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The document outlines the examination format for the UAE Grand Finale for Grade 4/Year 5 students, including instructions, sections, and types of questions. It specifies the structure of the exam with three sections (A, B, and C) and details on marking, negative marking, and prohibited items. Additionally, it includes sample questions for each section to guide students in their preparation.

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Prashant Singh
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
24 views48 pages

Resource File

The document outlines the examination format for the UAE Grand Finale for Grade 4/Year 5 students, including instructions, sections, and types of questions. It specifies the structure of the exam with three sections (A, B, and C) and details on marking, negative marking, and prohibited items. Additionally, it includes sample questions for each section to guide students in their preparation.

Uploaded by

Prashant Singh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 48

Time: 45 mins

UAE Grand Finale - 2024


Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

Seat No. _____________ Grade 4 / Year 5 Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are three sections A, B & C. Section A has 10 questions of 1 mark


each. Section B has 30 questions of 2 marks each. Section C has 10
questions of 3 marks each. Every wrong answer of section A, B, C will
carry 25% negative mark.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.


After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue /
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No


scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form


during the examination will be disqualified. Use of calculator is prohibited

7) Students must carry the admit card & their school identity card with them.

Total Marks: / 100


Time: 45 min

Section - A (1 mark each)

1) Which of the following is the biggest measure?


1
a) 140 litre b) 1 litre c) 1.800 litre d) 365 ml
2

2) Double of 98 = ?
a) 49 b) 186 c) 44 d) 196

3) 4693 4639 Compare & put appropriate sign (<, >, =).
a) < b) = c) > d) None of these

4) 3000 + + 30 + 6 = 3526
a) 500 b) 490 c) 520 d) 510

5) 5186 - = 2945
a) 2241 b) 3841 c) 3214 d) 2214

6) Round off 4720 to nearest 100s


a) 6000 b) 5000 c) 4700 d) 4800

7) Half of 176 = ?
a) 352 b) 88 c) 242 d) 86

8) Which of the following numbers is multiple of 10?


a) 160 b) 101 c) 401 d) 363

9) Find the even number from the following?


a) 2467 b) 3575 c) 4689 d) 3570

10) Which of the following is the greatest number?


a) 2568 b) 2658 c) 2685 d) 2680
1
Grade 4 / Year 5

Section - B (2 marks each)

11) Three digit smallest odd number minus 4 = ?


a) 994 b) 105 c) 97 d) 995

12) If A is an even number, what will be the immediate next odd number?
a) A + 1 b) A + 2 c) A + 3 d) all of these

13) What is the sum of place value of number 5 in the number 3585?
a) 585 b) 505 c) 550 d) 5

14) The length of a rectangle is 12 cm & breadth is 7 cm. Find its


area.
a) 38 cm2 b) 5 cm2 c) 19 cm2 d) 84 cm2

15) 3rd odd number after 294 = ?


a) 300 b) 299 c) 301 d) 302

16) 1.3 m = cm
a) 130 b) 13 c) 1300 d) 0.13

17) What is the sum of digits in the product of 9 & 8?


a) 17 b) 10 c) 9 d) 18

18) Eight times eight added to eighty.


a) 82 b) 144 c) 16 d) 152

19) 2 weeks = hours


a) 2 x 7 x 60 b) 24 x 60 c) 14 x 24 d) 7 x 24

16 14
20) + =2 Find the value of

a) 30 b) 20 c) 10 d) 15
2
Grade 4 / Year 5

21) 5 x 6 = 6 x ___ Find the missing value.


a) 30 b) 6 c) 5 d) 36

22) a x 8 = 888 Find the value of ‘a’.


a) 111 b) 88 c) 880 d) 976

3
23) Find the equivalent fraction for =
5 45
a) 43 b) 24 c) 30 d) 27

24) 145 28 = 117 Put correct symbol to make equation correct.


a) - b) + c) x d)

25) Find the successor of 1400.


a) 1399 b) 1401 c) 1499 d) 1500

26) Quarter past 7 in the morning is same as ____.


a) 7:15 am b) 7:45 pm c) 6:45 am d) 6:15 pm

27) tens - 30 tens = 230


a) 260 b) 200 c) 70 d) 53

28) The length of a rectangle is 25 cm and its breadth is 12 cm. What is


its perimeter?
a) 300 cm b) 37 cm c) 74 cm d) 64 cm

29) Area of a square is 196 cm2, find the length of the side.
a) 13 cm b) 14 cm c) 15 cm d) 16 cm

30) Five thousand = tens


a) 5000 b) 500 c) 50 d) 5
3
Grade 4 / Year 5

31) Find the sum of odd numbers given here.


24, 15, 36, 9, 21
a) 45 b) 60 c) 36 d) 24

32) 2070 9 = ? Find the remainder.


a) 203 b) 230 c) 0 d) 147

33) Three fourth of a number is 72. What is that number?


a) 288 b) 96 c) 54 d) 24

34) 3 1 5 Find the missing number.


1 0 3
1 9 2

a) 2 b) 8 c) 3 d) 0

35) Form the smallest 4-digit number using each digit only once. 2, 8, 1, 6
a) 8621 b) 1286 c) 8612 d) 1268

36) Which of the following is a correct conversion?


a) 2.5 lit = 250 ml b) 5 m = 5000 cm
c) 2 kg = 200 gm d) 2 m = 200 cm

37) Find the biggest fraction from the following.


a) 2 b) 6 c) 3 d) 24
6 2 2 26

38) 189 - (23 x 6) = ?


a) 996 b) 63 c) 51 d) 160

39) 4th even number after 145 = ?


a) 150 b) 152 c) 153 d) 151

2
40) 5 litre = ml
a) 400 b) 250 c) 200 d) 225
4
Grade 4 / Year 5

Section - C (3 marks each)

41) Ms. Liza walks 3 km a day from Monday to Friday & she walks 5 km a
day on Saturday & Sunday. How many km does she walk altogether
in two weeks?
a) 25 km b) 50 km c) 8 km d) 20 km

42) Nisha had 100 storybooks. Out of these, 70 were sold at AED 30 each
& the remaining were sold at AED 20 each. After making payment of
AED 200 to the delivery person, find the total amount she received
from these sales.
a) AED 3000 b) AED 2700 c) AED 2500 d) AED 2300

43) Rohan gets pocket money of AED 800 per month. He saves the same
portion of it every month. At the end of the year, he received AED 3840.
Find what portion of his pocket money he saves every month.
3 2 4 6
a) b) c) d)
5 5 7 11

44) Meeta purchased 3 watches @ AED 470 each. She gave 3 notes of
AED 500, how much change will she receive?
a) AED 90 b) AED 1410 c) AED 190 d) AED 1210

45) The perimeter of a rectangle is 40 cm. If the length is 2 cm longer


than the width, what are the dimensions of the rectangle?
a) L = 11 cm, B = 9 cm b) L = 15 cm, B = 5 cm
c) L = 13 cm, B = 7 cm d) L = 12 cm, B = 9 cm

46) Sonali works 8 hours a day. If she earns AED 100 per hour and works
everyday in the month of January. How much does she earn?
a) AED 24000 b) AED 800 c) AED 31800 d) AED 24800
5
Grade 4 / Year 5

47) The passing mark for an exam was 40. Geeta scored 55 more marks
3
than the passing marks. What was her score?
5
a) 79 b) 33 c) 73 d) 57

48) If A = 5, B = C - 3, C = A + 4, then B x C + A = ?
a) 113 b) 49 c) 59 d) 65

49) A car’s fuel tank has a capacity of 50 litres. If the car has 32 litres
of fuel left, how far can the car travel with the remaining fuel?
(assume that car consumes 8 litre per 100 km)
a) 100 km b) 800 km c) 400 km d) 32 km

5
50) Samaira is as old as her sister, who is 24 years old. How old is
6
Sanay if he is 5 years older than Samaira?
a) 29 years b) 19 years c) 26 years d) 25 years

6
Grade - 4

Time: 45 mins

UAE Grand Finale - 2023

Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

4
Seat No. _____________ Grade ____________ Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are two sections A & B. Section A has 50 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B has 25 questions of 2 marks each. Every wrong answer of
section B will carry half negative mark. There will not be negative
marking for section A.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.


After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue /
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No


scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form


during the examination will be disqualified. Use of calculator is prohibited

7) Students must carry the hall ticket & their school identity card with them.

Total Marks: / 100


Grade - 4

Time: 45 mins

Section - A

1) 5 times 5 added to 25.

a) 25 b) 35 c) 50 d) 625

2) 76 5 = 380 Put appropriate symbol.

a) x b) ÷ c) + d) -

3) 81 = 9 Find the equivalent fraction.


10
a) 85 b) 82 c) 80 d) 90

4) Double of 236 = ?

a) 118 b) 462 c) 472 d) 113

5) START END
120x4 +120 - 120 Find the END number.

a) 480 b) 380 c) 340 d) 240

6) Select the prime number.

a) 97 b) 49 c) 27 d) 90

7) 1730 ÷ 5 =?

a) 326 b) 348 c) 346 d) 0

8) a x a = 169 Find the value of ‘a’.

a) 12 b) 16 c) 14 d) 13

9) 13.05 litre = ml

a) 13050 b) 13500 c) 13005 d) 13000

10) Half of 6350 = ?

a) 12700 b) 3120 c) 3175 d) 3275

11) 178 ÷ = 178

a) 178 b) 1 c) 5 d) 2
1
Grade - 4
1
12) 6 + 6 =1 Find the missing number.
a) 6 b) 5 c) 4 d) 1
13) Find the area of a rectangle when its length = 15 cm and breadth = 9 cm.
a) 48 cm2 b) 135 cm2 c) 105 cm2 d) 58 cm2
14) Which of the following statement is wrong?
a) 176 = 176 b) 295 > 287 c) 153 > 173 d) 18 < 36
15) 2940 Find the missing number.
-
1425
1020
a) 5 b) 4 c) 9 d) 7
16) What number will be formed by 500 + 6 + 50 + 2000?
a) 5652 b) 2562 c) 2556 d) 6525
17) Form the largest 4-digit number using each of the digits only once.
6, 2, 3, 1
a) 6321 b) 1236 c) 6312 d) 1263
18) Side of a square is 10 cm, Find its area.
a) 40 cm2 b) 20 cm2 c) 121 cm2 d) 100 cm2
19) Find the biggest fraction.
a) 21 b) 19 c) 24 d) 17
28 28 28 28
20) Write Eighteen thousand eighteen in number.
a) 8018 b) 8008 c) 18018 d) 180018
21) 18 + = 29
35 35 35
a) 23 b) 35 c) 12 d) 11
22) 274
x
3

a) 822 b) 612 c) 622 d) 115


23) Which of the following was a leap year?
a) 2013 b) 2015 c) 2010 d) 2008
24) What is the place value of digit 6 in a number 6258?
a) 6000 b) 6 c) 60 d) 600
2
Grade - 4
25) 1945 + 1798 = ?
a) 3743 b) 2743 c) 3473 d) 2634
26) The length of a rectangle is 12 cm and its breadth is 10 cm. What is
its perimeter ?
a) 22 cm b) 120 cm c) 44 cm d) 240 cm
27) How many 5 Dh. notes make 125 Dh.?
a) 125 b) 15 c) 20 d) 25
28) 2820 seconds = minutes.
a) 403 b) 45 c) 47 d) 470
29) 43 x 4 x 0 x 6 = ?
a) 1032 b) 53 c) 0 d) None of these
4
30) kg = gms
8
a) 400 b) 500 c) 600 d) 450
31) a ÷ 20 = 50 Find the value of ‘a’.
a) 70 b) 30 c) 100 d) 1000
32) 2nd odd number after 125 = ?
a) 129 b) 128 c) 130 d) 131
33) Find the smallest fraction from the following.
19 14 21 18
a) 25 b) 25 c) 25 d) 25
34) Which of the following is same as 25 + (30 + 18)?
a) 25 (30 + 18) b) 18 + (25 + 30)
c) 25 + (30 x 18) d) 18 (25 + 30)
35) Quarter to 7 in the morning is same as ___
a) 7:15 am b) 6:30 am c) 6:45 am d) 7:15 pm
36) 120 + 89 = ?
a) 109 b) 209 c) 169 d) 219
37) 3.5 metre = cm
a) 35000 b) 35 c) 350 d) 305
3
Grade - 4
38) 2945 2695 Compare & put appropriate sign

a) < b) = c) > d) none of these

39) 174 - a = 96 Find the value of ‘a’.

a) 170 b) 78 c) 122 d) 76

40) Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by 5?

a) 57 b) 53 c) 55 d) 52

41) Subtract 100 from 356, you will get

a) 456 b) 256 c) 355 d) 156

42) 153 more than 74 = ?

a) 227 b) 127 c) 79 d) 97

43) Which of the following is the greatest number?

a) 5394 b) 5098 c) 5396 d) 5218

44) Express 4:25 pm as 24 hours time

a) 16:25 b) 4:25 c) 14:25 d) 18:25

45) Round off 3705 to nearest 100s

a) 3800 b) 3700 c) 4000 d) 3750

46) In which of the given numbers the place value of the digit 8 is the

greatest ?

a) 9854 b) 8516 c) 9980 d) 7328


1
47) of 70 = ?
5
a) 14 b) 10 c) 12 d) 16

48) If A = 6 then A + A + A = ?

a) 6 b) 9 c) 12 d) 18

49) 70 ones - 7 tens = ?

a) 63 b) 0 c) 77 d) 70

50) The sum of which two prime number is 8.

a) 3 and 5 b) 2 and 6 c) 1 and 7 d) None of these

4
Grade - 4

Section - B

51) 7x8=?
a) 9 x 6 b) 70 - 24 c) 30 + 26 d) All of these
52) Music class starts at 1:15 pm and ends 3:45 pm. How long does it run?
a) 2 hrs 20 mins b) 1 hr 20 mins c) 2 hrs 30 mins d) 1 hr 30 mins
1
53) 1 dozen = units
4
a) 3 b) 15 c) 9 d) 4
54) 2658 Find the Missing number.
+
3040
5005
a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8
55) Mr. Rajesh runs 5 km everyday from Monday to Friday & 10 km a day
on Saturday & Sunday. How many km does Mr. Rajesh run in a week?
a) 35 km b) 45 km c) 30 km d) 50 km
56) START END
÷4 x3 - 23 + 17
84 Find the START number.

a) 120 b) 100 c) 103 d) 4


57) If the perimeter of a rectangle is 150 cm and its length is 45 cm,
Find the breadth.
a) 105 cm b) 75 cm c) 40 cm d) 30 cm
58) Soham works 8 hours a day. If he earns AED 10 per hour and he works
for 2 weeks every day except Sunday. How much does he earn?
a) AED 60 b) AED 960 c) AED 480 d) AED 120
59) 15, 30, 45, ____ Find the next number in the series.
a) 65 b) 55 c) 50 d) 60
60) Half of = (10 x 8)
a) 20 x 4 b) 13 x 5 c) 20 x 8 d) 100 ÷ 5
61) The passing marks for an exam was 35. Deepti scored 60 more marks
than the passing marks. What was her score?
a) 95 b) 41 c) 25 d) 85
62) The cost of a book is AED 25. What is the cost of 7 books?
a) AED 125 b) AED 175 c) AED 150 d) AED 185
5
Grade - 4
63) Rakhi had 50 books. Out of that 30 books were sold @ AED 20 each &
remaining for AED 10 each. Find the total amount she received?
a) AED 750 b) AED 1000 c) AED 800 d) AED 850
64) (125 + 50) (35 x 5) Compare & put appropriate sign (<, >, =)
a) < b) > c) = d) None of these
65) What is the sum of place value of 7 in the number 7175?
a) 7700 b) 7070 c) 7007 d) 7175
66) There are 1967 students in a school. Out of these 1039 are boys.
How many girls are there?
a) 932 b) 1928 c) 3006 d) 928
67) Smallest two digit number divided by even prime number = ?
a) 20 b) 25 c) 5 d) 10
68) 30 tens + 20 tens = tens.
a) 10 b) 50 c) 5 d) 60
69) If perimeter of a square is 40 cm, find its area?
a) 1600 cm2 b) 160 cm2 c) 80 cm2 d) 100 cm2
70) Greatest four digit odd number minus greatest three digit even
number =?
a) 9000 b) 9001 c) 9899d) 1999
1
71) Yash gets AED 500 pocket money per month. He saves part of
10
it in the bank every month. How much does he save in a year?
a) AED 50 b) AED 750 c) AED 900 d) AED 600
72) The difference of two numbers is 7. Their sum is 17. What could be
combination of those 2 numbers from the following?
a) 12 & 5 b) 10 & 7 c) 10 & 3 d) 15 & 2
73) Add 47 to smallest two digit odd number.
a) 57 b) 59 c) 58 d) 56
74) 9x7= +8
a) 55 b) 63 c) 71 d) 60
75) What is the sum of the digits in the product of 8 and 7?
a) 12 b) 11 c) 10 d) 9

6
OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper


UAE Grand Finale - 2023
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Grade ...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper


UAE Grand Finale - 2023
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Grade ...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
Grade - 4

Time: 45 mins

UAE Grand Finale - 2022

Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

4
Seat No. _____________ Grade ____________ Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are two sections A & B. Section A has 50 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B has 25 questions of 2 marks each. Every wrong answer of
section B will carry half negative mark. There will not be negative
marking for section A.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.


After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue /
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No


scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form


during the examination will be disqualified. Use of calculator is prohibited

7) Students must carry the hall ticket & their school identity card with them.

Total Marks: / 100


Grade - 4

Time: 45 mins

Section - A
5 7
1) Find the equivalent fraction =
25
a) 35 b) 40 c) 25 d) 30
2) Find the perimeter of a square when its side = 20 cm
a) 80 cm b) 400 cm c) 40 cm d) 120 cm
3) 198 x 8 = ?
a) 1386 b) 1584 c) 1464 d) 1544
4) 3360 seconds = minutes
a) 45 b) 56 c) 60 d) 46
5) 423 ÷ 5, what will be the remainder?
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1
6) 5607 gm = 5 kg + gm
a) 600 b) 607 c) 7 d) 60
7) 2 days 5 hours = hours
a) 48 b) 25 c) 53 d) 50
8) What is sum of largest two digit number and smallest three digit
odd number?
a) 199 b) 200 c) 198 d) 150
9) Which of the following numbers is completely divisible by 3?
a) 314 b) 570 c) 283 d) 416
10) Twenty five thousand and twenty five write in numerals.
a) 250025 b) 25025 c) 2525 d) 25250
11) 5 gm = kg
a) 5000 b) 0.5 c) 0.05 d) 0.005
12) The sum of which two prime numbers is 8.
a) 3 and 5 b) 2 and 6 c) 1 and 7 d) None of these

1
Grade - 4

13) 100 - (25 x 4) =?


a) 75 b) 50 c) 0 d) 79
14) Half of 190 =?
a) 45 b) 85 c) 95 d) 100
15) 4 times 4 added to 4 =?
a) 20 b) 12 c) 16 d) 24
16) Find the biggest fraction from the following
28 17 3 3
a) 30 b) 30 c) 2 d) 30
17) Which is the greatest number of the following?
a) 5764 b) 6745 c) 6547 d) 6457
18) 9 litre + 5 ml = ml
a) 9500 b) 9050 c) 9.005 d) 9005
19) 84 8 = 672 Put appropriate sign.
a) x b) ÷ c) + d) -
20) 805 ÷ 7 = ? Find the quotient.
a) 101 b) 116 c) 106 d) 115
21) In a number 1385, what is the product of face value of all digits?
a) 120 b) 0 c) 17 d) 16
22) Which of the following statements is false?
a) 138 > 140 b) 128 = 128 c) 279 > 197 d) 110 < 184
23) Which of the following is a leap year?
a) 1956 b) 2014 c) 2018 d) 1902
24) Find
0 6 the missing number.
x
6
2 1 6
a) 36 b) 4 c) 9 d) 3
3 ?
25) Find the missing number 7 + 7 = 3
a) 15 b) 9 c) 18 d) 12
2
Grade - 4

26) 17 x 5 =?

a) 47 + 38 b) 100 - 35 c) 13 × 8 d) 135 ÷ 5

27) Add 189 to the smallest three digit odd number

a) 290 b) 89 c) 289 d) 300

28) 11 + 7 - 3 =?
18 18 18
a) 15 b) 1 c) 8 d) 4
18 18 18
29) START END
130 ÷2 x8 -194 Find the END number.

a) 426 b) 326 c) 286 d) None of these

30) Side of a square is 15 cm. Find its area

a) 60 cm b) 225 cm c) 225 cm2 d) 60 cm2

31) 9 x 5 =?

a) 450 ÷ 10 b) 270 - 225 c) 90 ÷ 2 d) All of these

32) Write place value of digit 7 in the number 28716.

a) 7 b) 756 c) 700 d) 765

33) What is sum of place value and face value of 5 in the number 9508?

a) 500 b) 5 c) 508 d) 505

34) 45 minutes after 4:45 pm =?

a) 4:00 pm b) 4:30 pm c) 5:45 pm d) 5:30 pm

35) Double of 638 is =?

a) 1266 b) 319 c) 1276 d) 1019

36) Select the smallest fraction from the following

a) 15 b) 13 c) 19 d) 10
28 28 28 28
37) 1600 = 40 x

a) 1560 b) 34 c) 1640 d) 40

3
Grade - 4
350
38) litre = ml
500
a) 175 b) 850 c) 580 d) 700
39) In a number 6841 what is product of face values of all digits?
a) 19 b) 184 c) 96 d) 192
40) 5129 - = 3845
a) 1284 b) 2724 c) 2284 d) 1484
41) Form the largest four digit odd number using each digit only once
6, 0, 1, 7
a) 7610 b) 7601 c) 1067 d) 1076
42) 167 - 57 - 67 + 157 =?
a) 257 b) 200 c) 167 d) 267
43) In which of the given numbers place value of the digit 7 is the
greatest?
a) 30725 b) 89470 c) 70000 d) 97195
44) Find the area of a rectangle when its length = 15 cm & breadth = 10 cm
a) 150 cm b) 50 cm c) 150 cm2 d) 50 cm2
45) Find the sum of odd numbers given here- 14, 21, 37, 20, 55, 58
a) 92 b) 205 c) 113 d) 115
46) Find prime numbers from the following.
a) 83 b) 47 c) 2 d) All of these
5 2
47) + =?
7 7
3 1
a) 1 b) c) d) 7
7 7
3
48) dozen = units
4
a) 12 b) 9 c) 6 d) 5
49) If a x a = 144, find the value of a.
a) 72 b) 288 c) 13 d) 12
50) Add 73 to the smallest two digit odd number.
a) 173 b) 83 c) 84 d) 172
4
Grade - 4

Section - B
1
51) Sakshi gets a scholarship of AED 500 per month. She saves part
4
of it in the bank every month. How much does she save in a month?
a) 125 b) 1500 c) 150 d) 2000
52) Beena cut a pizza into 12 equal pieces. She ate 2 pieces and from
2
remaining she gave pieces to her friend. How many pieces of
5
pizza were left?
a) 6 b) 4 c) 8 d) 5
53) The product of two numbers is 40. What will be the product if both
the numbers are doubled?
a) 80 b) 100 c) 160 d) 180
54) The passing marks for an exam was 40. Dev scored 45 more marks
1
than the passing marks. What was his score?
4
a) 85 b) 50 c) 60 d) 55
55) Mr. Joshi runs 5 km everyday from Monday to Friday and 21 km a day
on Saturday and Sunday. How many km does Joshi run in a week?
a) 26 km b) 46 km c) 67 km d) 62 km
56) If 2 litres of milk is purchased every day in the month of January, what
will be the total bill for January if the price of milk is AED 62 per litre?
a) 3782 b) 3844 c) 868 d) 3882
START END
57)
x6 + 10 - 74 x4
104 Find the START number.
a) 2112 b) 352 c) 15 d) 105
58) The rice bags are arranged in 10 rows each containing 7 bags.
How many rice bags are there?
a) 17 b) 3 c) 70 d) 60
59) 10 + 10 x 10 - 10 ÷ 10 =?
a) 19 b) 0 c) 109 d) None of these
60) If perimeter of a rectangle is 180 cm and length is 55 cm, find the
breadth
a) 90 cm b) 35 cm c) 125 cm d) None of these
4
61) What should be added to to get 2 ?
2 8 9 9 14
a) b) c) d)
9 9 10 9
62) Rahul had 90 movie tickets. Out of that 52 tickets were sold @ AED 90
each and the remaining for AED 110 per ticket. Find the total amount
he received?
a) 8760 b) 8850 c) 8750 d) 8860
5
Grade - 4
63) Find the 12th odd number after 83.
a) 107 b) 106 c) 97 d) 105
64) How many books can be bought for AED 80, if cost of 5 books is
AED 25?
a) 30 b) 25 c) 20 d) 16
65) What is sum of digits in the product of 9 and 8?
a) 72 b) 9 c) 8 d) 15
66) Aryan works 10 hours a day. If he earns AED 10 per hour and he
works for 2 weeks every day except Sunday, how much does he earn?
a) 1000 b) 1200 c) 1400 d) 1600
67) write fraction for shaded figure

a) 6.5 b) 4 c) 3.5 d) 3.5


10 10 10 6.5
68) A school starts at 8:15 am in morning and ends at 2:45 pm in
afternoon. How many hours does the school runs?
a) 5 hrs 45 mins b) 6 hrs 30 mins c) 6 hrs 15 mins d) 6 hrs 45 mins
69) How many times 8 can be subtracted from 152 to get remainder zero?
a) 17 b) 20 c) 18 d) 19
70) Which of the following is correct conversion?
3
a) 100 ml = 0.01 litre b) dozen = 6 units
4
c) 5 kg = 500 gm d) 2 cm = 0.02 m
1 1
71) Samiksha has 120 books. Out of which are story books, are
3 5
novels and remaining are comics. How many comics does she have?
a) 40 b) 56 c) 64 d) 66
72) Half of = (35 x 2)
a) 28 x 5 b) 140 ÷ 2 c) 7 x 5 d) 10 x 7
73) 3079 Find the missing number
+
3830
7818
a) 8 b) 9 c) 7 d) 3
74) Find the next number in the series 4, 9, 16, ___
a) 25 b) 28 c) 20 d) 32
75) The total cost of 5 books and 12 notebooks is AED 394. If the cost of
each book is AED 50, what is the cost of each notebook?
a) 5 b) 7 c) 12 d) 17
6
®

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Seat No. Paper


UAE Grand Finale 2022

STOP HERE
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A Answer Key
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4
Seat No....................................... Grade................ Section............... Paper..................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

Student’s Signature INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET


4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D
1. Write your name & other details within the box only.
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E
Do not write outside the box.
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3. Circles should be darkened completely and properly.
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G
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6. Do not use marker or white fluid to hide the mark.
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A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D
73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
®

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Seat No. Paper


UAE Grand Finale 2022

STOP HERE
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Grade ................ Section............... Paper
..................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

Student’s Signature INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET


4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D
1. Write your name & other details within the box only.
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E
Do not write outside the box.
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F 2. Use pencil or blue / black ball point pen to fill the circles.
3. Circles should be darkened completely and properly.
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G
4. Cutting and erasing on this sheet is not allowed.
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign 5. This sheet should not be folded or crushed.
6. Do not use marker or white fluid to hide the mark.
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
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1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D
73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
Grade - 4

Time: 45 mins

UAE Grand Finale - 2021

Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

4
Seat No. _____________ Grade ____________ Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are two sections A & B. Section A has 50 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B has 25 questions of 2 marks each. Every wrong answer of
section B will carry half negative mark. There will not be negative
marking for section A.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.


After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue /
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No


scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form


during the examination will be disqualified. Use of calculator is prohibited

7) Students must carry the hall ticket & their school identity card with them.

Total Marks: / 100


Grade - 4

Time: 45 mins

Section - A

1) 2.04 L = mL
a) 2400 b) 240 c) 2004 d) 2040
2) Find the perimeter of a rectangle with length and breadth 10 cm &
8 cm.
a) 18 cm b) 80 cm c) 108 cm d) 36 cm
3) There are ____ hours in a week.
a) 420 b) 720 c) 168 d) 120
4) Calculate area of a square with side = 10 cm.
a) 40 cm2 b) 20 cm2 c) 60 cm2 d) 100 cm2
5) + 645 = 1000
a) 1645 b) 455 c) 355 d) 735
6) 5 0 6 2 Find the missing number.
+ 0 7 2 8

9 0 9 0
a) 4 b) 2 c) 3 d) 1
7) 7820 g = kg
a) 7.82 b) 78.2 c) 7.28 d) 78.2
8) Raj sold 486 sandwiches last week and 538 sandwiches this week.
How many more sandwiches did he sold this week?
a) 52 b) 1018 c) 418 d) 142
9) XXV - XIX = ?
a) 6 b) 7 c) 9 d) 8
10) 12 x 3 12 + 3 Compare and put appropriate sign.
a) > b) < c) = d) None of these
11) Double of 325 = ?
a) 750 b) 550 c) 700 d) 650

1
Grade - 4
12) 78 ÷ 4 Find the remainder.
a) 2 b) 0 c) 19 d) 3
13) Find the perimeter of a square whose side is 17 cm.
a) 289 cm b) 68 cm² c) 68 m² d) 68 cm
14) Write the expanded form for 4056.
a) 4000 + 500 + 6 b) 4000 + 50 + 6
c) 4 + 5 + 6 d) 400 + 50 + 6
15) 7 3 Compare and put appropriate sign.
12 2
a) = b) < c) > d) None of these
16) 12 x 2 x 4 = ?
a) 84 b) 72 c) 56 d) 96
17) 132 units = dozen
a) 12 b) 13 c) 11 d) 14
18) Which of the following numbers has all odd digits?
a) 957 b) 512 c) 394 d) 473
19) Form the smallest 4-digit number using each of the digits only
once. 6, 3, 5, 1.
a) 6531 b) 1356 c) 1536 d) 6135
20) Which of the following is a multiple of 4?
a) 102 b) 106 c) 112 d) 110
21) 73, 77, ___, 85 Fill in the missing number in the series.
a) 78 b) 84 c) 81 d) 86
22) Which of the following numbers is smaller than 3460?
a) 3478 b) 3466 c) 3452 d) 3484
23) 5 ?
=
7 35
a) 12 b) 25 c) 15 d) 18
24) Write the numeral for Sixty-seven thousand four hundred thirteen.
a) 67430 b) 60413 c) 60430 d) 67413
25) 367 - = 124
a) 243 b) 133 c) 491 d) 241
2
Grade - 4
26) 7831 - 6597 =?
a) 2234 b) 2243 c) 1234 d) 1243
27) Form the largest 4-digit number using each of the digits only once.
3, 9, 1, 5.
a) 1359 b) 1539 c) 5319 d) 9531
28) START END
45+35 x 12 ÷4 Find the END number.
a) 200 b) 240 c) 224 d) 180
29) Write 4397 in words.
a) Four hundred ninety-seven
b) Thirty four thousand ninety-seven
c) Four three nine seven
d) Four thousand three hundred ninety-seven
30) Subtract 6743 from 9021.
a) 3722 b) 3678 c) 2278 d) 2728
31) 0 5 Find in the missing digit.
x
7
3 1 5
a) 45 b) 4 c) 5 d) 35
32) Half of 420 = ?
a) 840 b) 220 c) 610 d) 210
33) 5783 + 1072 = ?
a) 4711 b) 6855 c) 5055 d) 6755
34) How many tens are there in 17000?
a) 170 b) 1700 c) 700 d) 100
35) If a ÷ 4 = 16, find the value of ‘a’.
a) 4 b) 20 c) 12 d) 64
36) AED 504 = Fils
a) 5400 b) 5040 c) 540 d) 50400
37) Arrange the given numbers in ascending order. 2567, 9084, 4378, 3385
a) 2567, 4378, 3385, 9084 b) 2567, 3385, 4378, 9084
c) 4378, 3385, 9084, 2567 d) 9084, 4378, 3385, 2567
3
Grade - 4
38) 2424 ÷ 4 = ?
a) 66 b) 606 c) 660 d) 614
39) Find the product of the face value of numbers in 2019.
a) 0 b) 18 c) 21 d) 12
40) 1 dozen = units
2
a) 6 b) 12 c) 9 d) 4
41) Write the time 15:15 Hrs in 12 hour format.
a) 3:15 pm b) 5:15 pm c) 3:15 am d) 5:15 am
42) 3000 + 500 + + 9 = 3619
a) 10 b) 110 c) 100 d) 19
12
43) Convert 5 into a mixed fraction.
2 5 6 5
a) 2 5 b) 2 2 c) 1 5 d) 1 2
44) 116 34 = 82. Fill in the correct operator.
a) ÷ b) - c) x d) +
45) Write the fraction for unshaded portion.

a) 6 b) 7 c) 10 d) 9
16 16 16 16
46) Find the difference in the place value ‘4’ in the number 4324.
a) 4004 b) 0 c) 3996 d) 396
47) Which digit is in hundreds position in the number 6548?
a) 5 b) 6 c) 4 d) 8
48) 895 mm = cm
a) 8.95 b) 89.5 c) 0.895 d) 8950
49) Arrange the given numbers in descending order.
3456, 1278, 6789, 4567
a) 1278, 3456, 4567, 6789 b) 1278, 3456, 6789, 4567
c) 6789, 4567, 3456, 1278 d) 6789, 4567, 1278, 3456
50) One and half kg = g
a) 1000 b) 1250 c) 1500 d) 1750

4
Grade - 4

Section - B

51) Sonia was 13 years old in 2007. In which year was she born?
a) 1993 b) 1994 c) 1996 d) 1995
52) The area of a square is 144 cm2. Find its perimeter.
a) 12 cm b) 24 cm c) 48 cm d) 36 cm
53) (100 x 23) - (2 x 23) = ?
a) 2300 b) 2346 c) 2240 d) 2254
54) 336 stamps are to be pasted on 16 pages of a stamp album equally.
How many stamps would be on each page?
a) 26 b) 21 c) 11 d) 16
55) Calculate the total amount with me if I have 3 notes of AED 20,
5 notes of AED 50 and 4 notes of AED 100.
a) AED 1270 b) AED 710 c) AED 560 d) AED 310
56) The difference between two numbers is 1276. The smaller number
is 2516. Find the bigger number.
a) 1240 b) 1360 c) 3792 d) 3282
57) The length of a rectangular ground is 500 m and width is 300 m.
Carl walks five rounds around the garden. What is the total
distance covered by him?
a) 800 m b) 1600 m c) 4000 m d) 8 km
58) In a party there are 105 children. Out of that 9 go home. Remaining
children share 288 sweets. How many sweets do each of them get?
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 3
59) Sam drives car at a uniform speed of 60 km/hr. How many km will
he drive in 10 minutes?
a) 20 km b) 6 km c) 10 km d) 50 km
60) 7 49
Find twice of ‘A’
=
9 A
a) 63 b) 51 c) 72 d) 126
61) 1 A
Find the value of ‘A’.
+
2 A
4 2
a) 1 b) 6 c) 2 d) 3
62) Double of 65 + Half of 50 - 15 = ?
a) 165 b) 100 c) 140 d) 125
5
Grade - 4
63) In a school there are 432 boys. The number of girls is equal to half
the number of boys. Find total number of students in the school.
a) 864 b) 648 c) 584 d) 216
64) The perimeter of a rectangle is 240 cm. Find its length if its breadth
is 45 cm.
a) 95 cm b) 60 cm c) 55 cm d) 75 cm
65) 541 m + 1 km 532 m = ___ km ___ m
a) 2 km 073 m b) 542 km 532 m c) 1 km 074 m d) 541 km 532 m
66) Ali and 12 of his friends ordered 5 pizzas of having 12 slices each.
If each of them ate 4 slices, how many slices of pizzas were left over?
a) 12 b) 14 c) 8 d) 6
67) Meena bought 12 bags of wheat & 8 bags of rice. Find the total
quantity of food grains if each bag weighed 5 kg.
a) 68 kg b) 100 kg c) 52 kg d) 136 kg
68) 2 hours 20 mins after 12:45 pm = ?
a) 2:05 pm b) 3:05 pm c) 2:15 pm d) 1:05 pm
69) Which number will be exactly halfway between 7 & 177?
a) 85 b) 88 c) 96 d) 92
70) Which of the following is a correct conversion?
a) 10 cm = 1 mm b) 1000 cm = 1 km
c) 2300 mm = 23 km d) 2300 m = 2.3 km
71) A milk dairy supplied 7817 L of milk in the 1st week, 5817 L in the 2nd
week, 4854 L in the 3rd week and 9199 L in the 4th week. Find the total
milk supplied by the milk dairy in four weeks.
a) 18488 L b) 19870 L c) 27687 L d) 22833 L
72) How many pens can be bought for AED 120, if cost of 5 pens is AED 20?
a) 15 b) 30 c) 20 d) 12
73) START END
x12 -200 +120 Find the START number.
760
a) 70 b) 36 c) 90 d) 56
74) Which of the following 2 numbers will add up to make 100?
a) 33 + 77 b) 66 + 44 c) 53 + 47 d) 38 + 52
75) The passing marks for an exam was 40. Sam scored 7 more than twice
the passing marks. What was his score?
a) 47 b) 87 c) 77 d) 97
6
OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper


UAE Grand Finale - 2021
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Grade...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper


UAE Grand Finale - 2021
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A
Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4
Seat No....................................... Grade...............Div. / Section................
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F

7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign

9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
®
Grade - 4

Time: 45 mins

UAE Grand Finale - 2020

Student Name : ___________________________________________

School Name : ___________________________________________

4
Seat No. _____________ Grade ____________ Section __________

Important Instructions

1) Before starting, ensure that you have received the correct question paper
and answersheet. If you attempt wrong question paper, your paper may
not be evaluated.

2) There are two sections A & B. Section A has 50 questions of 1 mark each.
Section B has 25 questions of 2 marks each. Every wrong answer of
section B will carry half negative mark. There will not be negative
marking for section A.

3) You have to mark answers during examination time which is 45 minutes.


After that extra 5 minutes will be given to darken the circles with blue /
black ball point pen.

4) You can use pen or pencil to fill the circles. However blue / black ball point
pen must be used to darken the circles.

5) Write answers on OMR Answer sheet by filling the correct circles. No


scribbling or rough work permitted on OMR Answer sheet.

6) Students resorting to unfair means like copying / cheating in any form


during the examination will be disqualified. Use of calculator is prohibited

7) Students must carry the Admit card & their school identity card with them.

Total Marks: / 100


Grade - 4

Time: 45 mins

Section - A

1) Which of the following is same as 28 + (63 + 15)?


a) 15 + (28 + 63) b) 28 (63 + 15)
c) 15 (28 + 63) d) 63 + (28 x 15)
2) 300 + + 6 = 383
a) 80 b) 77 c) 8 d) 83
3) Find the biggest fraction from the following.
7 5 10 3
a) b) c) d)
21 15 12 2
4) 200 10 = 190 Find the correct operator.
a) x b) + c) - d) ÷
5) Half of 96 = ?
a) 43 b) 192 c) 48 d) 38
6) Form the largest 4-digit number using each of the digits only once.
1, 6, 3, 8.
a) 1368 b) 8631 c) 8136 d) 1683
7) 1805 mL = Litre
a) 1.805 b) 18.05 c) 180.5 d) 18050
8) In which of the following numbers the place value of 6 is 60?
a) 4694 b) 6135 c) 2680 d) 1360
9) The length of a rectangle is 10 cm and its breadth is 7 cm. What is
its area?
a) 70 cm2 b) 34 cm2 c) 140 cm2 d) 17 cm2
10) Double of 45 = ?
a) 23 b) 80 c) 90 d) 100
11) tens - 30 tens = 230
a) 260 b) 53 c) 530 d) 60
1
Grade - 4

12) 8x5x4=5x
a) 8 b) 32 c) 12 d) 17
13) 7315 Find the missing number.
-
1013
6100

a) 8 b) 3 c) 2 d) 0
14) START END
7x9 +7 ÷ 10 Find the END number.

a) 13 b) 60 c) 8 d) 7
15) 1685 1568 Compare & put appropriate sign.
a) > b) < c) = d) None of these
16) Subtract 1036 from 3859.
a) 4895 b) 1823 c) 2813 d) 2823
17) 2 days = hours.
a) 60 b) 48 c) 120 d) 24
18) 2 kg = gm
5
a) 400 b) 500 c) 650 d) 750
19) Which of the given numbers is the smallest?
a) 1401 b) 1638 c) 1386 d) 1390
20) Find the perimeter of a square whose side is 60 cm.
a) 3600 cm b) 240 cm c) 120 cm d) 60 cm
21) Find the sum of face value of all digits of 3085.
a) 0 b) 16 c) 13 d) 11
22) Find the remainder, if 845 is divided by 11.
a) 9 b) 76 c) 10 d) 8
23) 23 x a = 161, find the value of 'a'.
a) 138 b) 8 c) 7 d) 184
24) Form the smallest 4-digit even number using each of the digits only
once. 1, 5, 2, 0.
a) 1025 b) 5210 c) 5201 d) 1052
2
Grade - 4
3 6
25) 6 = Find the equivalent fraction.

a) 6 b) 12 c) 3 d) 9
1 5
26) + 6 =?
6
a) 6 b) 1 c) 4 d) 5
27) Which of the following unit can be used to measure distance from
Bombay to Kolkata?
a) m b) cm c) km d) mm
28) 9 less than = 4 tens.
a) 31 b) 50 c) 51 d) 49
29) 5 groups of 5 is same as _____.
a) 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 + 5 b) 5 - 5 - 5 - 5 - 5
c) 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 + 3 d) 5 x 4
30) John had AED 185. He purchased goods worth AED 79.
What amount is left with him now?
a) 264 b) 116 c) 106 d) 114
31) Write the fraction for unshaded portion.

a) 3 b) 7 c) 4 d) 5
10 10 10 10
32) 600 ÷ 5 = ?
a) 120 b) 100 c) 140 d) 595
33) If today is Tuesday, find the day before yesterday.
a) Monday b) Wednesday c) Friday d) Sunday
34) 1 hour 20 minutes after 10 pm = ?
a) 9:20 pm b) 8:40 pm c) 11:20 pm d) 11:40 pm
35) Select the prime number from the following.
a) 57 b) 67 c) 87 d) 27
36) Which is the greatest number from the following.
a) 18450 b) 18054 c) 18405 d) 18054
3
Grade - 4

37) 40 Find the missing number.


x
6
270
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
38) Area of a square is 121 cm2, what is its side?
a) 9 cm b) 10 cm c) 11 cm d) 12 cm
39) Number of days in a leap year is ____.
a) 365 b) 366 c) 24 d) 31
40) XXIX XL Compare & put appropriate sign.
a) > b) < c) = d) None of these
41) 5723 - = 5023
a) 700 b) 5000 c) 623 d) 723

42) 82 - = 63
93 93 93
a) 145 b) 21 c) 141 d) 19
43) 0.45 metre = cm
a) 4.5 b) 450 c) 4500 d) 45
44) Identify the smallest fraction from the following.
10 13 15 16
a) 17 b) 17 c) 17 d) 17
45) Find the 5th odd number after 130.
a) 135 b) 137 c) 139 d) 140
46) (100 - 40) x 4 = ?
a) 64 b) 240 c) 56 d) 144
47) What is the underlying rule to this pattern? 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 ......
a) Addition by 4 b) Subtraction by 2
c) Multiply by 2 d) None of these
48) 145 + a = 193. Find the value of 'a'.
a) 48 b) 338 c) 238 d) 52
49) 8 656 Find the quotient.
a) 82 b) 77 c) 94 d) 76
50) 185 3 = 555 Find the correct operator.
a) + b) - c) ÷ d) x
4
Grade - 4

Section - B
51) Jar A contained 145 mL water. Jar B contained 235 mL of water.
How much water must be poured from Jar B to Jar A so that the
both jars would have the same amount of water?
a) 190 mL b) 90 mL c) 45 mL d) 105 mL
52) The difference of two numbers is 8 and their sum is 14. What are the
two numbers?
a) 12 and 4 b) 11 and 3 c) 9 and 5 d) 8 and 14
53) Sita bought 15 oranges. Geeta bought 5 more oranges than Sita.
How many oranges did they buy altogether?
a) 35 b) 30 c) 25 d) 20
54) START END
÷5 +5 x2 Find the START number.
20
a) 9 b) 3 c) 1 d) 25
55) Sudha cut a pizza into 12 equal pieces. She ate 2 pieces and gave
4 pieces to her friend. What fraction of the pizza was left?
1 1 1 2
a) b) c) d)
3 2 4 12
56) Ram collected 115 stamps. He collected 79 more stamps than Sham.
How many stamps did sham collected?
a) 194 b) 164 c) 36 d) 84
57) The weight of an eraser is 10 grams & a pencil is 8 grams. Tom
bought 2 erasers and some pencils. The total weight of his erasers &
pencils is 68 gram. How many pencils did Tom buy?
a) 8 b) 10 c) 6 d) 2
58) Niya spent 1:30 hrs doing her homework. She completed her
homework at 9:15 pm. What time did she start doing her homework?
a) 7:45 pm b) 10:45 pm c) 8:30 pm d) 9:45 pm
59) A table and 2 chairs cost AED 1900. If the cost of a table is AED 1250,
what is the cost of the a chair?
a) AED 625 b) AED 650 c) AED 450 d) AED 325
60) Soham collected 200 seashells. Arham collected 150 more seashells
than Soham. Arham put his seashells equally into 5 boxes. How
many seashells were there in each box?
a) 70 b) 30 c) 40 d) 50
5
Grade - 4

61) Find the perimeter of a square whose side is prime number from
these numbers. 25, 37, 51, 93.
a) 100 b) 148 c) 204 d) 372
62) The passing marks for an exam was 40. John scored 36 more marks
than half the passing marks. What was his score?
a) 76 b) 56 c) 38 d) 92
63) (20 5) 2 = 8 Fill the correct operators.
a) +, - b) ÷, x c) -, x d) ÷, +
64) How many books can be bought for AED 150, if cost of 8 books
is AED 240?
a) 30 b) 90 c) 45 d) 5
65) 8 = 64 Find the twice of "A".
11 A
a) 88 b) 67 c) 176 d) 19
66) The poduct of two numbers is 20. What will be the product if both
the numbers are doubled?
a) 80 b) 40 c) 20 d) 10
67) (180 + 67) (137 + 85) Compare & put appropriate sign.
a) < b) = c) > d) None of these
68) Double of 30 + Half of 30 = ?
a) 75 b) 90 c) 120 d) 60
69) 2 hours = seconds
a) 2 x 3600 b) 2 x 60 x 60 c) 120 x 60 d) All of these
70) Find the sum of all odd numbers from given 45, 60, 73, 81, 94.
a) 154 b) 199 c) 118 d) 105
71) What is the sum of digits in the product of 11 and 7?
a) 77 b) 70 c) 14 d) 18
72) Biggest two digit even number divided by even prime number = ?
a) 33 b) 49 c) 40 d) 54
73) 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, ___ Find the next number in the pattern.
a) 64 b) 48 c) 40 d) 49
12 9
74) Which statement about and is true?
60 45
12 9 12 9 12 9
a) = b) > c) < d) None of these
60 45 60 45 60 45
75) Which of the following is a correct conversion?
a) 1.2 L = 1200 mL b) 1.02 L = 1200 mL
c) 0.750 mL = 7.5 L d) 0.070 mL = 7 L
6
OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper


UAE Grand Finale 2020
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4 Div. / Section............... Paper...............
Seat No....................................... Grade...............
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET


4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D
1. Write your name & other details within the box only.
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E
Do not write outside the box.
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F 2. Use pencil or blue / black ball point pen to fill the circles.
3. Circles should be darkened completely and properly.
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G
4. Cutting and erasing on this sheet is not allowed.
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign 5. This sheet should not be folded or crushed.
6. Do not use marker or white fluid to hide the mark.
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
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A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D
OMR ANSWER SHEET

Seat No. Paper


UAE Grand Finale 2020
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 A A Answer Key
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 B B
4 Div. / Section............... Paper...............
Seat No....................................... Grade...............
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 C C

Candidate’s Sign INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING THE SHEET


4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 D D
1. Write your name & other details within the box only.
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 E E
Do not write outside the box.
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 F F 2. Use pencil or blue / black ball point pen to fill the circles.
3. Circles should be darkened completely and properly.
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 G G
4. Cutting and erasing on this sheet is not allowed.
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 H H Invigilator’s Sign 5. This sheet should not be folded or crushed.
6. Do not use marker or white fluid to hide the mark.
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 I I
WRONG METHODS CORRECT METHOD
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0

A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
1 A B C D 16 A B C D 31 A B C D 46 A B C D 61 A B C D

2 A B C D 17 A B C D 32 A B C D 47 A B C D 62 A B C D

3 A B C D 18 A B C D 33 A B C D 48 A B C D 63 A B C D

4 A B C D 19 A B C D 34 A B C D 49 A B C D 64 A B C D

5 A B C D 20 A B C D 35 A B C D 50 A B C D 65 A B C D

6 A B C D 21 A B C D 36 A B C D 51 A B C D 66 A B C D

7 A B C D 22 A B C D 37 A B C D 52 A B C D 67 A B C D

8 A B C D 23 A B C D 38 A B C D 53 A B C D 68 A B C D

9 A B C D 24 A B C D 39 A B C D 54 A B C D 69 A B C D

10 A B C D 25 A B C D 40 A B C D 55 A B C D 70 A B C D

11 A B C D 26 A B C D 41 A B C D 56 A B C D 71 A B C D

12 A B C D 27 A B C D 42 A B C D 57 A B C D 72 A B C D

13 A B C D 28 A B C D 43 A B C D 58 A B C D 73 A B C D

14 A B C D 29 A B C D 44 A B C D 59 A B C D
74 A B C D

15 A B C D 30 A B C D 45 A B C D 60 A B C D
75 A B C D

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