200 Multiple Choice Questions on Environment

Management and Sustainable Development

1 Environmental Management Systems; ISO 14000 series; En-

vironmental auditing: Environmental impact Assessment;
Life cycle assessment; Human health risk assessment
1. What are ISO 14000 standards for?
a) Quality Management System b) Environmental Management System c)
Administration d) Supply chain
Answer: b) Environmental Management System
2. In which year did the ISO create the ISO 14000 family of standards?
a) 1956 b) 1966 c) 1978 d) 1996
Answer: d) 1996
3. Which is the first environmental management system standard?
a) BS 7750 b) ISO 9000 c) ISO 9001 d) ISO 9004
Answer: a) BS 7750
4. In which year did the current revision of ISO 14001 get published?
a) 2010 b) 2011 c) 2015 d) 2016
Answer: c) 2015
5. Which one of the following is not within the purview of ISO 14000 family
of standards?
a) Environmental management system b) Environment auditing c) Life-
cycle assessment d) Quality management system
Answer: d) Quality management system
6. Which one of the following does not belong to the area of Organization
Evaluation Standards in ISO 14000 series?
a) Environmental management system b) Environmental auditing c) Envi-
ronmental performance evaluation d) Environmental labels and declara-
tions
Answer: d) Environmental labels and declarations
7. Environmental aspects in product standards belong to the area of Product
Evaluation Standards in ISO 14000 series.
a) True b) False
Answer: a) True
8. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category
of Environmental Management System?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004 b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14001 c) ISO 14011 and
ISO 14001 d) ISO 14011 and ISO 14004
Answer: a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004
9. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category
of Environmental Auditing?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004 b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011 c) ISO 14011 and

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 ISO 14001 d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14004
Answer: b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011
10. ISO 14012 refers to qualification criteria for environmental auditors.
a) True b) False
Answer: a) True
11. Which ISO 14000 series standard refers to the guidelines on Environmental
Performance Evaluation?
a) ISO 14001 b) ISO 14004 c) ISO 14010 d) ISO 14031
Answer: d) ISO 14031
12. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category
of Environmental Labelling?
a) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004 b) ISO 14010 and ISO 14011 c) ISO 14020 and
ISO 14021 d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14020
Answer: c) ISO 14020 and ISO 14021
13. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards belong to the category
of Environmental Labelling?
a) ISO 14022 and ISO 14023 b) ISO 14001 and ISO 14004 c) ISO 14001 and
ISO 14021 d) ISO 14012 and ISO 14020
Answer: a) ISO 14022 and ISO 14023
14. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards belong to the category
of Life Cycle Assessment?
a) ISO 14041 and ISO 14023 b) ISO 14041 and ISO 14004 c) ISO 14040 and
ISO 14041 d) ISO 14040 and ISO 14020
Answer: c) ISO 14040 and ISO 14041
15. Which of the following pair of ISO 14000 standards fall under the category
of Life Cycle Assessment?
a) ISO 14041 and ISO 14023 b) ISO 14041 and ISO 14004 c) ISO 14042 and
ISO 14043 d) ISO 14040 and ISO 14020
Answer: c) ISO 14042 and ISO 14043
16. EIA is defined as (select one):
a) A process of identifying, predicting, and evaluating the likely impacts of
a proposed project or development to define mitigation actions to reduce
negative impacts and to provide positive contributions to the natural envi-
ronment and well-being
b) A report written by government representatives on the planned devel-
opment impacts of environment, socio-economic issues and culture
c) Project life-cycle assessment
Answer: a
17. True or False? More than 100 countries have legislation on EIA.
Answer: True
18. What is essential in an EIA? (select all that apply):
a) That it allows decision makers to assess a project’s impacts in all its phases
b) That it allows the public and other stakeholders to present their views

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 and inputs on the planned development
c) That it contributes to and improve the project design, so that environ-
mental as well as socioeconomic measures are core parts of it
Answer: a, b, c
19. Other assessments similar to EIA include (select all that apply):
a) SEA – strategic environmental assessment
b) SIA – strategic impact assessment
c) IEA – integrated environmental assessment
Answer: a, b
20. True or False? Honduras is currently in the process of revising its legisla-
tion on EIA.
Answer: False
21. What is the purpose of the “screening” step of EIA? (Select all that apply)
a) To assess the quality of the project design
b) To facilitate informed decision making by providing clear, well-structured,
factual analysis of the effects and consequences of proposed actions
c) To determine whether a full EIA is needed
Answer: b, c
22. Which type of project usually requires an EIA? (Select all that apply):
a) Small housing building
b) Dams and reservoirs
c) Industrial plants (large scale)
d) Community garden development
e) Irrigation, drainage, and flood control (large scale)
f) Mining and mineral development (including oil and gas)
g) Port and harbour development
h) Development of wells in the community
i) Reclamation, resettlement and new land development
j) Thermal and hydropower development
k) Outdoor recreation
Answer: b, c, e, f, g, i, j
23. EIA is usually required for a development project when (select all that ap-
ply):
a) Large changes are expected in the environment
b) Limited impacts are expected in the environment
c) A small area is expected to be affected by the project
d) There are potentials for transboundary impact
e) Many people are likely to be affected by the project
f) No cumulative impacts are expected
g) There are protected areas in the project area of influence
Answer: a, d, e, g
24. True or False? Typically, the project proponents carry out the screening
process by assessing their project based upon a set of criteria determined
by a designated agency.
Answer: True

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25. True or False? In Honduras, screening is carried out via an online system
for development projects only classified under category 1 (low impact).
Answer: False
26. What is true of the Scoping step? (select all that apply)
a) It is a systematic exercise that establishes the boundaries of an EIA
b) It clearly indicates what is relevant and what is not relevant within an
EIA
c) It serves as a work plan for the entire EIA process
Answer: a, b, c
27. Which one of the steps below is NOT included in the scoping process? (se-
lect one)
a) Set up the team of experts that will conduct the EIA.
b) Describe the project area and the area of the project influence.
c) Outline project alternative for preparation, implementation and closure.
d) Conduct public meetings and stakeholder consultations; integrate com-
ments and collected feedback into project planning and alternatives.
Answer: Not provided in content (content cut off)
28. Based on what the Kyoto Protocol set emission reduction targets for the
group of greenhouse gases?
a) Hydrogen equivalents
b) Carbon dioxide equivalents
c) Oxygen equivalents
d) Nitrogen equivalents
Answer: b) Carbon dioxide equivalents
29. Under how many agreements fluorochemicals are regulated?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: b) Two
30. With minor exception, which of the following have been phased out com-
pletely globally?
a) Carbon dioxide
b) Carbon monoxide
c) Chlorofluorocarbons
d) Nitrogen dioxide
Answer: c) Chlorofluorocarbons
31. For what production and consumption phase out schedules the Montreal
Protocol has established?
a) Greenhouse emitting gases
b) Global warming emitting gases
c) Ozone layer depleting substances
d) Water level increasing substances
Answer: c) Ozone layer depleting substances

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32. How can be determined carbon dioxide equivalents?
a) By multiplying the quantity of the gas by its global warming potential
b) By multiplying the quantity of the gas by its pressure
c) By multiplying the quantity of the water by its global warming potential
d) By multiplying the quantity of the gas by its global cooling potential
Answer: a) By multiplying the quantity of the gas by its global warming
potential
33. The Montreal Protocol is less known for its role in climate protection.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a) True
34. When did the Kyoto Protocol entered into force?
a) 1997
b) 2000
c) 2005
d) 2009
Answer: c) 2005
35. When is the first commitment period for the Kyoto Protocol expired?
a) 2007
b) 2010
c) 2012
d) 2015
Answer: c) 2012
36. When did the Montreal Protocol entered into force?
a) 1984
b) 1986
c) 1989
d) 1994
Answer: c) 1989
37. What are the substances present in the ozone layer depleting substances
controlled by the Montreal Protocol?
a) Either chlorine or bromine
b) Either carbon or nitrogen
c) Either chlorine or carbon
d) Either carbon or bromine
Answer: d) Either carbon or bromine
38. Why hydrofluorocarbons are no harm to the ozone layer?
a) Because they contain chlorine
b) Because they do not contain chlorine
c) Because they contain carbon
d) Because they contain nitrogen
Answer: b) Because they do not contain chlorine
39. Which Amendment was agreed to phase down HFCs under the Montreal
Protocol?

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 a) Paris Amendment
b) New York Amendment
c) Delhi Amendment
d) Kigali Amendment
Answer: d) Kigali Amendment
40. Which one of the following is the objective of Kyoto Protocol?
a) Stabilization and reconstruction of greenhouse gases
b) Protecting the ozone layer from depletion
c) Reducing the CFCs and HFCs usage
d) Increasing the greenhouse gases
Answer: a) Stabilization and reconstruction of greenhouse gases
41. The Montreal Protocol is the successful climate agreement.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a) True
42. Which of the following is a byproduct of a Hydrogen fuel cell?
a) Ammonia
b) Nitrogen
c) Water
d) Air
Answer: c) Water
43. An electric generator coupled to a windmill produces an average electric
power of 6 kW. The power is used to charge a storage battery. Heat transfer
from the battery to the surroundings is 0.3 kW. What will be the amount of
energy stored in the battery in 2 hours?
a) 41040 kW
b) 114 kJ
c) 11.4 kJ
d) 41040 kJ
Answer: d) 41040 kJ
44. Which component in a nuclear reactor is primarily responsible for slowing
down fast neutrons to sustain the chain reaction?
a) Moderator
b) Coolant
c) Containment Vessel
d) Fuel Rods
Answer: a) Moderator
45. Considering the wind power equation P = 1/2ρAv³, if the wind speed dou-
bles, how does the available power change?
a) It remains constant
b) It increases fourfold
c) It doubles
d) It increases eightfold
Answer: d) It increases eightfold

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46. Which of the following is NOT a type of geothermal source of energy?
a) Hydrothermal
b) Petrothermal
c) Geopressurised
d) Hypothermal
Answer: d) Hypothermal
47. An earthquake proof building shall have a plan out of the following?
a) Star configuration
b) Simple Circular plan
c) Simple rectangular plan
d) Oval shaped plan
Answer: c) Simple rectangular plan
48. What could be a useful warning of an impending Tsunami to a tourist on
the beach?
a) High tide visible from a long distance
b) Water receding deep into the sea exposing the sea floor
c) Intense fluctuations in sea water level
d) Boatmen shouting about a high tide
Answer: b) Water receding deep into the sea exposing the sea floor
49. Which type of volcanoes is regarded as the largest of all the volcanoes on
the Earth?
a) Shield Volcano
b) Mid Ocean Range Volcano
c) Caldera
d) Composite Volcano
Answer: a) Shield Volcano
50. The statement “There is no such thing as natural disaster, only natural haz-
ards,” is
a) True
b) False
c) May be true or false
d) Absurd
Answer: a) True
51. Match List-I (Natural Disaster) with List-II (Area) and select the correct an-
swer using the code given below -
List-I: A. Flood B. Drought C. Cyclone D. Earthquake
List-II: a. Foothill region of Himalaya b. Uttar Pradesh and plains of Bihar
c. Jharkhand and North Orissa d. Middle Eastern India
a) A - b, B - c, C - d, D - a
b) A - b, B - d, C - a, D - c
c) A - d, B - c, C - b, D - a
d) A - d, B - b, C - a, D - c
Answer: a) A - b, B - c, C - d, D - a
52. In January 2025, a camera trap in Namdapha Tiger Reserve captured an
elephant after 12 years, indicating the presence of elephants in which In-

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 dian state?
a) Nagaland
b) Arunachal Pradesh
c) Meghalaya
d) Assam
Answer: b) Arunachal Pradesh
53. What is the Palamu Tiger Reserve (PTR) primarily known for?
a) Ancient temples
b) Largest tiger population in Jharkhand
c) Rich biodiversity and forest area
d) Historic monuments
Answer: c) Rich biodiversity and forest area
54. With reference to the Corbett National Park, which of the following state-
ments is/are correct?
1. It is the first largest National Park in India.
2. It was established in 1936.
3. Its previous name was ”Hailey National Park”.
4. Its total area is 826 sq.km.
a) Only 1
b) Both 1 and 2
c) 1, 2, and 3
d) 2 and 4
Answer: c) 1, 2, and 3
55. Under which schedule of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 is the Indian Grey
Wolf listed?
a) II
b) I
c) IV
d) V
Answer: b) I
56. Where is India’s first and only wolf sanctuary located?
a) Dumka
b) Ranchi
c) Latehar
d) Dhanbad
Answer: c) Latehar
57. Statement I: Montreal protocol is a multi-lateral environmental agreement
that regulates the production and consumption of nearly 100 man made
chemicals.
Statement II: Montreal protocal is an international treaty designed to pro-
tect the environment.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

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 Answer: a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
58. Statement (I): Under Montreal protocol developed and developing nations
have differentiated responsibilities.
Statement (II): Under Kigali amendment of Montreal protocol, ChloroFluo-
rocarbons (CFCs) and HydroChloroFluoroCarbons (HCFCs) were to be phased
out.
a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
59. HCFC-141 b is one of the most powerful ozone-depleting chemicals after
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). What is the full form of HCFC?
a) Hydro ChloroFluoro Carbene
b) Hydro CyanoFluoro Carbon
c) HeptaChloroFluoro Carbon
d) Hydro ChloroFluoro Carbon
Answer: d) Hydro ChloroFluoro Carbon
60. As per which of the following banned the use of chlorofluorocarbon (CFC)
compounds, as well as other ozone depleting chemicals?
a) Vienna Convention
b) Kyoto Protocol
c) The Paris Agreement
d) Montreal Protocol
Answer: d) Montreal Protocol
61. Protection from Ultraviolet Radiations as envisaged under the Montreal
Protocol also contributes to following SDGs
a) SDGS 3, 11, 14, 15
b) SDGs 10, 16, 17
c) SDGs 4, 5, 11, 17
d) SDGs 8, 10, 12
Answer: a) SDGS 3, 11, 14, 15
62. Consider the following statements:
1. India’s National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) includes eight
missions aimed at promoting sustainable development.
2. India saw the highest year-on-year growth in renewable energy addi-
tions of 9.833. The Perform Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is an initiative
under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, and 3
c) 1 and 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only
Answer: b) 1, 2, and 3
63. Consider the following statements:

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 1. India’s National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aims to reduce particulate
matter (PM) pollution by 10-152. The Jal Jeevan Mission focuses on provid-
ing safe and adequate drinking water through individual household tap
connections by 2024.
3. The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) targets achieving
national fuel security by promoting hybrid and electric vehicles.
4. The FAME India Scheme (Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of Electric
Vehicles) is part of National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) and
provides subsidies for electric vehicles.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
a) 2, 3, and 4 only
b) 1, 3, and 4 only
c) 1, 2, and 3 only
d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: a) 2, 3, and 4 only
64. Which of the following does NOT contribute much to the degradation of the
Thar Desert ecosystem?
a) Increased plantation of native trees
b) Grazing by livestock
c) Erratic rainfall
d) Climate change
Answer: a) Increased plantation of native trees
65. When was the protection and improvement of environment and safeguard-
ing of forests and wildlife as a directive added in the Constitution of India?
a) 2002
b) 1978
c) 2011
d) 1976
Answer: d) 1976
66. Who among the following propounded the principle of ’sustainable devel-
opment’?
a) World Bank
b) NITI Aayog
c) Brundtland Commission
d) Reserve Bank of India
Answer: c) Brundtland Commission

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