13-04-2025

9610ZMDRANKER100007 MD

PHYSICS

1) An electric field exists in the space, where C = 10 V/m2. Taking the potential at (10 m, 20
m) to be zero, find the potential at the origin.

(1) 500 volt

(2) –500 volt
(3) 50 volt
(4) –50 volt

2) A point charge q is held at the centre of a circle of radius r. B, C are two points on the
circumference of the circle and A is a point outside the circle. If WAB represents work done by
electric field in taking a charge q0 from A to B and WAC represents the workdone from A to C, then : -

(1) WAB > WAC

(2) WAB < WAC
(3) WAB = WAC ≠ 0
(4) WAB = WAC = 0

3) ABC is a right angled triangle situated in a uniform electric field which is in the plane of the
triangle. The points A and B are at the same potential of 15 V while the point C is at a potential of 20

V. AB = 3 cm and BC = 4 cm. The magnitude of electric field is (in S.I. Units)

(1) 100
(2) 125
(3) 167
(4) 208

4) The displacement-time graphs for two cars A and B moving on same track is shown in figure. The

magnitude of their relative velocity is : -

(1) 0
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 3 m/s
(4) 3.5 m/s

5) Ratio of minimum kinetic energies of two projectile of same mass is 4 : 1. The ratio of the
maximum height attained by them is also 4 : 1. The ratio of their ranges would be : -

(1) 16 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 2 : 1

6) A screw gauge having 100 equal dimensions and a pitch of length 1 mm is used to measure the
diameter of a wire of length 5.6 cm. The main scale reading is 1 mm and the 47th circular division
coincides with the main scale. Find the diameter of the wire.

(1) 1.37 mm
(2) 1.47 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 1.20 mm

7) Assertion (A) : The number of significant figures in 0.100 is 1.

Reason (R) : The zeros at the end of a number are always meaningless.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

8) In the given circuit the input voltage Vin is shown in figure. The cut–in voltage of p–n junction
diode (D1 or D2) is 0.6 V. Which of the following output voltage (V0) waveform across the diode is
correct?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Statement-I : By doping silicon semiconductor with pentavalent material, the electrons density
increases.
Statement-II : The n-type semiconductor has net negative charge.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.

(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.

10) A body of mass 10 kg is lying on a rough inclined plane of inclination 37° and m = 1/2, the
minimum force required to pull the body up the plane is :-

(1) 80 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 120 N
(4) 60 N

11) A monkey of mass 50kg climbs on a rope which can withstand the tension (T) of 350N. If monkey
initially climbs down with an acceleration of and then climbs up with an acceleration

of . Choose the correct option

(1) T = 700N while climbing upward

(2) T = 350 N while going downward
(3) Rope will break while climbing upward
(4) Rope will break while going downward

12) Assertion(A): For the planets orbiting around the sun, angular speed, linear speed and K.E.
changes with time, but angular momentum remains constant.
Reason(R): No torque is acting on the rotating planet. So its angular momentum is constant.
 If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
Assertion.
If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

13)
Gravitational force on m0 will be zero, if :

(1)
x= and m0 = 2m

(2) 0
x= and m = m

(3)
x= and any value of m0

(4)
x= and m0 = m only

14) A rectangular block is heated from 0°C to 100°C. The percentage increase in its length is 0.2%.
The percentage increase in its volume is :-

(1) 0.6 %
(2) 0.10%
(3) 0.2 %
(4) 0.4 %

15) 80 gm of water at 30°C is poured on a large block of Ice at 0°C, the mass of ice that melts is :-

(1) 30 gm
(2) 80 gm
(3) 1600 gm
(4) 150 gm

16) If hydrogen gas is heated to a very high temperature. Then fraction of energy possessed by gas
molecules correspond to rotational motion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
17) If 60% of a solid is inside the liquid while floating, then density of solid will be (given that density
of liquid is 3 × 103 kg/m3) :-

(1) 1.8 × 103 kg/m3

(2) 2.4 × 103 kg/m3
(3) 0.5 kg/m3
(4) 1.2 × 103 kg/m3

18) The surface tension of soap solution is 0.03 N/m. The work done in blowing to form a soap
bubble of surface area 40 cm2 is:-

(1) 1.2 × 10–4 J

(2) 2.4 × 10–4 J
(3) 12 × 10–4 J
(4) 24 × 10–4 J

19) Four massless springs whose force constants are 2k, 2k, k and 2k respectively are attached to a
mass M kept on a frictionless plane (as shown in figure). If the mass M is displaced in the horizontal

direction, then the frequency of oscillation of the system is :-.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In artificial satellite, the object used is :-

(1) Spring watch

(2) Simple pendulum watch
(3) (1) & (2) both
(4) None

21) A big explosion on the moon cannot be heard on the earth because : ––

(1) The explosion produces high frequency sound waves which are inaudible
(2) Sound waves require a material medium for propagation
(3) Sound waves are absorbed in the moon’s atmosphere
(4) Sound waves are absorbed in the earth’s atmosphere

22) Two tuning forks have frequencies 450 Hz and 454 Hz respectively. On sounding these forks
together, the time interval between successive maximum intensities will be :

(1) 1/4 sec

(2) 1/2 sec
(3) 1 sec
(4) 2 sec

23) In the given figure magnetic field at the center of ring (O) is . Now it is turned through a
90° about axis, so that two semicircular parts are mutually perpendicular. Then find the value of

magnetic field (in Tesla) at centre.

(1) 8 T
(2) 16 T
(3) 4 T
(4) 12 T

24) The magnet of a vibration magnetometer is heated so as to reduce its magnetic moment by 19%.
By doing this, what will be effect on time period of the magnetometer?

(1) Decrease by 21%

(2) Increase by 11%
(3) Decrease by 19%
(4) Increase by 19%

25) Plane figures made of thin wires of resistance R = 50 milli ohm/meter are located in a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular into the plane of the figures and which decrease at the rate

. Then what are the respective currents in the inner and outer boundary? (The inner

radius a = 10 cm and outer radius b = 20 cm)

(1) 2 × 10–4 A (anticlockwise), 10–4 A (anticlockwise)

(2) 2 × 10–4 A (clockwise), 10–4 A (anticlockwise)
(3) 10–4 A (anticlockwise), 2 × 10–4 A (clockwise)
(4) 10–4 A (clockwise), 2 × 10–4 A (clockwise)

26) A circular current carrying loop of 100 turns and radius 10 cm is placed in horizontal XY-plane. A
uniform magnetic field is present in the region. If current in the loop is 5A
anticlockwise, then match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from the given
codes.

Column-I Column-II

Magnitude and direction of

(i) magnetic moment (in A-m2) (p) zero
of the loop are

Magnitude and direction of

(ii) torque (in N-m) on the loop (q) 5π
are

Magnitude and direction of

(iii) net force (in N) on the (r) along positive Z-axis
current loop are

(s) Along negative Y-axis

(1) i-p, ii-q,r, iii-s
(2) i-q,r, ii-q,s, iii-p
(3) i-s,q, ii-p, iii-r
(4) i-r,q, ii-p, iii-q,s

27) Which is correct for phenomenon of periodic electromagnetic induction ?

(1) Phase difference between induced emf and induced current is

(2) Phase difference between induced emf and linked flux is zero.
Phase difference between induced emf and linked flux is
(3)

(4) Frequency of all induced parameters is double the rotational frequency of the coil

28) A radiation of wavelength 2000 Å incident on the metal surface, with work function 5.01 eV.
What is the potential difference must be applied to stop the fastest photoelectron emitted by metal
surface?

(1) 1.19 V
(2) 6.19 V
(3) 3.19 V
(4) 4.19 V

29) Work-function for a metal will change :-

(1) if it is heated
(2) if it is cooled
(3) if it is coated
(4) All of these
30) Liquid is filled in a vessel of height H. At the bottom of the vessel there is a spot P and a hole
from which liquid is coming out. Let d be the distance of image of P from an eye at height H from
bottom at an instant when level of liquid in the vessel is x. If we plot a graph between d and x, it will

be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) A small candle 2.5 cm in size is placed 27cm infront of a concave mirror of radius of curvature
36cm. At what distance from the mirror should a screen be placed in order to receive a sharp image?
What is the size of the image?

(1) 54cm, 5cm

(2) –54cm, –5cm
(3) –27cm, 2.5cm
(4) –54cm, –2.5cm

32) In Young's double slit experiment, the central bright fringe can be identified :-
(1) as it has greater intensity than the other bright fringes
(2) as it is wider than the other bright fringes
(3) as it is narrower than the other bright fringes
(4) by using white light instead of monochromatic light

33) Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic
conductor. Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match
Column-I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

Column-I Column-II

(A) Drift Velocity (P)

(B) Electrical Resistivity (Q) nevd

(C) Relaxation Period (R)

(D) Current Density (S)

(E) Mobility (T)

(1) (A)-(R), (B)-(T), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q), (E)-(S)

(2) (A)-(R), (B)-(S), (C)-(P), (D)-(Q), (E)-(T)
(3) (A)-(R), (B)-(P), (C)-(T), (D)-(Q), (E)-(S)
(4) (A)-(R), (B)-(Q), (C)-(S), (D)-(P), (E)-(T)

34) Three resistors having resistances r1, r2 and r3 are connected as shown in the given circuit. The

ratio of currents in terms of resistances used in the circuit is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

35) The effective capacitances of two capacitors are 2µF and 9 µF, when they are connected in
series and parallel respectively. The capacitance of two capacitors are : -

(1) 4 µF, 5 µF
(2) 3 µF, 6 µF
(3) 4.5 µF, 4.5 µF
(4) 18 µF, 1 µF

36) The Charge supplied by the source in the arrangement shown in figure is : -

(1) 300 µC
(2) 150 µC
(3) 250 µC
(4) 200 µC

37) In an a.c. circuit, the instantaneous emf and current are given by
e = 100 sin (30t) Volt

i = 20 sin (30 t – ) AMP

In one cycle of a.c., the average power consumed by the circuit and the watt less current are,
respectively :-

(1) 50, 10

(2)
, 10

(3)
,0
(4) 50, 0

38) In the circuit shown in figure neglecting source resistance, the voltmeter and ammeter reading

will respectively be :-

(1) 0 V, 3 A
(2) 150 V, 3 A
(3) 150 V, 6 A
(4) 0 V, 8 A

39) Oscillating magnetic field in a plane EMW is given by By = 8 × 10–6 sin (5000 πx – 3 × 1011 πt)T.
Expression for oscillating electric field will be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves ?

(1) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and
(2)
same time
(3) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the
(4)
direction of propagation of wave

41) A block of mass M moving on the frictionless surface collides with the spring of spring constant
'K' and compressed it by length L. The maximum momentum of block after colision is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) A particle of mass m is revolving in a circle of radius 1m on a frictionless table by a string. This
string is passing through a hole O and a mass 2m is attached to its other end. If mass 2m is at rest

then find angular speed of mass m.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

43) A uniform disc of mass 5 kg and radius 0.3 m is subjected to a constant net torque of 3 N·m
about its central axis. What is its angular acceleration?
(1) 10 rad/s²
(2) 11.33 rad/s²
(3) 13.33 rad/s²
(4) 15 rad/s²

44) A flywheel with a moment of inertia of 10 kg·m² is initially at rest. A constant torque of 20 N·m is
applied until the wheel completes 5 full rotations. What is the final angular speed of the flywheel and
the work done by the torque?

(1) Final angular speed ≈ 11.21 rad/s; Work ≈ 628 J

(2) Final angular speed ≈ 12.57 rad/s; Work ≈ 700 J
(3) Final angular speed ≈ 10.00 rad/s; Work ≈ 600 J
(4) Final angular speed ≈ 13.00 rad/s; Work ≈ 650 J

45) A 2 kg particle moving at 3 m/s collides head-on and sticks with a 1 kg particle moving in the
opposite direction at 2 m/s. What is the final velocity of the combined mass?

(1) 1.33 m/s

(2) 1.67 m/s
(3) 2.00 m/s
(4) 2.50 m/s

CHEMISTRY

1) (C)
The product (C) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Identify correct reactivity order for E2 reaction with alcoholic KOH.

(I)

(II)
(III)

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) I > III > II
(4) III > I > II

3)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) above reaction is Reimer-Tiemann, electrophile is

form in above reaction-

(1) Cl⊕

(2)

(3)

(4)
5)
Product (C) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

1
6) Arrange the following in their correct order of reactivity towards SN :

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) II > I > IV > III
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) III > I > IV > II

7) Match List-I with List -II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (i)

(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)

8) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion and the other is labelled as Reason.
Assertion :- Glucose gets oxidised to six carbon carboxylic acid (gluconic acid) on reaction with a
mild oxidising agent like Br2 water.
Reason :- This indicates the presence of a primary alcoholic (–OH) group in glucose.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Assertion & reason both are true & reason is a correct explaination of the assertion.
(2) Assertion & reason both are true but reason is not a correct explaination of the assertion.
(3) Both assertion & reason are false.
(4) Aassertion is true but reason is false.

9) Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

Complex Number of unpaired electrons

3–
(1) [FeF6] 5
2+
(2) [Cr(en)3] 2
3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6] 4
2+
(4) [Mn(H2O)6] 5

10) Which of the following complex is an outer orbital complex ?

2+
(1) [Ni(NH3)6]
4–
(2) [Mn(CN)6]
3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]
4–
(4) [Fe(CN)6]

11) Four successive members of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which

one of them the standard potential value has a positive sign ?

(1) Fe (Z = 26)
(2) Co (Z = 27)
(3) Ni (Z = 28)
(4) Cu (Z = 29)

12) Which of the following pairs has the same size ?

(1) Zn2+, Hf4+

(2) Fe2+, Ni2+
(3) Zr4+, Ti4+
(4) Zr4+, Hf4+

13) The basic character of the transition metal monoxides follows the order :
(Atomic number Ti = 22, V = 23, Cr = 24, Fe = 26)

(1) VO > CrO > TiO > FeO

(2) CrO > VO > FeO > TiO
(3) TiO > FeO > VO > CrO
(4) TiO > VO > CrO > FeO

14) In which case, the order of acidic strength is not correct ?

(1) HI > HBr > HCl

(2) HIO4 > HBrO4 > HClO4
(3) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2
(4) HF > H2O > NH3

15) In salt analysis, which reaction confirms the presence of Halide ions like chloride, bromide, or
iodide?

(1) Addition of dilute HCl produces white fumes.

(2) Reaction with silver nitrate forms precipitates of different colors.
(3) Treating with NH4OH produces a yellow solution.
(4) Heating the salt with concentrated H2SO4 forms white vapors.

16) During the preparation of Mohr's salt (FeSO4 · (NH4)2SO4 · 6H2O) why is sulfuric acid added to
the solution?

(1) To neutralize ammonium sulfate

(2) To prevent the oxidation of Fe2+ to Fe3+
(3) To accelerate crystallization
(4) To act as a drying agent

17) Assertion (A) :- is more stable than .

Reason (R) :- In structure (I), both the O atoms and the carbon atom have an octet of electrons but
in structure (II), oxygen atom has only a sextet of electrons.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is wrong.
(4) A is wrong but R is correct.

18) Match the column-

Column-I Column-II

(A) CH4 + Cl2 → CH3Cl + HCl (p) Electrophilic addition

(B) (q) Free radical substitution

C6H6 + HNO3 C6H5NO2 + H2O

(C) CH3CH = CH2 + HBr → CH3CHBrCH3 (r) Electrophilic substitution

 (D) (s) Free radical addition
CH3CH = CH2 CH3CH2CH2Br

(1) A-q, B-r, C-p, D-s

(2) A-r, B-q, C-p, D-s
(3) A-q, B-p, C-r, D-s
(4) A-q, B-r, C-s, D-p

19) Which of the following compound will answer Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen ?

(1) NH2NH2
(2) NaCN
(3) NaNO3
(4) NH4Cl

20) Bond length of Ethane (I), Ethene (II), Acetylene (III) and Benzene (IV) follows the order :

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > II > IV > III
(3) I > IV > II > III
(4) III > IV > II > I

21)
The product can be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
22) Which of the following is not true about geometrical isomers ?

(1) They have different physical properties

(2) They have different orientations in space
(3) They have different connectivity of atoms of group
(4) They are non-interconvertible

23)
Which is most easily dehydrohalogenated ?

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) All with same case

24) The number of hydrogen atoms present in 25.65 g of sucrose (C12H22O11) which has a molar mass
of 342 g, is :

(1) 22 × 1023
(2) 9.91 × 1023
(3) 11 × 1023
(4) 44 × 1023

25) Given the value of Rydberg constant is 107 m–1, the wave number of the last line of the Balmer
series in hydrogen spectrum will be :

(1) 2.5 × 107 m–1

(2) 0.025 × 104 m–1
(3) 0.5 × 107 m–1
(4) 0.25 × 107 m–1

26) In a 500 mL capacity vessel CO and Cl2 are mixed to fome COCl2. At equilibrium, it contains 0.2
mole of COCl2 and 0.1 mole of each of CO and Cl2. The equilibrium constant KC for reaction, CO + Cl2
⇌ COCl2 is:

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 15
(4) 20

27) The solubility product of sparingly soluble salt Ag2CrO4 is 4 × 10–12. The molar solubility of the
salt is:
(1) 1 × 10–4 mol L–1
(2) 2 × 10–6 mol L–1
(3) 1 × 10–5 mol L–1
(4) 2 × 10–12 mol L–1

28) At 0°C, ice and water are in equilibrium and ΔH = 6 kJ mol–1. For this process :
H2O(s) ⇌ H2O(l)
The equilibrium and ΔS and ΔG for conversion of ice liquid water of 0°C are

(1) 2.19 J K–1 mol–1 and 0

(2) 0.219 J K–1 mol–1 and 0
(3) 21.9 J K–1 mol–1 and 0
(4) 0.0219 J K–1 mol–1 and 0

29) Oxidation state of carbon in HCOOH will be : -

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) –4
(4) 0

30) Phenolphthalein color in basic medium is

(1) Pink
(2) Orange
(3) Yellow
(4) Colourless

31) Passage Consider the following elements with their electronegativity value.
Elements A B C D Electronegativity 3.77 1.12 2.25 3.10
(Pauling scale) Incorrect statements is :-

(1) AOH is more acidic than DOH

(2) BOH is more basic than COH
(3) ‘AB’ molecule is predominantly ionic
(4) ‘D—OH’ bond is more weaker than ‘B—OH’ bond in polar solvent.

32) The elements z = 117 and z = 120 have not yet been discovered. In which group would you place
these elements.

(1) z = 117 (Group 17)

(2) z = 120 (Group 2)
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) z = 120 (Group 13)

33) Total number of acidic oxides among

N2O3, NO2, N2O, Cl2O7, SO2, CO, CaO, Na2O and NO is.

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 4

34) Which of the following order of Bond strength is not correct?

(1) Diamond > Graphite (C–C bond)

–2 –2
(2) SO2 > SO3 > SO4 (S–O bond)
–2 –
(3) CO3 < HCO2 (C–O bond)
– +
(4) O2 < O2 < O2 (O–O bond)

35) Passage According to VBT the extent of overlapping depends upon types of orbitals involved in
overlapping and nature of overlapping. More will be the overlapping and the bond energy will also
be high.

The incorrect order of bond dissociation energy will be :

(1) H—H > Cl—Cl > Br—Br

(2) Si—Si > P—P > Cl—Cl
(3) C—C > N—N > O—O
(4) H—Cl > H—Br > H—I

36) The dipole moment of o, p and m-dichlorobenzene will be in the order :

(1) o > p > m

(2) p > o > m
(3) m > o > p
(4) o > m > p

37) Which order are correct ?

(I) Thermal stability : BeSO4 < MgSO4 < CaSO4 < SrSO4 < BaSO4
(II) Basic nature : ZnO > BeO > MgO > CaO
(III) Solubility in water : LiOH > NaOH > KOH > RbOH > CsOH
(IV) Melting point : NaCl > KCl > RbCl > CsCl > LiCl

(1) (I), (IV)

(2) (I), (II) and (IV)
(3) (II), (III)
(4) All correct

38)

Mole fraction of the benzene in the vapour phase is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene (P° =
200 Torr) and toluene (P° = 150 Torr) having 5 moles of each, is –
(1) 0·57
(2) 0·25
(3) 0·80
(4) 0·40

39) Vapour pressure of pure A- = 100 mmHg

Vapour pressure of pure B- = 150 mmHg
A solution containing 2 moles A and 3 moles B will have total vapour pressure, approximately :-

(1) 130 mm Hg
(2) 135 mm Hg
(3) 140 mm Hg
(4) 145 mm Hg

40) Which of the following is correct for an non-ideal solution ?

(1) ΔHmix = 0
(2) ΔVmix = 0
(3)
(4) ΔSmix > 0

41) Which of the following expressions correctly describes the relationship between the rates at
which NO2 and Cl2 are consumed in the reaction below ? 2NO2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2NO2Cl(g)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42) It is observed for the reaction

2A + B → Product, that
The order of the reaction is two with respect to A and zero with respect to B. If the concentration of
each species is increased four times. Then rate becomes :-

(1) 64 times
(2) 16 times
(3) 256 times
(4) 4 times

43) Which of the following is/ are function(s) of salt-bridge?

It completes the electrical circuit with electrons flowing from one electrode to the other through
(1)
external wires and a flow of ions between the two compartments through salt-bridge.
(2) It minimizes the liquid-liquid junction potential
(3) Both are correct
(4) None of the above

44) Given:
The potential for the cell
Cr | Cr3+ (0.1 M) || Fe2+ (0.01 M) | Fe, is:

(1) 0.339V
(2) –0.339V
(3) –0.26V
(4) 0.26V

45) Following limiting molar conductivities are given as

= x S cm2 mol–1
= y S cm2 mol–1
= z S cm2 mol–1
(in S cm2 mol–1) for CH3COOH will be

(1) x – y + 2z
(2) x + y – z
(3) x – y + z

(4)
+z

BIOLOGY

1) According to Alexander Von–Humboldt the species richness increases with increasing the area
upto a limit. It can be defined by equation on log scale :-

(1) S = CAZ
(2) log C = log S + Z log C
(3) C = SAZ
(4) log S = log C + Z log A

2) When the population density reaches the carrying capacity that stage is called as :-

(1) Exponential phase

(2) Acceleration phase
(3) Deceleration phase
(4) Asymptote phase

3) A species whose distribution is restricted to small geographical area due to the presence of a
competitively superior species, expands its distribution when the competing species is
experimentally removed. This phenomenon is called-

(1) Competitive exclusion

(2) Competitive release
(3) Competitive arrival
(4) Appearance physiology

4) Assertion : The pyramid of energy is always upright.

Reason : When energy flows from a particular trophic level to the next trophic level, some energy is
always lost as heat at each step.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Which of the following is not a favourable factor for increasing the rate of decomposition ?

(1) Oxygen richness of soil.

(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) High soil moisture

6) Which one of the following is correct regarding decomposition ?

I II

(1) Formation of dark coloured amorphous substance (i) Fragmentation

(2) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(3) release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activities (iii) Mineralisation

(4) Break down detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Biodiversity decreases as we move from

(1) Temperate to tropical areas

(2) Poles to equator
(3) High to low altitude
(4) Colombia to Greenland

8) 'Rivet popper hypothesis' was used to explain the effect of reduction in biodiversity by
(1) David Tilman
(2) Norman Myers
(3) Paul Ehrlich
(4) Lindemann

9) Assertion : Scientific names for plants have been standardized through ICBN.
Reason : Naming system which used three word format was given by Linnaeus and Darwin.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and reason are false.

10) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size.
Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall and cell membrane.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and statement II are correct.

11) Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) Fusion of two cells is called Karyogamy.

The morphology of the mycelium, mole of spore formation and fruiting bodies forms the basis
(2)
for the division of the kingdom-fungi into various classes.
(3) Organisms that depend on living plants are called saprophytes.
(4) Some of the organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialized cells called sheath cells.

12)

Match Column - I with Column - II.

Column - II Column - II

(a) Saprophyte (i) Symbiotic association of fungi with plant roots

(b) Parasite (ii) Slime moulds

(c) Lichens (iii) Albugo

(d) Mycorrhiza (iv) Symbiotic association of algae and fungi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
 (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

(3) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Which one of the following statements is wrong?

(1) Agar-agar is obtained from Chlorella

(2) Laminaria and Sargassum are used as food
(3) Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the immediate environment
(4) Algin is obtained from brown algae, and carrageenan from red algae.

14) Which of the following statement is true for bryophyta ?

(1) Along with water absorption roots also provide anchorment to plants
(2) Sporophyte is dominant
(3) Gametophyte is dominant and sporophyte is mostly parasitic
(4) Gametophyte is parasitic

15) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The form and size of algae is highly variable, ranging from colonial forms like
Ulothrix and Spirogyra and to the filamentous forms like Volvox.
Statement-II : Aniosogamous type of reproduction is found in Marchantia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

16)

Which of the following event does not takes place during cell cycle?

(1) Cell differentiation

(2) Cell growth
(3) DNA replication
(4) Centriole duplication

17) A cell has 46 chromosomes at each pole in mitotic telophase. In this division the number of
chromatids at the metaphase was :-

(1) 23
(2) 46
(3) 92
(4) 69

18) Phase between the cytokinesis and S-phase is :-

(1) G1
(2) G2
(3) Prophase
(4) Telophase

19) Histone protein is synthesized in which phase of the cell cycle?

(1) Interphase
(2) Prophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Telophase

20) Select the correct statement regarding cell membrane:

(1) Quasifluid nature of lipid enable lateral movement of protein.

(2) Na+ and K+ ions move across cell membrane by simple diffusion.
(3) Lipids are arranged in a bilayer with polar heads towards the inner part.
(4) Proteins show flip flop movement very often.

21) Which of the following is/are incorrect regarding the plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells ?
(A) Formation of intercellular junctions
(B) Cell division
(C) Protein synthesis
(D) Selective permeable
(E) Secretion
(F) Cell growth

(1) C and D only

(2) C and E only
(3) C and F only
(4) Only C

22) One of the most important function of cell membrane is the transport of molecules across it. In
passive transport proteins are used to:

(1) Transport of non polar molecules, against concentration gradient.

(2) Transport of polar molecules, along concentration gradient.
(3) Transport of polar molecules, against concentration gradient.
(4) Transport only non polar molecules along the concentration gradient.

23) Movement of water across the semi-permeable membrane occurs by :

(1) Diffusion
(2) Osmosis
(3) Active transport
(4) All of the above

24) In the reproductive system of male cockroach a characterstic......A.......is present in the 6th to 7th
abdominal segments, which functions as. Accessory reproductive gland ? Select the correct answer
about 'A'

(1) Collaterial gland

(2) Mushroom gland
(3) Stink gland
(4) Salivary gland

25) Fill in the blanks and chose the correct option-

In the frog, ____A___ receives blood through the major veins called _____B____. The ventricles open
into a sac-like conus arteriosus on the ____C_____ side of heart.

(1) A-Sinus arterosus, B-Venacava, C-Dorsal

(2) A-Sinus Venosus, B-Venacava, C-Ventral
(3) A-Sinus Venosus, B-Aorta, C-Ventral
(4) A-Sinus arterosus, B-Aorta, C-Dorsal

26) Match the column and select the correct option :-

Column-I Column-II

A Cyclostomes (i) Lay shelled eggs

B Amphibia (ii) Mammary glands

C Aves (iii) External fertilization

D Mammalia (iv) Without jaw

(1) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii

27) Assertion (A) : Compound epithelium has a major role in secretion and absorption
Reason (R) : Compound epithelium is made up of a single layer of cells and provide protection
against chemical and mechanical stresses.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

28) What is common in Annelida, Arthropoda, Mollusca, Echinodermata and Hemichordata :-

(1) Level of organisation and symmetry

(2) Coelom and open blood circulation
(3) Tracheal respiration and reproduction
(4) Coelom and level of organisation

29) Statement-I : Simple columnar epithelium is found in the lining of stomach and intestine and
helps in secretion and absorption.
Statement-II : Simple squamous epithelium is made up of a single thin layer of flattened cells with
irregular boundries and are not involved in functions like forming a diffusion boundry.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect.
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct.

30) Read the following (a-d) four statements regarding class amphibia.
(a) As the name indicates, amphibians can live in aquatic as well as terrestrial habitats.
(b) Most of them have two pairs of limbs.
(c) Body is divisible into head, neck and trunk.
(d) Tail may be present in some.
How many as the above statements are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

31) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I :- Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air
is released out
Statement-II :- Utilisation of O2 by the cells for catabolic reactions result in release of CO2
Choose the correct option from the given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

32) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to expiratory reserve volume :-
(a) It includes TV and IRV
(b) Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration
(c) Additional volume of air, a person can expire by a forcible expiration.
(d) It includes RV and IRV
(e) Its average volume is 1000 ml to 1100 ml
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c) and (e)
(4) (c) and (e)

33) Statement-I :- The hepatic portal vein carries blood from intestine to the liver before it is
delivered to the systemic circulation.
Statement-II :- Hepatic portal system is a unique vascular connection exists between digestive
tract and liver.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

34) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

A. Erythrocytes I. Phagocytic cells

Resist infection and

B. AB blood group II.
are also associated with Allergic reactions

C. Neutrophils III. Universal recipient

D. Eosinophils IV. Most abundant of all cells in blood

Choose correct option :-

(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

35) Read the following statements-

(a) In humans, kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped situated at fifth lumbar vertebra.
(b) Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in
thickness with an Avg. weight of 120-170 gm.
(c) Inner to the hilum is a broad funnel shaped space called the Renal pelvis with projections called
calyces.
(d) Glomerulus along with bowman's capsule is called the Malpighian body or renal corpuscles.
(e) Each kidney has nearly one billion complex tubular structure called nephrons.
Choose the correct options.

(1) a, b & c
(2) b, c & d
(3) a, c & d
(4) a, b & d

36) Extension of renal cortex in between the medullary pyramids is known as ______ .

(1) Columns of bertini

(2) Duct of bellini
(3) Papilla
(4) Hilum

37) Which joint is similar to elbow joint ?

(1) Joint between humerus and scapula

(2) Joint between atlas and axis
(3) Joint between Femur, Tibia and patella
(4) Joint between Radius and Ulna

38) Which of the following disease caused by deposition of uric acid crystals in joints ?

(1) myasthenia gravis

(2) Tetany
(3) muscular dystrophy
(4) gout

39) Given below diagram is related with muscle, Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and D and select

correct option :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

ATP binding Actin

(1) Cross arm Head
site binding site

Actin ATP
(2) Head Cross arm
binding site binding site

ATP binding Actin

(3) Cross arm Head
site binding site

Actin ATP binding

(4) Head Cross arm
binding site site
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
40) Which part of brain is associated with voluntary regulation of body muscles ?

(1) Pons
(2) Cerebrum
(3) Olfactory lobes
(4) Cerebrum and pons

41) Choose the correct statement with respect to labelling 'a' :-

(1) Mid brain – cerebral aqueduct

(2) Hypothalamus – control the body temperature
(3) Thalamus – expression of emotional reactions
(4) Corpus callosum – Connects both cerebral hemisphere.

42) Read the Column-I & II and identify their correct match-

Column-I Column-II

A. Adrenaline (I) Reabsorption of Na+

B. Glucocorticoids (II) Growth of axial hair, pubic hair and facial hair during puberty

C. Androgen (III) Mainly acts on renal tubules.

D. Aldosterone (IV) Lipolysis and proteolysis

(V) Increase heart rate

(VI) Ca+2 reabsorption

(1) (A-IV), (B-V), (C-II), (D-III)
(2) (A-VI), (B-IV), (C-III), (D-I)
(3) (A-V), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-I, III)
(4) (A-III), (B-IV), (C-II), (D-IV)

43)

Epinephrine regulates all the following functions except-

(1) Piloerection
(2) Glycogenolysis
(3) Glycogenesis
(4) Proteolysis and lipolysis
44) Which of the following hormones support/stimulate the process of red blood cell formation
(erythropoiesis) ?

(1) Thyroid hormones

(2) Cortisol
(3) Erythropoitin
(4) All of these

45) Match the column-I with column-II :

Column-I Column-II

A Bulliform cells I Stomatal apparatus

B Casparian strips II Shoot system

Certain adaxial epidermis in

C Trichomes III
grasses.

D Subsidiary cells IV Endodermis of roots

(1) A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III
(2) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III
(3) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
(4) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II

46) How many statements are correct -

(A) The parenchymatous cells which lie between the xylem and the phloem are called medullary
rays.
(B) The ‘ring’ arrangement of vascular bundles is a characteristic of monocotyledonous stem.
(C) The phloem parenchyma is absent, and water-containing cavities are present within the vascular
bundles of monocotyledonous stem.
(D) Conjoint types of vascular bundles are common in stems and leaves.
(E) The root hairs help in preventing water loss due to transpiration.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

47) Identify the given below diagram and select the correct option which represent correct function
of labelled A, B, C and D.
(1) B - Metaxylem - Conduction of water and minerals.
(2) C - Trichomes - Increase surface areas for absorption of water and minerals.
A - Cortex - Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during the secondary growth takes
(3)
place in these cells.
(4) D - Starch sheath - Help in storage of starch grains.

48)

Which of the following floral diagram represent to disc floret of marigold and sunflower.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

49) Statement-I : The outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinous layer
called aleurone layer in a monocotyledonous seed.
Statement-II : In plants such as bean, gram and pea, the endosperm is not present in mature seeds
and such seeds are called non-endospermous.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

50) What is common between cyclic and non-cyclic photo-phosphorylation ?

(1) Reduction of NADP+

(2) Oxidation of H2O
(3) Production of ATP
(4) Reduction of NADP+ and production of ATP

51) Select the option which contain all correct statements -

(A) The use of radioactive 14C by Melvin Calvin in algal photosynthesis studies led to the discovery
that the first CO2 fixation product was a 3-carbon organic acid.
(B) Calvin cycle can be described under three stages: decarboxylation, reduction and regeneration.
(C) The primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-carbon molecule phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is present in
the mesophyll cells of C4 plants.
(D) The bundle sheath cells are rich in an enzyme Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase-
oxygenase (RuBisCO), but lack PEPcase in C3 plants.
(E) One molecule of phosphoglycerate and one molecule of phosphoglycolate (2 carbon) is produced
in photorespiration.

(1) (A) and (D) Only

(2) (B) and (E) Only
(3) (A), (C) and (E)
(4) All of these

52) Photosynthesis is under the influence of several factors, both internal (plant) and external. The
given below all factors are external except -

(1) Light
(2) Internal CO2 concentration
(3) Temperature
(4) Water

53) In which steps of EMP pathway ATP is produced -

(1) Fructose-6-phosphate → Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate

(2) Phosphoenolpyruvate → Pyruvic acid
(3) Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate → 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid
(4) 2-phosphoglycerate → Phosphoenolpyruvate

54) Statement-I : The enzymes, pyruvic acid decarboxylase and alcohol dehydrogenase catalyse the
lactic acid fermentation.
Statement-II : The reducing agent is NADH + H+ which is reoxidised to NAD+ in both lactic
acid fermentation and alcohol fermentation.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

55) Study the given below diagram and find out the wrong statement -

(1) Membrane-linked ATP synthesis take place and explained by chemiosmotic hypothesis.
The F1 headpiece is a peripheral membrane protein complex and contains the site for synthesis
(2)
of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate.
F0 is an integral membrane protein complex that forms the channel through which protons cross
(3)
the inner membrane.
For each ATP produced, 8H+ passes through F0 from the intermembrane space to the
(4)
matrix down the electrochemical proton gradient.

56) The living differentiated cells, that by now have lost the capacity to divide can regain the
capacity of division under certain conditions. This phenomenon is termed as -

(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Redifferentiated
(3) Vernalisation
(4) Dormancy

57) Statement-I : Ethylene is used to initiate flowering and for synchronising fruit-set in
pineapples.
Statement-II : Cytokinins help to prevent fruit and leaf drop at early stages but promote
the abscission of older mature leaves and fruits.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

58) Given below are statements regarding polysaccharide, choose the incorrect one.
(A) Cellulose, Glycogen, Chitin, Inulin are Homopolysaccharides.
(B) Starch can not hold I2 molecules in the helical portion.
(C) Insulin is a polymer of fructose.
(D) In Glycogen and cellulose the right end is called reducing end while the left end is called non-
reducing end.

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (C) and (D)
(4) (A) and (D)

59) In a peptide chain 6 amino acids are present and molecular weight of one amino acid is 60.
Then calculate the molecular weight of this peptide chain.

(1) 360
(2) 252
(3) 270
(4) 354

60) Assertion : Almost all enzymes found in cells are proteins which Catalyse biological reactions.
Reason : Enzymes act efficiently at a moderate temperature and pH.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(3) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.

61) Lack of menstruation :-

(1) May be indicative of pregnancy

(2) May be due to stress
(3) may be due to poor health
(4) All

62) Lateral end of fallopian tube, closer to the ovary is Funnel shaped and called :-

(1) Intramural part

(2) Ampulla
(3) Isthmus
(4) Infundibulum

63) After vasectomy which one of the following function not done.

(1) Production of sperm continue

(2) Semen released
(3) Sperm present in semen
(4) Sperm absent in semen

64) A temporary endocrine structure which partially derive from maternal and embryonic tissue is
known as :-

(1) Blastocyst
(2) Placenta
(3) Umbilical cord
(4) Yolk sac

65) Identify the procedure shown in the figure given below:

(1) Tubectomy
(2) Vasectomy
(3) Ovarian cancer
(4) Uterine cancer

66) Identify the contraceptive device shown below as well as the related right place of its

implantation into a woman and select the correct option together :

Contraceptive Site of
device implant

Fallopian
(1) LNG – 20
tube

(2) Lippes loop Uterine wall

(3) Copper–T Uterine cavity

(4) Multiload 375 Oviduct

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

67) Read the following statements and choose the option with correct statements only.
a. Hepatitis-B is a chronic infection.
b. Addiction is a psychological attachment to euphoria associated with drugs.
c. NACO, educate people about AIDS and hepatitis-B.
d. Prolonged use of anabolic steroids may result in stunted growth.

(1) a, b and d only

(2) a, c and d only
(3) a, b and c only
(4) a, b, c, d

68)

Column - I Column - II

A Wuchereria bancrofti 1 Erythrocytes

B Plasmodium vivax 2 Small intestine

C Trichophyton 3 Lymph vessels

D Entamoeba histolytica 4 Large intestine

5 Skin folds
(1) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-2
(2) A-3, B-1, C-5, D-4
(3) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
(4) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1

69) A toxic substance, responsible for the chills and high fever recurring is :-

(1) interferon
(2) haemozoin
(3) hirudin
(4) colostrum

70) ............. which affects many people in our society is an auto-immune disease :-

(1) Goitre
(2) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Malaria
(4) Typhoid

71) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?
I. Formation of protobionts
II. Synthesis of organic monomers
III. Synthesis of organic polymers
IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

(1) I, III, II, IV

(2) II, III, I, IV
(3) II, III, IV, I
(4) I, II, III, IV

72) The first experiment on chemical evolution and origin of life was carried out by -

(1) Oparin and Haldane

(2) Miller and Urey
(3) Pasteur and Alfred
(4) Darwin and Wallace

73) Find out the incorrect statement among the following ?

(1) First non- cellular form of life could have been giant organic molecules.
The first form of life arose slowly through evolutionary forces from non-living molecules is
(2)
accepted by majority.
Excess use of herbicides, pesticides has only resulted in selection of resistant varieties in a
(3)
much lesser time scale.
Evolution is a not a stochastic process based on chance events in nature and chance mutation
(4)
in the organisms.

74) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column-I Column-II

i Functional megaspore a Seven celled

ii Female gametophyte b Geitonogamy

iii Polar nuclei c Xenogamy

iv Megasporophyll d Toward chalazal

Transfer of pollen grains from anther

v to stigma of different flower of same e Toward micropyle
plant

f Above synergids

g Below synergids

h Carpel
(1) i-e, ii-a, iii-f, iv-h, v-c
(2) i-e, ii-f, iii-a, iv-h, v-c
(3) i-d, ii-a, iii-g, iv-h, v-b
(4) i-d, ii-a, iii-f, iv-h, v-b

75) Assertion (A): Majority of flowering plants use biotic agents for pollination.
Reason (R): Biotic agents of pollination provide better chances for pollination as they are
directional events.

(1) Both A and R are correct and R is a correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are correct and R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) Only A is correct.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

76) With respect to this diagram select the correct option related to it.

(1) A-2n, B-2n, C-2n, D-2n, E-2n

(2) A-2n, B-3n, C-2n, D-2n, E-2n
(3) A-3n, B-3n, C-2n, D-2n, E-2n
(4) A-2n, B-2n, C-3n, D-2n, E-2n

77) Select one word for the statement:-

(a) If F1 phenotype resembled either of the two parents
(b) If F1 phenotype did not resemble either of the two parents and was in between the two.
(c) If F1 phenotype resembled both the parents

(1) c = dominance, b = codominance, a = incomplete dominance

(2) b = incomplete dominance, a = codominance c = dominance
(3) a = dominance, b = codominance, c = incomplete dominance
(4) c = codominance, b = incomplete dominance, a = dominance

78) Read the following statements (assertion-A and reason-R) and select the correct option.
A: Independent assortment occurs when the genes under study are located on different non-
homologous chromosomes.
R: Unlinked genes show independent assortment.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false statements

79) The F1 plant of the genotype Tt when self-pollinated, produces gametes of the genotype T and t
in equal proportion. When fertilization takes place, the pollen grains of genotype T have a -------- per
cent chance to pollinate eggs of the genotype T ?
(1) 50%
(2) 25%
(3) 100%
(4) 75%

80) The Hershey-Chase experiments show the following steps chronologically:-

(1) Blending, Infection, Centrifugation

(2) Centrifugation, Infection, Blending
(3) Infection, Centrifugation, Blending
(4) Infection, Blending, Centrifugation

81) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- DNA from a single cell is enough to perform DNA fingerprinting analysis.
Statement-II :- DNA from every tissue from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism.
In the light of above statement choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

82) When Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) bacteria are grown on a culture plate, some
produce smooth shiny colonies (S) while others produce rough colonies (R). This is because :-

(1) The S strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat, while R strain does not.
(2) The R strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat, while S strain does not.
(3) Neither S strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat nor R strain
(4) Both R and S strain bacteria have a mucous (polysaccharide) coat.

83) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I :- If both strands of DNA act as a template, they would code for RNA molecule with
same sequences.
Statement-II :- DNA has evolved from RNA with chemical modifications that make it more stable.
In the light of above Statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

84) Find the correct match :-

(1) Aspergillus niger - Butyric acid

(2) Clostridium butylicum - Ethanol
(3) Acetobacter aceti - Acetic acid
(4) Saccharomyces cerevisiae - Citric acid

85) Early detection of disease is not possible by

(1) ELISA
(2) PCR
(3) Serum analysis
(4) Probe

86) Indian patents bill take issue into consideration such as

(1) Patent terms

(2) Emergency provisions
(3) Research and Development initiative
(4) All of these

87) Assertion : Genetically engineered lymphocytes are not a permanent cure for ADA deficiency.
Reason : Lymphocytes are immortal.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

88) Match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

(a) Ribonuclease (i) Bacterial cell wall

(b) Protease (ii) RNA

(c) Chilled ethanol (iii) Plant cell wall

(d) Lysozyme (iv) Protein

(e) Cellulase (v) Fungal cell wall

(f) Chitinase (vi) Precipitation of DNA

(1) a-(i); b-(ii); c-(iii); d-(iv); e-(v); f-(vi)
(2) a-(vi); b-(v); c-(ivi); d-(ii); e-(ii); f-(i)
(3) a-(ii); b-(iv); c-(i); d-(vi); e-(iii); f-(v)
(4) a-(ii); b-(iv); c-(vi); d-(i); e-(iii); f-(v)

89) Assertion : Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the β-galactosidase gene.
Reason : If the colonies produce blue colour, these are identified as recombinant colonies.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.

90) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The first restriction endonuclease isolated was Hind III.

(2) Restriction enzymes cut at specific base sequence is known as recognition sequence.
(3) From over 230 strains of bacteria, 900 restriction enzymes have been isolated.
(4) Restriction enzymes belong to a larger class of enzymes called nucleases.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 2 2 2 2 4 4 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 2 1 2 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 2 4 2 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 2 2 4 2 4 4 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 3 3 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 1 3 2 2 2 3 4 3 1 4 4 4 2 2 2 1 1 2 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 1 2 4 2 1 3 2 1 4 3 4 2 2 4 1 1 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 2 3 4 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 4 4 2 1 2 3 4 3 3 2 2 4 1 3 3 1 3 1 1 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 2 2 2 4 4 4 3 2 1 4 1 2 2 1 3 4 2 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 3 3 4 3 3 1 2 3 3 3 2 2 4 4 1 2 2 3 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 3 2 1 3 1 2 2 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 4 1 1 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 4 2 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) Here also we will have to integrate with respect to dr. Note here its a question of single
variable x, so take dV = –Ex.dx. (neglect y and z). Now, put the limits of V and x. Given V = 0 at
x = 10 (lower limit) and calculate V at x = 0 (upper limit)

So, or,

or, V – 0 = or,
or, V = 50 C = 500 volt.

2) WE.F. = – (ΔV) q0

3) VA = VB [AB line is equitorial]

4) vA = = –4 m/s ; vB = = 1 m/s
vBA = [1 – (–4)] = 5 m/s

5) (at the highest point)

i.e., Given

∴ ...(i)
Similarly, maximum height

or

Given

∴ ... (ii)
Now

6) =
Wire diameter = Main scale reading + Circular scale reading × L.C.
= 1 mm + 47 × LC
= 1 mm + 47 × 0.01 = 1.47 mm

7) All zeros to the right of the last non-zero digit after the decimal point are significant.
Therefore, the number of significant figures in 0.100 is 3.
Thus, both Assertion and Reason are false.
Hence, the correct answer is option (4).

8)

In +ve half cycle

and
So, circuit will be
So, for 0 – 0.6 V
Vout = Vin
and V > 0.6 V
Vout = 0.6 V
In –ve half cycle
and
So, for 0 to –0.6V
Vout = Vin
and for V < –0.6 V
Vout = –0.6V

9) When pentavalent atom loses an electron, equal +ve charge appears on the atom. So,
overall is neutral.
10)
Fmin = mg sinθ + fmax
= mg sinθ + μmg cosθ
= mg (sin 37° + m cos37°)

= 10 × 10 = 100 N

11) F.B.D of monkey while moving downward

Using Newton’s second law

mg – T = ma1
∴ 500 – T = 50 × 4 ⇒ T = 300 N
F.B.D of monkey while moving up

Using Newton’s second law of motion

T – mg = ma2
⇒ T – 500 = 50 × 5
⇒ T = 750 N
Breaking strength of string = 350 N
∴ String will break while monkey is moving upward

12)
Conceptual

13)
For FC = 0 ⇒ FCA = FCB

⇒ ⇒

14) ∴ Volume V = L3

15) Heat loss = Heat gain

80 × 1 × (30–0°) = M × 80

16) At high temp for H2

f=7

so fraction =

17) = Mg = ρbVbg

ρb = 1.8 × 103 kg/m3

18)

W = 2TA
= 2 × 0.03 × 40 × 10–4
= 2.4 × 10–4 J

19) The two springs on left side having spring constant of 2k each are in series, equivalent
constat is The two springs on right hand side of mass M are in parallel. Their effective spring

constant is (k + 2k) = 3k.

Equivalent spring constants of value k and 3k are in parallel and their net value of spring
constant of all the four springs is k + 3k = 4k
∴ Frequency of mass is

20) Because time period of spring pendulum doesn't depends on gravitational acceleration.

21) Sound is a mechanical wave, it cannot propagate in vacuum

22) The time interval between successive maximum intensities will be

23) Initially ,

Finally

24) We know,
25)

26) (i) As, the current in XY-plane is anti-clockwise, so moment will be along Z-axis by right
hand thumb rule.
(ii)

(iii) Net force on a closed loop carrying current in a uniform magnetic field is zero.
Hence, (2) is correct.

27)

28)

Incident energy =
K.E. = 6.2 – 5.01 = 1.19 eV
Stopping potential = 1.19 V

29) The work function (ϕ0) depends on the properties of the metal and the nature of its surface.
The work function depends on presence of surface impurities and it also depends on
temperature of the surface.
30)
∴ Distance of image of P,

31)

Here, h1 = 2.5 cm, u = –27cm, R = –36 cm

(∵ R is –ve for a concave mirror)

By mirror formula,

or v = –54 cm
Thus the screen should be placed at 54 from the mirror on the same side as the object.
Magnification,

size of image,

h2 = –2 × 2.5 = – 5 cm.

32) When white light is used instead of monochromatic light, the central bright fringe becomes
white, while others are coloured. Hence distinction is made.

33) (A)
(B) J = σE = E/ρ ⇒ ρ = E/J

(C)

(D) i = neAυd

J = neυd

(E) Mobility =
34)

[V is same for r2 & r3]

35)
C1 + C2 = 9
C1 C2 = 18
C1 = 3 µF
C2 = 6 µF

36)
Ceq = 5 + 15 = 20µF
Q = Ceq E = 200 µC

37) Watt less current = Irms sin

P = Vrms Irms cos

38) ∵ XL = XC ⇒ Resonance
Reading of voltmeter = VL–VC = 0V

and

39) = v = = = 6 × 107
E = B × 6 × 107 = 480
direction of wave,

40)
 By theory

41)

Pmax = Mv =

42)

43) Disc’s Inertia:

Angular Acceleration:

44) Angular Acceleration:

Angular Displacement:
5 rotations = rad.
Final Angular Speed:

Work Done:

45) Let the positive direction be that of the 2 kg particle. For the 1 kg particle moving
oppositely, take v =−2 m/s
Using conservation of momentum :

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

reactivity of E2 reaction ∝ stability of alkenes.

48)

49) In Reimer-Tiemann reaction dichlorocarbene (:(Cl2)) act as an electrophile.

50)

51) Rate of SN1 ∝ Stability of C⊕

52) Question is Asking About:

Match the column

Concept:
NAR

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
(1) Reaction with Hydroxyl Amine (NH2OH)

(2) Reaction with primary amine (R–NH2)

(3) Reaction with excess Alcohol-

(4) Reaction with HCN

​Hence, option (3) is correct.

53)

54)

Co3+ → with NH3(SFL) ⇒ → 0 unpaired e–

55)
2+ 3 2
(1) [Ni(NH3)6] Hyb. = sp d (Outer orbital complex)
(2) [Mn(CN)6]4– Hyb. = d2sp3 (Inner orbital complex)
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ Hyb. = d2sp3 (Inner orbital complex)
(4) [Fe(CN)6]4– Hyb. = d2sp3 (Inner orbital complex)

56)

In the electrochemical series, Cu is below hydrogen. Hence, it has positive value of standard
reduction potential.
The standard reduction potentials for the elements is given below :
Element Co Ni Cu Fe

–0.28 –0.25 +0.34 –0.44

57) Zn+4 & Hf+4 has same ionic size because of lanthanoid contraction.

58) Oxidation states of transition metal in low oxidation state +2 & +3 (MO, M3O4 & M2O3) are
generally basic except Cr2O3 which is amphoteric in nature. Basic character decreases with
increases in atomic number.

59) HClO4 > HBrO4 > HIO4 ⇒ acidic strength has been decided on the basis of
electronegativity or charge density on central atom.

60)

· Group VII anions include Cl–, Br–, and I–, which can be confirmed using silver nitrate
(AgNO3) in acidic medium.
· Reactions and observations:
· Cl– : Forms white precipitate of AgCI.
· Br–: Forms pale yellow precipitate of AgBr.
· I– : Forms yellow precipitate of AgI.
This reaction is specific for halide ions, as the precipitates formed are characteristic of each
halide.

61) Sulfuric acid is added to maintain an acidic medium, which prevents the oxidation of
ferrous ions (Fe2+) to ferric ions (Fe3+) by atmospheric oxygen. The acidic environment
stabilizes the Fe2+ ion, ensuring the proper formation of Mohr's salt crystals.

66) E2Rxn

69) Number of moles of sucrose =

Number of moles of hydrogen atom = 0.075 × 22
Number of atoms of hydrogen = 0.075 × 22 × 6.023 × 1023
= 9.9 × 1023

70) Series limit for Balmer series :

71)

72)
If solubility of Ag2CrO4 is 'S', then [Ag+] = 2 S and = S.
Ksp = 4S3
4 × 10–12 = 4S3
S = 1 × 10–4 M

73) ΔG = 0,
∴ ΔH – TΔS = 0

74) Let the oxidation state of carbon be x.

2+x–4=0
x=2

75) Pink

76)

Bond energy is inversely proportional to difference of electronegativity in polar solvent.

Generally, a bond involving a more electronegative atom would be stronger due to the
stronger attraction of e–s.

77)

z = 117 (Group 17) Halogen family

z = 120 (Group 2) Alkaline earth metal

78)

Total acidic oxides are → 4

[N2O3, SO2, Cl2O7, NO2]

79)

80) Bond dissociation energy : Cl—Cl > P—P > Si—Si

82)

(I) Thermal stability ∝

(IV) Melting point generally decreases down the group due to decrease in lattice energy. LiCl
is an exception for this trend. because of its partial covalent character.
83)

A – Benzene , B – Toluene

= 200 × 0.5 + 150 × 0.5

= 175 torr

84)

ps =

40 + 90 = 130

85)

For non-ideal solution ΔSmix > 0

86)

87)
0
rate r = k[A]2 [B]
0
r' = k[4A]2 [4B]
or, r' = 16 k [A]2
or r' = 16 r

88)

As per theory

89)

Net cell reaction :

2Cr + 3Fe2+ 2Cr3+ + 3Fe

Ecell =

90)

+ – =
 2z + x – y =

∴ = +z

BIOLOGY

99) Correct Answer Option 3: If Assertion is true but Reason is false.

Conceptual Explanation
1. Assertion: Scientific names for plants have been standardized through ICBN

A. True: The International Code of Botanical Nomenclature (ICBN) standardizes the rules and
guidelines for assigning scientific names to plants, ensuring consistency and universal
acceptance.

2. Reason: The naming system which used a three-word format was given by Linnaeus

A. False: Linnaeus introduced the binomial nomenclature system, which uses two words
(genus and species) for naming organisms. The three-word format (trivial names or polynomial
names) was in use before Linnaeus but was not formalized by him.

100)

The correct answer is: 2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Explanation: 1. Statement I: Mycoplasma can pass through less than 1 micron filter size

A. Correct.

Mycoplasma are among the smallest known bacteria, with a size range of 0.2-0.3 microns, allowing
their to pass through filters with a pore size of less than 1 micron. This property is a defining feature
of Mycoplasma.
2. Statement II: Mycoplasma are bacteria with cell wall

A. Incorrect.

Mycoplasma are unique among bacteria because they lack a cell wall. Instead, they have a flexible
cell membrane containing sterols, which help them survive in different environments.

101)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 17

106)

NCERT XI, Page # 121

107)

NCERT-XI, Pg.# 165, 166

Chromosome at each pole in telophase = 46
Chromosome in parent cell = 46
Chromatids ate metaphase = 46 x 2 = 92

108)

NCERT-XI PAGE NO. # 163

Sequence of cell cycle - G1 → S → G2 → M

109)

Histone proteins are associated with DNA and are synthesized in S phase of Interphase.

110) NCERT Pg. #131,132

Quasifluid nature of lipid enable lateral movement of protein, which is measured as fluidity.

111) Protein synthesis is not done by plasma membrane in eukaryotic cells.

112) NCERT- XI Pg. # 94

In passive transport, proteins are used to transport polar molecules, along the concentration
gradient.

113)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 94
Movement of water by diffusion is called Osmosis.

114) NCERT Pg. # 114, Para 7.4.2

115) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 82

116) NCERT Pg. # 46

117) Module

118) NCERT, Pg. # 43-45

119) Module

120) NCERT Pg # 48

121) NCERT Pg.# 185

122) NCERT Pg. # 187

123) NCERT Pg. # 201, 202

124) NCERT Pg. # 194, 195

125) NCERT Pg.# 206, 207

126) NCERT, Pg # 207

127)

NCERT-XI Pg#227

128) NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 227

129)

NCERT XI - Page No. 221

130) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 107

131) NCERT XI Pg. No. # 320, 321

132) NCERT Pg # 244, 245, 246

133)

NCERT Page # 244

134) NCERT Page-335/337/342(E)

135) Bulliform cells - Certain adaxial epidermis in grasses

Casparian strips - Endodermis of roots
Trichomes - Shoot hairs
Subsidiary cells - Stomatal apparatus

136) The correct statements are -

(C) The phloem parenchyma is absent, and water-containing cavities are present within the
vascular bundles of monocotyledonous stem.
(D) Conjoint types of vascular bundles are common in stems and leaves.
140) The common Product of cyclic and non-cyclic photo-phosphorylation is ATP.

141) Correct statements are -

(A) The use of radioactive 14C by Melvin Calvin in algal photosynthesis studies led to the
discovery that the first CO2 fixation product was a 3-carbon organic acid.
(C) The primary CO2 acceptor is a 3-carbon molecule phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP) and is
present in the mesophyll cells of C4 plants.
(E) One molecule of phosphoglycerate and one molecule of phosphoglycolate (2 carbon) is
produced in photorespiration.
Wrong statements are -
(B) Calvin cycle can be described under three stages: decarboxylation, reduction and
regeneration.
(D) The bundle sheath cells are rich in an enzyme Ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase-
oxygenase (RuBisCO), but lack PEPcase in C3 plants.

143) Fructose-6-phosphate + ATP → Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate + ADP

Phosphoenolpyruvate + ADP → Pyruvic acid + ATP
Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate + NAD+ → 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid + NADH + H+
2-phosphoglycerate → Phosphoenolpyruvate + H2O

146)

The living differentiated cells, that by now have lost the capacity to divide can regain the
capacity of division under certain conditions. This phenomenon is termed
as dedifferentiation.

148) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 110

149)

M.W. of 1 A.A → 60
M.W. of 6 A.A → 60 x 6 = 360
5 Peptide bonds are formed by the 6 A.A
So, during formation of 1 peptide bond one water molecule (M.W. - 18) is released out, So in
this way total 5 molecules of H2O (90) is released out.
i.e. 60 x 6 = 360
18 x 5 = 90
360 - 90 = 270

151) Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy, stress and poor health.

152) Funnel shaped - Infundibulum

153) After vasectomy sperm absent in semen

154) Placenta act as temporary endocrine structure.

157) NACO, educate people about only AIDS.

158)

NCERT Page No. 149

159) Haemozoin responsible for the chills and high fever in malaria.

160)

NCERT Pg.No. 153

164)

Functional megaspore is present toward chalazal pore.

Female gametophyte also called embryo sac which is seven celled and 8 nucleated.
Polar nuclei is present below synergids.
Megasporophyll is carpel.
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of different flower of same plant is called
geitonogamy.

165) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 12

Majority of plants use biotic agents for pollination because there is maximum chances of
pollination via biotic agents as compare to abiotic agents. In abiotic agent maximum loss of
pollen grain occurs and usually it is direction less process.

166) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 21

A - Aleurone layer is 3n because if develops from endosperm.
B - Endosperm is 3n
C - Scutellum is 2n
D - Coleoptile is 2n
E - Coleorhiza is 2n

167) NCERT pg- 75 to 77

168) The correct answer is (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A .
Independent assortment is a key principle of genetics that occurs when genes are located on
different chromosomes, leading to genetic variation.
169) NCERT-XII, INHERITANCE OF ONE GENE

170) NCERT pg- 102

171)

NCERT XIIth Pg # 121, 122

172)

NCERT XIIth Pg # 100

173)

NCERT XII Page No. # 104, 107

175)

Early detection of disease is not possible by serum analysis.

178) Ribonuclease → RNA

Protease →Protein
Chilled ethanol →Precipitation of DNA
Lysozyme →Bacterial cell wall
Cellular →Plant cell wall
Chitins →Fungal cell wall

179) Presence of insert results into insertional inactivation of the β-galactosidase gene and the
colonies do not produce any color, these are identified as recombinant colonies.

180) The first restriction endonuclease discovered was Hind II.