Environment

Q1) Consider the following statements on Kasturirangan Committee

1 Kasturirangan Committee had suggested that 37% (60,000 hectares) of the Western Ghats
should be declared as ESA (Ecologically sensitive area).
2 Gadgil Committee was formed to study the recommendations of the Dr. K. Kasturirangan
Committee.

A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of them
Ans: A
Explanation:
Under pressure from various stakeholders, MoEF had set up the High-Level Working Group
(HLWG) under the Chairmanship of Dr. K. Kasturirangan to study the recommendations of
the Gadgil Committee.
• The HLWG had diluted many recommendations of WGEEP to satisfy the interests of the
various mafia.
• HLWG had suggested that 37% (60,000 hectares) of the Western Ghats should be declared
as ESA.
• The remaining 63% of human settlements, plantations & agricultural fields are classified as
Cultural Landscape.
Q2) Arrange the following in increasing order based on their levels in the ecological
organisation

1) Ecosystem
2) Population
3) Organisms
4) communities

A. 3-2-4-1
B. 4-2-3-1
C. 3-2-1-4
D. 2-1-3-4
Ans: A

Explanation:
Q3) Consider the following statements
1 Estuarine
2 Grassland
3 Mangroves.
Which of the above is/are example/examples of ecotone?
A 1 and 2
B 2 and 3
C All of them
D Only 1

Ans: C

Explanation:
An ecotone is a zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes (diverse
ecosystems).
• Ecotone is the zone where two communities meet and integrate.
• E.g., the mangrove forests represent an ecotone between marine and terrestrial ecosystems.
• Other examples are grassland (between forest and desert), estuarine (between fresh water
and saltwater), and riverbank or marshland (between dry and wet).
Q4) Which of the following state is the leading producer of turmeric in India?

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Tamilnadu
C. Telangana
D. Kerala

Ans: C
Explanation:
India produces 78% of the world’s turmeric.
• India is a leading producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.
• The top five turmeric-producing states are Telangana, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu
& Andhra Pradesh.
• In Tamil Nadu, the city of Erode (also known as Yellow City or Turmeric City) is the
world’s largest producer of turmeric.

Q5) Consider the following statements

1. No two species in a habitat can have the same niche
2. Habitat refers to the unique functional role and position of a species in its ecosystem.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of them

Ans- A
Explanation:
An ecological niche refers to the unique functional role and position of a species in its
habitat or ecosystem.
The functional characteristics of a species in its habitat are referred to as "niche" in that
common habitat. No two species in a habitat can have the same niche. This is because of the
competition with one another until one is displaced.

Q6) Consider the following statements

1. Telangana is the top producer of spices in India.
2. India’s spices production has crossed 100 lakh tonnes in 2020-21.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
A. 2 only
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them
Ans- B
Explanation-

Spices production in the country grew from 67.64 lakh tonnes in 2014-15 to 106.79 lakh
tonnes in 2020-21 with an annual growth rate of 7.9%.
• Among spices, garlic ranks first in terms of production followed by Chillies, ginger,
turmeric, etc.
• Madhya Pradesh ranks first in terms of production owing to garlic production followed by
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Assam, etc.
Q7) Which of the following wetland is not a Ramsar site
A) Lonar lake
B) Kolleru lake
C) Chilka lake
D) None of them above
Ans: D
Explanation:
All three are Ramsar sites.

8) Consider the following pairs

Interaction Effect
Commensalism One species is inhibited while the other species is unaffected.
Mutualism Beneficial to both the species
Parasitism Beneficial to one species and harmful to the other species.
Amensalism One species benefits while the other is unaffected
How many pairs matched correctly?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All of them
Ans: B

Explanation:

Amensalism One species is inhibited

while the other species is
unaffected.
Commensalism One species (the commensal)
benefits, while the other
species (the host) is neither
harmed nor inhibited
Parasitism Beneficial to one species
(parasite) and harmful to the
other species (host).
Mutualism Interaction is favourable to
both species
Q9) What is the edge effect in ecology?

A. a zone of gradual but continuous change from one ecosystem to another

B. changes in population or community structures at the boundary of two habitats
C. zone of junction or a transition area between two biomes
D. absence of life at extremes of the North and South poles

Ans: B
Explanation:

The edge effect refers to the changes in population or community structures at the boundary
of two habitats (ecotone). Sometimes the number of species and the population density of
some of the species in the ecotone is much greater than either community. This is called the
edge effect.
The organisms which occur primarily or most abundantly in this zone are known as edge
species. In terrestrial ecosystems edge effect is especially applicable to birds. For example,
the density of birds is greater in the ecotone between the forest and the desert.

Q10) Which of the following falls under the morphological adaptation in ecology?
1. The long neck of a Giraffe
2. the thick cuticle of desert plants
3. Short ears in the cold region

A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of them.
Ans: D
Explanation:
An adaptation is "the appearance/behaviour/structure/mode of life of an organism that allows
it to survive in a particular environment. Examples of morphological adaptation are
i. when trees grew higher, the giraffe’s neck got longer.
ii. Many desert plants have a thick cuticle on their leaf surfaces and have their stomata
arranged in deep pits to minimize water loss through transpiration.
iii. Mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and limbs to minimize
heat loss.

Q11) Its IUCN red list status is critically endangered and falls under schedule I of the wildlife
protection act 1973. Its largest population (95%) is found in the Indian state of Rajasthan
(Jaisalmer). A small population also occurs in Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana & Andhra
Pradesh.

Which of the following bird is discussed above?

A. Great Indian bustard
B. Flycatcher
C. Indian roller
D. Indian florican
Ans: A
Explanation:

The Great Indian Bustard (CR) is one of the heaviest flying birds in the world.
• It is the State bird of Rajasthan.
• Habitat: large expanses of dry grassland & scrub.
• Its largest population (95%) are found in the Indian state of Rajasthan (Jaisalmer).
• Today, its population is confined mostly to Rajasthan & Gujarat.
• Small population also occurs in Maharashtra, Karnataka & Andhra Pradesh.

Q12 Consider the following races

1. Kawal forest reserve
2. Bhadra forest reserve
 3. Buxa forest reserve
4. Indravati tiger reserve
Which of the above is/are tiger reserves?
A. Only 2
B. 1 and 2
C. All of them
D. 1,2 and 3.
Ans: C
Explanation:
Kawal (Telangana), Bhadra (Karnataka), the Sundarbans re-serves (West Bengal), Buxa
(West Bengal), Anamalai (Tamil Nadu), and Indravati reserves (Chhattisgarh) are some of
the important tiger reserves in the country.

Q13) Consider the following statements about the Forest survey report
1. Forest Survey of India undertakes an annual assessment of the country's forest
resources in India
2. Total Forest& tree cover in India has been reduced as per the 2021 report.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A) Only 2
B) Only 1
C) Both of them
D) None of them.
Ans: D
Explanation:
Every two years, the Forest Survey of India assesses the country's forest resources.
• The results are presented as the 'India State of Forest Report (ISFR – biennial report)’.
• Since 1987, 15 such assessments have been completed and the 2021 assessment is the 17th
in the series.

.
Q14) Which of the following states has shown the highest increase in forest cover as per the
Indian state of Forest report 2021

A. Telangana
B. Kerala
C. Odisha
D. Karnataka
Ans: A
Explanation:
The states that have shown the highest increase in forest cover are
1. Telangana (3.07%),
2. Andhra Pradesh (2.22%) and
3. Odisha (1.04%).

Q15) Consider the following statements on Mangrove cover in ISFR 2021

1. Mangrove cover in the country has increased by 17 sq. km (0.34%) as compared to

ISFR 2019.
2. West Bengal has the highest mangrove cover in terms of area in the country.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. 2 only
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them
Ans- C
Explanation:

Mangrove cover in India is 4,992 sq. km, which is 0.15% of the country's total geographic
area. Mangrove cover in the country has increased by 17 sq. km (0.34%) as compared to
ISFR 2019.
West Bengal has the highest mangrove cover in the country with an area of 2114 sq km.

Q16) Consider the following statements about the crop diversification index
 1. Telangana is the first state in the country to record its crop diversification
patterns in the form of an index.
2. According to the crop diversification index, 77 varieties of crops are grown in
Telangana
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 2 only
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them
Ans- C
Explanation-

Telangana is the first state in the country to record its crop diversification patterns in the form
of an index. The crop diversification index has a base value of one, representing the
percentage of total cultivated area devoted to a single crop. If the index value is higher, it
denotes that the crops are more diversified.
The present crop diversification index was calculated using the area under 77 different crops
grown in the state, which includes all food, non-food, cash crops, and area under floriculture

Q17) What is Project Tej, launched by the government of Telangana?

A. Promotion of Telangana handlooms
B. platform to help entrepreneurs test their ideas in the medical technology field.
C. An Artificial collaboration park at IIT Hyderabad
D. Social Media platform to promote MSME
Ans: B
Explanation:
The Government of Telangana has launched Project Tej, in association with a platform
MedTechConnect, during the Bio Asia 2020-Biotech and Life Sciences forum of the state.
The Project aims at creating a platform to help entrepreneurs test their ideas in the medical
technology field.
The state’s Research and Innovation Circle of Hyderabad (RICH) and MedTechConnect
signed an MoU in this regard. MedTechConnect platform was established by the engineering
and Tech Company Cyient and Xynteo’s business alliance called ‘India2022 Coalition’.

Q18) Consider the following pairs

Programme Objective
Kaleshwaram lift irrigation project multipurpose irrigation project on the Krishna
River.
Mission Kakatiya rejuvenate water storage structures
Mission Bhagiratha provide safe drinking water to every household
How many pairs matched correctly?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. None of them
Ans: B

Explanation:

Mission Kakatiya
It is a flagship program of the Telangana government. The mission aims to rejuvenate water
storage structures to help small and marginal farmers in the state.
Mission Bhagiratha
The mission aims to provide safe drinking water to every household in both cities and
villages in the state of Telangana. The scheme aims to provide piped drinking water to 20
lakh households in Telangana. The mission will fetch water from river Godavari and river
Krishna.
Kaleshwaram lift irrigation project
It is a multipurpose irrigation project on the Godavari River. The project begins at the
meeting point of the Godavari River and pranahita river. It was initially called the pranahita
chevella project. Later it was renamed as Kaleshwaram project in 2014.

Q19) Consider the following statements about the Haritha Haram programme in Telangana?
1. The programme was launched on 3rd July 2015 by Chief Minister K
Chandrashekar Rao.
2. Telangana state government has set a target to increase the forest cover in the state
to 33 percent from the 24 percent (as per 2015 records) through this programme.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

 A. 2 only
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them
Ans- D
Explanation-
Haritha Haram Programme
The programme was launched on 3rd July 2015 by Chief Minister K Chandrashekar Rao.
Through the programme, the Telangana state government has set a target to increase the
forest cover in the state to 33 percent from the 24 percent (as per 2015 records) by planting a
total of 230 crore saplings across the state.
As per records, a total of 182 crore saplings have been planted to date across the state. The
saplings are planted across the state with the help of departments such as forest, municipal
administration, Panchayati raj, rural development, etc.

Q20) Which of the following are classified as Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
1. Endosulfan
2. Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT)
3. Dioxins

A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of them.
Ans: D
Explanation:
POPs are defined as “chemical substances that persist in the environment, bioaccumulate
through the food web, & pose a risk of causing adverse effects to human health & the
environment
The most commonly encountered POPs are organochlorine pesticides, such as
Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT),
Endosulfan,
Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCB: resistant to extreme temperature & pressure. PCBs were
used
widely in electrical equipment like capacitors & transformers),
Dioxins (toxic by-products produced when organic matter is burned), etc.

Q21) The corridor is situated in the ecologically fragile Sigur plateau, which connects the
Western & the Eastern Ghats & sustains elephant populations & their genetic diversity. It is
the largest protected forest area in India, spanning across Tamil Nadu, Karnataka & Kerala.

Which of the following Elephant corridor has been discussed above?

A. Nilgiris Elephant Corridor
B. Kallar elephant corridor
C. Karbi Anglong
D. Kaundinya Wildlife Sanctuary Elephant Corridor
Ans: A
Explanation:

It is the largest protected forest area in India, spanning across Tamil Nadu, Karnataka &
Kerala.
• It is situated in the Masinagudi area near the Mudumalai National Park in the Nilgris
district.
• The corridor is situated in the ecologically fragile Sigur plateau, which connects the
Western & the Eastern Ghats & sustains elephant populations & their genetic diversity.
• It has the Nilgiri hills on its southwestern side & the Moyar river valley on its north-eastern
side.
• The elephants cross the plateau in search of food & water depending on the monsoon.
Q22) Consider the following
1. Agriculture
2. Fossil fuels
3. Waste
Arrange the above in increasing order based on their contribution to global methane
emissions?
A 3-1-2
B 1-2-3
C 1-3-2
D 3-2-1
Ans: D
Explanation:
More than 50% of the global methane emissions stem from human activities in 3 sectors:
1. Agriculture (40%)
2. Fossil Fuels (35%)
3. Waste (20%)
Q23) Consider the following statements
1. Chandigarh became the first state/UT in India to launch the Carbon watch, a mobile
application to assess the carbon footprint of an individual.
2. India has pledged a 33-35% reduction in the emissions intensity (carbon footprint) of
its economy by 2030 compared to 2005 levels.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
Carbon footprint is a measure of the impact your activities have on the amount of CO2
produced through the burning of fossil fuels and is expressed as a weight of CO2 emissions
produced in tonnes.
• It is measured during a year & can be associated with an individual, organization, product,
etc.
• India has pledged a 33-35% reduction in the emissions intensity (carbon footprint) of its
economy by 2030 compared to 2005 levels.
Chandigarh became the first state/UT in India to launch the Carbon watch, a mobile
application to assess the carbon footprint of an individual.
• The app is accessible by everyone in the country but has specific options for the residents of
Chandigarh.
.

Q24) Which of the following MNCs made an agreement with the state government of
Telangana and signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the aim of supporting
and accelerating the state's vision to leverage technology for inclusive social development
and sustainable economic development.

A. Google
B. Apple
C. Microsoft
 D. Facebook
Ans: A
Explanation:
On 28th April 2022, Google announced that it is collaborating with the state government of
Telangana and signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) with the aim of supporting
and accelerating the state’s vision to leverage technology for inclusive social development
and sustainable economic development.
 Under this MoU, Google will be extending Google Career Certificate scholarships to
the youngsters of the state to make them job-ready.
 Google will also be collaborating with the Telangana government to support the
state’s women entrepreneurs through business, digital, and financial skills training.
 Google will also be strengthening the government’s school modernization efforts via
learning and digital teaching tools and solutions.

Q25) Consider the following statements

1. Telangana topped the UNDP ranking of Indian states based on their progress in
achieving SDGs.
2. India was the first country to release the SDG index.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 2 only
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them
Ans- C
Explanation:
According to the United National Development Programme (UNDP), Telangana has emerged
as the best-performing state in terms of achieving Sustainable Development Goals (SDG).
It is to be noted that in December 2019, India released SDG India Index. India was the first
country to release the SDG index. The index was launched by NITI Aayog.
Q26) Which Indian has been awarded the Tyler Prize for Environmental Achievement in
2020?
A. Subash Palekar
B. Siva Vandana
C. Pavan Sukhdev
D. Medha Batkar
Ans: C
Explanation:
Renowned environmental economist and UN Environment Programme (UNEP) Goodwill
Ambassador Pavan Sukhdev has been awarded the prestigious Tyler Prize for Environmental
Achievement, for the year 2020.
The award was instituted in 1973 and is otherwise known as the Nobel prize for the
environment. Pavan Sukhdev shares the prestigious award with another conservation
biologist from the United States, Gretchen Daily. Sukhdev is only the third Indian in the last
decade to receive this coveted award. His report on 'The Economics of Environment and
Biodiversity' was the base for the Green Economy movement of UNEP.
Q27) ‘Karewas’ are fertile alluvial soil deposits found in which state/UT?
Punjab
Assam
Jammu & Kashmir
Uttar Pradesh
Ans: C
Explanation:
The highly fertile alluvial soil deposits of the Kashmir Valley are called ‘Karewas’. The
plateaus are 13,000-18,000-metre-thick deposits of alluvial soil and sediments like sandstone
and mudstone.
These are the ideal places for the cultivation of saffron, almonds, apples, and several other
cash crops. It was seen in the news, as Karewas are being destroyed in the name of
development.
Q28) India signed the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) annual report with which country?
A. Pakistan
B. Nepal
C. Bhutan
D. China
Ans: A
Explanation:
The 118th meeting of the Permanent Indus Commission (PIC) comprising Indus
Commissioners of India and Pakistan was recently organized.
During the meeting, the annual report for the year ending on March 31, 2022, was finalised
and signed. The next meeting of the PIC would be held in Pakistan. According to the Indus
Waters Treaty, around 33 million acre-feet of water of eastern rivers- Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi
is allocated to India for unrestricted use annually, and about 135 MAF of western rivers-
Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab to Pakistan.
Q29) Which one of the following is not a site for the in-situ method of conservation of flora?
A. Biosphere Reserves
 B. Botanical Garden
C. National Park
D. Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans: B
Explanation:
In situ conservation = on-the-site conservation without displacing the affected organism.
• Ex-situ conservation = conserving the organism in an artificial habitat by displacing it from
its natural habitat.
• Botanical Garden = Plants are bred in a protected environment far from their natural home,
especially for research purposes. So, it is an Ex-situ conservation
. • Rest all along with protected forests and reserved forests are in-situ conservation methods.

Q30). Consider the following kinds of organisms

1) Bat
2) Bee
3) Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of them.
Ans: D
Explanation:
Pollination = transfer of pollen from the stamen to the pistil.
Bees are well-known pollinators. Birds help in pollination while trying to catch insects or
trying to suck nectar. Bats help in pollination while trying to catch insects.
Environment
Q31) Consider the following statements on IPCC
1 The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) was established by the United
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the World Meteorological Organization
(WMO) in 1988
2 Recently, Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) has published the 1st part of
its 5th assessment report (AR5).
 A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of them
Ans: A
Explanation:

Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) has published the 1st part of its 6th
assessment report (AR6). It sets the stage for the Conference of Parties (CoP) 26 conference
in November 2021.
After the IPCC had been founded in 1988, the First Assessment Report was published in
1990 and received an Update in 1992. In intervals of about 6 years, new editions of the IPCC
Assessment Report followed: AR2 in 1995, AR3 in 2001, AR4 in 2007, and AR5 in 2014.

Q32) Arrange the following from north to south

1) Lonar lake
2) Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary
3) Beas conservation reserve
4) Thol lake

A. 3-2-4-1
B. 4-2-3-1
C. 3-2-1-4
D. 2-1-3-4
Ans: A

Explanation:
Q33) Consider the following
1 Beach nourishment
2 See wall
3 Groynes.
Which of the above is/are steps to check sea erosion?
A 1 and 2
B 2 and 3
C All of them
D Only 1

Ans: C

Explanation:
Groynes are structures constructed at an angle to the flow to deflect the flowing water away
from critical zones.
The basic principle involved is to dredge sand from the sea and deposit it on the beaches
subject to erosion.
See wall is a structure that projects from a coastline to prevent erosion, longshore drift, etc.
Q34) Which of the following state has announced the initiative to calculate Gross
Environment Product (GEP)?

A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Telangana
C. Uttarakhand
D. Sikkim

Ans: C
Explanation:
The Uttarakhand government recently announced it will initiate valuation of its natural
resources in the form of Gross Environment Product (GEP), said to be along the lines of
Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
Gross Environment Product (GEP) is an assessment system that measures ecosystem services
of any area in terms of biophysical value & monetary value.

Q35) Consider the following statements

1. 5th mass extinction had wiped out dinosaurs & some 50% of plants & animals
2. 6th mass extinction is about Mankind’s over-exploitation/misuse of natural resources,
fragmentation/loss of natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems, pollution, and global
climate change which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of them

Ans- C
Explanation:

Cretaceous - Tertiary Extinction

• 5th Mass Extinction
• 65 million years ago
• It wiped out dinosaur & some 50% of plants & animals

Anthropocene/Holocene Extinction
• 6th mass extinction
• It is an ongoing extinction
• It is a result of human activities

Q36) Consider the following statements

1. Mugger/ Broad Snouted Crocodile is freshwater species (lakes, rivers, marshes).
2. Saltwater Crocodile is the largest living reptile and the crocodilian.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
A. 2 only
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them
Ans- D
Explanation-
Saltwater Crocodile
• Habitat: Saltwater habitats and brackish wetlands.
• Distribution: India’s east coast (Odisha's Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary, Andaman and
Nicobar Islands coasts & Sundarbans) across Southeast Asia and the Sundaic region to
northern Australia and Micronesia.
Mugger/ Broad Snouted Crocodile
It is also known as Marsh Crocodile or Indian Crocodile.
• It is freshwater species (lakes, rivers, marshes).
• Habitat: Inhabits freshwater lakes, rivers, and marshes, and prefers slow-moving, shallow
water bodies. It also thrives in artificial reservoirs & irrigation canals.

Q37) Which of the following is not an invasive specie

A. Water hyacinth
B. Nila grass
C. Siam weed
D. None of them above
Ans: D
Explanation: All of them are Invasive plant species.
An invasive species can be any kind of living organism—an amphibian (like the cane toad),
plant, insect, fish, fungus, bacteria, or even an organism’s seeds or eggs—that is not native to
an ecosystem and causes harm.

All three are Ramsar sites.

38) Consider the following pairs

Disease Cause
Minimata Mercury
Knock-Knee syndrome Lead
blue baby syndrome Nitrates
black foot disease Iron
How many pairs matched correctly?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All of them
Ans: B

Explanation:

Chronic exposure to arsenic causes black foot disease— a peripheral vascular disease (PVD),
in which the blood vessels in the lower limbs are severely damaged, resulting eventually in
progressive gangrene.
Excess nitrate in drinking water reacts with hemoglobin to form non-functional
methaemoglobin and impairs oxygen transport. This condition is called methemoglobinemia
or blue baby syndrome.
Excess fluoride in drinking water causes neuromuscular disorders, gastrointestinal problems,
teeth deformity, hardening of bones, and stiff and painful joints (skeletal fluorosis). Pain in
bones and joints and outward bending of legs from the knees is called Knock-Knee syndrome
A disorder caused by methylmercury poisoning that was first described in the inhabitants of
Minamata Bay, Japan, resulted from their eating fish contaminated with mercury industrial
waste. The disease is characterized by peripheral sensory loss, tremors, and both hearing and
visual loss.

Q39) What is the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) used for?

 A. Measuring oxygen levels in the blood
B. Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems
C. Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
D. Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions

Ans: C
Explanation:
Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
• Water pollution by organic wastes measured in terms of Biochemical Oxygen Demand
(BOD).
• BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic
wastes present in water. It is expressed in milligrams of oxygen per litre of water.
• The higher value of BOD indicates a low DO content of water.

Q40) Which of the following are the impacts of Aerosols?

1. Change in lifetimes of clouds.
2. enhancement or suppression of the summer monsoon rainfall
3. Altering temperatures over land

A. 1 and 2
B. 1and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All of them.
Ans: D
Explanation:
Aerosol remains one of the most uncertain factors in climate projection.
• Aerosol can affect the radiative balance of the climate system by
1. directly scattering or absorbing sunlight, or
2. acting as cloud condensation nuclei & ice nuclei & thus modifying the optical properties as
well as lifetimes of clouds.
• Aerosols lead to enhancement or suppression of the Indian summer monsoon rainfall
depending on their duration & scale along with their tendency to scatter sunlight directly back
into space, or by changing the size of cloud particles, thus negatively affecting their capacity
to absorb sunlight.
• This leads to reduced temperatures over land (due to smog), resulting in a weaker land-sea
temperature gradient, which is an essential force required to pull the monsoon circulation
from ocean to land.
Q41) This gas was leaked from a chemical factory on the outskirts of Visakhapatnam leaving
several people dead and injured. It is the main raw material for the synthesis of polystyrene. It
is an organic compound that is a derivative of benzene.

Which of the following gas has been discussed above?

E. Styrene gas
F. Ammonia
G. Methyl isocyanate
H. Methane gas
Ans: A
Explanation:
The gas that leaked from a chemical factory on the outskirts of Visakhapatnam leaving
people dead is called styrene.
• Styrene is an organic compound that is a derivative of benzene. It is stored in liquid state
and evaporates easily.
It is the main raw material for the synthesis of polystyrene.
• Polystyrene is a versatile plastic that is used to make parts of various appliances such as
refrigerators or micro-ovens, automotive parts, computers, disposable items, etc.
Q42 Consider the following
1. Reduction in particulate matter emission
2. Reduction in Nitrogen Oxides emission
3. Reduction in sulphur dioxide emission
Which of the above is/are the Advantages of BS-VI vehicles?
A. Only 2
B. 1 and 2
C. All of them
D. 1 and 3
Ans: C
Explanation:

Advantages of BS-VI vehicles and fuel

• Particulate Matter in diesel cars is down by 80 percent.
• Nitrogen oxides from diesel cars by 70 percent and in petrol cars by 25 percent.
• Reduction in sulphur makes it possible to equip vehicles with better catalytic converters.
Q43) Consider the following statements about the National Clean Air Program (NCAP)
1. The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year.
2. NCAP aims to reduce pollution levels (PM2.5 and PM10) by 20-30% by 2024 in
cities.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
National Clean Air Program (NCAP)
• The Government of India (GOI) launched its National Clean Air Program (NCAP) in 2019.
• NCAP aims to reduce pollution levels (PM2.5 and PM10) by 20-30% by 2024 in cities.
• The NCAP will be a mid-term, five-year action plan with 2019 as the first year.
• The NCAP has cited how Beijing has succeeded in reducing PM2.5 by 33.3 percent in five
years.
• The NCAP is working to expand the national air quality monitoring network, build capacity
for air pollution management, and strengthen public awareness about the dangers of air
pollution.
Q44) Recently, ‘oil zapper’ was in the news. What is it?

A. It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oil sludge and oil spills.
B. It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration.
C. It is a genetically engineered high biofuel yielding maize variety.
D. It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells.
E.
Ans: A
Explanation:
Using bioremediation techniques, TERI has developed a mixture of bacteria called ‘Oilzapper
and Oilivorous-S’ which degrades the pollutants of oil-contaminated sites, leaving behind no
harmful residues.

Q45) Consider the following statements on Carbon Trading

1. A carbon credit (often called a carbon offset) is a tradable certificate or permit.

2. One carbon credit is equal to one tonne of carbon dioxide.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 2 only
 B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them
Ans- C
Explanation:

The principles of carbon markets (Carbon Credits Trading) were established in the 1997
Kyoto Protocol.
Carbon credit
• A carbon credit (often called a carbon offset) is a tradable certificate or permit.
• One carbon credit is equal to one tonne of carbon dioxide.
• Carbon credits or carbon offsets can be acquired through afforestation, renewable energy,
CO2 sequestration, methane capture, buying from an exchange (carbon credits trading), etc.
Q46) Which country launched the ‘National Electric Vehicle Infrastructure (NEVI)’
Program?
A. China
B. Israel
C. USA
D. UK
Ans- C
Explanation-
U.S announced USD 5 billion to be made available under the new National Electric Vehicle
Infrastructure (NEVI) Formula Program.
It aims to build a national electric vehicle charging network. The money will be used over
five years to build thousands of electric vehicles charging stations.
Q47) Which Indian state/UT launched the ‘CLAP’ programme?
A. Telangana
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Kerala
D. Karnataka
Ans: B
Explanation:
The Andhra Pradesh government started the Clean Andhra Pradesh (CLAP)-Jagananna
Swachha Sankalpam programme.
It aims to clean up rural areas and improve sanitation conditions and waste management with
public participation. Besides a door-to-door collection of garbage, the campaign aims for the
segregation of liquid and solid waste, onsite waste treatment, and encourages home
composting.

Q48) Consider the following pairs

Type Specie
Keystone Species Bee
Indicator species Algae
Flagship specie Elephant
How many pairs matched correctly?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All of them
D. None of the above
Ans: C

Explanation: All the species are correctly matched.

Q49) Which institution released the ‘State of India’s Environment Report 2022’?
A. NITI Aayog
B. Centre for Science and Environment
C. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
D. UNDP
Ans- B
Explanation-
Bhupender Yadav, Union minister of environment, forests, and climate change released the
Centre for Science and Environment –Down To Earth’s Annual State of India’s Environment
Report 2022. This was released at the Anil Agarwal Dialogue organised by the Delhi-based
non-profit Centre for Science and Environment (CSE).
As per the report, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are below the national average in 11 and 14 SDGs,
respectively. Kerala, Tamil Nadu, and Himachal Pradesh fared best in SDGs.

Q50) which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating
the value of the Air Quality Index?

1) Carbon dioxide
 2) Carbon monoxide
3) Nitrogen dioxide
4) Sulphur dioxide
5) Methane

A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 2,3 and 4
D. All of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
The AQI will consider eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb).
Q51) Nettempadu project is constructed on which river?
A. Pranahitha
B. Krishna
C. Manjira
D. Godavari
Ans: B
Explanation:
The Nettempadu project seeks to lift 21.425 TMC of water from the Krishna River from the
foreshore of the Jurala Project and will provide irrigation to about two lakh acres in Dharur
and Gadwal Mandals of the drought-prone and backward district.

Q52) Consider the following

1. Carbon Dioxide
2. Methane
3. Nitrous Oxide
4. CFCs
Arrange the above in increasing order based on their contribution to global warming?
A 4-3-2-1
B 1-2-3-4
C 1-3-2-4
D 3-4-2-1
Ans: D
Explanation:
The relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming
Q53) The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of
the atmosphere, because it absorbs
A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat.
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation.
C. all the solar radiation.
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
Ans: D
Explanation: The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the
temperature of the atmosphere because it absorbs the infrared part of the solar radiation
(outgoing radiation).
Q54) Consider the following pairs
Report/Index Published by
Emissions Gap Report UNEP
Climate Change Performance Index Germanwatch
World Energy Outlook International Energy Agency (IEA)
How many pairs matched correctly?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All of them
D. None of the above
Ans: C
Explanation: All the pairs are correctly matched.
Q55) What is the Urban heat island effect?
A. Vulnerability of urban areas to global warming
B. High humid urban regions near the coastal area
C. A relatively high temperature in urban areas than in surrounding rural areas
 D. Prolonged summer seasons in urban areas.
Ans: C
Explanation:
An urban heat island is an urban or an industrial area that has temperatures considerably
higher than its surrounding rural areas (both share the same climate) primarily due to
anthropogenic reasons.

Q56) Consider the following statements about the Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna & Flora (CITES)

1. CITES is legally binding on the Parties

2. CITES is an international agreement between NGOs
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: B
Explanation:
CITES is also known as the Washington Convention. It is an international agreement
(multilateral treaty) between governments. CITES is legally binding on the Parties.
However, it does not take the place of national laws.
Q57) Consider the following statements
1. NTPC Ramagundam has the country's largest floating solar plant.
2. The power station is provided water by the Sriram Sagar project as a cooling source.
Choose incorrect statements
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
Q58) Which of the following districts of Telangana has the highest percentage of Forest area?
A. Jogulamba Gadwal
B. Warangal urban
C. Adilabad
D. Khammam
Ans: C
Explanation:
Adilabad has 35.53 percent forest cover in proportion to its geographical area.

Q59) Consider the following pairs about Telangana

Category Symbol
State Animal JInka (Deer)
State flower Tangedu (Tanner’s Cassia)
State Tree Marri (Banyan)
State Bird Palapitta (Indian Roller)
How many pairs matched correctly?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All of them
D. None of the above
Ans: C
Explanation: All the pairs are correctly matched.
Q60) what is Project RE-HAB?
A. Animal relocation programme
B. Rehabilitation of tribals in eco-sensitive zones
C. an innovative way of preventing elephant–human conflicts
D. Community-based Forest conservation programme
Ans: C
Explanation:
RE-HAB Project is an innovative way of preventing elephant–human conflicts.
• It is demonstrated by Khadi & Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
• The project has significantly reduced elephants’ presence at places in Karnataka’s Kodagu
district.
• It will soon be replicated in all states affected by elephant attacks like West Bengal,
Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Assam, Tamil Nadu & Kerala.
• Under this project, bee boxes are used as a fence to prevent elephants from entering human
habitation.
Q61) Which of the following programmes are under impletion by the Ministry of
Environment and Forest for the development of forest areas?
1. National Afforestation Programme (NAP) scheme
2. National Mission for a Green India (GIM) (Green India Mission)
3. Forest Fire Prevention & Management Scheme (FFPM)

A. Only 2
B. 1 and 2
C. All of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
The ministry is implementing three major schemes for the development of forest areas:
1. National Afforestation Programme (NAP) scheme
2. National Mission for a Green India (GIM) (Green India Mission)
3. Forest Fire Prevention & Management Scheme (FFPM)
• The NAP is being implemented for afforestation of degraded forest lands.
• The GIM aims at improving the quality of forests and increasing forest cover.
• The FFPM takes care of forest fire prevention and management measures.
Q62) Consider the following statements about National Afforestation Programme (NAP)
1. NAP is a centrally sponsored scheme
2. NAP is implemented by a three-tier institutional setup
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
NAP aims at restoration of degraded forests and develops the forests with peoples’
participation.
• NAP is a centrally sponsored scheme which is implemented with the fund sharing pattern of
60: 40 percent between the Centre and States wherein the sharing pattern for north-eastern
and hilly States is 90:10.
• NAP is implemented by a three-tier institutional setup through the
1. State Forest Development Agency (SFDA) at the state level,
2. Forest Development Agency (FDA) at the forest division level and
3. Joint Forest Management Committees (JFMCs) at the village level (registered societies).
Q63) Consider the following pairs

Social forestry Components

Farm forestry Planting of trees on and around agricultural boundaries

Community forestry: raising of trees on community land by communities

Extension forestry: Planting of trees on the sides of roads, canals and railways, etc.

Agroforestry: plant trees on their own farmland

How many pairs matched correctly?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All of them
D. None of the above
Ans: B
Explanation:
• Farm forestry: commercial and non-commercial farm forestry is being promoted where
individual farmers were encouraged to plant trees on their own farmland.
• Community forestry: raising of trees on community land by communities for the benefit of
the entire community. The government has the responsibility of providing seedlings and
fertilizer.
• Extension forestry: Planting of trees on the sides of roads, canals, and railways, along with
planting on wastelands is known as ‘extension’ forestry. Under this project, there has been
the creation of wood lots in the village common lands, government wastelands, and
panchayat lands.
• Agroforestry: Planting of trees on and around agricultural boundaries, and on marginal,
private lands, in combination with crops is known as agroforestry.
Q64) Consider the following statements about Compensatory Afforestation Fund
Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA)
1. CAMPA is a National Advisory Council under the chairmanship of the Union
Minister of Environment
2. The State CAMPA receives funds collected from user agencies towards
compensatory afforestation.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:

• CAMPA is a National Advisory Council under the chairmanship of the Union Minister of
Environment.
• CAMPA and state CAMPA were set up after the intervention of the Supreme Court.
• CAMPA at the national and state level CAMPAs are meant to promote afforestation and
regeneration activities as a way of compensating for forest land diverted to non-forest uses.
• The CAMPA National Advisory Council makes recommendations to State CAMPA.
• The State CAMPA receives funds collected from user agencies towards compensatory
afforestation.
Q65) Consider the following statements about National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change
(NAFCC)

1. NAFCC is a central sector scheme

2. Money obtained from coal cess goes into NAFCC.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: D
Explanation:

NAFCC is a central sector scheme set up in the year 2015-16 with an overall aim to support
adaptation activities that mitigate the adverse effects of climate change.
• The projects related to adaptation in sectors such as agriculture, animal husbandry, water,
forestry, tourism, etc. are eligible for funding under NAFCC.
• NABARD is the National Implementing Entity (NIE).
• As an initial sum, an amount of Rs 100 crore will be transferred to the Fund.
• Money obtained from coal cess goes into NAFCC.
Q66) what is the SATAT initiative?
A. An eco-feminist initiative by the union government
B. Air quality monitoring initiative in New Delhi
C. The initiative promotes Compressed Biogas (CBG)
D. Affordable gas connection scheme in tribal areas
Ans: C
Explanation:

• Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT) Initiative promotes

Compressed Biogas (CBG) as an alternative, green transport fuel for efficient management of
biomass & organic waste.
• Compressed Biogas plants are proposed to be set up mainly through independent
entrepreneurs.
• SATAT initiative has the potential of addressing environmental problems arising from
stubble burning.
Q67) Consider the following statements about Greater One-Horned Rhino
1. Greater One-Horned Rhino is the largest of the rhino species
2. The Indian rhino’s single horn is present only in males.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
 D. None of them.
Ans: B
Explanation:

Greater One-Horned Rhino

• Habitats: Tropical & Subtropical Grasslands, Savannas, & Shrublands.
• Indian rhinos once ranged across the entire northern part of the Indian subcontinent.
• Now they are confined to the alluvial grasslands of the Terai of India, Bhutan & Nepal &
the Brahmaputra basin.
Major Populations: Kaziranga National Park, Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary & Manas National
Park.
• Greater One-Horned Rhino is the largest of the rhino species (second in size only to the
Asian elephant).
• The Indian rhino’s single horn is present in both males & females.
Q68) Consider the following statements about Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood)
1. Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood) is in the ‘endangered’ category of the IUCN Red List
2. It is endemic to India & can only be found in the southern parts of the Eastern Ghats.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:

Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood) has fallen back into the ‘endangered’ category on the IUCN
Red List.
• Red Sanders is a small tree that grows to 5-8 meters in height and has dark greyish bark.
• Habitat: Tropical Dry Deciduous Forest.
• Distribution: A native and endemic to India & can only be found in the southern parts of the
Eastern Ghats, Palakonda & Seshachalam hill ranges of Andhra Pradesh & also found in
Kerala, Tamil Nadu & Karnataka.
Q69) what is Aquamation?
A. Self-purification capability of mangroves
B. Adaptation mechanism in deep ocean creatures
C. An eco-friendly cremation method
D. Environment-friendly disposal of Agri waste
Ans: C
Explanation:

Recently, the body of Nobel Peace Prize-winning Anglican archbishop and anti-apartheid
campaigner Desmond Tutu underwent aquamation.
It is a greener & climate-friendly cremation method.
• Aquamation is a process in which the body of the deceased is immersed for a few hours in a
mixture of water and a strong alkali in a pressurized metal cylinder and heated to around 150
degrees centigrade.
• The combination of gentle water flow, temperature, and alkalinity accentuates the
breakdown of the organic materials.
Q70) Consider the following statements about Chilka lake
1. It is the largest coastal lagoon in India.
2. Chilika Lake was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance
under the Ramsar Convention.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
Chillika Lake
• It is a brackish water lagoon at the mouth of the Daya River.
• It is the largest coastal lagoon in India.
• Birds from as far as the Caspian Sea, Lake Baikal, the Aral Sea, and other remote parts of
Central Asia, Ladakh, and the Himalayas come here.
• In 1981, Chilika Lake was designated the first Indian wetland of international importance
under the Ramsar Convention.
• Nalbana Bird Sanctuary is the core area of the Ramsar designated wetlands of Chilika Lake.
• The Irrawaddy dolphin (EN) is the flagship species of Chilika lake.
Q71) Consider the following pairs

Hydrogen type Source

green hydrogen Fuel produced from renewable power
blue hydrogen Fuel produced from fossil fuels with carbon capture & storage options
grey hydrogen Fuel produced from fossil fuels
How many pairs matched correctly?
A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All of them
D. None of the above
Ans: C
Explanation:
There are 3 types of hydrogen – grey, blue & green.
1) The fuel produced from fossil fuels is called grey hydrogen.
2) Fuel produced from fossil fuels with carbon capture & storage options is called blue
hydrogen.
3) Those produced from renewable power sources are called green hydrogen.
Q72) What is the Zobell effect?
A. A sudden rise of sea level in coastal regions of Antarctica
B. Submerged plastic attracts iron, carbon, nitrogen, etc.
C. Sudden rainfalls in northeast India due to funnelling
D. Increased biomagnification due to ocean acidification.
Ans: B
Explanation:
When plastics are submerged in water they attract carbon, iron, nitrogen, and phosphorus,
which in turn attract microbes. This is sometimes called the Zobell effect.
Q73) Consider the following statements about The International Solar Alliance (ISA)

1. Countries that do not fall within the Tropics can join the alliance with the exception of
voting rights.
2. ISA is the nodal agency for implementing One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG)

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
ISA is now extended to all members of the UN and is now a treaty-based inter-governmental
organization.
• Countries that do not fall within the Tropics can join the alliance with the exception of
voting rights.
• The primary objective of the alliance is to work for efficient exploitation of solar energy to
reduce dependence on fossil fuels.
• ISA is the nodal agency for implementing One Sun One World One Grid (OSOWOG),
which seeks to transfer solar power generated in one region to feed the electricity demands of
others.

Q74) Which of the following goals were announced by Indian PM at the COP26 meeting in
Glasgow.

1. 50% of India’s energy will be sourced from renewable energy sources

2. Reduction in carbon emissions until 2030 by a million tonnes
3. India shall also reduce its emissions intensity per unit of GDP by less than 45%
4. 500 Gigawatt of renewable energy to be installed by 2030
5. To achieve net-zero emissions, target latest by 2070.

A. 1 and 2
B. 1,2, and3
C. 1,2,3 and 4
D. 1,2,3,4, and 5
Ans: D
Explanation:
The five-fold strategy to fight climate change, termed Panchamrit, was announced by Indian
PM at the COP26 meeting in Glasgow.

1. 50% of India’s energy will be sourced from renewable energy sources

2. Reduction in carbon emissions until 2030 by a million tonnes
3. India shall also reduce its emissions intensity per unit of GDP by less than 45%
4. 500 Gigawatt of renewable energy to be installed by 2030
5. To achieve net-zero emissions, target latest by 2070.
• India has also given the slogan of One LIFE, One World, at Glasgow.
Q75) Consider the following statements about the Global methane pledge
 1. India is a signatory to this pledge
2. Over 100 countries pledged to reduce methane emissions by at least 30% from present
levels by 2030

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: A
Explanation:

Global Methane Pledge

• Over 100 countries pledged to reduce methane emissions by at least 30% from present
levels by 2030.
• This pledge, if achieved, is estimated to avoid about a 0.2-degree Celsius temperature rise
by the middle of the century.
• India is not a signatory to this pledge.
Q76) Consider the following statements about National Ganga Council

1. The Prime minister is its chairperson

2. This Council has the overall responsibility of preventing pollution and rejuvenating
the Ganga River Basin, including the river Ganga and its tributaries.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
National Ganga Council
• It is also called as National Council for Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management of River
Ganga.
• It was formed under the river Ganga (Rejuvenation, Protection, and Management)
Authorities Order, 2016.
• This Council has the overall responsibility of preventing pollution and rejuvenating the
Ganga River Basin, including the river Ganga and its tributaries.
Members of the National Ganga Council
• Prime Minister – Chairperson
• Union Minister for Jal Shakti – Vice-Chairperson
• Union Minister for Environment, Finance, Power. Housing, Science & Technology, State
for Tourism & Ship-ping.
• Chief Ministers of State through which Ganga or its tributaries flows.
Q77) Consider the following statements about “Bamboo Oasis on Lands in Drought”
(BOLD)
1. It seeks to create bamboo-based green patches in arid and semi-arid land zones.
2. It is the first of its kind exercise in India and was launched from the tribal village
NichlaMandwa in Udaipur, Rajasthan.

Which of the above statements are correct?

A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
Project Bold
The project named “Bamboo Oasis on Lands in Drought” (BOLD) is the first of its kind
exercise in India which was launched from the tribal village NichlaMandwa in Udaipur,
Rajasthan.
• A unique scientific exercise serving the combined national objectives of reducing
desertification and providing livelihood and multi-disciplinary rural industry support has been
initiated by Khadi and Village Industries Commission
(KVIC).
• Project BOLD, which seeks to create bamboo-based green patches in arid and semi-arid
land zones.
Q78) What is Fit for 55?
A. Arctic council countries pledge to reduce emissions by 55% by 2030
B. EU’s plan to cut its greenhouse gas emissions by 55% by 2030
C. Collaboration of top 55 NGOs to lead fitness campaigns all over the world
D. African nation's initiative to reach the net-zero target by 2055.
Ans: B
Explanation: Fit for 55
EU is working on the revision of its climate, energy, and transport-related legislation under
the so-called 'Fit for 55 packages' to align current laws with the 2030 and 2050 ambitions.
• The European Commission's plan, "Fit for 55," calls for its 27 member states to cut their
output of greenhouse gases by 55% by 2030, compared with 1990 levels.
• As part of the European Green Deal, with the European Climate Law, the EU has set itself a
binding target of achieving climate neutrality by 2050.
• This requires current greenhouse gas emission levels to drop substantially in the next
decades. As an intermediate step towards climate neutrality, the EU has raised its 2030
climate ambition, committing to cutting emissions by at least 55% by 2030.
Q79) Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of
decreasing productivity?
A. Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
B. Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
C. Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
D. Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Ans: C
Explanation:
Ecotones (Mangroves, estuaries, and grasslands) have greater productivity compared to the
surrounding ecosystems.
Oceans are very deep and hence productivity is limited to the surface only. Lakes just like
oceans have low productivity. But due to some plants in the photic zone, lakes have
productivity slightly greater than that of oceans.
Q80) Consider the following statements
1. The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an international treaty for “the conservation
and sustainable use of wetlands”.
2. The 2nd of February each year is World Wetlands Day.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands is an international treaty for “the conservation and
sustainable use of wetlands”.
• It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands.
• It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran.
• The Convention was signed on the 2nd of February 1971.
• The 2nd of February each year is World Wetlands Day.
Q81) Consider the following statements
1. Uttar Pradesh has the highest number of Ramsar sites
2. Currently, there are more than 50 Ramsar sites in India
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: B
Explanation:
Including the recent additions, India has 49 Ramsar sites and Uttar Pradesh has the highest
number of Ramsar sites (8).
Q82) Consider the following statements
1. No grazing of any livestock shall also be permitted inside a National Park
2. Unlike a Sanctuary, where certain rights can be allowed, in a National Park, no rights
are allowed.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: C
Explanation:
National parks are areas reserved for wildlife where they can freely use their habitats and
natural resources.
• The difference between a Sanctuary and a National Park mainly lies in the vesting of rights
of people living inside.
• Unlike a Sanctuary, where certain rights can be allowed, in a National Park, no rights are
allowed.
• No grazing of any livestock shall also be permitted inside a National Park while in a
Sanctuary, the Chief Wildlife Warden may regulate, control, or prohibit it.
Q83) The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with
traditional human life is the establishment of
A. biosphere reserves
B. botanical gardens
 C. national parks
D. wildlife sanctuaries
Ans: A
Explanation:
Biosphere reserves are large areas of protected land for the conservation of wildlife, plant and
animal resources, and the traditional life of the tribals living in the area.
• May have one or more national parks or wildlife sanctuaries in it.
National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries discourage all sorts of human activity.
• In Wildlife Sanctuaries, grazing of cattle is strictly regulated.
Q84) Consider the following statements
1. The purpose of the declaration of Eco-Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of
human activities
2. state governments should declare land falling within 10 km of the boundaries of
national parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco-fragile zones or ESZs
Which of the above statements are incorrect?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: D
Explanation:
Eco-Sensitive Zones areas are based on the core (all kinds of human activity are prohibited)
and buffer (grazing, collection of minor forest produce, subsistence agriculture, etc. are
allowed on a sustainable basis) model of management.
The National Wildlife Action Plan (2002–2016) of MoEFCC stipulated that state
governments should declare land falling within 10 km of the boundaries of national parks and
wildlife sanctuaries as eco-fragile zones or ESZs under the Environmental (Protection) Act,
1986.
Q85) It is one of the eight "hottest hot spots" of biological diversity in the world. It is a
UNESCO World Heritage Site. It exhibits a remarkably high degree of species endemism.
Gadgil's committee report had recommended that 64% of its area come under Ecologically
Sensitive Area (ESA).
Which of the following geographical area is described above?
A. Eastern Ghats
B. Eastern Himalayas
C. Western Ghats
D. Aravalli Mountains
Ans: C
Explanation
Western Ghats (1.6 lakh sq km in area) run from Kanyakumari to Gujarat, spanning six
different States ― Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Gujarat, and Goa.
• the Western Ghats exhibit a remarkably high degree of species endemism.
• It is one of the eight "hottest hot spots" of biological diversity in the world.
• It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Q86) Telangana govt recently formed a state-level air quality monitoring committee.
Consider the following comments in this context.
1. It is Headed by the Chief minister.
2. Committee was formed to oversee the execution of the 15th Finance Commission's
recommendations to enhance air quality.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. Only 2
B. Only 1
C. Both of them
D. None of them.
Ans: A

Explanation:
The Telangana government has formed a state-level monitoring and implementation
committee to enhance the air quality in Hyderabad.
The nine-member committee, chaired by the chief secretary, was established by
a Government Order (GO) on Saturday. The panel was formed to oversee the execution of the
15th Finance Commission’s recommendations to million-plus cities for supplementing efforts
to enhance air quality.
Q87) In 2021 professor Jaya Shankar Telangana State Agriculture university signed an MoU
with which institute to identify the pink bollworm infestation on cotton through an AI-based
pest management system

A. Vellore institute
B. SRM institute
C. Wadhwani institute
D. Amritha University
Ans: C
Explanation:
In a bid to empower farmers with advance information about the possible pink bollworm
infestation in cotton fields so that they could take preventive and control measures, Professor
Jayashankar Telangana State Agricultural University (PJTSAU) has signed a memorandum
of understanding with Wadhwani Institute for Artificial Learning, Mumbai, for providing AI-
based interventions.
Q88) Arrange the following from West to east

1. Simplipal National Park

2. Gir National Park
3. Kanha National Park
4. Sundarbans

A. 3-2-4-1
B. 4-2-3-1
C. 3-2-1-4
D. 2-3-1-4

Ans: D

Explanation:

Q89) What is the aim of GHMC in distributing 44lakhs of 12Ltr capacity tin bin to every
household in GHMC?
 A. To support daily workers for carrying goods
B. To support students and children for carrying lunch.
C. Segregation of dry and wet waste
D. Eliminate wastage of food grains
Ans: C
Explanation:
The chief minister launched the distribution of free bins as part of the "Swacch Hyderabad"
initiative. The state government is spending about Rs.42 crore on garbage bins for
segregation of dry solid waste or non-biodegradable and recyclable, and wet municipal solid
waste or biodegradable waste, which is mandatory as per the Municipal Solid Waste Rules
and National Green Tribunal orders.
Q90) What is Star Rating System, launched by The Ministry of Environment, Forest and
Climate Change
A. A rating agency for all the eco sensitive zones in India
B. A system to provide speedy environmental clearances
C. A tracker to monitor pollution in the lower atmosphere
D. A competitive system to rank states based on climate action performance
Ans: B
Explanation:
Star Rating System
The Environment Ministry is to rank and incentivize the states with this new system. The
ministry will find out states that provide environmental clearances efficiently in short
duration of time. It will then incentivize such states. For this, the star rating system provides
marks to the states on a scale of seven. The states receive two marks for clearing a project in
less than 80 days. One mark for clearing in 105 days. Zero for clearing more than this
duration. If the state has less than 10% of projects for scrutiny, then one mark is provided and
so on.
Q91) The Telangana Government recently imposed a total ban on Glyphosate. In this context
what is Glyphosate?
A. An important ingredient in cosmetics
B. An herbicide
C. Genetically Modified crop variety
D. Used in making toiletries
Ans: B
Explanation:
The Glyphosate is a controversial herbicide usually use to kill weeds in cotton farms.
The usage of Glyphosate is banned because it is carcinogenic. Also, it is being banned to
control the illegal cultivation of HTBt cotton.
Glyphosate is absorbed through foliage (plant leaves). It is minimally absorbed by roots.
In 2015, World Health Organisation classified Glyphosate under Category 2A, that is, a
“Probably Carcinogenic in Humans”.

Q92) Consider the following islands

1. Puttigadda
2. Sangamadda
3. Karnamgadda
4. Bapangadda
The above islands are part of which wildlife sanctuary?
A. Manjeera WLS
B. Pocharam WLS
C. Phakal WLS
D. Pranahitha WLS
Ans: A
Explanation:
Manjira Wildlife & Bird Sanctuary
The charming part about this sanctuary is that one can take an adventurous boat ride for Bird
watching in the Manjira Wildlife & Bird Sanctuary. There are nine small yet very beautiful
islands Bapangadda, Sangamadda, Puttigadda, Karnamgadda, etc. which together form the
Manjira Wildlife & Bird Sanctuary.
Q93) This is part of the Nallamala Forest track has rich Biological Diversity with several
endemic species of flora and fauna. This Tiger Reserve is one of the largest tiger reserves in
India that extends about 2611.4 Sq Km over Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts of
Telangana State.
Which Tiger Reserve is mentioned above?
A. Kawal Tiger Reserve
B. Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve
C. Bourapuram Tiger Reserve
D. Amrabad Tiger Reserve

Ans: D
Explanation:
The Amrabad Tiger Reserve which is part of the Nallamala Forest track has rich Biological
Diversity with several endemic species of flora and fauna.
This Forest tract is home to the largest number of Tigers in Telangana State. The hilly terrain
of this Tiger Reserve with deep valleys and gorges forms the catchment of the Krishna River.
This Tiger Reserve (ATR) is one of the largest tiger reserves in India that extends about
2611.4 Sq Km over Nagarkurnool and Nalgonda districts of Telangana State.
94) This wildlife sanctuary is well known for Marsh Crocodiles that are seen throughout the
Indo Gangetic plain. It is located along the holy River Godavari.
Which of the following river is discussed above?
A. Sivaram wildlife Sanctuary
B. Pocharam wildlife sanctuary
C. Pranahitha wildlife sanctuary
D. Manjira Wildlife & Bird Sanctuary
Ans: A
Explanation:
Located along the holy River Godavari which is the lifeline to the Sivaram wildlife Sanctuary
in the Karimnagar district of Telangana, the total area of this beautiful wildlife Sanctuary is
approx. 36.29 sq km. This wildlife sanctuary is well known for Marsh Crocodiles that are
seen throughout the Indo-Gangetic plain.
Q95) which city has hosted the 32nd triennial International Seed Testing Association (ISTA)
Congress?
A. Bengaluru
B. Hyderabad
C. Mumbai
D. New Delhi
Ans: B
Explanation:
Telangana has hosted the triennial International Seed Testing Association (ISTA) Congress in
Hyderabad. ISTA congress was held for the first time in Asia. The Congress was held from
26 June to 3 July 2019.
Q96) In which of the following districts Telangana Government proposed to construct 1st
Eco bridge for animals to cross roads
A. Kumuram bheem Asifabad
B. Mulugu
C. Nagar kurnool
D. Warangal rural
Ans: A
Q97) The ministry oversees the implementation of Mission Bhagiratha
 A. Ministry of environment and forests
B. Ministry of health and family welfare
C. Ministry of Panchayat raj and rural development
D. None of the above
Ans: C
Explanation:

Q98) He has played a leadership role in the Save Silent Valley campaign in the Kerala State
in the 1970s. Save Silent Valley was a social movement aimed at the protection of Silent
Valley, an evergreen sub-tropical forest in the Palakkad district of Kerala, India.
Which of the following person is described above?
A. Anand Vijayan
B. Kailash Satyarthi
C. Sundar Lal Bahuguna
D. MK Prasad
Ans: D
Explanation:
MK Prasad played a leadership role in the Save Silent Valley campaign in the Kerala State in
the 1970s. Save Silent Valley was a social movement aimed at the protection of Silent
Valley, an evergreen sub-tropical forest in the Palakkad district of Kerala, India. It was
started in 1973 by an NGO, led by Kerala Sasthra Sahithya Parishad (KSSP), to save the
Silent Valley from being flooded by a (hydroelectric) project. MK Prasad also led KSSP.
Q99) Warangal city has been recently selected as one among the 10 Smart Cities under
“Nurturing Neighbourhood Challenge (NNC)”. Which of the following
organisation/institution has announced this?
Three
A. NITI AAYOG
B. Ministry of Housing and Urban Development
 C. Centre for policy research
D. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Ans: B
Explanation:
Warangal city has been selected as one among the 10 Smart Cities under “Nurturing
Neighbourhood Challenge (NNC)”. It is based on making urban public spaces friendly for the
0-5 age group children, among 63 cities. The Smart Cities Mission, Ministry of Housing and
Urban Affairs (MoHUA), announced 10 winning cities for the NNC in collaboration with the
Bernard van Leer Foundation (BvLF) and technical partner World Resources Institute (WRI).
The challenge is a three-year phased initiative. While Bengaluru topped the list, Warangal
made it into the list by securing the 10th position.

Q100) He is known as Defender of the Himalayas & Environmental Gandhi. He protested for
the preservation of forests in the Himalayas & led the Chipko Movement in the 1970s &
Anti- Tehri Dam movement starting in the 1980s.
Which of the following person is described above?
A. Subash Palekar
B. Pavan Suchdev
C. Sundar Lal Bahuguna
D. Medha Bhadkar
Ans: C
Explanation:

Sundar Lal Bahuguna is known as Defender of the Himalayas & Environmental Gandhi.
• He joined Freedom Struggle in his initial years & opened schools for untouchables.
• He protested for the preservation of forests in the Himalayas & led the Chipko Movement in
the 1970s & Anti- Tehri Dam movement starting in the 1980s.
• He was a follower of Gandhian Principles like Satyagraha, non-violence, self-reliance, etc.
• He believed that ‘Ecology is the permanent economy’.