiding us toward optimism.
d) Embracing gratitude has the power to positively transform our lives.

Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement a is incorrect. The passage states “By taking just a few moments each day to jot down three
things we are thankful for; we can boost our happiness”. However, the statement does not best reflect the
central idea of the passage as it highlights only one aspect of practicing gratitude.
Statement b is incorrect. Though the passage states “This (practising gratitude) can also act as a gentle
reminder of the good things in our life, especially during challenging times”, the statement does not best
reflect the central idea of the passage as it does not highlight the impact of gratitude in a holistic manner.
Statement c is incorrect. The passage states “People who regularly express gratitude often find themselves
feeling more optimistic and less weighed down by stress.” However, the statement does not best reflect
the central idea of the passage as it highlights only one aspect of practicing gratitude.
Statement d is correct. The statement best reflects the central idea of the passage as it highlights
the impact of gratitude in the most holistic manner. It is mentioned in the passage as “Embracing
gratitude can be a transformative experience in our lives.”
Subject:) CSAT
Topic:) Reading Comprehension (R.C)
Subtopic:)

[36]

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Test 15 - Solution

Uploaded by

Test 15 - Solution

Uploaded by

SFG 2025 | Level 2 | Test - #15 - Solutions |

Q.2) Consider the following:

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Q.6) Consider the following gases:

Q.7) Consider the following pairs:

Q.8) Consider the following statements:

Q.9) Consider the following objectives:

Q.11) Consider the following:

Q.13) Consider the following:

5. Death of several marine species

Q.16) Consider the following processes:

Q.18) Consider the following factors:

Q.19) Consider the following events:

Q.20) Consider the following statements:

Q.22) Consider the following statements about the Montreal Protocol:

Q.23) Consider the following statements:

Topic:) Climate Change related initiatives, conventions and organization

Q.26) Consider the following statements:

Q.29) Consider the following reports related to climate change:

Subject:) Current Affairs

Q.32) Article 2 of the Paris Agreement on Climate Change is related to:

Q.34) Consider the following pairs of carbon and their descriptions:

d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

c) long phases of flooding conditions in a region.

● Facilitating more efficient use of materials, especially iron and cement

Q.41) Consider the following statements:

Q.42) Consider the following gases:

Q.43) Consider the following pairs:

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