22-04-2025

1016CMD303031240064 MD

CHEMISTRY

1) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Fluorine has most negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
Statement II : Oxygen has least negative electron gain enthalpy in its group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate from the options given below

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

2) In which of the following arrangements the order is NOT according to the property indicated
against it ?

(1) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (Increasing Ionic size)
(2) B < C < N < O (Increasing First Ionisation energy)
(3) I < Br < Cl < F (Increasing electronegativity)
(4) Li < Na < K < Rb (Increasing metallic character)

3) The bond angle of NO2+, NO2– and NO2 are in the order :

– +
(1) NO2 > NO2 > NO2
– +
(2) NO2 > NO2 > NO2
+ –
(3) NO2 > NO2 > NO2
+ –
(4) NO2 = NO2 = NO2

4) Which of the following molecular orbital has zero nodal planes :-

(1) σ1s
(2) σ1s*
(3) π2px
(4) π*2px

5) Which of the following have been arranged in increasing bond order as well as bond dissociation
energy :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
6) Which of the following order is incorrect ?

(1) Ionic character = MCl < MCl2 < MCl3

(2) Polariziability =
(3) Polarising power = Na+ < Ca+2 < Mg+2 < Al+3
(4) Covalent character = LiF < LiCl < LiBr < LiI

7) How many six membered and five membered rings are present in fullerene?

(1) Six membered = 20, five membered = 10

(2) Six membered = 20, five membered = 12
(3) Six membered = 25, five membered = 10
(4) Six membered = 12, five membered = 20

8) Which compound is used in manufacturing of K2Cr2O7 ?

(1) Cr2O3
(2) CrO5
(3) FeCr2O4
(4) CrO3

9) Both [Ni(CO)4] and [Ni(CN)4]–2 are diamagnetic. The hybridisation of Nickel in these complexes
respectively, are :

(1) sp3, sp3

(2) dsp2, sp3
(3) sp3, dsp2
(4) dsp2, dsp2

10) Assertion (A) :- Ionisation enthalpy of Boron is less than Beryllium.

Reason (R) :- The 2p electron of Boron is more shielded from the nucleus by the inner core of
electron than the 2s electron of Beryllium.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

11) Which of the following statement is wrong about chromyl chloride test.

(1) Test only for chloride

(2) Test for Cl–, Br and I–
(3) Oxidation state of Cr in CrO2Cl2 is +6
(4) In this test conc. H2SO4 used

12) In the preparation method of potash alum small amount of dil H2SO4 is added why.
(1) To obtain colourless crystals
(2) To prevent hydrolysis of aluminium sulphate
(3) To obtain octahedral shape of crystals
(4) To prevent hydrolysis of potassium sulphate

13) Correct match the column-I with column-II :-

Column-I Column-II
(Name of oxyacid) (Formula)

(A) Pyrosulphuric acid (p) H2S2O8

(B) Peroxy disulphuric acid (q) H2SO5

Peroxy monosulphuric
(C) (r) H2S2O7
acid

(D) Sulphurous acid (s) H2SO3

(1) A-r, B-s, C-p, D-q
(2) A-r, B-p, C-q, D-s
(3) A-p, B-r, C-q, D-s
(4) A-q, B-s, C-p, D-r

14) Correct IUPAC name of complex [Pt(NH3)4] [CuCl4] :-

(1) Tetra ammine platinum (II) tetrachlorido copper (II)

(2) Tetra ammine platinum (II) tetra chlorido Cuprate (II)
(3) Tetra ammine platinate (II) tetra chlorido copper (II)
(4) Tetra ammine platinum (IV) tetra chloride cuprate (0)

15) Complex K3[Co(OX)3] having oxidation state coordination number and chelate ring respectively.

(1) +2, 3, 3
(2) +3, 6, 1
(3) +3, 6, 3
(4) +3, 3, 3

16) The density of a liquid is 1.2 g/ml. There are 20 drops in 2 mL of this liquid. If mol wt. of liquid is
24 then find number of molecules in one drop.

(1) 6.02 × 1022

(2) 3.01 × 1023
(3) 3.01 × 1015
(4) 3.01 × 1021

17) In hydrogen atom which of the following transition involve maximum energy ?

(1) n = 4 to n = 3
(2) n = 3 to n = 2
(3) n = 6 to n = 5
(4) n = 7 to n = 6

18) In the decomposition reaction of ammonia :

2NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + 3H2(g)
Initially 2 moles of NH3 are introduced in the vessel of 1 litre. At equilibrium, 1 mole of NH3 was left,
the value of Kc will be :

(1) 1.12
(2) 1.68
(3) 2.25
(4) 4.32

19) When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10)
will occur only with :

(1) 10–5M(Ag+) and 10–5M(Cℓ–)

(2) 10–4M(Ag+) and 10–4M(Cℓ–)
(3) 10–6M(Ag+) and 10–6M(Cℓ–)
(4) 10–10M(Ag+) and 10–10M(Cℓ–)

20) The value of log10 Keq for a reaction A ⇌ B at 300 K is :

[Given : ΔH°300K = – 54.441 kJ mol–1, ΔS°300K = 10 JK–1mol–1]

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 95
(4) 100

21) Which of the following has non zero enthalpy of formation :

(1) Br2(g)
(2) Li(s)
(3) Hg(ℓ)
(4) F2(g)

22) A compound contains elements A, B and C. The oxidation number of A is +2, of B is +5 and of C
is –2. The possible formula of the compound is :

(1) ABC2
(2) A3(BC4)2
(3) A3(B4C)2
(4) B2(AC3)2

23) In acidic medium, 40 ml of x M KMnO4 solution is titrated with 20 ml of 0.1 M oxalic acid
solution at 60°C. Find value of x ?

(1) 0.04
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.03
(4) 0.01

24) Phenolphthalein is not suitable indicator for which acid-base titration :

(1) KOH and H2SO4

(2) NaOH and oxalic acid
(3) HCl and NH4OH
(4) NaOH and HCl

25) For the reaction, 2A + B → C + D, the rate of reaction increases 8 times when concentrations of
both A and B are doubled. The rate of reaction increases 4 times when initial concentration of only B
is doubled. The rate expression for the reaction is :

(1) r = k [A]2 [B]

(2) r = k [A] [B]2
(3) r = k [A] [B]
(4) r = k [A]2 [B]2

26) The reaction A → B follows first order kinetics. The time taken for 0.8 mole of A to produce 0.6
mole of B is 10 min. What is the time taken for conversion of 0.6 mole of A to produce 0.45 mole of B
?

(1) 20 min
(2) 10 min
(3) 30 min
(4) None

27) The density of 3 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH is 1.05 g/ml. Find the molality of this solution.

(1) 3.102
(2) 3.448
(3) 2.963
(4) 4.568

28) Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 17.4 mg of K2SO4 in 2 litre
of aq. solution at 25°C, assuming that it is completely dissociated. (mol wt. of K2SO4 = 174)

(1) 36.6 × 10–4 atm

(2) 32 × 10–4 atm
(3) 45 × 10–4 atm
(4) 60 × 10–4 atm
29) For the cell, , calculate free energy change (ΔG) at
298 K.

Given :

(1) 180.93 kJ
(2) –194.93 kJ
(3) –180.93 kJ
(4) None of these

30) Three electrolytic cells A, B, C containing of Ni(NO3)2, AgNO3 and CuSO4, respectively are
connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 A was passed through them until 2.16 gm of Ag
deposited at the cathode of cell B. What is the mass of Cu deposited ?
(At. wt. Ag = 108, Cu = 63.5, Ni = 58.7)

(1) WCu = 1.27 gm

(2) WCu = 0.635 gm
(3) WCu = 0.948 gm
(4) WCu = 0.327 gm

31) IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

(1) 3-Amino-4-cyano hexanoic acid

(2) 3-Cyano-4-amino hexanoic acid
(3) 3-Amino-4-ethyl-5-cyano pentanoic acid
(4) 3-Amino-5-cyano hexanoic acid

32)

Which of the following statement is incorrect for SN2 reaction :-

(1) SN2 is one step process

(2) During SN2 reaction inversion in configuration takes place
(3) Rate of reaction depend on concentration of nucleophile as well as substrate
(4) Reaction proceeds through formation of carbocation intermidiate.

33)

The correct match between items of List-I and List-II is :-

List-I List-II

(A) Coloured impurity (P) Steam distillation

 Mixture of
(B) o–nitrophenol and (Q) Fractional distillation
p– nitrophenol

(C) Crude oil (R) Charcoal treatment

glycerol from Distillation under

(D) (S)
spent lye reduced pressure
(1) (A) - (R), (B) - (S), (C) - (P), (D) - (Q)
(2) (A) - (P), (B) - (S), (C) - (R), (D) - (Q)
(3) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (Q), (D) - (S)
(4) (A) - (R), (B) - (P), (C) - (S), (D) - (Q)

34) Lassiagne solution when react with sodium nitropruside, the violet colour complex appear, it
shows presence of :-

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Sulphur
(4) Nitrogen and Sulphur

35) Which of the following has E-configuration :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Among the following, the strongest acid is :-

(1) CH3COOH
(2) C6H5COOH
(3) m–CH3OC6H4COOH
(4) p–CH3OC6H4COOH

37) Which of the following species is not electrophilic in nature :-

(1) BH3

(2)
(3)

(4)

38) Compound A and C in the following reaction are :-

(1) Identical
(2) Positional Isomer
(3) Functional Isomer
(4) Optical Isomer

39) Statement-I : Grignard reagent reacts with aldehydes and ketones to form alcohol.
Statement-II : Alcohols have acidic hydrogen.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

40)

The incorrect match is :

(1) Hinsberg reagent - C6H5SO2Cl

(2) Stephen's reducing agent –SnCl2 + HCl

(3)
Aniline yellow –
(4) Reagent which is used in clemmensen reduction – H2/Pd – BaSO4

41) The ether that undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction is

(1) CH3OC2H5
(2) C6H5OCH3
(3) CH3OCH3
(4) C2H5 – OC2H5

42) The reaction

is called :-

(1) Williamson continuous etherification process

(2) Etard reaction
(3) Gatterman-Koch reaction
(4) Williamson ether synthesis

43) Which of the following reactions is used for locating the position of double bond in an alkene

(1) Hydroboration
(2) Hydroxylation
(3) Chlorohydroxylation
(4) Ozonolysis

44) Statement-I : Reduction of with NaBH4 gives

Statement-II : Ester is more reactive than aldehyde towards nucleophile.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

45) Which type of Isomerism is shown by : &

(1) Chain isomerism

(2) Positional isomerism
(3) Metamerism
(4) Functional group isomerism

BIOLOGY

1) Zygomorphic symmetry is found in flowers of-

(1) Mustard
(2) Datura
(3) Chilli
(4) Bean

2) Monoadelphous stamens and axile placentation are seen in flowers of-

(1) Mustard
(2) Datura
(3) Pea
(4) China rose

3) In mustard the flowers are-

(1) Radial with axile placentation

(2) Zygomorphic with parietal placentation
(3) Actinomorphic with parietal placentation
(4) Zygomorphic with free central placentation

4) Aestivation of petals in the flower of Cassia is correctly shown in :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) In dicot root pericycle helps in-

(1) Initiation of lateral roots

(2) Initiation of vascular cambium
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Initiation of underground flower

6) Which tissue is not included in ground tissue system?

(1) Cortex
(2) Guard cells
(3) Pericycle
(4) Pith

7) Which one is false about monocot stem?

(1) Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous

(2) Peripheral vascular bundles are smaller than centrally placed ones
(3) Ground tissue is differentiated into cortex, pericycle, pith etc.
(4) Homogeneous parenchymatous ground tissue

8) Which of the following bacteria form blooms in polluted water bodies ?

(1) Archaebacteria
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria
(4) Chemosynthetic autotrophs

9) The organism whose parasitic forms cause disease such as sleeping sickness-

(1) Plasmodium
(2) Paramoecium
(3) Trypanosoma
(4) Entamoeba

10) Fungi show vegetative reproduction by all of the following methods, except one-

(1) By fission
(2) By budding
(3) By protonema
(4) By fragmentation

11) Which of the following is incorrect statement?

(1) The predominant stage of the life cycle of a moss is the gametophyte.
(2) Sexual reproduction in green algae is by flagellated zoospores.
(3) The main plant body of Selaginella is differentiated into true root, stem and leaves.
(4) The main plant body of gymnosperm is sporophyte.

12) Assertion (A) : Male gametophytic generation in gymnosperms is highly reduced.

Reason (R) : It is confined to only a limited number of cells.
Options :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is True but (R) is False.
(4) (A) is False but (R) is True.

13) Match the Column-I & II and select the correct option from the following -

Column-I Column-II

(P) Chlamydomonas (i) Coralloid roots

 (Q) Marchantia (ii) Mycorrhiza

(R) Pinus (iii) Pyrenoids

(S) Cycas (iv) Gemma cups

Options :-
(1) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(i), S-(ii)
(2) P-(i), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(iv)
(3) P-(iv), Q-(iii), R-(ii), S-(i)
(4) P-(iii), Q-(iv), R-(ii), S-(i)

14) Competition can be represented as :

(1) Species A(+); Species B(+)

(2) Species A(+); Species B(0)
(3) Species A(+); Species B(–)
(4) Species A(–); Species B(–)

15) Assertion (A) : The size of a population for any species is not a static parameter. Reason (R)
: Vertical distribution of different species occupying different level is called stratification.

(1) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of A.

16) Which of the following come under the "Commensalism"?

(a) Epiphytes.
(b) Fig tree and wasp species.
(c) Clown fish and sea anemone.
(d) Barnacles and whale.
(e) Bees and orchid flower.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (c)

(2) (b), (d) and (e)
(3) (a), (c) and (d)
(4) (c), (d) and (e)

17) Which of the following is an example of functional aspect of ecosystem?

(1) Energy flow

(2) Stratification
(3) Species diversity
(4) Dominance
18) Plant capture only A of the PAR and this small amount of energy sustains the entire living
world.

(1) A - 50%
(2) A - 2-10%
(3) A - 1-5%
(4) A - 75 %

19) Which one of the following statement for productivity is correct?

(1) Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
(2) Maximum productivity is found in temperate forest.
(3) NPP of the whole biosphere is 70 billion tons (dry weight) per year.
(4) Productivity of the oceans are only 155 billion tons.

20) Match list-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(a) Lungs of the planet (i) Over exploitation

(b) Passenger pigeon (ii) Mutualism

(c) Alien species Invasions (iii) Amazon rain forest.

(d) Co-extinctions (iv) Nile perch

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)

21) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : Earth summit held at Rio-de-Jenerio (Brazil) in 1992.
Statement-II : World summit on sustainable development was held in Johannesburg (S. Africa) in
2002.

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

22) Find out correct statement:

(1) In pleiotorpy single gene product may produce more than one effect.
(2) In multiple allele, more than two alleles are present in an individual.
(3) Due to segregation, gamete receives more than two alleles of a gene.
(4) Tightly linked gene show high recombination.

23) Which of the following is not an example of chromosomal disorder:

(1) Down's syndrome
(2) Klinefelter's syndrome
(3) Turner syndrome
(4) Thalassemia

24) In birds which is responsible for determination of sex :

(1) Egg
(2) Sperm
(3) Haploid-diploid method
(4) Parthenogenesis

25) Which of the following is an example of autosomal linked disorder:

(1) Colour blindness

(2) Haemophilia
(3) Phenyl ketonuria
(4) Hypertrichosis

26) Match the list-I with list-II:

List-I List-II

(a) Cyclosporin-A (I) Checking disease causing microbes in stomach

(b) Statin (II) Blood cholesterol lowering agent

(c) Streptokinase (III) Immuno suppressive agent in organ transplant patient

(d) LAB (IV) Clot buster

(1) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-I
(2) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV
(3) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
(4) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV

27) Baculovirus used as a:

(1) Biofertilizer
(2) Bioherbicide
(3) Bioinsecticide
(4) Biomagnification

28) Aspergillus niger is used for production of :

(1) Acetic acid

(2) Alcohol
(3) Citric acid
(4) Lactic acid
29) Which of the following is true about both vegetative cell and generative cell ?

(1) divide mitotically to form male gametes.

(2) Haploid cells
(3) Diploid cells with dense cytoplasm
(4) Both (1) and (3)

30) How many in the list given below are examples of water pollinated plants ?
Water lily, Zoestera, Vallisneria, Hydrilla

(1) Four
(2) One
(3) Three
(4) Two

31) Pericarp and perisperm are developed from, respectively :-

(1) Ovule wall and persistent chalaza

(2) Ovary wall and persistent tapetum
(3) Ovary wall and persistent nucellus
(4) Fruit wall and peripheral endosperm

32) The unequivocal proof that DNA is the genetic material came from the experiments of :-

(1) F. Griffith
(2) Avery, MacLeod, McCarty
(3) Hershey and Chase
(4) Meselson and Stahl

33) Which of the following responsible for terminating translation :-

(1) Initiation factor (σ)

(2) Release factor
(3) Termination factor (ρ)
(4) AUG codon

34) Which of the following is a terminator codon :-

(1) AUG
(2) UUA
(3) UAA
(4) UAC

35) Regulation of Lac operon by repressor is referred as :-

(1) Positive regulation

(2) Negative regulation
(3) Feedback regulation
(4) Both positive and negative regulation

36) Match the column-A to column-B :-

Column-A Column-B

i. F. Sanger a. VNTR

DNA DNA
ii. b.
fingerprinting sequencer

iii. Lac Z c. Permease

iv. Lac Y d. β-galactosidase

(1) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(2) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(4) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c

37) Given below are two statements.

Statement-I :- More than 2 percent of the genome codes for protein.
Statement-II :- Repeated sequences make up very large portion of human genome.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I & statement-II are correct.

38) Which of the following cell is a dedifferentiated cell ?

(1) Cells of shoot apical meristem

(2) Mesophyll cell of leaves
(3) Cork cambium
(4) Secondary phloem cells

39) What is the suitable oxidisable compound used in the photosynthesis of green sulphur bacteria ?

(1) H2O
(2) CO2
(3) H2S
(4) C6H12O6

40) We can separate the leaf pigments of any green plant through :-

(1) Centrifugation
(2) Electrophoresis
(3) Filter paper
(4) Paper chromatography

41) Match of the column A from Column B

Column A Column B

(A) T.W. Engelmann (i) Law of limiting factors

(B) Cornelius Van Niel (ii) Green parts of plant produce O2

(C) Ingenhousz (iii) Cladophora

(D) Blackman (iv) Purple & Green Sulphur bacteria

(1) A - iii, B - i, C - ii, D - iv
(2) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i
(3) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv
(4) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i

42) Choose the correct match from the following option :-

(1) Blackman - Light reaction

(2) Joseph Priestley - Action spectrum
(3) Cornelius van Niel - Archaebacteria
(4) Maize - Kranz anatomy

43) Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

(1) E.T.S is present on inner membrane of mitochondria

(2) E.T.S helps to oxidise NADH+H+ in mitochondria
(3) O2 is terminal hydrogen acceptor in E.T.S in mitochondria
(4) Complex I of E.T.S contains 2 Cu centers

44) Which of the following pathway partially oxidise glucose without the help of oxygen?

(1) Calvin cycle

(2) Photorespiration
(3) Glycolysis
(4) E.T.S

45) After using carbonic anhydrase enzyme for carbonic acid production reaction speed increases in
comparison to uncatalysed reaction, upto :-

(1) 200 molecules per second to 60000 molecules per second

(2) 200 molecules per hour to 600000 molecules per second
(3) 200 molecules per second to 600000 molecules per hour
(4) 200 molecules per minute to 60000 molecules per minute
46) The outer membrane of the nucleus :
(i) is continuous with the E.R.
(ii) Does not bear ribosome
Option

(1) Both are correct

(2) Both are incorrect
(3) Only (i) correct
(4) Only (i) incorrect

47) Which of the following is not a function of cytoskeleton in a cell :

(1) Cell wall formation

(2) Cell motility
(3) Mechanical support
(4) Maintenance of the shape of the cell

48) find out correct pair ?

(1) Karyokinesis - Division of cytoplasm

(2) S-phase - Tubulin protein syntheiss
(3) Anaphase - Condensation of chromosomes
(4) Metaphase - All chromosomes are aligned on equator

49) Find out incorrect statements :-

(A) The cell membrane and middle lamellae may be transverse by plasmodesmata.
(B) Primary cell wall capable of cell growth.
(C) Cell wall provide barrier to desirable macromolecules
(D) Cell wall helps in cell-cell interction.
Option :

(1) Only A
(2) A, B and C
(3) Both A and C
(4) Both B and D

50) In a cell number of chromosomes are 60 and amount of DNA is 120 in s-phase so calculate the
number of chromatids and amount of DNA in metaphase-II respectively ?
Option :

(1) 30, 60
(2) 30, 30
(3) 60, 30
(4) 60, 60

51) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Foreign DNA and Vector DNA are cut with the help of DNA ligase.
Reason (R) : Ligase acts by forming phosphodiester bonds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the Correct Explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the Correct Explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.

52) Special sequence in the DNA recognised by restriction endonuclease is called

(1) Restriction nucleotide sequence

(2) Palindromic nucleotide sequence
(3) Recognition nucleotide sequence
(4) All of the above

53) Which of the following techniques is most commonly used to separate DNA molecules by size?

(1) Chromatography
(2) PCR
(3) RFLP
(4) Gel electrophoresis

54) Biomolecules having molecular weight less than one thousand dalton are :

(1) Macromolecules
(2) Bio-macromolecules
(3) Micromolecules
(4) Both (1) and (2)

55) Statement-I : Ten amino acids are referred to as essential amino acids for humans.
Statement-II : These are synthesised in the human body.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.

56) Tendons connects ____ muscles with ____ .

(1) Smooth, Cartilage

(2) Skeletal, Cartilage
(3) Skeletal, bone
(4) Smooth, bone

57) Which of the following is characteristic feature of echinoderms?

(1) Presence of mantle
(2) Water vascular system
(3) Segmentation
(4) Presence of a notochord through out the life

58) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Chordates ?

(1) Radial symmetry

(2) Presence of a notochord
(3) Presence of cnidocytes
(4) Exoskelton of chitin

59) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of mammals ?

(1) Presence of bony endoskelton

(2) Presence of mammary glands
(3) Presence of water vascular system
(4) Presence of a shell

60) Which of the following statement is correct regarding arthropoda ?

(1) They have water vascular system.

(2) They have exoskeleton made of calcium carbonate.
(3) They have jointed appendages and chitinous exoskeleton.
(4) They are exclusively marine animals.

61) The larval stage of frog is called :

(1) Maggot
(2) Pupa
(3) Tadpole
(4) Nymph

62) The flow of fluid can be more precisely regulated in which animal ?

(1) Jelly Fish

(2) Star Fish
(3) Angel Fish
(4) All of above

63) Ventricular diastole decreases the ventricular pressure causing the closure of which valves ?

(1) Tricuspid
(2) Bicuspid
(3) Semilunar
(4) Both 1 and 2
64) Match the following :-

Column-I Column-II

A. P wave I. Atrial Depolarisation

B. QRS complex II. Ventricle repolarisation

C. T wave III. Ventricle depolarisation

(1) A-I, B-III, C-II
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-II

65) Mechanisms of breathing vary among different groups of animals depending mainly on which
factor ?

(1) Habitat
(2) Levels of organisation
(3) Energy requirements
(4) Both 1 and 2

66) Which is not true regarding transport of oxygen ?

A sigmoid curve is obtained when percentage saturation of haemoglobin with O2 is plotted

(1)
against the pCO2. This curve is called the oxygen saturation curve
Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues under normal
(2)
physiological conditions
(3) Both 1 and 2
In the tissues, where low pO2, high pCO2, high H+ concentration and higher temperature exist,
(4)
the conditions are favourable for dissociation of oxygen from the oxyhaemoglobin

67) Select the correct option

(A) Oxygen (O2) is utilised by the organisms to directly break down simple molecules like glucose,
amino acids, fatty acids, etc., to derive energy to perform various activities.
(B) Carbon dioxide(CO2) which is harmful is also released during the above anabolic reactions. It is,
therefore, evident that O2 has to be continuously provided to the cells and CO2 produced by the cells
have to be released out.
(C) Lower invertebrates like sponges, coelenterates, flatworms, etc., exchange O2 with CO2 by simple
diffusion over their entire body surface.
(D) Special vascularised structures called gills (branchial respiration) are used by all the arthropods
and molluscs.

(1) Only A and B are incorrect

(2) Only C and D are incorrect
(3) Only A, B and C are incorrect
(4) Only A, B and D are incorrect

68) Read the following statements :

(A) Thyroid gland consists of 4 lobes.
(B) Thyroid gland secretes T3 and T4 Hormones.
(C) Thyroid gland is made up of follicles and stromal tissue.
(D) Thyroid gland is largest endocrine gland.
Which statements is wrong.

(1) D
(2) C
(3) B
(4) A

69) Islets of Langerhans

↓ Identify X, Y, Z ?

(1) X–α , Y-β, Z-Hypoglycemia

(2) X–β , Y-α, Z-Hypoglycemia
(3) X–α , Y-α, Z-Hyperglycemia
(4) X–α , Y-β, Z-Hyperglycemia

70) Adrenal medulla secretes :

(1) Epinephrine
(2) Norepinephrine
(3) (1) and (2)
(4) Corticoids

71) Assertion (A) : Lipid soluble hormone are slow acting.

Reason (R) : Lipid soluble hormone act on gene level.

(1) Assertion & Reason true and the Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion & Reason are true but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

72) Assertion (A) : Estrogen maintain the Pregnancy.

Reason (R) : It is called pregnancy hormone.

(1) Assertion & Reason true and the Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason True but Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true bur Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion & Reason is false
73)

Malfunctioning of kidney can lead to accumulation of urea in Blood a condition is called :-

(1) Glomerulonephritis
(2) Renal calculi
(3) Uremia
(4) Hematuria

74)

Identified the incorrect statement :

(1) Nephridia is the excretory organ of earthworm

(2) Protonephredia is the excretory organ of planaria
(3) Kidney is the excretory organ of human
(4) Malpighian tubules is the excretory organ of amphioxus

75) Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles mostly due to genetic disorder :-

(1) Myesthenia gravis

(2) Muscular dystrophy
(3) Gout
(4) Tetany

76) Which of the following is not related to red muscles :-

(1) High myoglobin

(2) More mitochondria
(3) More sarcoplasmic reticulum
(4) Depend on aerobic respiration for ATP production

77) Assertion : Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin
sheath.
Reason : Myelin sheath is produced by Schwann cells.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true & reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true

78) Major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling is :

(1) Thalamus
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Hippocampus
(4) Amygdala
79) __A__ and __B__ form the brain stem. A & B are respectively :

(1) Forebrain, Midbrain

(2) Midbrain, Pons & Medulla
(3) Pons, Cerebrum
(4) Forebrain, Hindbrain

80) Read the following statements and choose the correct set of statements:
(a) Innate immunity is non-specific type of defence.
(b) Innate immunity consist of two types of barriers.
(c) Skin on our body is the main barrier which prevents entry of the micro-organisms.
(d) The body is not able to defend itself from most of these foreign agents. This overall ability of the
host to fight the disease-causing organisms, conferred by the immune system is called immunity.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:-

(1) (a) and (c) only

(2) (a), (b), (c) and (d) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only

81) Which of the following is related to Typhoid.

Bacteria like Streptococcus pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae are responsible for this
(1)
disease
As a result of the infection, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in
(2)
respiration.
(3) The symptoms of this disease include fever, chills, cough and headache.
(4) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases.

82) Those who take drugs intravenously (direct injection into the vein using a needle and syringe),
are much more likely to acquire serious infections like?

(1) Cirrhosis
(2) Typhoid
(3) AIDS and Hepatitis B
(4) Pernicious anaemia

83) Why is it that the organs cannot be taken from just anybody? What is it that the doctors check
mainly?

(1) Tissue matching

(2) Blood pressure (BP)
(3) Blood group matching
(4) 1 and 3 both

84) Which is still a favourite idea for some astronomers –

(1) Spontaneous generation
(2) Panspermia
(3) Special creation
(4) All of these

85)

Which of the following dianosaurus has large and dagger like fearsome teeth –

(1) Stegosaurus
(2) Triceratops
(3) Brachiosaurus
(4) Tyranosaurus

86) Dianosaurs extinct in which period –

(1) Mesozoic
(2) Cretaceous
(3) Jurassic
(4) Triassic

87) The anterior structure of sperm head is covered by a cap like structure –

(1) Acrosome
(2) Nucleus
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Centriole

88) How many number of chromosomes are present in each spermatid ?

(1) 23
(2) 46
(3) 42
(4) 48

89) The human uterus is a single structure and it is also known as –

(1) Clitoris
(2) Hymen
(3) Womb
(4) Isthmus

90) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Diaphragms (p) Sterilisation

 (ii) Progestasert (q) Once a week oral pill

(iii) Tubectomy (r) Hormonal IUDs

(iv) Saheli (s) Barrier method

(1) (i)-(r), (ii)-(p), (iii)-(q), (iv)-(s)
(2) (i)-(s), (ii)-(r), (iii)-(p), (iv)-(q)
(3) (i)-(q), (ii)-(s), (iii)-(r), (iv)-(p)
(4) (i)-(p), (ii)-(q), (iii)-(s), (iv)-(r)

PHYSICS

1) A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed, with a speed u. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. If q were given a speed u/2, the closest

distance of approach would be :

(1) 4r
(2) 2r
(3) r/2
(4) r/4

2) An electric dipole of dipole moment P is kept perpendicular to the plane of two large charged

conducting plates as shown. The potential energy of the dipole is given as -

(1) zero

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) The capacity and the energy stored in a charged parallel plate condenser with air between its
plates are respectively C0 and W0. If the air is replaced by glass (dielectric constant = 5) between the
plates, the capacity of the plates and the energy stored in it will respectively be :-

(1) 5C0, 5W0

(2)

(3)
(4)

4) In the network of resistances as shown in figure, the effective resistance between points A and B

is :-

(1) 8 R
(2) 5R
(3) (5/3) R
(4) (8/3) R

5) If the power dissipated in the 12 Ω resistance is 12 W, then the power dissipated in 3 Ω will be:-

(1) 12 W
(2) 3 W
(3) 8 W
(4) 48 W

6) Consider the following statements –

(A) Biot savart's law gives magnetic field due to a current element which is a vector quantity.
(B) A point charge moving with uniform velocity has both electric and magnetic field.

(1) Both A & B are correct.

(2) A is correct, B is wrong
(3) A is wrong, B is correct
(4) Both are wrong

7) A bar magnet having a magnetic moment of 4 × 104 JT–1 is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. A
horizontal magnetic field B = 5 × 10–4 T exist in the space. The work done in taking the magnet
slowly from a direction parallel to the field to a direction 60° from the field is

(1) 0.5 J
(2) 12 J
(3) 8 J
(4) 10 J

8) In a plane e.m. wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.5 × 1010 Hz and
amplitude 630 V/m. The amplitude of oscillating magnetic field will be :

(1) 2.1 × 10–6 Wb/m2

(2) 2.1 × 10–7 Wb/m2
(3) 1.6 × 10–6 Wb/m2
(4) 1.6 × 10–7 Wb/m2

9) A convex lens of focal length 40 cm, a concave lens of focal length 40 cm and a concave lens of
focal length 15 cm are placed in contact. The power of the combination in dioptre is :

(1) +1.5
(2) –1.5
(3) +6.67
(4) –6.67

10) Two beams of light having Intensities I and 4I interfere to produce a fringe pattern on a screen.
The phase difference between the beam is "π" at point A. and "2π" at point B. Then find out the
difference between the resultant intensities at A and B.

(1) 4I
(2) 8I
(3) I
(4) 9I

11) Find the polarization angle of a light ray going from air in a medium in which the speed of light
is 2.5 × 108 m/s :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of the above

12) 100X244 QYP, P & Q will be :-

(1) 232, 96
(2) 230 ,98
(3) 230, 96
(4) 232, 98

13) Let T2 and T1 be the energy of an electron in the first and second excited states of hydrogen
atom, respectively. According to the Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio T 1 : T2 is :

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 1 : 4
14) When a certain metal surface is illuminated with light of frequency ν. The stopping potential for
photo electric current is V0. When the same surface is illuminated by light of frequency ν/2, the

stopping potential is . The threshold frequency for photoelectric emission is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) The innermost orbit of the hydrogen atom has a diameter of 1.06 Å. What is the diameter of the
tenth orbit ?

(1) 5.3 Å
(2) 10.6 Å
(3) 53 Å
(4) 106 Å

16) How many photons of wavelength λ = 6600 nm must strike a totally reflecting screen per second
at normal incidence so as to exert a force of 1µN ?

(1) 5 × 1021 photon/sec

(2) 2.5 × 1021 photon/sec
(3) 10 × 1021 photon/sec
(4) 5 × 1019 photon/sec

17) A 9V stabilised voltage supply is required to run a car stereo system from the car's 12V battery.
A zener diode with Vz = 9V and Pmax = 0.27 W is to be used as the voltage regulator. The load

resistance is 450Ω. The value of series resistor is :

(1) 60Ω
(2) 150Ω
(3) 100Ω
(4) 90Ω

18) A waveform shown when applied to the following circuit will produce which of the following
output waveform. Assuming ideal diode configuration and R1 = R2 :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A gas is filled in a vessel of volume 10 m3 at pressure 10 kPa. If it is connected with an evacuated
container of volume 5 m3 then find change in pressure of gas (At constant temperature) :-

(1)

(2) 10 kPa

(3)

(4)

20) Which of the substances A, B or C of same mass has the highest specific heat if heat supply rate

is same? The temperature v/s time graph is shown

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) All have equal specific heat

21) The equation of a plane progressive wave is

y = 0.02 sin 8π
When it is reflected at a rarer medium, its amplitude becomes 75% of its pervious value. The
equation of the reflected wave is :

y = 0.02 sin 8π
(1)

y = 0.02 sin 8π
(2)

(3)
y = +0.015 sin 8π

(4)
y = –0.015 sin 8π

22) Two sound producing bodies produce progressive waves given by :-

y1 = 4 sin (400 πt)
and y2 = 3 sin (404 πt)
A person situated nearby will hear :-

(1) two beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 4:3
(2) two beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 49:1
(3) four beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 7:2
(4) four beats per second of maximum & minimum intensity ratio 4:3

23) The variation of potential energy of harmonic oscillator is as shown in figure. The spring

constant is

(1) 1 × 102 N/m

(2) 150N/m
(3) 0.667 × 102 N/m
(4) 3 × 102 N/m

24) Two rain drops reach the earth with different terminal velocities having ratio 9 : 4. Then, the
ratio of their volume is :-

(1) 3 : 2
(2) 4 : 9
(3) 9 : 4
(4) 27 : 8

25) From an inclined plane a solid sphere, a disc, a ring and a spherical shell of same radius are
rolled without slipping from the same height simultaneously. The order of their reaching at the base
will be :-
(1) Ring, shell, disc, sphere
(2) Shell, sphere, disc, ring
(3) Sphere, disc, shell, ring
(4) Ring, sphere, disc, shell

26) Two point masses A & B of masses m and 4m are attached at the ends of the rod and both are
revolving together about their centre of mass. Then the ratio of linear speed of A to B will be

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

27) A bullet of mass m moving vertically upwards instantaneously with a velocity 'u' hits the hanging
block of mass 'm' and gets embedded in it, as shown in the figure. The height through which the

block rises after the collision (assume sufficient space above block) is :

(1) u2/2g
(2) u2/g
(3) u2/8g
(4) u2/4g

28) Figure shows a plot of the magnitude of conservative force F in a unidimensional field. The plot
representing the function corresponding to the potential energy (U) in the field is
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Given where F is force, x is distance and t is time. The dimensions of is :-

(1) MLT–1
(2) ML–1T
(3) M–1LT
(4) ML2T–1

30) A body moves in a straight line for which graph of vx vs x is shown in the figure. Find the

magnitude of acceleration of the body (in m/s2) at x = 3m.

(1) 2
(2) 0
(3) 4
(4) 3

31) A particle starts from rest and undergoes an acceleration which varies with time as shown in
figure. The velocity-time graph from figure will have shape.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) The value of R in the circuit should be :-

(1) 1 Ω
(2) 1.5 Ω
(3) 2 Ω
(4) 2.5 Ω

33) In a circuit a coil of resistance 2Ω, then magnetic flux changes from 2.0Wb to 10.0Wb in 0.2 sec.
The induced charge in the coil during this time is :–

(1) 5.0 C
(2) 4.0 C
(3) 1.0 C
(4) 0.8 C

34) Refractive index of equiconvex lens is 1.5 & its radius of curvature is 20 cm. Its focal length will
be :-

(1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) 2 cm
(4) 1 cm

35) If the critical angle for total internal reflection from a medium to vacuum is 30°, the velocity of
light in the medium is

(1) 3×108 m/s

(2) 1.5 ×108 m/s
(3) 6×108 m/s
(4) ×108 m/s

36) Which represents NAND gate?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If the length of a cylinder on heating increases by 3%, the area of its base will increase by:

(1) 5%
(2) 2%
(3) 6%
(4) 4%

38) A black body has wavelength λm corresponding to maximum radiant energy at temperature
2000K. Its corresponding wavelength at temperature 3000K will be.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

39) A wire increases by 10–3 of its length when a stress of 1 × 108 N/m2 is applied to it. Young's
modulus of material of wire is

(1) 1011 N/m2

(2) 1010 N/m2
(3) 108 N/m2
(4) 106 N/m2

40) The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/9th of its weight on the surface of earth
(radius of earth is R)

(1) h=3R
(2) h=R
h=
(3)

(4) h=2R

41) A ring of radius 0.5 m and mass 10 kg is rotating about its diameter with angular velocity of 20
rad/s. Its kinetic energy is

(1) 10 J
(2) 100 J
(3) 500 J
(4) 250 J

42) A string breaks if its tension exceeds 10 newtons. A stone of mass 250 gm tied to this string of
length 10 cm is rotated in a horizontal circle. The maximum angular velocity of rotation can be

(1) 20 rad/s
(2) 40 rad/s
(3) 100 rad/s
(4) 200 rad/s

43) Distance moved by a screw in 5 rotation is 5 mm and total number of circular divisions is 100.
The leastcount of the screwguage is :-

(1) 1 mm
(2) 0.001 cm
(3) 0.0001 cm
(4) 0.001 mm

44) Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on the two blocks of 2kg and 1kg kept on frictionless floor.
What is the force exerted on 2kg block by 1kg block ?

(1) 1N
(2) 2N
(3) 4N
(4) 5N

45) A particle projected from origin follows the trajectory , where x-axis is along
horizontal direction and y-axis is along vertical direction. Find the horizontal range of projectile :-

(1) 27 m
(2) 9 m
(3)
(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

CHEMISTRY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 3 1 2 1 2 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 4 2 2 2 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 2 2 1 4 3 3 4 3 2 2 1 4
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 4 4 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 3 3 3 2 3 2 3 3 2 1 4 4 4 3 1 2 1 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 4 1 3 1 3 3 2 3 3 3 2 3 2 1 3 3 3 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
A. 2 4 4 3 2 3 1 4 3 4 4 2 4 3 2 3 2 2 2 3
Q. 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125
A. 3 3 3 1 4 3 4 4 1 3 1 4 3 4 2 3 2 1 2 1
Q. 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 3 4 2 4 2 1 1 3 2

PHYSICS

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 1 3 2 3 4 1 4 1 4 2 2 1 2 2 4 1 1 4 3 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 3 2 2 4 3 2 3 4 4 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 3 2 1 4
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 2 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

CHEMISTRY

1)

ΔHeg ⇒ Cl > F > Br > I

⇒ S > Se > Te > Po > O

2)

IP ⇒ B < C < O < N

4)

MO Nodal plane

σ1S 0

σ*1S 1

π2Px 1

π*2Px 2

5)

[BO ∝ BDE]

O2

BO 1 1.5 2 2.5

8)

K2Cr2O7 is prepared from chromite ore (FeCr2O4)

10) NCERT XI, Pg. # 87

11)

NaCl + Conc. H2SO4 + K2Cr2O7 → CrO2Cl2

chromyl chloride

13)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 104

15)

K3[Co(OX)3]
3(+1) + x + 3(–2) = 0

OX–2 Bidentate ligand

CR = denticity – 1
= 3(2–1) = 3

16) mass of 2 ml liquid = d × v = 1.2 × 2 = 2.4 gm

∵ mass of 20 drops = 2.4 gm

∴ mass of 1 drop =

moles of liquid in 1 drop =

number of molecules =
= 3.01 × 1021

18) 2NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + 3H2(g)

t=0; 2 mole 0 0
t=teq; (2–2x) x 3x
(2–2x) = 1 (given)

⇒ 2x = 1 ⇒ x =

19) For precipitation

Q > Ksp
for 2nd option
Q = [Ag+] × [Cℓ–]

= 0.25 × 10–8
Q > Ksp

20) ΔG° = ΔH° – TΔS°

ΔG° = – 54.441 × 1000 – 300 × 10
ΔG° = – 57441 Joule
ΔG° = – 2.303 × 8.314 × 300 log10K
logK = 10
 26)

and
∴ t = 10 min.

27) NCERT XII Part I Pg # 39 Intext Que. 2.5

29)

= (1.18 – 0.14) – 0.03 log

= 1.04 – 0.03 log10 = 1.01 volt
ΔG= – n F Ecell
= – 2 × 96500 × 1.01
= – 194.93 KJ

30) NCERT XII Part-1, Pg # 92, Q 3.16

From 2nd law of electrolysis

31) B. Given Data: C. Concept:

A. IUPAC Nomenclature for Organic Compounds with Multiple Functional Groups: When
a compound has more than one functional group, a priority order determines the parent name
and the suffixes/prefixes used.
B. Priority Order: Carboxylic acids (-COOH) have higher priority than nitriles (-CN) and amines
(-NH2).
C. Nitrile as a Substituent: When a nitrile is not the principal functional group, it is named as a
"cyano" substituent.
D. Amine as a Substituent: When an amine is not the principal functional group, it is named as
an "amino" substituent.

D. Answer Explanation: 1. Identify the Main Functional Group: The

compound contains a carboxylic acid (-COOH), a nitrile (-CN), and an amine (-NH2). Carboxylic acids
have the highest priority, so the parent name will be based on the carboxylic acid.
2. Number the Carbon Chain: Start numbering from the carboxylic acid carbon (which gets the
number 1). The chain is six carbons long, making the parent chain "hexanoic acid."
3. Identify and Name Substituents:

A. At carbon 3, there is an amino group (-NH2), making it "3-amino."

B. At carbon 4, there is a cyano group (-CN), making it "4-cyano."
4. Combine the Parts: Combine the substituent names alphabetically with the parent chain name:
"3-amino-4-cyanohexanoic acid."
The correct IUPAC name is 3-amino-4-cyanohexanoic acid
E. Final Answer: (Option 1).

34) fact

35) E - isomer

38)
A & C are position isomer.

39)

NCERT Pg No : 331

44) Statement (I) :

It is false statement because NaBH4 cannot reduces ester.

Statement (II) : Ester is more reactive than aldehyde towards nucleophile.
It is a false statement because ester is less reactive than aldehyde to wards nucleophile due to
+M effect of –OR group

which reduced the electrophilicity of group.

∴ Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.

45)
Different group/substituent attached to polyvalent functional group :- Metamerism.
BIOLOGY

46) NCERT-XI, Pg # 62

47) NCERT-XI, Pg # 64-65

48) NCERT-XI, Pg # 62, 65

49) NCERT-XI, Pg # 64

50) NCERT-XI, Pg # 74

51) NCERT-XI, Pg # 72

52) NCERT-XI Pg. # 76

53) NCERT XI Page No. 13

54) NCERT XI Page No.: 16

56) NCERT XI Page No. 26, 30

57) NCERT XI Page No.: 33

58) NCERT XI Page No.:26,29,32

59) NCERT-XII Pg. # 197

60) NCERT-XII Pg. # 192, 206

61)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 201

62) NCERT-XII Pg. # 206

63) NCERT-XII Pg. # 209

64) NCERT-XII Pg. # 207

65) NCERT-XII Pg. # 222, 223

66) NCERT-XII Pg.# 225

67) NCERT Page No. #62,67

68) NCERT Page No. #76

69) NCERT Page No. #71

70) NCERT Page No #73, 74

71) NCERT Page No. #151,153

72) NCERT Page No #157

73) NCERT Page No #153

74) NCERT, Pg. # 7

75) NCERT, Pg. # 13

Vallisneria, Hydrilla, Zoestera

76) NCERT, Pg. # 20

77) NCERT, Pg. # 85

78) NCERT, Pg. # 99

79) NCERT, Pg. # 96

80) NCERT, Pg. # 101

81) NCERT, Pg. # 101, 103, 106

82) NCERT, Pg. # 104

83) NCERT Pg.# No. 172

84) NCERT Pg.# No. 135

85)

NCERT Pg.# No. 137

86) NCERT Pg.# No. 134, 149

87) NCERT Pg.# No. 134, 149

88) NCERT Pg.# No. 160

89) NCERT Pg.# No. 143, 160

90) NCERT Pg.# No. 114

91) NCERT Pg. # 100

92) NCERT Pg. # 98

93) NCERT Pg. # 121,122,123

94) NCERT Pg. # 94

95) NCERT Pg. # 127

96) NCERT, Pg. # 165

97) NCERT, Pg. # 166

98) NCERT, Pg. # 168

99) NCERT, Pg. # 108

100) NCERT, Pg. # 109

101) NCERT Pg # 103

102) NCERT Pg # 54

103) NCERT Pg # 54

104) NCERT Pg # 61

105) NCERT Pg # 52

106) NCERT Pg # 119

107) NCERT Pg. # 197

108) NCERT Pg. # 200

109) NCERT Pg. # 201

110) NCERT Pg. # 183

111) NCERT Pg. # 189

112) NCERT Pg. # 183, 184

113) NCERT Pg. # 242

114) NCERT Pg. # 245,246

115) NCERT Pg. # 244

116) NCERT Pg. # 249

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118) NCERT Pg. # 213

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120) NCERT Pg. # 312

 121) NCERT Pg. # 308

122) NCERT Pg. # 232

123) NCERT Pg. # 236

124) NCERT Pg. # 236

125) NCERT XII Page No. : 134, 135

126) NCERT XII Page No. : 130, 131

127) NCERT XII Page No. : 146

128) NCERT XII Page No. : 136

129) NCERT Pg. No.#111.

130) NCERT Pg. No.#114.

131) NCERT Pg. No.#123.

132) NCERT Pg. No.#32.

133) NCERT Pg. No.#31.

134) NCERT Pg. No.#30.

135) NCERT Pg. No.#44,45.

PHYSICS

136)

Applying law of energy conservation,

T.KE = T.PE

...(i)

...(ii)
(i) ÷ (ii)

137) Udipole =

= –P =

138) When a dielectric K is introduced in a parallel plate condenser its capacity becomes K

0
times. Hence C' = 5C . Energy stored

139) Balanced W.S.B.

140)

P12 = 12W

i2 =
∵

i = 16
2

i = 4A
so P3 = i2 × 3 = (4)2 × 3 = 48 W
141)

Both statements are correct

142)

W = MB (1 – cos 60°) = 10 J

143) =C

B= = 2.1 × 10–6 Wb/m2

144)

For equivalent focal length,

⇒
Since, power i.e., P (in D)

= –6.67 D

145)

At point A,
IA = I + 4I + 2 cos π
=I
At point B,
IB = I + 4I + 2 cos 2π
= 9I
∴ IB – IA = 9I – I = 8I

146) ∵ μ =
From Brewstar's law

∴ iP = tan–1 (μ) = tan–1

147)

148) First excited state ⇒ n = 2

Second excited state ⇒ n = 3

0
149) Using V = ........(1)

........(2)

On solving

150)

Diameter or radius ∝ n2

⇒ D = 100 × 1.06 Å
= 106 Å

151) Momentum of the incident photon p = ,

Momentum after reflection = –

Change in momentum = Δp =
If n is the number of photons falling per second on the screen then force

F=

⇒n=
= 5 × 1021 photons s–1

152)

RS = 60Ω

153) The P-N junction will conduct only when it is forward biased i.e. when – 5V is fed to it, so
it will conduct only for 3rd quarter part of signal shown and when it conducts potential drop 5
volt will be across both the resistors, so output voltage across R2 is 2.5V.
∴ V0 = – 2.5V

154) P1V1 = P2V2

10 × 10 = P2 × 15

Change in pressure = 10 –

155)

For constant heat flow rate (Q)

msdT = Qdt

For high specific heat, slope is lower that is for C.

156)
No phase change at rarer medium.

So y = 0.015 sin 8π

157) Δn = n1 – n2
= 202 – 200 = 2b/s

158)

⇒k=

159)

160) Time taken by the rolling body to reach the bottom

trolling =
Here, θ, h and g are constant
∴ trolling ∝

∴ tsphere < tdisc < tshell < tring

161)

mArA = mBrB ⇒ =4
∵ ωA = ωB

162)

inelastic collision
mu = 2mV

COME = 2 mgh

163)

or
Here F(x) = –kx, where k is a positive constant.

U(x) =
i.e. parabola
164)

165) Here and v = 2 at x = 3

so a = v = 2(–1) = – 2
∴ Magnitude of acceleration = 2 m/s2

166)
a = constant ⇒

167) Aply KVL from A to B

–25 + 2 × 2 + 2 × R + 2 × 8 = 0
R = 2.5
Hence option (4)

168) induced charge q = = =

= 4.0 C

169)

f = 20 cm

170)

171) AND + NOT = NAND

172) = 6%

173)
174)

175)

176)

R= m ; m = 10 kg ; ω = 20 rad s–1

K.E. = Iω2 =

= = 250 J

177)

ωmax = 20 rad/sec

178)

Pitch =

LC = =
= 0.01 mm
= 0.001 cm

179)

N–3=1×a
N = 3 + 1 = 4N
180)

y = 3x –
compare with

y = xtanθ