### MCQs on Urban Atmosphere—Smog and Particulate Pollution
1. Which of the following air pollutants are responsible for photochemical smog?
(a) Oxides of nitrogen
(b) Ozone
(c) Unburnt hydrocarbons
(d) Carbon monoxide
**Correct Answer:** (a) Oxides of nitrogen, (b) Ozone, (c) Unburnt hydrocarbons
<argument name="citation_id">19</argument>
2. Identify the most dominant pollutant in terms of its concentration levels in urban atmosphere.
(a) Oxides of nitrogen
(b) Oxides of sulphur
(c) Particulate matter
(d) Carbon monoxide
**Correct Answer:** (c) Particulate matter
<argument name="citation_id">10</argument>
3. Which of the following gases is a major component of smog?
(a) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
(b) Sulfur dioxide (SO2)
(c) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
(d) Oxygen (O2)
**Correct Answer:** (c) Nitrogen dioxide (NO2)
<argument name="citation_id">2</argument>
4. Which air pollutant is a major concern in the urban area?
(a) Ozone
(b) SOx
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Particulate Matter (PM)
**Correct Answer:** (d) Particulate Matter (PM)
<argument name="citation_id">14</argument>
5. Smog is a specific type of air pollution. It is a mixture of harmful pollutants (often visible relatively
low to the ground as a yellow-brown haze) that forms in the atmosphere as a result of complex
photochemical reactions between volatile organic compounds (VOCs) and oxides of nitrogen (NOx)
in the presence of sunlight. Smog is primarily associated with urban areas and is a significant
environmental and health concern.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">4</argument>
6. Identify the air pollutant in urban areas which irritates eyes and also respiratory tract of human
beings.
(a) Particulate matter
(b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Surface ozone
(d) Carbon monoxide
**Correct Answer:** (c) Surface ozone
<argument name="citation_id">6</argument>
7. Which of the following is the predominant air pollutant in urban areas?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Sulphur dioxide
(c) Nitrogen oxides
(d) Particulate matter
**Correct Answer:** (d) Particulate matter
<argument name="citation_id">3</argument>
8. Secondary pollutants include: Particulate matter formed from gaseous primary pollutants and
compounds in photochemical smog.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">9</argument>
9. Smog is a chemical mixture of gases that forms a brownish yellow haze over urban cities. Smog
mainly consists of ground level ozone, oxides of nitrogen, volatile organic compounds, SO2, acidic
aerosols and gases, and particulate matter.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">11</argument>
10. Urban air pollution is worse in densely populated areas.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">13</argument>
### MCQs on Chemistry of Ozone Formation; Chemistry of Stratosphere
11. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What would be
the reason for the formation of this hole?
(a) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(b) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
(c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds and inflow of methane and
chlorofluorocarbons
(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming
**Correct Answer:** (b) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence and inflow of
chlorofluorocarbons
<argument name="citation_id">20</argument>
12. The ozone layer, also known as the stratosphere, is made up of ozone gas (90 % of the total
ozone in the atmosphere). Ozone is made up of three oxygen atoms and is a blue gas with a strong
odour.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">21</argument>
13. Tropospheric ozone is harmful 2. Stratospheric ozone is beneficial 3. During prevalence smog,
O3 is formed Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
**Correct Answer:** (d) 1, 2 and 3
<argument name="citation_id">22</argument>
14. What is the average concentration of ozone in the ozone layer of the atmosphere?
(a) Nearly 100%
(b) Greater than 10%
(c) Less than 10 ppm
(d) Less than 10 ppb
**Correct Answer:** (c) Less than 10 ppm
<argument name="citation_id">27</argument>
15. Who discovered the ozone layer?
(a) Charles Fabry and Henri Buisson
(b) Carl Sagan and Issac Asimov
(c) Marie and Pierre Curie
(d) F Sherwood Rowland and Mario Molina
**Correct Answer:** (a) Charles Fabry and Henri Buisson
<argument name="citation_id">27</argument>
16. Which of the following devices can be used to measure ozone in the stratosphere?
(a) Spectrophotometer
(b) Photometer
(c) Dobson’s spectrophotometer
(d) Geiger counter
**Correct Answer:** (c) Dobson’s spectrophotometer
<argument name="citation_id">27</argument>
18. Ozone in the stratosphere is produced by the action of __________ radiation on oxygen
molecules.
(a) Infrared
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) Microwave
(d) Radio wave
**Correct Answer:** (b) Ultraviolet
<argument name="citation_id">27</argument>
19. The ozone layer absorbs harmful __________ rays from the sun.
(a) Ultraviolet
(b) Infrared
(c) Microwave
(d) Radio waves
**Correct Answer:** (a) Ultraviolet
<argument name="citation_id">27</argument>
20. Ozone is formed in the upper atmosphere by a photochemical reaction with
(a) Ultra violet solar radiation
(b) Infra red radiation
(c) Visible light
(d) All of the above
**Correct Answer:** (a) Ultra violet solar radiation
<argument name="citation_id">37</argument>
### MCQs on Interaction between Earth, Man and Environment
21. What is the interaction between humans and the environment?
(a) Humans adapt to the environment
(b) Humans modify the environment
(c) Humans depend on the environment for their survival
(d) All the above
**Correct Answer:** (d) All the above
<argument name="citation_id">60</argument>
22. Environmental determinism states that:
(a) Human destiny is controlled by the cultural environment
(b) The physical environment controls human social development
(c) Technology levels determine the fate of society
(d) Economic factors are the primary influencers
**Correct Answer:** (b) The physical environment controls human social development
<argument name="citation_id">65</argument>
23. Which of the following is not influenced by human activities?
(a) Depletion of ground water
(b) Destruction of mangroves and wetlands
(c) Increased extinction rate of species
(d) None of the above
**Correct Answer:** (d) None of the above
<argument name="citation_id">74</argument>
24. Which of the following plants eats mosquitoes?
(a) Carnation
(b) Pitcher plant
(c) Cinchona
(d) Lemon Grass
**Correct Answer:** (b) Pitcher plant
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
25. Loss of biodiversity may lead to all except:
(a) Decline in plant production
(b) Increased resistance to environmental perturbance
(c) Increased variability in water use
(d) Increased variability in pest and disease cycle
**Correct Answer:** (b) Increased resistance to environmental perturbance
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
26. The greatest biodiversity on the earth is found in
(a) African grasslands
(b) Amazonian rain forest in South America
(c) Western Ghats in India
(d) Nile delta in Egypt
**Correct Answer:** (b) Amazonian rain forest in South America
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
28. Which of the following is a non-renewable resource?
(a) Coal
(b) Forest
(c) Water
(d) Wildlife
**Correct Answer:** (a) Coal
<argument name="citation_id">74</argument>
29. Chipko movement was started to conserve
(a) Forests
(b) Grasslands
(c) Deserts
(d) Soil
**Correct Answer:** (a) Forests
<argument name="citation_id">74</argument>
30. What is common to the techniques (i) in vitro fertilization, (ii) Cryo preservation and (iii) tissue
culture?
(a) All are in situ conservation methods
(b) All are ex situ conservation methods
(c) All require ultra - modern equipment and large space
(d) All are methods of conservation of extinct organisms
**Correct Answer:** (b) All are ex situ conservation methods
<argument name="citation_id">74</argument>
### MCQs on Biogeographic Provinces of the World and Agro-Climatic Zones of India
31. According to the Planning commission, How many Agro-climatic zones are there in India?
(a) 15
(b) 131
(c) 126
(d) 141
**Correct Answer:** (a) 15
<argument name="citation_id">179</argument>
32. Which of the following is not one of India's biogeographic zones?
(a) Western Ghats
(b) Thar Desert
(c) Himalayan Region
(d) Amazon Basin
**Correct Answer:** (d) Amazon Basin
<argument name="citation_id">180</argument>
33. How many biogeographic provinces does the world have?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
**Correct Answer:** (b) 8
<argument name="citation_id">179</argument>
34. The biogeographic classification of India is based on:
(a) Altitude
(b) Climate
(c) Flora and fauna distribution
(d) Soil type
**Correct Answer:** (c) Flora and fauna distribution
<argument name="citation_id">184</argument>
35. Which of the following is a biogeographic province of India?
(a) Trans-Himalayan
(b) Himalayan
(c) Desert
(d) All of the above
**Correct Answer:** (d) All of the above
<argument name="citation_id">184</argument>
36. The agro-climatic zones in India are classified by:
(a) ICAR
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Ministry of Environment
(d) IMD
**Correct Answer:** (a) ICAR
<argument name="citation_id">179</argument>
37. Which agro-climatic zone in India includes the Western Ghats?
(a) Zone 1
(b) Zone 10
(c) Zone 5
(d) Zone 15
**Correct Answer:** (b) Zone 10
<argument name="citation_id">185</argument>
38. The number of agro-climatic zones in India is:
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
**Correct Answer:** (b) 15
<argument name="citation_id">179</argument>
39. The biogeographic provinces of the world are:
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 15
**Correct Answer:** (a) 8
<argument name="citation_id">182</argument>
40. Which is the first agro-climatic zone in India?
(a) Western Himalayan Region
(b) Eastern Himalayan Region
(c) Lower Gangetic Plain Region
(d) Middle Gangetic Plain Region
**Correct Answer:** (a) Western Himalayan Region
<argument name="citation_id">182</argument>
### MCQs on Concept of Sustainable Development
41. Who among the following propounded the principle of 'sustainable development'?
(a) World Bank
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Brundtland Commission
(d) Reserve Bank of India
**Correct Answer:** (c) Brundtland Commission
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
42. Which of the following are the challenges faced by India in achieving SDG 3 - Good health and
well-being? I. Private healthcare can be expensive and varies in quality and costs of services in
India. II. Coordination between Central Government and State Government hospitals is
compulsory. III. Public healthcare though much cheaper is unreliable. IV. Accessibility of
healthcare particularly in rural areas is lacking. V. Awareness regarding preventive care, from diet to
lifestyle, are often underappreciated.
(a) Only I, II, III and IV
(b) Only II, III, IV and V
(c) Only I, III, IV and V
(d) Only II, IV and V
**Correct Answer:** (c) Only I, III, IV and V
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
43. With reference to the United Nations’ Sustainable Development Goals, which of the following is
SDG 10?
(a) Reduced inequalities
(b) Zero hunger
(c) Climate action
(d) Decent work and economic growth
**Correct Answer:** (a) Reduced inequalities
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
44. Match the Socioeconomic Challenge with its Corresponding SDG: A) Gender inequality - 1. Goal
2: Zero Hunger B) Youth unemployment - 2. Goal 3: Good Health and Well-being C) Inadequate
healthcare - 3. Goal 5: Gender Equality D) Food insecurity - 4. Goal 8: Decent Work and Economic
Growth
(a) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
(b) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
**Correct Answer:** (c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
45. Match the Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) with its Description: A) SDG 7 - 1. Ensure
access to affordable, reliable, sustainable, and modern energy. B) SDG 12 - 2. Promote sustainable
agriculture and responsible consumption and production. C) SDG 13 - 4. Take urgent action to
combat climate change and its impacts. D) SDG 15 - 3. Protect, restore, and promote sustainable
use of terrestrial ecosystems.
(a) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(d) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
**Correct Answer:** (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
46. The Brundtland Commission Report was entitled
(a) Limits to Growth
(b) Our Common Future
(c) Sustainable Development
(d) Tragedy of Commons
**Correct Answer:** (b) Our Common Future
<argument name="citation_id">44</argument>
47. Sustainable development is critical to well being of human society. Reason (R) Environmentally
sound policies do not harm the environment or deplete the resource base.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false
**Correct Answer:** (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
<argument name="citation_id">54</argument>
48. The primary definition of sustainable development as outlined in the Brundtland Report?
(a) Development that prioritizes the present needs over future generations
(b) Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs
(c) Development that focuses on economic growth only
(d) Development that ignores environmental concerns
**Correct Answer:** (b) Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising
the ability of future generations to meet their own needs
<argument name="citation_id">47</argument>
49. Which of the following is a disadvantage of renewable energy?
(a) High pollution
(b) Available only in few places
(c) High running cost
(d) Unreliable supply
**Correct Answer:** (d) Unreliable supply
<argument name="citation_id">73</argument>
50. The three pillars of sustainable development are:
(a) Economic, Social, Environmental
(b) Political, Cultural, Technological
(c) Military, Educational, Health
(d) Agricultural, Industrial, Urban
**Correct Answer:** (a) Economic, Social, Environmental
<argument name="citation_id">46</argument>
### MCQs on Natural Resources and Their Assessment
51. Which of the following is an example of a non-renewable natural resource?
(a) Water
(b) Solar energy
(c) Crops
(d) Coal and petroleum
**Correct Answer:** (d) Coal and petroleum
<argument name="citation_id">104</argument>
52. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
(a) Ocean currents
(b) Solar energy
(c) Biomass
(d) All of the above
**Correct Answer:** (d) All of the above
<argument name="citation_id">70</argument>
53. A natural resource that can be replaced in the same rate at which it is consumed or used is
known as
(a) Artificial Resources
(b) Natural Resources
(c) Renewable Resources
(d) Nonrenewable Resources
**Correct Answer:** (c) Renewable Resources
<argument name="citation_id">70</argument>
54. The major non-renewable energy usage in India is___________
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum and other liquids
(c) Natural gas
(d) Nuclear
**Correct Answer:** (a) Coal
<argument name="citation_id">70</argument>
55. Natural gas is a non-renewable energy.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">70</argument>
56. A coal deposit that is not economical to mine today would be considered part of our __________
.
(a) coal reserves
(b) coal resources
(c) coal reservoirs
(d) none of these
**Correct Answer:** (b) coal resources
<argument name="citation_id">70</argument>
58. This group consists of non-renewable organic resources
(a) Water, air and minerals
(b) natural gas, oil and coal
(c) wood, water and natural pastures
(d) sand, air and clay
**Correct Answer:** (b) natural gas, oil and coal
<argument name="citation_id">70</argument>
59. Most of the energy used on earth today originally came from which of these sources?
(a) The sun
(b) The Moon
(c) Oceans
(d) Soil
**Correct Answer:** (a) The sun
<argument name="citation_id">70</argument>
60. Which among the following is not a renewable source of energy?
(a) Solar energy
(b) Biomass energy
(c) Hydro-power
(d) Geothermal energy
**Correct Answer:** None (all are renewable)
<argument name="citation_id">70</argument>
### MCQs on Environmental Education and Awareness, Environmental Ethics
61. What would happen, if all the oxygen present in the environment is converted to ozone?
(a) We will be protected more
(b) It will become poisonous and kill living forms
(c) Ozone is not stable, hence it will be toxic
(d) It will help harmful sun radiations to reach earth and damage many life forms.
**Correct Answer:** (b) It will become poisonous and kill living forms
<argument name="citation_id">105</argument>
62. Environmental ethics is a field of study that seeks to understand humans' moral obligations to
protect and preserve the environment.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">118</argument>
63. The primary goal of environmental education is to raise awareness and understanding of
environmental issues, promote critical thinking and problem-solving skills, and encourage
responsible behavior towards the environment.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">119</argument>
64. Environmental ethics emphasizes that all nations share responsibility for protecting the planet,
regardless of their economic or industrial status.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">117</argument>
65. Which of the following is not influenced by human activities?
(a) Depletion of ground water
(b) Destruction of mangroves and wetlands
(c) Increased extinction rate of species
(d) None of the above
**Correct Answer:** (d) None of the above
<argument name="citation_id">74</argument>
66. The Test: Value Education & Environment Education MCQs are made for UGC NET 2025 Exam.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">114</argument>
67. Environmental health encompasses the conditions in the environment that affect human
health. This includes everything from air and water quality to climate change and toxic substances.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">115</argument>
68. The EEAT Scheme aims to promote environmental education, awareness, and training in India.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">116</argument>
69. Ethical conservation emphasizes that all nations share responsibility for protecting the planet,
regardless of their economic or industrial status.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">117</argument>
70. Which of the following is the primary assumption of environmental determinism?
(a) Human destiny is controlled by the cultural environment
(b) The physical environment controls human social development
(c) Technology levels determine the fate of society
(d) Economic factors are the primary influencers
**Correct Answer:** (b) The physical environment controls human social development
<argument name="citation_id">65</argument>
### MCQs on Basis of Ecosystem Classification, Types of Ecosystems
71. Which of the following is a basis for ecosystem classification?
(a) Climate and vegetation
(b) Population density
(c) Economic value
(d) Political boundaries
**Correct Answer:** (a) Climate and vegetation
<argument name="citation_id">136</argument>
72. The two categories into which the global ecosystem can be classified – aquatic and terrestrial.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
73. Ecosystems have been broadly classified into two types – Man-made Ecosystems and Natural
Ecosystems.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
74. Which ecosystem has the greatest variety of flora and fauna?
(a) Marine
(b) Freshwater lake
(c) Prairie
(d) Tropical forest
**Correct Answer:** (d) Tropical forest
<argument name="citation_id">98</argument>
75. All of the populations of organisms within a given area make up a:
(a) Ecosystem
(b) Community
(c) Trophic level
(d) Biosphere
**Correct Answer:** (b) Community
<argument name="citation_id">87</argument>
76. The natural place of an organism or community is known as:
(a) Niche
(b) Biome
(c) Habitat
(d) Habit
**Correct Answer:** (c) Habitat
<argument name="citation_id">85</argument>
77. Which is the renewable exhaustible natural energy resource?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Kerosene
(d) Biomass
**Correct Answer:** (d) Biomass
<argument name="citation_id">85</argument>
78. The area where animals, plants and micro organisms live and interact with one another is
known as:
(a) Habitat
(b) Biosphere
(c) Lithosphere
(d) Atmosphere
**Correct Answer:** (a) Habitat
<argument name="citation_id">85</argument>
79. The most stable ecosystem is:
(a) Forest
(b) Desert
(c) Ocean
(d) Mountain
**Correct Answer:** (c) Ocean
<argument name="citation_id">74</argument>
80. Detritus food chain starts from:
(a) Green plants
(b) Grass
(c) Dead organic matter
(d) Phytoplankton
**Correct Answer:** (c) Dead organic matter
<argument name="citation_id">74</argument>
### MCQs on Biodiversity and Its Conservation: Definition, Types, Importance of Biodiversity and
Threats to Biodiversity
81. Biodiversity and Conservation Botany Practice questions, MCQs, Past Year Questions (PYQs),
NCERT Questions, Question Bank, Class 11 and Class 12 Questions, NCERT Exemplar Questions
and PDF Questions with answers, solutions, explanations, NCERT reference and difficulty level
(a) in-situ conservation
(b) ex-situ conservation
(c) cryopreservation
(d) biopreservation
**Correct Answer:** (b) ex-situ conservation
<argument name="citation_id">139</argument>
82. The search for previously unknown compounds in organisms that have never been used in
traditional medicine is known as:
(a) Biopiracy
(b) Bioprospecting
(c) Molecular taxonomy
(d) Bioenergetics
**Correct Answer:** (b) Bioprospecting
<argument name="citation_id">139</argument>
83. Loss of biodiversity may lead to all except:
(a) decline in plant production
(b) increased resistance to environmental perturbance
(c) increased variability in water use
(d) increased variability in pest and disease cycle
**Correct Answer:** (b) increased resistance to environmental perturbance
<argument name="citation_id">139</argument>
84. The greatest biodiversity on the earth is found in
(a) African grasslands
(b) Amazonian rain forest in South America
(c) Western Ghats in India
(d) Nile delta in Egypt
**Correct Answer:** (b) Amazonian rain forest in South America
<argument name="citation_id">139</argument>
85. Biodiversity is a measure of genetic, species, and ecosystem variation.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">139</argument>
86. The major threats to biodiversity include habitat destruction, overexploitation, climate change,
pollution, and invasive species.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">137</argument>
87. Which of the following is a direct threat to biodiversity?
(a) Sustainable development
(b) Habitat preservation
(c) Pollution
(d) Conservation efforts
**Correct Answer:** (c) Pollution
<argument name="citation_id">139</argument>
88. The hot spots of biodiversity are characterized by:
(a) low endemicity and low species richness
(b) low endemicity and high species richness
(c) high endemicity and low species richness
(d) high endemicity and high species richness
**Correct Answer:** (d) high endemicity and high species richness
<argument name="citation_id">24</argument>
89. ______ is the hotspot of Biodiversity in India.
(a) Gangetic plain
(b) Sunderbans
(c) Eastern ghats
(d) Western ghats
**Correct Answer:** (d) Western ghats
<argument name="citation_id">139</argument>
90. Which of these has the maximum genetic diversity in India?
(a) Tea
(b) Mango
(c) Teak
(d) Pepper
**Correct Answer:** (b) Mango
<argument name="citation_id">139</argument>
### MCQs on Concept and Basis of Identification of `Hotspots'; Hotspots in India
91. Which of the following regions of India have been designated as biodiversity hotspots?
(a) Eastern Himalayas
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Indo-Burma region
(d) All of the above
**Correct Answer:** (d) All of the above
<argument name="citation_id">140</argument>
92. India shares its territories into three biodiversity hotspots viz. Eastern Himalaya, Western Ghats
and Indo-Burma.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">141</argument>
93. The biodiversity hotspots in India
(a) Eastern Himalayas
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Indo-Burma
(d) All of the above
**Correct Answer:** (d) All of the above
<argument name="citation_id">142</argument>
94. Which is the first national park established in India?
(a) Velvadan National Park
(b) Periyar National Park
(c) Bandipur National Park
(d) Corbett National Park
**Correct Answer:** (d) Corbett National Park
<argument name="citation_id">163</argument>
95. Biodiversity hotspots are defined by which two criteria?
(a) species richness and ecosystem integrity
(b) size and distance from nearest alternative hotspot
(c) number of endemic species and degree of threat
(d) species richness and medicinal species
**Correct Answer:** (c) number of endemic species and degree of threat
<argument name="citation_id">195</argument>
96. The total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world are:
(a) 72
(b) 34
(c) 52
(d) 24
**Correct Answer:** (b) 34
<argument name="citation_id">145</argument>
97. The desert area of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of desert animals.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">145</argument>
98. Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (b) False
<argument name="citation_id">145</argument>
99. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?
(a) Sunderbans
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Gangetic Plain
**Correct Answer:** (b) Western Ghats
<argument name="citation_id">19</argument>
100. The Himalayas is a designated biodiversity hotspot due to its rich endemic flora and fauna and
ecological significance.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">142</argument>
### MCQs on Measures of Biodiversity
101. What is the total species diversity across all communities within a geographic area called?
(a) Alpha diversity
(b) Beta diversity
(c) Gamma diversity
(d) Delta diversity
**Correct Answer:** (c) Gamma diversity
<argument name="citation_id">189</argument>
102. Which level of biological diversity is most commonly measured?
(a) Genetic
(b) Intraspecific
(c) Species
(d) Ecosystem
**Correct Answer:** (c) Species
<argument name="citation_id">192</argument>
103. Species richness measures the proportion of species at a given site.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">207</argument>
104. Alpha diversity refers to the diversity within a particular area or ecosystem.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">207</argument>
105. If you were to take a count of the diversity of species in your town, what would you be
measuring?
(a) Genetic diversity
(b) Habitat diversity
(c) Biodiversity
(d) Ecosystem diversity
**Correct Answer:** (c) Biodiversity
<argument name="citation_id">208</argument>
106. Species diversity is used to refer to the variety of species found in a particular region/area.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">197</argument>
107. Biodiversity is a term that refers to genetic, species, and ecosystem variation.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">93</argument>
108. The term Alpha diversity refers to:
(a) Genetic diversity
(b) Community and ecosystem diversity
(c) Species diversity
(d) Diversity among the plants
**Correct Answer:** (c) Species diversity
<argument name="citation_id">74</argument>
109. Which level of biodiversity includes the diversity of different ecosystems?
(a) Genetic diversity
(b) Species diversity
(c) Ecosystem diversity
(d) Biotic diversity
**Correct Answer:** (c) Ecosystem diversity
<argument name="citation_id">192</argument>
110. Biodiversity hotspots are defined by which two criteria?
(a) species richness and ecosystem integrity
(b) size and distance from nearest alternative hotspot
(c) number of endemic species and degree of threat
(d) species richness and medicinal species
**Correct Answer:** (c) number of endemic species and degree of threat
<argument name="citation_id">195</argument>
### MCQs on National Parks, Sanctuaries and Protected Areas in India
111. Which of the following is the oldest national park in India?
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Periyar National Park
(c) Bandipur National Park
(d) Velvadan National Park
**Correct Answer:** (a) Corbett National Park
<argument name="citation_id">163</argument>
112. Which is the first national park established in India?
(a) Velvadan National Park
(b) Periyar National Park
(c) Bandipur National Park
(d) Corbett National Park
**Correct Answer:** (d) Corbett National Park
<argument name="citation_id">163</argument>
113. The Protected Area network in India comprises 730 protected areas including national parks
wildlife.
(a) True
(b) False
**Correct Answer:** (a) True
<argument name="citation_id">174</argument>
114. India's first national park is
(a) Corbett National Park
(b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Gir National Park
(d) Kanha National Park
**Correct Answer:** (a) Corbett National Park
<argument name="citation_id">146</argument>
115. Which of the following is a protected area in India?
(a) Community Reserves – 220
(b) Conservation Reserves – 115
(c) National Parks – 106
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries – 573
**Correct Answer:** All of the above
<argument name="citation_id">169</argument>
116. The number of national parks in India is
(a) 106
(b) 115
(c) 220
(d) 573
**Correct Answer:** (a) 106
<argument name="citation_id">169</argument>
117. Which national park is located in the state of Karnataka?
(a) Jim Corbett National Park
(b) Kaziranga National Park
(c) Bandipur National Park
(d) Gir National Park
**Correct Answer:** (c) Bandipur National Park
<argument name="citation_id">170</argument>
118. The "Great Indian Hornbill" is found in which national park?
(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Manas National Park
(c) Namdapha National Park
(d) Silent Valley National Park
**Correct Answer:** (c) Namdapha National Park
<argument name="citation_id">89</argument>
119. Which of the following wildlife sanctuaries is known for the one-horned rhinoceros?
(a) Kaziranga
(b) Gir
(c) Sundarbans
(d) Bandipur
**Correct Answer:** (a) Kaziranga
<argument name="citation_id">160</argument>
120. The primary objective of establishing Protected Areas (PAs) is:
(a) To promote tourism
(b) To preserve the cultural heritage
(c) To conserve biodiversity
(d) To develop infrastructure
**Correct Answer:** (c) To conserve biodiversity
<argument name="citation_id">165</argument>
