PHARMACOLOGY PRACTICE EXAMINATION QUESTIONS & ANSWERS

SECTION A: MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ)

c) Excretion of substances
d) Interaction of substances
PART I: PHARMACOKINETICS 005. The main mechanism of most drugs
001. Pharmacokinetics is: absorption in GI tract is:
a) The study of biological and a) Active transport (carrier-mediated
therapeutic effects of drugs diffusion)
b) The study of absorption, distribution, b) Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
metabolism and excretion of drugs c) Endocytosis and exocytosis
c) The study of mechanisms of drug d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
action 006. What kind of substances can’t
d) The study of methods of new drug permeate membranes by passive
development diffusion?
002. What does “pharmacokinetics” a) Lipid-soluble
include? b) Non-ionized substances
a) Complications of drug therapy c) Hydrophobic substances
b) Drug biotransformation in the d) Hydrophilic substances.
organism 007. A hydrophilic medicinal agent has
c) Influence of drugs on metabolism the following property:
processes a) Low ability to penetrate through the
d) Influence of drugs on genes. cell membrane lipids
003. What does “pharmacokinetics” b) Penetrate through membranes by
include? means of endocytosis
a) Pharmacological effects of drugs c) Easy permeation through the blood-
b) Unwanted effects of drugs brain barrier
c) Chemical structure of a medicinal d) High reabsorption in renal tubules
agent 008. What is implied by «active
d) Distribution of drugs in the organism. transport»?
004. What does “pharmacokinetics” a) Transport of drugs through a
include? membrane by means of diffusion
a) Localization of drug action b) Transport without energy
b) Mechanisms of drug action consumption

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c) Engulf of drug by a cell membrane c) Intravenous
with a new vesicle formation d) Intramuscular
d) Transport against concentration 013. What is characteristic of the oral
gradient. route?
009. What does the term a) Fast onset of effect
“bioavailability” mean? b) Absorption depends on GI tract
a) Plasma protein binding degree of secretion and motor function
substance c) A drug reaches the blood passing the
b) Permeability through the brain-blood liver
barrier d) The sterilization of medicinal forms is
c) Fraction of an uncharged drug obligatory
reaching the systemic circulation 014. Tick the feature of the sublingual
following any route administration route:
d) Amount of a substance in urine a) Pretty fast absorption
relative to the initial doze. b) A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
010. The reasons determine c) A drug is exposed more prominent
bioavailability are: liver metabolism
a) Rheological parameters of blood d) A drug can be administrated in a
b) Amount of a substance obtained orally variety of doses
and quantity of intakes 015. Pick out the parenteral route of
c) Extent of absorption and hepatic first- medicinal agent administration:
pass effect a) Rectal
d) Glomerular filtration rate b) Oral
011. Pick out the appropriate alimentary c) Sublingual
route of administration when passage of d) Inhalation
drugs through liver is minimized: 016. Parenteral administration:
a) Oral a) Cannot be used with unconsciousness
b) Transdermal patients
c) Rectal b) Generally results in a less accurate
d) Intraduodenal dosage than oral administration
012. Which route of drug administration c) Usually produces a more rapid
is most likely to lead to the first-pass response than oral administration
effect? d) Is too slow for emergency use
a) Sublingual
b) Oral
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017. What is characteristic of the 022. What is the reason of complicated
intramuscular route of drug penetration of some drugs through brain-
administration? blood barrier?
a) Only water solutions can be injected a) High lipid solubility of a drug
b) Oily solutions can be injected b) Meningitis
c) Opportunity of hypertonic solution c) Absence of pores in the brain capillary
injections endothelium
d) The action develops slower, than at d) High endocytosis degree in a brain
oral administration capillary
018. Intravenous injections are more 023. The volume of distribution (Vd)
suitable for oily solutions: relates:
a) True a) Single to a daily dose of an
b) False administrated drug
019. Correct statements listing b) An administrated dose to a body
characteristics of a particular route of weight
drug administration include all of the c) An uncharged drug reaching the
following EXCEPT: systemic circulation
a) Intravenous administration provides a d) The amount of a drug in the body to
rapid response the concentration of a drug in plasma
b) Intramuscular administration requires 024. For the calculation of the volume of
a sterile technique distribution (Vd) one must take into
c) Inhalation provides slow access to the account:
general circulation a) Concentration of a substance in
d) Subcutaneous administration may plasma
cause local irritation b) Concentration of substance in urine
020. Most of drugs are distributed c) Therapeutical width of drug action
homogeneously. d) A daily dose of drug
a) True 025. A small amount of the volume of
b) False distribution is common for lipophylic
021. Biological barriers include all substances easy penetrating through
except: barriers and widely distributing in
a) Renal tubules plasma, interstitial and cell fluids:
b) Cell membranes a) True
c) Capillary walls b) False
d) Placenta
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026. The term “biotransformation” 030. Stimulation of liver microsomal
includes the following: enzymes can:
a) Accumulation of substances in a fat a) Require the dose increase of some
tissue drugs
b) Binding of substances with plasma b) Require the dose decrease of some
proteins drugs
c) Accumulation of substances in a tissue c) Prolong the duration of the action of a
d) Process of physicochemical and drug
biochemical alteration of a drug in the d) Intensify the unwanted reaction of a
body drug
027. Biotransformation of the drugs is to 031. Metabolic transformation (phase 1)
render them: is:
a) Less ionized a) Acetylation and methylation of
b) More pharmacologically active substances
c) More lipid soluble b) Transformation of substances due to
d) Less lipid soluble oxidation, reduction or hydrolysis
028. Tick the drug type for which c) Glucuronide formation
microsomal oxidation is the most d) Binding to plasma proteins
prominent: 032. Biotransformation of a medicinal
a) Lipid soluble substance results in:
b) Water soluble a) Faster urinary excretion
c) Low molecular weight b) Slower urinary excretion
d) High molecular weight c) Easier distribution in organism
029. Pick out the right statement: d) Higher binding to membranes
a) Microsomal oxidation always results 033. Conjugation is:
in inactivation of a compound a) Process of drug reduction by special
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a enzymes
decrease of compound toxicity b) Process of drug oxidation by special
c) Microsomal oxidation results in an oxidases
increase of ionization and water c) Coupling of a drug with an
solubility of a drug endogenous substrate
d) Microsomal oxidation results in an d) Solubilization in lipids
increase of lipid solubility of a drug thus 034. Which of the following processes
its excretion from the organism is proceeds in the second phase of
facilitated biotransformation?
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a) Acetylation c) Concentration of a drug in plasma
b) Reduction d) Rate of drug elimination
c) Oxidation 040. Elimination is expressed as follows:
d) Hydrolysis a) Rate of renal tubular reabsorption
035. Conjugation of a drug includes the b) Clearance speed of some volume of
following EXCEPT: blood from substance
a) Glucoronidation c) Time required to decrease the amount
b) Sulfate formation of drug in plasma by one-half
c) Hydrolysis d) Clearance of an organism from a
d) Methylation xenobiotic
036. Metabolic transformation and 041. Elimination rate constant (Kelim) is
conjugation usually results in an increase defined by the following parameter:
of a substance biological activity: a) Rate of absorption
a) True b) Maximal concentration of a substance
b) False in plasma
037. In case of liver disorders c) Highest single dose
accompanied by a decline in microsomal d) Half-life (t ½)
enzyme activity the duration of action of 042. The most rapid eliminated drugs are
some drugs is: those with high glomerular filtration rate
a) Decreased and actively secreted but aren’t passively
b) Enlarged reabsorbed:
c) Remained unchanged a) True
d) Changed insignificantly b) False
038. Half-life (t ½) is the time required 043. Systemic clearance (CLs) is related
to: with:
a) Change the amount of a drug in a) Only the concentration of substances
plasma by half during elimination in plasma
b) Metabolize a half of an introduced b) Only the elimination rate constant
drug into the active metabolite c) Volume of distribution, half-life and
c) Absorb a half of an introduced drug elimination rate constant
d) Bind a half of an introduced drug to d) Bioavailability and half life
plasma proteins
039. Half-life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:
a) Biotransformation
b) Time of drug absorption
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PART II PHARMACODYNAMICS a) A measure of how tightly a drug binds
001. Pharmacodynamics involves the to plasma proteins
study of following EXCEPT: b) A measure of how tightly a drug binds
a) Biological and therapeutic effects of to a receptor
drugs c) A measure of inhibiting potency of a
b) Absorption and distribution of drugs drug
c) Mechanisms of drug action d) A measure of bioavailability of a drug
d) Drug interactions 006. Target proteins which a drug
002. Pharmacodynamics involves the molecule binds are:
study of following? a) Only receptors
a) Mechanisms of drug action b) Only ion channels
b) Biotransformation of drugs in the c) Only carriers
organism d) All of the above
c) Distribution of drugs in the organism 007. An agonist is a substance that:
d) Excretion of drug from the organism a) Interacts with the receptor without
003. Pharmacodynamics involves the producing any effect
following? b) Interacts with the receptor and
a) Information about main mechanisms initiates changes in cell function,
of drug absorption producing various effects
b) Information about unwanted effects c) Increases concentration of another
c) Information about biological barriers substance to produce effect
d) Information about excretion of a drug d) Interacts with plasma proteins and
from the organism doesn’t produce any effect
004. Pick out the answer which is the 008. If an agonist can produce maximal
most appropriate to the term “receptor” effects and has high efficacy it’s called:
a) All types of ion channels modulated a) Partial agonist
by a drug b) Antagonist
b) Enzymes of oxidizing-reducing c) Agonist-antagonist
reactions activated by a drug d) Full agonist
c) Active macromolecular components 009. If an agonist can produce
of a cell or an organism which a drug submaximal effects and has moderate
molecule has to combine with in order to efficacy it’s called:
elicit its specific effect a) Partial agonist
d) Carriers activated by a drug b) Antagonist
005. What does “affinity” mean? c) Agonist-antagonist
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d) Full agonist 014. Mechanisms of transmembrane
010. An antagonist is a substance that: signaling are the following EXCEPT:
a) Binds to the receptors and initiates a) Transmembrane receptors that bind
changes in cell function, producing and stimulate a protein tyrosine kinase
maximal effect b) Gene replacement by the introduction
b) Binds to the receptors and initiates of a therapeutic gene to correct a genetic
changes in cell function, producing effect
submaximal effect c) Ligand-gated ion channels that can be
c) Interacts with plasma proteins and induced to open or close by binding a
doesn’t produce any effect ligand
d) Binds to the receptors without directly d) Transmembrane receptor protein that
altering their functions stimulates a GTP-binding signal
011. A competitive antagonist is a transducer protein (G-protein) which in
substance that: turn generates an intracellular second
a) Interacts with receptors and produces messenger
submaximal effect 015. Tick the second messenger of G-
b) Binds to the same receptor site and protein-coupled (metabotropic) receptor:
progressively inhibits the agonist a) Adenylyl cyclase
response b) Sodium ions
c) Binds to the nonspecific sites of tissue c) Phospholipase C
d) Binds to one receptor subtype as an d) cAMP
agonist and to another as an antagonist 016. Tick the substance which changes
012. The substance binding to one the activity of an effector element but
receptor subtype as an agonist and to doesn’t belong to second messengers:
another as an antagonist is called: a) cAMP
a) Competitive antagonist b) cGMP
b) Irreversible antagonist c) G–protein
c) Agonist-antagonist d) Calcium ions
d) Partial agonist 017. The increase of second messengers’
013. Irreversible interaction of an (cAMP, cGMP, Ca2+ etc.) concentration
antagonist with a receptor is due to: leads to:
a) Ionic bonds a) Inhibition of intracellular protein
b) Hydrogen bonds kinases and protein phosphorylation
c) Covalent bonds b) Protein kinases activation and protein
d) All of the above phosphorylation
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c) Blocking of interaction between a 021. Pick out the correct definition of a
receptor and an effector toxic dose:
d) Antagonism with endogenous ligands a) The amount of substance to produce
018. Tick the substances whose the minimal biological effect
mechanisms are based on interaction b) The amount of substance to produce
with ion channels effects hazardous for an organism
a) Sodium channel blockers c) The amount of substance to produce
b) Calcium channel blockers the necessary effect in most of patients
c) Potassium channels activators d) The amount of substance to fast
d) All of the above creation of high concentration of
019. All of the following statements medicine in an organism
about efficacy and potency are true 022. Which effect may lead to toxic
EXCEPT: reactions when a drug is taken
a) Efficacy is usually a more important continuously or repeatedly?
clinical consideration than potency a) Refractoriness
b) Efficacy is the maximum effect of a b) Cumulative effect
drug c) Tolerance
c) Potency is a comparative measure, d) Tachyphylaxis
refers to the different doses of two drugs 023. What term is used to describe a
that are needed to produce the same more gradual decrease in responsiveness
effect to a drug, taking days or weeks to
d) The ED50 is a measure of drug’s develop?
efficacy a) Refractoriness
020. Give the definition for a b) Cumulative effect
therapeutical dose: c) Tolerance
a) The amount of a substance to produce d) Tachyphylaxis
the minimal biological effect 024. What term is used to describe a
b) The amount of a substance to produce decrease in responsiveness to a drug
effects hazardous for an organism which develops in a few minutes?
c) The amount of a substance to produce a) Refractoriness
the required effect in most patients b) Cumulative effect
d) The amount of a substance to c) Tolerance
accelerate an increase of concentration d) Tachyphylaxis
of medicine in an organism 025. Tachyphylaxis is:

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a) A drug interaction between two b) Rapid excretion of a drug
similar types of drugs c) Both of the above
b) Very rapidly developing tolerance d) None of the above
c) A decrease in responsiveness to a 030. Dependence is often associated
drug, taking days or weeks to develop with tolerance to a drug, a physical
d) None of the above abstinence syndrome, and psychological
026. Drug resistance is a term used to dependence (craving). This
describe the loss of effectiveness of consideration is:
antimicrobial or anti-tumour drugs. This a) True
consideration is: b) False
a) True 031. The situation when failure to
b) False continue administering the drug results
027. Tolerance and drug resistance can in serious psychological and somatic
be a consequence of: disturbances is
a) Drug dependence called?
b) Increased metabolic degradation a) Tachyphylaxis
c) Depressed renal drug excretion b) Sensibilization
d) Activation of a drug after hepatic first- c) Abstinence syndrome
pass d) Idiosyncrasy
028. Tolerance and drug resistance can 032. What is the type of drug-to-drug
be a consequence of: interaction which is connected with
a) Change in receptors, loss of them or processes of absorption,
exhaustion of mediators biotransformation, distribution and
b) Increased receptor sensitivity excretion?
c) Decreased metabolic degradation a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
d) Decreased renal tubular secretion b) Physical and chemical interaction
028. Tolerance and drug resistance can c) Pharmaceutical interaction
be a consequence of: d) Pharmacokinetic interaction
a) Change in receptors, loss of them or 033. What is the type of drug-to-drug
exhaustion of mediators interaction which is the result of
b) Increased receptor sensitivity interaction at receptor, cell, enzyme or
c) Decreased metabolic degradation organ level?
d) Decreased renal tubular secretion a) Pharmacodynamic interaction
029. Tolerance develops because of: b) Physical and chemical interaction
a) Diminished absorption c) Pharmaceutical interaction
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d) Pharmacokinetic interaction c) two drugs combine with one another
034. What phenomenon can occur in to form a more water-soluble compound
case of using a combination of drugs? d) two drugs combine with one another
a) Tolerance to form a more fat-soluble compound
b) Tachyphylaxis 039. A teratogenic action is:
c) Accumulation a) Toxic action on the liver
d) Synergism b) Negative action on the fetus causing
035. If two drugs with the same effect, fetal malformation
taken together, produce an effect that is c) Toxic action on blood system
equal in magnitude to the sum of the d) Toxic action on kidneys
effects of 040. Characteristic unwanted reaction
the drugs given individually, it is called which isn’t related to a dose or to a
as: pharmacodynamic property of a drug is
a) Antagonism called:
b) Potentiation a) Idiosyncrasy
c) Additive effect b) Hypersensitivity
d) None of the above c) Tolerance
036. What does the term “potentiation” d) Teratogenic action
mean? 041. Idiosyncratic reaction of a drug is:
a) Cumulative ability of a drug a) A type of hypersensitivity reaction
b) Hypersensitivity to a drug b) A type of drug antagonism
c) Fast tolerance developing c) Unpredictable, inherent, qualitatively
d) Intensive increase of drug effects due abnormal reaction to a drug
to their combination d) Quantitatively exaggerated response
037. The types of antagonism are: 042. Therapeutic index (TI) is:
a) Summarized a) A ratio used to evaluate the safety and
b) Potentiated usefulness of a drug for indication
c) Additive b) A ratio used to evaluate the
d) Competitive effectiveness of a drug
038. The term “chemical antagonism” c) A ratio used to evaluate the
means that: bioavailability of a drug
a) two drugs combine with one another d) A ratio used to evaluate the
to form an inactive compound elimination of a drug
b) two drugs combine with one another
to form a more active compound
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PT III ADRENERGIC AGONISTS d) Inhibition of the release of
001. Sympathetic stimulation is endogenous catecholamines from
mediated by: peripheral adrenergic neurons
a) Release of norepinephrine from nerve 005. Catecholamine includes following
terminals EXCEPT:
b) Activation of adrenoreceptors on a) Ephedrine
postsynaptic sites b) Epinephrine
c) Release of epinephrine from the c) Isoprenaline
adrenal medulla d) Norepinephrine
d) All of the above 006. Epinephrine decreases intracellular
002. Characteristics of epinephrine camp levels by acting on:
include all of the following EXCEPT: a) α1 receptor
a) It is synthesized into the adrenal b) α2 receptor
medulla c) beta1 receptor
b) It is synthesized into the nerve ending d) beta2 receptor
c) It is transported in the blood to target 007. Which of the following statements
tissues is not correct?
d) It directly interacts with and activates a) ALFA receptors increase arterial
adrenoreceptors resistance, whereas beta2 receptor
003. Which of the following promote smooth muscle relaxation
sympathomimetics acts indirectly? b) The skin and splanchic vessels have
a) Epinephrine predominantly alfa receptors
b) Norepinephrine c) Vessels in a skeletal muscle may
c) Ephedrine constrict or dilate depending on whether
d) Methoxamine alfa or beta2 receptors are activated
004. Indirect action includes all of the d) Skeletal muscle vessels have
following properties EXCEPT: predominantly alfa receptors and
a) Displacement of stored constrict in the presence of epinephrine
catecholamines from the adrenergic and norepinephrine
nerve ending 008. Direct effects on the heart are
b) Inhibition of reuptake of determined largely by:
catecholamines already released a) Alfa1 receptor
c) Interaction with adrenoreceptors b) Alfa2 receptor
c) Beta1 receptor
d) Beta2 receptor
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009. Which of the following effects is 014. A relatively pure alfa agonist causes
related to direct beta1-adrenoreceptor all of the following effects EXCEPT:
stimulation? a) Increase peripheral arterial resistance
a) Bronchodilation b) Increase venous return
b) Vasodilatation c) Has no effect on blood vessels
c) Tachycardia d) Reflex bradycardia
d) Bradycardia 015. A nonselective beta receptor agonist
010. Distribution of alfa adrenoreceptor causes all of the following effects
subtypes is associated with all of the EXCEPT:
following tissues except those of: a) Increase cardiac output
a) Heart b) Increase peripheral arterial resistance
b) Blood vessels c) Decrease peripheral arterial resistance
c) Prostate d) Decrease the mean pressure
d) Pupillary dilator muscle 016. Which of the following statement is
011. Beta adrenoreceptor subtypes is not correct?
contained in all of the following tissues a) Αlfa agonists cause miosis
EXCEPT: b) Αlfa agonists cause mydriasis
a) Bronchial muscles c) Beta antagonists decrease the
b) Heart production of aqueous humor
c) Pupillary dilator muscle d) Αlfa agonists increase the outflow of
d) Fat cells aqueous humor from the eye
012. In which of the following tissues 017. A bronchial smooth muscle
both alfa and beta1 adrenergic contains:
stimulation produces the same effect? a) Αlfa1 receptor
a) Blood vessels b) Αlfa2 receptor
b) Intestine c) Beta 1 receptor
c) Uterus d) Beta 2 receptor
d) Bronchial muscles 018. All of the following agents are beta
013. The effects of sympathomimetics receptor agonists EXCEPT:
on blood pressure are associated with a) Epinephrine
their effects on: b) Isoproterenol
a) The heart c) Methoxamine
b) The peripheral resistance d) Dobutamine
c) The venous return
d) All of the above
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019. Which of the following drugs 024. Which of the following effects is
causes bronchodilation without associated with beta3-receptor
significant cardiac stimulation? stimulation?
a) Isoprenaline a) Lipolysis
b) Terbutaline b) Decrease in platelet aggregation
c) Xylometazoline c) Bronchodilation
d) Methoxamine d) Tachycardia
020. Αlfa-receptor stimulation includes 025. Which of the following statements
all of the following effects EXCEPT: is not correct?
a) Relaxation of gastrointestinal smooth a) Epinephrine acts on both alfa- and
muscle beta-receptors
b) Contraction of bladder base, uterus b) Norepinephrine has a predominantly
and prostate beta action
c) Stimulation of insulin secretion c) Methoxamine has a predominantly
d) Stimulation of platelet aggregation alfa action
021. Beta1 receptor stimulation includes d) Isoprenaline has a predominantly beta
all of the following effects EXCEPT: action
a) Increase in contractility 026. Indicate the drug, which is a direct-
b) Bronchodilation acting both alfa- and beta-receptor
c) Tachycardia agonist:
d) Increase in conduction velocity in the a) Norepinephrine
atrioventricular node b) Methoxamine
022. Beta2 receptor stimulation includes c) Isoproterenol
all of the following effects EXCEPT: d) Ephedrine
a) Stimulation of renin secretion 027. Which of the following agents is an
b) Fall of potassium concentration in alfa1 alfa2 beta1 beta2 receptor agonist?
plasma a) Methoxamine
c) Relaxation of bladder, uterus b) Albuterol
d) Tachycardia c) Epinephrine
023. Hyperglycemia induced by d) Norepinephrine
epinephrine is due to: 028. Indicate the direct-acting
a) Gluconeogenesis (beta2) sympathomimetic, which is an alfa1
b) Inhibition of insulin secretion (alfa) alfa2 beta1 receptor agonist:
c) Stimulation of glycogenolysis (beta2) a) Isoproterenol
d) All of the above b) Ephedrine
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c) Dobutamine c) Ephedrine
d) Norepinephrine d) Isoproterenol
029. Which of the following agents is an 035. Epinephrine produces all of the
alfa1-selective agonist? following effects EXCEPT:
a) Norepinephrine a) Positive inotropic and chronotropic
b) Methoxamine actions on the heart (beta1 receptor)
c) Ritodrine b) Increase peripheral resistance (alfa
d) Ephedrine receptor)
030. Indicate the alfa2-selective agonist: c) Predominance of alfa effects at low
a) Xylometazoline concentration
b) Epinephrine d) Skeletal muscle blood vessel
c) Dobutamine dilatation (beta2 receptor)
d) Methoxamine 036. Epinephrine produces all of the
031. Which of the following agents is a following effects EXCEPT:
nonselective beta receptor agonist? a) Decrease in oxygen consumption
a) Norepinephrine b) Bronchodilation
b) Terbutaline c) Hyperglycemia
c) Isoproterenol d) Mydriasis
d) Dobutamine 037. Epinephrine is used in the treatment
032. Indicate the beta1-selective agonist: of all of the following disorders
a) Isoproterenol EXCEPT:
b) Dobutamine a) Bronchospasm
c) Metaproterenol b) Anaphylactic shock
d) Epinephrine c) Cardiac arrhythmias
033. Which of the following d) Open-angle glaucoma
sympathomimetics is a beta2-selective 038. Compared with epinephrine,
agonist? norepinephrine produces all of the
a) Terbutaline following effects EXCEPT:
b) Xylometazoline a) Similar effects on beta1 receptors in
c) Isoproterenol the heart and similar potency at an alfa
d) Dobutamine receptor
034. Indicate the indirect-acting b) Decrease the mean pressure below
sympathomimetic agent: normal before returning to the control
a) Epinephrine value
b) Phenylephrine
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c) Significant tissue necrosis if injected 043. Indicate the sympathomimetic,
subcutaneously which may cause hypotension,
d) Increase both diastolic and systolic presumably because of a clonidine-like
blood pressure effect:
039. Norepinephrine produces: a) Methoxamine
a) Vasoconstriction b) Phenylephrine
b) Vasodilatation c) Xylometazoline
c) Bronchodilation d) Isoproterenol
d) Decreased potassium concentration in 044. Isoproterenol is:
the plasma a) Both an alfa- and beta-receptor agonist
040. Which of the following direct- b) beta1-selective agonist
acting drugs is a relatively pure alfa c) beta2-selective agonist
agonist, an effective mydriatic and d) Nonselective beta receptor agonist
decongestant and can be used to raise 045. Isoproterenol produces all of the
blood pressure? following effects EXCEPT:
a) Epinephrine a) Increase in cardiac output
b) Norepinephrine b) Fall in diastolic and mean arterial
c) Phenylephrine pressure
d) Ephedrine c) Bronchoconstriction
041. Characteristics of methoxamine d) Tachycardia
include all of the following EXCEPT: 046. Characteristics of dobutamine
a) It is a direct-acting alfa1-receptor include all of the following EXCEPT:
agonist a) It is a relatively beta1-selective
b) It increases heart rate, contractility synthetic catecholamine
and cardiac output b) It is used to treat bronchospasm
c) It causes reflex bradycardia c) It increases atrioventricular
d) It increases total peripheral resistance conduction
042. Which of the following agents is an d) It causes minimal changes in heart rate
alfa2-selective agonist with ability to and systolic pressure
promote constriction of the nasal 047. Characteristics of salmeterol
mucosa? include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Xylometazoline a) It is a potent selective beta2 agonist
b) Phenylephrine b) It causes uterine relaxation
c) Methoxamine c) It stimulates heart rate, contractility
d) Epinephrine and cardiac output
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d) It is used in the therapy of asthma b) Ephedrine
048. Characteristics of ephedrine include c) Terbutaline
all of the following EXCEPT: d) Phenylephrine
a) It acts primarily through the release of 053. Which of the following
stored catecholamines sympathomimetics is preferable for the
b) It is a mild CNS stimulant emergency therapy of cardiogenic
c) It causes tachyphylaxis with repeated shock?
administration a) Epinephrine
d) It decreases arterial pressure b) Dobutamine
049. Ephedrine causes: c) Isoproterenol
a) Miosis d) Methoxamine
b) Bronchodilation 054. Indicate the sympathomimetic
c) Hypotension agent, which is combined with a local
d) Bradycardia anesthetic to prolong the duration of
050. Compared with epinephrine, infiltration
ephedrine produces all of the following nerve block:
features EXCEPT: a) Epinephrine
a) It is a direct-acting sympathomimetic b) Xylometazoline
b) It has oral activity c) Isoproterenol
c) It is resistant to MAO and has much d) Dobutamine
longer duration of action 055. Which of the following
d) Its effects are similar, but it is less sympathomimetics is related to short-
potent acting topical decongestant agents?
051. Which of the following a) Xylometazoline
sympathomimetics is preferable for the b) Terbutaline
treatment of chronic orthostatic c) Phenylephrine
hypotension? d) Norepinephrine
a) Epinephrine 056. Indicate the long-acting topical
b) Norepinephrine decongestant agents:
c) Ephedrine a) Epinephrine
d) Salmeterol b) Norepinephrine
052. Indicate the sympathomimetic drug, c) Phenylephrine
which is used in a hypotensive d) Xylometazoline
emergency:
a) Xylometazoline
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057. Which of the following topical 062. The adverse effects of
decongestant agents is an alfa2-selective sympathomimetics include all of the
agonist? following EXCEPT:
a) Phenylephrine a) Drug-induced parkinsonism
b) Xylometazoline b) Cerebral hemorrhage or pulmonary
c) Ephedrine edema
d) Epinephrine c) Myocardial infarction
058. Indicate the sympathomimetic, d) Ventricular arrhythmias
which may be useful in the emergency
management of cardiac arrest: PART IV ADRENERGIC
a) Methoxamine ANTAGONIST
b) Phenylephrine 001. Which of the following drugs is a
c) Epinephrine nonselective alfa receptor antagonist?
d) Xylometazoline a) Prazosin
059. Which of the following b) Phentolamine
sympathomimetics is used in the therapy c) Metoprolol
of bronchial asthma? d) Reserpine
a) Formoterol 002. Indicate the alfa1-selective
b) Norepinephrine antagonist:
c) Methoxamine a) Phentolamine
d) Dobutamine b) Dihydroergotamine
060. Indicate the agent of choice in the c) Prazosin
emergency therapy of anaphylactic d) Labetalol
shock: 003. Which of the following agents is an
a) Methoxamine alfa2–selective antagonist?
b) Terbutaline a) Yohimbine
c) Norepinephrine b) Tamsulosin
d) Epinephrine c) Tolazoline
061. Which of the following d) Prazosin
sympathomimetics is an effective 004. Indicate the irreversible alfa
mydriatic? receptor antagonist:
a) Salmeterol a) Tolazoline
b) Phenylephrine b) Labetalol
c) Dobutamine c) Prazosin
d) Norepinephrine d) Phenoxybenzamine
17
005. Which of the following drugs is an b) Reserpine
nonselective beta receptor antagonist? c) Carvedilol
a) Metoprolol d) Prazosin
b) Atenolol 011. The principal mechanism of action
c) Propranolol of adrenoreceptor antagonists is:
d) Acebutolol a) Reversible or irreversible interaction
006. Indicate the beta1-selective with adrenoreceptors
antagonist: b) Depletion of the storage of
a) Propranolol catecholamines
b) Metoprolol c) Blockade of the amine reuptake
c) Carvedilol pumps
d) Sotalol d) Nonselective MAO inhibition
007. Which of the following agents is a 012. Characteristics of alfa-receptor
beta2–selective antagonist? antagonists include all of the following
a) Tolazolin EXCEPT:
b) Pindolol a) They cause a fall in peripheral
c) Ergotamine resistance and blood pressure
d) Butaxamine b) They cause epinephrine reversal
008. Indicate the beta adrenoreceptor (convert a pressor response to a
antagonist, which has partial beta– depressor response)
agonist activity: c) Bronchospasm
a) Propranolol d) They may cause postural hypotension
b) Metoprolol and reflex tachycardia
c) Pindolol 013. Which of the following drugs is an
d) Betaxolol imidazoline derivative and a potent
009. Which of the following drugs is a competitive antagonist at both alfa1 and
reversible nonselective alfa, beta alfa2
antagonist? receptors?
a) Labetalol a) Prazosin
b) Phentolamine b) Labetalol
c) Metoprolol c) Phenoxybenzamine
d) Propranolol d) Phentolamine
010. Indicate the indirect-acting 014. Characteristics of phentolamine
adrenoreceptor blocking drug: include all of the following EXCEPT:
a) Tolazoline a) Reduction in peripheral resistance
18
b) Stimulation of responses to serotonin 018. Which of the following drugs is
c) Tachycardia useful in the treatment of
d) Stimulation of muscarinic, H1 and H2 pheochromocytoma?
histamine receptors a) Phenylephrine
015. The principal mechanism of b) Propranolol
phentolamine-induced tachycardia is: c) Phentolamine
a) Antagonism of presynaptic alfa2 d) Epinephrine
receptors enhances norepinephrine 019. Indicate adrenoreceptor antagonist
release, which causes cardiac stimulation agents, which are used for the
via unblocked beta receptors management of pheochromocytoma:
b) Baroreflex mechanism a) Selective beta2-receptor antagonists
c) Direct effect on the heart by b) Nonselective beta-receptor
stimulation of beta1 receptors antagonists
d) Inhibition of transmitter reuptake at c) Indirect-acting adrenoreceptor
noradrenergic synapses antagonist drugs
016. Nonselective alfa-receptor d) Αlfa-receptor antagonists
antagonists are most useful in the 020. The principal adverse effects of
treatment of: phentolamine include all of the
a) Asthma following EXCEPT:
b) Cardiac arrhythmias a) Diarrhea
c) Pheochromocytoma b) Bradycardia
d) Chronic hypertension c) Arrhythmias
017. The main reason for using alfa- d) Myocardial ischemia
receptor antagonists in the management 021. Indicate the reversible nonselective
of pheochromocytoma is: alfa-receptor antagonist, which is an
a) Inhibition of the release of epinephrine ergot derivative:
from the adrenal medulla a) Ergotamine
b) Blockade of alfa2 receptors on b) Prazosin
vascular smooth muscle results in c) Phenoxybenzamine
epinephrine stimulation of unblocked d) Carvedilol
alfa2 receptors 022. Indicate an alfa-receptor antagonist,
c) Direct interaction with and inhibition which binds covalently to alfa receptors,
of beta2 adrenoreceptors causing irreversible blockade of long
d) Antagonism to the release of renin duration (14-48 hours or longer):
a) Phentolamine
19
b) Phenoxybenzamine d) Asthma
c) Ergotamine 027. Indicate an alfa receptor antagonist,
d) Prazosin which is an efficacious drug in the
023. Compared with phentolamine, treatment of mild to moderate systemic
prazosin has all of the following features hypertension:
EXCEPT: a) Phentolamine
a) Irreversible blockade of alfa receptors b) Tolazoline
b) Highly selective for alfa1 receptors c) Ergotamine
c) The relative absence of tachycardia d) Prazosin
d) Persistent block of alfa1 receptors 028. Which of the following alfa
024. Which of the following statements receptor antagonists is useful in
is not correct? reversing the intense local
a) There are at least three subtypes of vasoconstriction caused by
alfa1 receptors, designated alfa1a, alfa1b inadvertent infiltration of norepinephrine
and alfa1d into subcutaneous tissue during
b) ALFA1a subtype mediates prostate intravenous administration?
smooth muscle contraction a) Propranolol
c) ALFA1b subtype mediates vascular b) Phentolamine
smooth muscle contraction c) Tamsulosin
d) ALFA1a subtype mediates both d) Ergotamine
vascular and prostate smooth muscle 029. Beta-blocking drugs-induced
contraction chronically lower blood pressure may be
025. Indicate an alfa1 adrenoreceptor associated with theirs effects on:
antagonist, which has great selectivity a) The heart
for alfa1a subtype: b) The blood vessels
a) Prazosin c) The renin-angiotensin system
b) Tamsulosin d) All of the above
c) Phenoxybenzamine 030. Characteristics of beta-blocking
d) Phentolamine agents include all of the following
026. Subtype-selective alfa1 receptor EXCEPT:
antagonists such as tamsulosin, a) They occupy beta receptors and
terazosin, alfusosin are efficacious in: competitively reduce receptor
a) Hyperthyroidism occupancy by catecholamines or other
b) Cardiac arrhythmias beta agonists
c) Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)
20
b) They do not cause hypotension in d) It increases the atrioventricular nodal
individuals with normal blood pressure refractory period
c) They induce depression and depleted 035. Propranolol-induced adverse
stores of catecholamines effects include all of the following
d) They can cause blockade in the EXCEPT:
atrioventricular node a) Bronchoconstriction
031. Beta-receptor antagonists have all b) “super-sensitivity” of beta-adrenergic
of the following cardiovascular effects receptors (rapid withdrawal)
EXCEPT: c) Hyperglycemia
a) The negative inotropic and d) Sedation, sleep disturbances,
chronotropic effects depression and sexual dysfunction
b) Acute effects of these drugs include a 036. Propranolol is used in the treatment
fall in peripheral resistance all of the following diseases EXCEPT:
c) Vasoconstriction a) Cardiovascular diseases
d) Reduction of the release of renin b) Hyperthyroidism
032. Beta-blocking agents have all of the c) Migraine headache
following effects except: d) Bronchial asthma
a) Increase plasma concentrations of 037. Metoprolol and atenolol:
HDL and decrease of VLDL a) Are members of the beta1-selective
b) Bronchoconstriction group
c) Decrease of aqueous humor b) Are nonselective beta antagonists
production c) Have intrinsic sympathomimetic
d) “membrane-stabilizing” action activity
033. Beta-receptor antagonists cause: d) Have an anesthetic action
a) Stimulation of lipolysis 038. Which of the following beta
b) Stimulation of gluconeogenesis receptor antagonists is preferable in
c) Inhibition of glycogenolysis patients with asthma, diabetes or
d) Stimulation of insulin secretion peripheral vascular diseases?
034. Propranolol has all of the following a) Propranolol
cardiovascular effects EXCEPT: b) Metoprolol
a) It decreases cardiac work and oxygen c) Nadolol
demand d) Timolol
b) It reduces blood flow to the brain 039. Indicate a beta receptor antagonist,
c) It inhibits the renin secretion which has very long duration of action:
a) Metoprolol
21
b) Propranolol 044. Indicate a beta-blocker, which is
c) Nadolol particularly efficacious in thyroid storm:
d) Pindolol a) Pindolol
040. Indicate a beta1-selective receptor b) Sotalol
antagonist, which has very long duration c) Phentolamine
of action: d) Propranolol
a) Betaxolol 045. Beta-receptor blocking drugs are
b) Sotalol used in the treatment all of the following
c) Nadolol diseases EXCEPT:
d) Metoprolol a) Hypertension, ischemic heart disease,
041. Which of the following drugs has cardiac arrhythmias
both alfa1-selective and beta-blocking b) Glaucoma
effects? c) Pheochromocytoma
a) Labetalol d) Hyperthyroidism
b) Betaxolol 046. Beta-blocker-induced adverse
c) Propranolol effects include all of the following
d) Timolol EXCEPT:
042. Indicate the adrenoreceptor a) Bronchoconstriction
antagonist drug, which is a rauwolfia b) Depression of myocardial
alkaloid: contractility and excitability
a) Prazosin c) “super-sensitivity” of beta-receptors
b) Propranolol associated with rapid withdrawal of
c) Reserpine drugs
d) Phentolamine d) Hyperglycemia
043. Characteristics of reserpine include
all of the following EXCEPT: PART V CHOLINERGIC AGONIST
a) It inhibits the uptake of 001. Acetylcholine is not a specific
norepinephrine into vesicles and MAO neurotransmitter at:
b) It decreases cardiac output, peripheral a) Sympathetic ganglia
resistance and inhibits pressor reflexes b) Sympathetic postganglionic nerve
c) It may cause a transient endings
sympathomimetic effect c) Parasympathetic ganglia
d) It depletes stores of catecholamines d) Parasympathetic postganglionic nerve
and serotonin in the brain endings
002. Muscarinic receptors are located in:
22
a) Autonomic ganglia 007. Characteristics of carbachol include
b) Skeletal muscle neuromuscular all of the following EXCEPT:
junctions a) It decreases intraocular pressure
c) Autonomic effector cells b) It causes mydriasis
d) Sensory carotid sinus baroreceptor c) It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic
zone effects
003. Indicate the location of M2 d) It is resistant to acethylcholiesterase
cholinoreceptor type: 008. Acetylcholine is not used in clinical
a) Heart practice because:
b) Glands a) It is very toxic
c) Smooth muscle b) The doses required are very high
d) Endothelium c) It is very rapidly hydrolyzed
004. The symptoms of mushroom d) It is very costly
poisoning include all of the following 009. Parasympathomimetic drugs cause:
EXCEPT: a) Bronchodilation
a) Salivation, lacrimation, nausea, b) Mydriasis
vomiting c) Bradycardia
b) Dryness of mouth, hyperpyrexia, d) Constipation
hallucination 010. Which of the following direct-
c) Headache, abdominal colic acting cholinomimetics is mainly
d) Bradycardia, hypotension and shock muscarinic in action?
005. Which of the following a) Bethanechol
cholinomimetics activates both b) Carbachol
muscarinic and nicotinic receptors? c) Acetylcholine
a) Lobeline d) None of the above
b) Pilocarpine 011. Which of the following direct-
c) Nicotine acting cholinomimetics has the shortest
d) Bethanechol duration of action?
006. Indicate a cholinomimetic agent, a) Acetylcholine
which is related to direct-acting drugs: b) Methacholine
a) Edrophonium c) Carbachol
b) Physostigmine d) Bethanechol
c) Carbachol 012. Bethanechol has all of the following
d) Isoflurophate properties EXCEPT:
a) It is extremely resistant to hydrolysis
23
b) Purely muscarinic in its action 017. The mechanism of action of
c) It is used for abdominal urinary indirect-acting cholinomimetic agents is:
bladder distention a) Binding to and activation of
d) It exerts both nicotinic and muscarinic muscarinic or nicotinic receptors
effects b) Inhibition of the hydrolysis of
013. A M-cholinimimetic agent is: endogenous acetylcholine
a) Carbachol c) Stimulation of the action of
b) Pilocarpine acetylcholinesterase
c) Acetylcholine d) Releasing acetylcholine from storage
d) Bethanechol sites
014. Characteristics of pilocarpine 018. Indicate a reversible cholinesterase
include all of the following EXCEPT: inhibitor:
a) It is a tertiary amine alkaloid a) Isoflurophate
b) It causes miosis and a decrease in b) Carbochol
intraocular pressure c) Physostigmine
c) Causes a decrease in secretory and d) Parathion
motor activity of gut 019. Which of the following
d) It is useful in the treatment of cholinesterase inhibitors is irreversible?
glaucoma a) Physostigmine
015. Which of the following b) Edrophonium
cholinomimetics is a plant derivative c) Neostigmine
with lower potency than nicotine but d) Isoflurophate
with a similar spectrum 020. Indicate cholinesterase activator:
of action? a) Pralidoxime
a) Lobeline b) Edrophonium
b) Pilocarpine c) Pilocarpine
c) Carbochol d) Isoflurophate
d) Acetylcholine 021. Isofluorophate increases all of the
016. Which of the following following effects except:
cholinomimetics is indirect-acting? a) Lacrimation
a) Lobeline b) Bronchodilation
b) Edrophonium c) Muscle twitching
c) Pilocarpine d) Salivation
d) Carbachol

24
022. Indicate a cholinesterase inhibitor, 026. Which of the following
which has an additional direct nicotinic cholinomimetics is most widely used for
agonist effect: paralytic ileus and atony of the urinary
a) Edrophonium bladder?
b) Carbochol a) Lobeline
c) Neostigmine b) Neostigmine
d) Lobeline c) Pilocarpine
023. Сholinesterase inhibitors do not d) Echothiophate
produce: 027. Chronic long-term therapy of
a) Bradycardia, no change or modest fall myasthenia is usually accomplished
in blood pressure with:
b) Increased strength of muscle a) Edrophonium
contraction, especially in muscles b) Neostigmine
weakened by myasthenia gravis c) Echothiophate
c) Miosis and reduction of intraocular d) Carbachol
pressure 028. Which of the following
d) Dramatic hypertension and cholinomimetics is a drug of choice for
tachycardia reversing the effects of nondepolarizing
024. Which of the following neuromuscular
cholinomimetics is commonly used in relaxants?
the treatment of glaucoma? a) Echothiophate
a) Pilocarpine b) Physostigmine
b) Lobeline c) Edrophonium
c) Acethylcholine d) Pilocarpine
d) Neostigmine 029. Indicate the reversible
025. Indicate the organophosphate cholinesterase inhibitor, which
cholinesterase inhibitor, which can be penetrates the blood-brain barrier:
made up in an aqueous solution for a) Physostigmine
ophthalmic use b) Edrophonium
and retains its activity within a week: c) Neostigmine
a) Physoctigmine d) Pyridostigmine
b) Edrophonium 030. Which of the following
c) Echothiophate cholinomimetics is used in the treatment
d) Neostigmine of atropine intoxication?
a) Neostigmine
25
b) Carbochol 035. Which of the following drugs is
c) Physostigmine used for acute toxic effects of
d) Lobeline organophosphate cholinesterase
031. The symptoms of excessive inhibitors?
stimulation of muscarinic receptors a) Atropine
include all of the following EXCEPT: b) Pilocarpine
a) Abdominal cramps, diarrhea c) Pralidoxime
b) Increased salivation, excessive d) Edrophonium
bronchial secretion
c) Miosis, bradycardia PART VI CHOLINERGIC
d) Weakness of all skeletal muscles ANTAGONIST
032. The excessive stimulation of 001. The group of nicotinic receptor-
muscarinic receptors by pilocarpine and blocking drugs consists of:
choline esters is blocked competitively a) Ganglion-blockers
by: b) Atropine-similar drugs
a) Edrophonium c) Neuromuscular junction blockers
b) Atropine d) Both a and c
c) Pralidoxime 002. M3 receptor subtype is located:
d) Echothiophate a) In the myocardium
033. The toxic effects of a large dose of b) In sympathetic postganglionic
nicotine include all of the following neurons
EXCEPT: c) On effector cell membranes of
a) Hypotension and bradycardia glandular and smooth muscle cells
b) Convulsions, coma and respiratory d) On the motor end plates
arrest 003. Indicate a muscarinic receptor-
c) Skeletal muscle depolarization blocking drug:
blockade and respiratory paralysis a) Scopolamine
d) Hypertension and cardiac arrhythmias b) Pipecuronium
034. The dominant initial sights of acute c) Trimethaphan
cholinesterase inhibitors intoxication d) Pilocarpine
include all of the following except: 004. Which of the following agents is a
a) Salivation, sweating ganglion-blocking drug?
b) Mydriasis a) Homatropine
c) Bronchial constriction b) Hexamethonium
d) Vomiting and diarrhea c) Rapacuronium
26
d) Edrophonium 010. The tissues most sensitive to
005. Indicate the skeletal muscle atropine are:
relaxant, which is a depolarizing agent: a) The salivary, bronchial and sweat
a) Vencuronium glands
b) Scopolamine b) The gastric parietal cells
c) Succinylcholine c) Smooth muscle and autonomic
d) Hexamethonium effectors
006. Which of the following drugs is a d) The heart
nondepolarizing muscle relaxant? 011. Atropine is highly selective for:
a) Pancuronium a) M1 receptor subtype
b) Succinylcholine b) M2 receptor subtype
c) Hexamethonium c) M3 receptor subtype
d) Scopolamine d) All of the above
007. Indicate the drug, which is rapidly 012. Which of the following
and fully distributed into CNS and has a antimuscarinic drugs is often effective in
greater effect than most other preventing or reversing vestibular
antimuscarinic agents? disturbances, especially motion
a) Atropine sickness?
b) Scopolamine a) Atropine
c) Homatropine b) Ipratropium
d) Ipratropium c) Scopolamine
008. The effect of the drug on d) Homatropine
parasympathetic function declines 013. Atropine causes:
rapidly in all organs EXCEPT: a) Miosis, a reduction in intraocular
a) Eye pressure and cyclospasm
b) Heart b) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular
c) Smooth muscle organs pressure and cycloplegia
d) Glands c) Miosis, a rise in intraocular pressure
009. The mechanism of atropine action and cycloplegia
is: d) Mydriasis, a rise in intraocular
a) Competitive ganglion blockade pressure and cyclospasm
b) Competitive muscarinic blockade 014. Patients complain of dry or “sandy”
c) Competitive neuromuscular blockade eyes when receiving large doses of:
d) Noncompetitive neuromuscular a) Atropine
blockade b) Hexamethonium
27
c) Pilocarpine a) Spasmolitic activity
d) Carbachol b) Intestinal hypermotility
015. All of the following parts of the c) Stimulation of contraction in the gut
heart are very sensitive to muscarinic d) Stimulation of secretory activity
receptor blockade except: 020. Which of the following drugs is
a) Atria useful in the treatment of uterine
b) Sinoatrial node spasms?
c) Atrioventricular node a) Carbachol
d) Ventricle b) Vecuronium
016. Atropine causes: c) Atropine
a) Bradycardia, hypotension and d) Edrophonium
bronchoconstriction 021. Atropine may cause a rise in body
b) Tachycardia, little effect on blood temperature (atropine fever):
pressure and bronchodilation a) In adults
c) Decrease in contractile strength, b) In pregnant women
conduction velocity through the AV node c) In infants and children
d) Tachycardia, hypertensive crisis and d) All of the above
bronchodilation 022. The pharmacologic actions of
017. Atropine is frequently used prior to scopolamine most closely resemble
administration of inhalant anesthetics to those of:
reduce: a) Hexamethonium
a) Muscle tone b) Atropine
b) Secretions c) Succinylcholine
c) Nausea and vomiting d) Pilocarpine
d) All of the above 023. Compared with atropine,
018. Atropine is now rarely used for the scopolamine has all of the following
treatment of peptic ulcer because of: properties EXCEPT:
a) Slow gastric emptying and a) More marked central effect
prolongation of the exposure of the ulcer b) Less potent in decreasing bronchial,
bed to acid salivary and sweat gland secretion
b) Low efficiency and necessity of large c) More potent in producing mydriasis
doses and cycloplegia
c) Adverse effects d) Lower effects on the heart, bronchial
d) All of the above muscle and intestines
019. Atropine causes:
28
024. Which of the following agents is 029. The treatment of the antimuscarinic
used as an inhalation drug in asthma? effects can be carried out with:
a) Atropine a) Neostigmine
b) Ipratropium b) Hexametonium
c) Lobeline c) Homatropine
d) Homatropine d) Acetylcholine
025. Which of the following agents is 030. Contraindications to the use of
most effective in regenerating antimuscarinic drugs are all of the
cholinesterase associated with skeletal following except:
muscle neuromuscular junctions? a) Glaucoma
a) Succinylcholine b) Myasthenia
b) Pralidoxime c) Bronchial asthma
c) Pirenzepine d) Paralytic ileus and atony of the urinary
d) Propiverine bladder
026. Indicate an antimuscarinic drug, 031. Hexamethonium blocks the action
which is effective in the treatment of of acethylcholine and similar agonists at:
mushroom poising: a) Muscarinic receptor site
a) Pralidoxime b) Neuromuscular junction
b) Pilocarpine c) Autonomic ganglia
c) Homatropine d) Axonal transmission
d) Atropine 032. The applications of the ganglion
027. Antimuscarinics are used in the blockers have disappeared because of all
treatment of the following disorders of the following reasons EXCEPT:
EXCEPT: a) Orthostatic hypotension
a) Motion sickness b) Lack of selectivity
b) Glaucoma c) Homeostatic reflexes block
c) Hyperhidrosis d) Respiratory depression
d) Asthma 033. Which of the following agents is a
028. The atropine poisoning includes all short-acting ganglion blocker?
of the following symptoms EXCEPT: a) Homatropine
a) Mydriasis, cycloplegia b) Trimethaphane
b) Hyperthermia, dry mouth, hot and c) Hexamethonium
flushed skin d) Pancuronium
c) Agitation and delirium
d) Bradycardia, orthostatic hypotension
29
034. The systemic effects of 038. Which of the following drugs has
hexamethonium include all of the “double-acetylcholine” structure?
following EXCEPT: a) Rocuronium
a) Reduction of both peripheral vascular b) Carbachol
resistance and venous return c) Atracurium
b) Partial mydriasis and loss of d) Succinylcholine
accommodation 039. Indicate the long-acting
c) Constipation and urinary retention neuromuscular blocking agent:
d) Stimulation of thermoregulatory a) Rapacuronium
sweating b) Mivacurium
035. Ganglion blocking drugs are used c) Tubocurarine
for the following emergencies EXCEPT: d) Rocuronium
a) Hypertensive crises 040. Which of the following
b) Controlled hypotension neuromuscular blocking drugs is an
c) Cardiovascular collapse intermediate-duration muscle relaxant?
d) Pulmonary edema a) Vecuronium
036. Agents that produce neuromuscular b) Tubocurarine
blockade act by inhibiting: c) Pancuronium
a) Interaction of acetylcholine with d) Rapacuronium
cholinergic receptors 041. Indicate the nondepolarizing agent,
b) Release of acetylcholine from which has the fastest onset of effect?
prejunctional membrane a) Succinylcholine
c) Packaging of acetylcholine into b) Rapacuronium
synaptic vesicles c) Pancuronium
d) Reuptake of acetylcholine into the d) Tubocurarine
nerve ending 042. Indicate the neuromuscular blocker,
037. Nondepolarisation neuromuscular whose breakdown product readily
blocking agents: crosses the blood-brain barrier and may
a) Block acetylcholine reuptake cause
b) Prevent access of the transmitter to its seizures:
receptor and depolarization a) Pancuronium
c) Block transmission by an excess of a b) Succinylcholine
depolarizing agonist c) Tubocurarine
d) All of the above d) Atracurium

30
043. Which competitive neuromuscular b) Pancuronium
blocking agent could be used in patients c) Succinylcholine
with renal failure? d) Tubocurarine
a) Atracurium 048. Indicate muscles, which are more
b) Succinylcholine resistant to block and recover more
c) Pipecuronium rapidly:
d) Doxacurium a) Hand
044. Indicate the nondepolarizing agent, b) Leg
which has short duration of action: c) Neck
a) Succinylcholine d) Diaphragm
b) Tubocurarine 049. Which of the following diseases can
c) Mivacurium augment the neuromuscular blockade
d) Pancuronium produced by nondepolarizing muscle
045. Which depolarizing agent has the relaxants?
extremely brief duration of action? a) Myasthenia gravis
a) Mivacurium
b) Burns
b) Rapacuronium
c) Rocuronium c) Asthma
d) Succinylcholine d) Parkinsonism
046. Depolarizing agents include all of
050. Indicate the agent, which
the following properties EXCEPT: effectively antagonizes the
a) Interact with nicotinic receptor to neuromuscular blockade caused by
compete with acetylcholine without nondepolarizing drugs:
receptor activation
a) Atropine
b) React with the nicotinic receptor to
open the channel and cause b) Neostigmine
depolarisation of the end plate c) Acetylcholine
c) Cause desensitization, noncompetive d) Pralidoxime
block manifested by flaccid paralysis
d) Cholinesterase inhibitors do not have
the ability to reverse the blockade
047. Which of the following
neuromuscular blockers causes transient
muscle fasciculations?
a) Mivacurium
31