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© 2018 The College Board. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, AP Central, and The Acorn Logo

The document provides detailed instructions for administering the 2017-18 AP Chemistry Exam, including exam dates, structure, and rules for both multiple-choice and free-response sections. It outlines the materials needed by proctors, the use of calculators, and the importance of maintaining exam security. Additionally, it emphasizes the consequences of discussing exam content and the procedures for collecting and processing exam materials.

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theantonia2003
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© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
25 views95 pages

© 2018 The College Board. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, AP Central, and The Acorn Logo

The document provides detailed instructions for administering the 2017-18 AP Chemistry Exam, including exam dates, structure, and rules for both multiple-choice and free-response sections. It outlines the materials needed by proctors, the use of calculators, and the importance of maintaining exam security. Additionally, it emphasizes the consequences of discussing exam content and the procedures for collecting and processing exam materials.

Uploaded by

theantonia2003
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 95

NOTE:

This exam may not be posted on Further distribution of these


school or personal websites, nor materials outside of the secure
electronically redistributed for College Board site disadvantages
any reason. teachers who rely on uncirculated
questions for classroom testing.

© 2018 The College Board. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, AP Central, and the acorn logo
are registered trademarks of the College Board. Visit the College Board on the Web: www.collegeboard.org.
Contents

Exam Instructions

Student Answer Sheet for the Multiple-Choice Section

Section I: Multiple-Choice Questions

Section II: Free-Response Questions

Multiple-Choice Answer Key

Free-Response Scoring Guidelines

Scoring Worksheet

Question Descriptors and Performance Data

Note: This publication shows the page numbers that appeared in


the 2017 18 AP Exam Instructions book and in the actual exam.
This publication was not repaginated to begin with page 1.

© 2018 The College Board. College Board, Advanced Placement Program, AP, SAT and the acorn logo are
registered trademarks of the College Board. All other products and services may be trademarks of their
respective owners. Permission to use copyrighted College Board materials may be requested online at:
www.collegeboard.org/request-form.
Exam Instructions

The following contains instructions taken from


the 2017 18 AP Exam Instructions book.
AP Chemistry Exam
Regularly Scheduled Exam Date: Monday morning, May 7, 2018
Late-Testing Exam Date: Wednesday afternoon, May 23, 2018

Section I Total Time: 1 hour and 30 minutes


Number of Questions: 60
(The number of questions may vary slightly depending on the form of the exam.)
Calculator not permitted
Percent of Total Score: 50%
Writing Instrument: Pencil required

Section II Total Time: 1 hour and 45 minutes


Number of Questions: 7
(3 ten-point and 4 four-point questions)
Calculators allowed for all of Section II
Percent of Total Score: 50%
Writing Instrument: Either pencil or pen with black or dark blue ink

Before Distributing Exams: Check that the title on all exam covers is Chemistry. If there are any exam booklets

Note: Tables of equations and constants are provided in the exam booklets for both sections of the exam.

What Proctors Need to Bring to This Exam


Exam packets Container for students’ electronic devices (if needed)
Extra No. 2 pencils with erasers
Extra pens with black or dark blue ink
2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual Extra paper
This book—2017-18 AP Exam Instructions Stapler
Watch
School Code and Homeschool/Self-Study Codes Signs for the door to the testing room
Extra calculators – “Exam in Progress”
Pencil sharpener – “Cell phones are prohibited during the test
administration, including breaks”

49
2017–18 AP Exam Instructions

questions in Section II. Four-function calculators are also permitted for use in Section II,
but are not recommended. Before starting the exam administration, make sure that each
student has an appropriate calculator and that any student with a graphing calculator has
a model from the approved list on page 52 of the 2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual. See
pages 49–52 of the AP Coordinator’s Manual for more information. If a student does not
have an appropriate calculator or has a graphing calculator not on the approved list, you
may provide one from your supply. If the student does not want to use the calculator you
provide, or does not want to use a calculator at all, he or she must hand copy, date, and
sign the release statement on page 51 of the AP Coordinator’s Manual.

During the administration of Section II, students may have no more than two calculators on
their desks. Calculators may not be shared. Calculator memories do not need to be cleared
before or after the exam. Students with Hewlett-Packard 48–50 Series and Casio FX-9860
graphing calculators may use cards designed for use with these calculators. Proctors
should make sure infrared ports (Hewlett-Packard) are not facing each other. Since
graphing calculators can be used to store data, including text, proctors should monitor
that students are using their calculators appropriately. Attempts by students to use the
calculator to remove exam questions and/or answers from the room may result in the
cancellation of AP Exam scores.

Students will be allowed to use the table of equations and constants on both sections of
the exam.

SECTION I: Multiple Choice


› Do not begin the exam instructions below until you have completed the
appropriate General Instructions for your group.

Make sure you begin the exam at the designated time. Remember, you must complete
a seating chart for this exam. See pages 303–304 for a seating chart template and
instructions. See the 2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual for exam seating requirements
(pages 55–58).

If you are giving the regularly scheduled exam, say:


It is Monday morning, May 7, and you will be taking the AP Chemistry Exam.

If you are giving the alternate exam for late testing, say:
It is Wednesday afternoon, May 23, and you will be taking the AP Chemistry Exam.

and I will help you.

In a moment, you will open the exam packet. By opening this packet, you
agree to all of the AP Program’s policies and procedures outlined in the
2017-18 Bulletin for AP Students and Parents.
You may now remove the shrinkwrap from your exam packet and take out the
Section I booklet, but do not open the booklet or the shrinkwrapped Section II
materials. Put the white seals aside. . . .

50 AP Chemistry Exam
2017–18 AP Exam Instructions

Carefully remove the AP Exam label found near the top left of your exam

AP Chemistry Exam
booklet cover. Place it on page 1 of your answer sheet on the light blue box near

If students accidentally place the exam label in the space for the number label or vice
versa, advise them to leave the labels in place. They should not try to remove the label;
their exam can still be processed correctly.

Listen carefully to all my instructions. I will give you time to complete each step.
Please look up after completing each step. Raise your hand if you have any
questions.
Give students enough time to complete each step. Don’t move on until all students are ready.

Read the statements on the front cover of the Section I booklet. . . .


Sign your name and write today’s date. . . .
Now print your full legal name where indicated. . . .
Turn to the back cover of your exam booklet and read it completely. . . .
Are there any questions? . . .
You will now take the multiple-choice portion of the exam. You should have in
front of you the multiple-choice booklet and your answer sheet. You may never
discuss the multiple-choice exam content at any time in any form with anyone,
including your teacher and other students. If you disclose the multiple-choice
exam content through any means, your AP Exam score will be canceled.
Open your answer sheet to page 2. The answer sheet has circles A–E for
each question. For Chemistry, you will use only the circles marked A–D. You
must complete the answer sheet using a No. 2 pencil only. Mark all of your
responses beginning on page 2 of your answer sheet, one response per

completely. No credit will be given for anything written in the exam booklet.
Scratch paper is not allowed, but you may use the margins or any blank space in
the exam booklet for scratch work. Calculators are not allowed for this section.
Please put your calculators under your chair. Are there any questions? . . .
You have 1 hour and 30 minutes for this section. Open your Section I booklet
and begin.
Note Start Time . Note Stop Time .

Check that students are marking their answers in pencil on their answer sheets and that
they are not looking at their shrinkwrapped Section II booklets.

There are 10 minutes remaining.

Stop working. Close your booklet and put your answer sheet on your desk,
faceup. Make sure you have your AP number label and an AP Exam label on
page 1 of your answer sheet. Sit quietly while I collect your answer sheets.
Collect an answer sheet from each student. Check that each answer sheet has an

Now you must seal your exam booklet using the white seals you set aside
earlier. Remove the white seals from the backing and press one on each area of

51
2017–18 AP Exam Instructions

I will now collect your Section I booklet. . . .


Collect a Section I booklet from each student. Check that each student has signed the front
cover of the sealed Section I booklet.

There is a 10-minute break between Sections I and II.

Please listen carefully to these instructions before we take a 10-minute break.


All items you placed under your chair at the beginning of this exam must stay
there, and you are not permitted to open or access them in any way. Leave your
shrinkwrapped Section II packet on top of your desk during the break. You are
not allowed to consult teachers, other students, notes, or textbooks during the
break. You may not make phone calls, send text messages, check email, use
a social networking site, or access any electronic or communication device.
Remember, you may never discuss the multiple-choice exam content with
anyone, and if you disclose the content through any means, your AP Exam score
will be canceled. Are there any questions? . . .
You may begin your break. Testing will resume at .

SECTION II: Free Response

May I have everyone’s attention? Place your Student Pack on your desk. . . .
You may now remove the shrinkwrap from the Section II packet, but do not open
the exam booklet until you are told to do so. . . .
Read the bulleted statements on the front cover of the exam booklet. Look up

Now take an AP number label from your Student Pack and place it on the
shaded box. If you don’t have any AP number labels, write your AP number in the

Read the last statement. . . .

boxes and print today’s date where indicated. This constitutes your signature
and your agreement to the statements on the front cover. . . .

last name and the

In Item 2, print your date of birth in the boxes. . . .


In Item 3, write the school code you printed on the front of your Student Pack in
the boxes. . . .
Read Item 4. . . .
Are there any questions? . . .
If this is your last AP Exam, you may keep your Student Pack. Place it under your
chair for now. Otherwise I will collect all Student Packs. . . .

52
2017–18 AP Exam Instructions

Read the information on the back cover of the exam booklet. Do not open the

AP Chemistry Exam
Collect the Student Packs.

Are there any questions? . . .


Calculators may be used for Section II. You may get your calculators from under
your chair and place them on your desk. . . .
You have 1 hour and 45 minutes to complete Section II. You are responsible for
pacing yourself, and you may proceed freely from one question to the next. You
must write your answers in the exam booklet using a pen with black or dark blue
ink or a No. 2 pencil. If you use a pencil, be sure that your writing is dark enough
to be easily read. If you need more paper during the exam, raise your hand. At
the top of each extra sheet of paper you use, write only your AP number and
the question number you are working on. Do not write your name. Are there
any questions? . . .
You may begin.
Note Start Time . Note Stop Time .

Proctors should also make sure that Hewlett-Packard calculators’ infrared ports are not
facing each other and that students are not sharing calculators.

There are 10 minutes remaining.

Stop working and close your exam booklet. Place it on your desk, faceup. . . .
If any students used extra paper for a question in the free-response section, have those

their exam booklets. Complete an Incident Report after the exam (see page 67 of the
2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual for complete details).

Remain in your seat, without talking, while the exam materials are collected. . . .
Collect a Section II booklet from each student. Check for the following:

and printed their initials and today’s date.

Information” area.
When all exam materials have been collected and accounted for, return to students any
electronic devices you may have collected before the start of the exam.

You may not discuss or share the free-response exam content with anyone
unless it is released on the College Board website in about two days. Your
AP Exam score results will be available online in July.

None of the content in this exam may ever be discussed or shared in any way
at any time. Your AP Exam score results will be available online in July.

53
2017–18 AP Exam Instructions

Please remember to take your AP number card with you. You will need the
information on this card to view your scores and order AP score reporting
services online.

You are now dismissed.

After-Exam Tasks
seating charts for at least six months (unless the state or district requires that they be
retained for a longer period of time). Schools should not return any seating charts in their
exam shipments unless they are required as part of an Incident Report.

NOTE:If you administered exams to students with accommodations, review the 2017-18 AP
Coordinator’s Manual and the 2017-18 AP SSD Guidelines for information about completing

The exam proctor should complete the following tasks if asked to do so by the

Complete an Incident Report for any students who used extra paper for the free-response
section. (Incident Report forms are provided in the coordinator packets sent with
the exam shipments.) It is
best to complete a single Incident Report for multiple students per exam subject, per
administration (regular or late testing), as long as all required information is provided.
Include all exam booklets with extra sheets of paper in an Incident Report return
envelope (see page 67 of the 2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual for complete details).

Program. (See page 26 of the 2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual for more information

page 1 of the answer sheet and:


Fill in the appropriate section number circle in order to access a separate

2017-18 AP Coordinator’s Manual.

appropriate circle on their registration answer sheets.

54
Student Answer Sheet for
the Multiple-Choice Section

Use this section to capture student responses. (Note that the following
answer sheet is a sample, and may differ from one used in an actual exam.)
AP Exam Label PAGE 1
AP Number Label
(from Student Pack) (from Section I Booklet)
Answer Sheet 2018
AP FPO X123456789 X
COMPLETE THIS AREA AT EVERY EXAM. USE NO. 2 PENCIL ONLY E. EXAM G. ONLINE
D. EXAM DATE F. MULTIPLE-CHOICE BOOKLET
I am aware of and agree to follow the policies and procedures in the 2017-18 Bulletin for AP Students and Parents to C. YOUR AP NUMBER START PROVIDER
Month Day TIME SERIAL NUMBER CODE
maintain the security of the exam and the validity of my AP score. I understand and accept that my exam score may
be canceled if I do not follow these policies and procedures, if I disregard any exam day instructions, or if my exam is AM PM S
administered improperly. I certify that I am the person whose information appears on this answer sheet.
Sign your legal name as it will appear on your college applications. Date
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 6 12 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
A. SIGNATURE
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 7 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 8 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
B. LEGAL NAME Omit apostrophes, Jr., II. 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 9 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
Legal Last Name — First 15 Letters Legal First Name — First 12 Letters MI 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 10 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 11 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9
E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E
COMPLETE THIS AREA ONLY ONCE. K. DATE OF BIRTH
F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F I. AREA CODE AND
G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G PHONE NUMBER J. SCHOOL YOU ATTEND Month Day Year
SCHOOL CODE School Name
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H Jan
I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 Feb 0 0 0 0
J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 0 0 0 0 0 0 Mar 1 1 1 1
K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1 1 1 1 1 1 Apr 2 2 2 2
L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 May 3 3 3 3
M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 3 3 3 3 3 3 City Jun 4 4 4
N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 4 4 4 4 4 4 Jul 5 5 5
O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 5 5 5 5 5 5 State Aug 6 6 6
P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 6 6 6 6 6 6 Sep 7 7 7
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 7 7 7 7 7 7 Oct 8 8 8
121586-00657 • TF11017E5500 • Printed in U.S.A.

Country
R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 8 8 8 8 8 8 Nov 9 9 9
S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S INTERNATIONAL PHONE 9 9 9 9 9 9 Dec
T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T
M. COLLEGE TO RECEIVE YOUR
U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U N. CURRENT
L. SOCIAL SECURITY AP SCORE REPORT
GRADE LEVEL
V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V NUMBER (Optional) COLLEGE CODE Using the college code listed
in the AP Student Pack,
indicate the ONE college Not yet in
W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W 11th
that you want to receive 9th grade
X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
your AP score report. 9th 12th
Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 College Name 10th No longer in
high school
Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
– – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – – 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 O. STUDENT SEARCH SERVICE®
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 Colleges and scholarship programs may
Exam Name: Form: Form Code: request your information to inform you of
H. AP EXAM I AM City
TAKING USING THIS 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 educational opportunities and financial aid.
Q4546/1-4

ANSWER SHEET 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 Would you like us to supply your information?


State
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 Yes No
SCHOOL USE ONLY
801356 Section Number Fee Reduction Granted 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 Country
If you don’t answer and previously chose to
participate in this service, we will continue
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 1 Option 1 2 Option 2 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 providing your information.
PAGE 2
COMPLETE THIS AREA AT EACH EXAM (IF APPLICABLE).

P. SURVEY QUESTIONS — Answer the survey questions in the AP Student Pack. Do not put responses to exam questions in this section.

1 A B C D E F G H I 4 A B C D E F G H I 7 A B C D E F G H I

2 A B C D E F G H I 5 A B C D E F G H I 8 A B C D E F G H I

3 A B C D E F G H I 6 A B C D E F G H I 9 A B C D E F G H I

Q. LANGUAGE — Do not complete this section unless instructed to do so.

If this answer sheet is for the French Language and Culture, German Language and Culture, Italian Language and Culture, Spanish Language
and Culture, or Spanish Literature and Culture Exam, please answer the following questions. Your responses will not affect your score.
1. Have you lived or studied for one month or more in a country where the language of the 2. Do you regularly speak or hear the language at home?
exam you are now taking is spoken?

Yes No Yes No

QUESTIONS 1–75

Indicate your answers to the exam questions in this section (pages 2 and 3). Mark only one response per question
for Questions 1 through 120. If a question has only four answer options, do not mark option E. Answers written in
the multiple-choice booklet will not be scored.

A B C D You must use a No. 2 pencil and marks must be complete. Do not use a mechanical pencil. It
EXAMPLES OF
COMPLETE MARK is very important that you fill in the entire circle darkly and completely. If you change your response,
INCOMPLETE MARKS A B C D erase as completely as possible. Incomplete marks or erasures may affect your score.

1 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 51 A B C D E
2 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 52 A B C D E
3 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 53 A B C D E
4 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 54 A B C D E
5 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 55 A B C D E
6 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 56 A B C D E
7 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 57 A B C D E
8 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 58 A B C D E
9 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 59 A B C D E
10 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 60 A B C D E
11 A B C D E 36 A B C D E 61 A B C D E
12 A B C D E 37 A B C D E 62 A B C D E
13 A B C D E 38 A B C D E 63 A B C D E
14 A B C D E 39 A B C D E 64 A B C D E
15 A B C D E 40 A B C D E 65 A B C D E
16 A B C D E 41 A B C D E 66 A B C D E
17 A B C D E 42 A B C D E 67 A B C D E
18 A B C D E 43 A B C D E 68 A B C D E
19 A B C D E 44 A B C D E 69 A B C D E
20 A B C D E 45 A B C D E 70 A B C D E
21 A B C D E 46 A B C D E 71 A B C D E
22 A B C D E 47 A B C D E 72 A B C D E
23 A B C D E 48 A B C D E 73 A B C D E
24 A B C D E 49 A B C D E 74 A B C D E
25 A B C D E 50 A B C D E 75 A B C D E

FOR OFFICIAL USE ONLY


R W O R W O
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 SELECTED MEDIA EXAMS OTHER EXAMS
Exam
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
PT02 TOTAL
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Exam PT03 Subscore (if applicable)
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
PT04 Subscore (if applicable)

DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA


PAGE 3
QUESTIONS 76–120

Be sure each mark is dark and completely fills the circle. If a question has only four answer options, do not mark option E.

76 A B C D E 91 A B C D E 106 A B C D E
77 A B C D E 92 A B C D E 107 A B C D E
78 A B C D E 93 A B C D E 108 A B C D E
79 A B C D E 94 A B C D E 109 A B C D E
80 A B C D E 95 A B C D E 110 A B C D E
81 A B C D E 96 A B C D E 111 A B C D E
82 A B C D E 97 A B C D E 112 A B C D E
83 A B C D E 98 A B C D E 113 A B C D E
84 A B C D E 99 A B C D E 114 A B C D E
85 A B C D E 100 A B C D E 115 A B C D E
86 A B C D E 101 A B C D E 116 A B C D E
87 A B C D E 102 A B C D E 117 A B C D E
88 A B C D E 103 A B C D E 118 A B C D E
89 A B C D E 104 A B C D E 119 A B C D E
90 A B C D E 105 A B C D E 120 A B C D E

QUESTIONS 121–126

For Students Taking AP Biology


Write your answer in the boxes at the top of the griddable area and fill in the corresponding circles.
Mark only one circle in any column. You will receive credit only if the circles are filled in correctly.

121 122 123 124 125 126

/ / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / /

– . . . . . – . . . . . – . . . . . – . . . . . – . . . . . – . . . . .

0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1

2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3

4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5

6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7

8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

QUESTIONS 131–142

For Students Taking AP Computer Science Principles, AP Physics 1, or AP Physics 2


Mark two responses per question. You will receive credit only if both correct responses are selected.

131 A B C D 135 A B C D 139 A B C D


132 A B C D 136 A B C D 140 A B C D
133 A B C D 137 A B C D 141 A B C D
134 A B C D 138 A B C D 142 A B C D

© 2017 The College Board. College Board, AP, Student Search Service and the acorn logo are registered trademarks of the College Board.

DO NOT WRITE IN THIS AREA


COMPLETE THIS AREA ONLY ONCE. PAGE 4
R. YOUR MAILING ADDRESS Use the address abbreviations from your AP Student Pack. Fill in only one circle per column. Indicate a space in your address by leaving a blank box; do not grid that column. V. SEX
STREET ADDRESS (include street number, street name, apartment number, etc.) CITY ZIP OR POSTAL CODE COUNTRY
CODE Female Male
W. WHICH LANGUAGE DO YOU
A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A 0 0 0 KNOW BEST?
B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B 1 1 1 English
C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C 2 2 2 English and another language
about the same
D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D 3 3 3 Another language
E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E 4 4 4
F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F 5 5 5 X. RACIAL/ETHNIC GROUP
G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G 6 6 6 Please answer both questions about
Hispanic origin and about race. For the
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H 7 7 7
following questions about your identity,
I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I 8 8 8 Hispanic origins are not races.
J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J 9 9 9
(You may mark all that apply.)
K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K
a. Are you of b. What is your race?
L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L Hispanic,
Latino, or
American Indian or
M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M Spanish origin? Alaska Native
N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N No, not of Asian (including Indian
Hispanic, Latino, subcontinent and
O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O or Spanish origin Philippines origin)
P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P Yes, Cuban Black or African American
(including Africa and
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Yes, Mexican Afro-Caribbean origin)
R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R Yes, Puerto Rican Native Hawaiian or other
Pacific Islander
S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S Yes, another White (including Middle
Hispanic, Latino, Eastern origin)
T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T or Spanish origin
U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U
V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V Y. PARENTAL EDUCATION LEVEL
In the first column, indicate the highest level of education of
W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W
one parent/guardian, and indicate whether this is your mother/
X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X female guardian or father/male guardian. Then, if applicable,
indicate the highest level of education of your other parent/
Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y guardian in the second column, and indicate whether this is
Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z your mother/female guardian or father/male guardian.
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 STATE MI NY VT 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 Mother or female guardian
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 AK HI MN OH WA 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 Father or male guardian
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 AL IA MO OK WI 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 Grade school
3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 AR ID MS OR WV 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 Some high school
4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 AZ IL MT PA WY 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 High school diploma or equivalent
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 CA IN NC RI Puerto 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 Vocational or trade school
Rico
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 CO KS ND SC 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 Some college
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 CT KY NE SD AA 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 Associate or two-year degree
8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 DC LA NH TN AE 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 Bachelor’s or four-year degree
9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 DE MA NJ TX AP 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 Some graduate or professional school
/ / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / / FL MD NM UT Other / / / / / / / Graduate or professional degree
GA ME NV VA T. STUDENT IDENTIFIER (Student ID Number)
S. FOR STUDENTS OUTSIDE If your address does not fit in the spaces provided in Item R, fill in as
THE UNITED STATES ONLY many circles as you can, then fill in the circle in Item S and print the remainder of your address in the spaces provided.
Address City State or Province Country ZIP or Postal Code
By providing your email address, you are granting the College Board
U. EMAIL ADDRESS permission to use your email address in accordance with the policies
in the 2017-18 Bulletin for AP Students and Parents.
This is the multiple-choice section of the 2018 AP xam.
It includes cover material and other administrative instructions
to help familiarize students with the mechanics of the exam.
(Note that future exams may differ in look from the following content.)

For purposes of test security and/or statistical analysis, some questions


have been removed from the version of the exam that was administered
in 2018. Therefore, the timing indicated here may not be appropriate
for a practice exam.
AP Chemistry Exam
®

SECTION I: Multiple Choice 2018


DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

At a Glance Instructions
Section I of this exam contains 0 multiple-choice questions. Fill in only the circles for
Total Time numbers 1 through 0 on your answer sheet. Pages containing a periodic table and lists
containing equations and constants are also printed in this booklet.
Number of Questions
0 Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet. No
Percent of Total Score credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use the booklet
50% for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested answers is best,
Writing Instrument completely fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.
Electronic Device Because this section offers only four answer options for each question, do not mark the
None allowed (E) answer circle for any question. Give only one answer to each question. If you change
an answer, be sure that the previous mark is erased completely. Here is a sample question
and answer.

Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy. Do not
spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and come back to
the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected that everyone will
know the answers to all of the multiple-choice questions.
Your total score on Section I is based only on the number of questions answered correctly.
Points are not deducted for incorrect answers or unanswered questions.

Form I
Form Code 4OBP4-S

25
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®
AP CHEMISTRY EQUATIONS AND CONSTANTS

Throughout the exam the following symbols have the definitions specified unless otherwise noted.
L, mL = liter(s), milliliter(s) mm Hg = millimeters of mercury
g = gram(s) J, kJ = joule(s), kilojoule(s)
nm = nanometer(s) V = volt(s)
atm = atmosphere(s) mol = mole(s)

ATOMIC STRUCTURE
E = energy
E=h = frequency
c= = wavelength
Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 10 34 J s
Speed of light, c = 2.998 108 m s 1
Avogadro’s number = 6.022 1023 mol 1
Electron charge, e = 1.602 × 10 19 coulomb

EQUILIBRIUM

[C]c [D]d
Kc = , where a A + b B cC+dD Equilibrium Constants
[A]a [B]b
Kc (molar concentrations)
(PC )c (PD )d
Kp = Kp (gas pressures)
(PA )a (PB )b Ka (weak acid)
Ka = [H ][A ] Kb (weak base)
[HA] Kw (water)
Kb = [OH ][HB ]
[B]
Kw = [H+][OH ] = 1.0 10 14 at 25 C
= Ka Kb
pH = log[H+] , pOH = log[OH ]
14 = pH + pOH
pH = pKa + log [A ]
[HA]
pKa = logKa , pKb = logKb

KINETICS

ln[A] t ln[A] 0 = kt k = rate constant


t = time
1 1 = kt
A A
t ½ = half-life
t 0

t ½ = 0.693
k

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GASES, LIQUIDS, AND SOLUTIONS
P = pressure
V = volume
PV = nRT
T = temperature
moles A n = number of moles
PA = Ptotal XA, where XA =
total moles m = mass
Ptotal = PA + PB + PC + . . . M = molar mass
D = density
n = m KE = kinetic energy
M
v = velocity
K = C + 273
A = absorbance
D= m a = molar absorptivity
V
b = path length
KE per molecule = 1 mv 2 c = concentration
2
Molarity, M = moles of solute per liter of solution Gas constant, R = 8.314 J mol 1 K 1

A = abc = 0.08206 L atm mol 1 K 1

= 62.36 L torr mol 1 K 1

1 atm = 760 mm Hg = 760 torr


STP = 273.15 K and 1.0 atm
1
Ideal gas at STP = 22.4 L mol

THERMODYNAMICS / ELECTROCHEMISTRY
q = heat
q = mc T m = mass
c = specific heat capacity
S = S products S reactants T = temperature
S = standard entropy
H = DHf products DHf reactants
H = standard enthalpy
G = standard Gibbs free energy
G = DGf products DGf reactants
n = number of moles
E = standard reduction potential
G = H T S I = current (amperes)
= RT ln K q = charge (coulombs)
= n E t = time (seconds)
q Faraday’s constant, = 96,485 coulombs per mole
I =
t of electrons
1 joule
1 volt =
1 coulomb

-4-
CHEMISTRY
Section I
Time—1 hour and 30 minutes
0 Questions

CALCULATORS ARE NOT ALLOWED FOR SECTION I.

Note: For all questions, assume that the temperature is 298 K, the pressure is 1.0 atm, and solutions are aqueous
unless otherwise specified.

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by four suggested answers or
completions. Select the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding circle on the answer sheet.

1. Which of the following particle diagrams best Mass of Mass of


represents the products when four molecules of Sample
Carbon Hydrogen
H2O2(l) decompose into water and oxygen gas at
A 60. g 12 g
room temperature?
B 72 g 12 g
C 84 g 10. g
D 90. g 10. g
(A)
2. The masses of carbon and hydrogen in samples
of four pure hydrocarbons are given above. The
hydrocarbon in which sample has the same
empirical formula as propene, C3H6 ?
(A) Sample A
(B) (B) Sample B
(C) Sample C
(D) Sample D

(C)

(D)

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-5-
Substance X Y Z
Melting Point (°C) 1600 650 1418
Electrical Conductivity
None High None
in Solid Phase
Electrical Conductivity
None High High
in Liquid Phase

3. Three substances were studied in the laboratory, and the data in the table above were collected. Based on the
data, which of the following shows the type of bonding in each substance?

Substance X Substance Y Substance Z


(A) Network covalent Ionic Metallic
(B) Ionic Molecular Network covalent
(C) Molecular Network covalent Metallic
(D) Network covalent Metallic Ionic

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-6-
4. Based on the information in the table above, which of the compounds has the highest boiling point, and why?
(A) Butanal, because it can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds
(B) Pentane, because it has the longest carbon chain
(C) Pentane, because it has the most C−H bonds
(D) Propanoic acid, because it can form intermolecular hydrogen bonds

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-7-
5. A 1.0 L sample of a pure gas is found to have a
lower pressure than that predicted by the ideal gas
law. The best explanation for the observation is
that the molecules of the gas
(A) have a combined volume that is too large to
be considered negligible when compared to
the volume of the container
(B) have a low molecular mass and therefore do
not strike the container walls with as much
force as expected
(C) are attracted to each other and do not exert as
much force on the container walls as they
would if they had no mutual attractions
(D) are attracted to the sides of the container and
strike the container walls with more force
than expected
6. Equal volumes of solutions in two different
vessels are represented above. If the solution
represented in vessel 1 is KCl(aq), then the
solution represented in vessel 2 could be an
aqueous solution of
(A) KCl with the same molarity as the solution in
vessel 1
(B) KCl with twice the molarity of the solution in
vessel 1
(C) CaCl2 with the same molarity as the solution
in vessel 1
(D) CaCl2 with twice the molarity of the solution
in vessel 1

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-8-
7. A 20. mL sample of 0.50 M HC2H3O2(aq) is titrated with 0.50 M NaOH(aq). Which of the following best
represents the species that react and the species produced in the reaction?
(A) H+(aq) + OH−(aq) → H2O(l)
(B) H+(aq) + C2H3O2−(aq) + Na+(aq) + OH−(aq) → H2O(l) + NaC2H3O2(aq)
(C) HC2H3O2(aq) + OH−(aq) → C2H3O2−(aq) + H2O(l)
(D) HC2H3O2(aq) + NaOH(aq) → H2O(l) + Na+(aq) + C2H3O2−(aq)

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-9-
8. The standard reduction potentials for the half-reactions related
to the galvanic cell represented above are listed in the table
below.
Half-Reaction E° (V)
Cr3+(aq) + 3 e− → Cr(s) −0.74
2+ −
Zn (aq) + 2 e → Zn(s) −0.76

Which of the following gives the value of Ecell for the cell?

(A) Ecell = −1.50 V


(B) Ecell = −0.80 V
(C) Ecell = −0.02 V
(D) Ecell = +0.02 V

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-10-
Ionization Energy 10. Which of the following correctly compares
(kJ/mol) periodic properties of two elements and provides
an accurate explanation for that difference?
First 730
(A) The first ionization energy of Al is greater
Second 1450
than that of B because Al has a larger
Third 7700 nuclear charge than B does.
Fourth 10,500 (B) The first ionization energy of F is greater
than that of O because O has a higher
electronegativity than F has.
9. The ionization energies of an unknown element,
(C) The atomic radius of Ca is larger than that of
X, are listed in the table above. Which of the
Mg because the valence electrons in Mg
following is the most likely empirical formula
experience more shielding than the valence
of a compound formed from element X and
electrons in Ca do.
phosphorus, P ?
(D) The atomic radius of Cl is smaller than that
(A) XP of S because Cl has a larger nuclear charge
(B) X3P than S does.
(C) X3P2
(D) X3P4

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-11-
→ H+(aq) + NO −(aq)
HNO2(aq) ← Ka = 4.0 × 10−4
2

11. On the basis of the information above, what is the


approximate percent ionization of HNO2 in a
1.0 M HNO2(aq) solution?
(A) 0.00040%
(B) 0.020%
(C) 0.040%
(D) 2.0%

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-12-
2 NOBr(g) → 2 NO( g) + Br2(g) 13. A balloon filled with 0.25 mol of He(g) at 273 K
and 1 atm is allowed to rise through the
12. The equation above represents an elementary step atmosphere. Which of the following explains
in a chemical reaction. Which of the following what happens to the volume of the balloon as it
is the correct expression for the rate law of the rises from ground level to an altitude where the
elementary step? air temperature is 220 K and the air pressure is
1 0.1 atm?
(A) Rate = k[NOBr] 2 (A) The volume will increase because the
(B) Rate = k[NOBr] decrease in air pressure will have a greater
effect than the decrease in temperature.
(C) Rate = k[NOBr]2
(B) The volume will remain unchanged because
(D) Rate = k[NO]2[Br2] of the counteracting effects of the decrease
in temperature and the decrease in air
pressure.
(C) The volume will decrease because the
decrease in temperature will have a greater
effect than the decrease in air pressure.
(D) It cannot be determined whether the volume
of the balloon will increase, decrease, or
remain the same without knowing the initial
volume of the balloon.

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-13-
Questions 14-17 refer to the following information.

Substance Lewis Diagram Boiling Point

CH3OH 338 K

C2H5OH 351 K

Equimolar samples of CH3OH(l) and C2H5OH(l) are placed in


separate, previously evacuated, rigid 2.0 L vessels. Each vessel
is attached to a pressure gauge, and the temperatures are kept at
300 K. In both vessels, liquid is observed to remain present at the
bottom of the container at all times. The change in pressure inside
the vessel containing CH3OH(l) is shown below.

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-14-
14. Which of the following best describes the change 16. The temperature of the CH3OH is increased from
that takes place immediately after the CH3OH(l) 300 K to 400 K to vaporize all the liquid, which
is introduced into the previously evacuated increases the pressure in the vessel to 0.30 atm.
vessel? The experiment is repeated under identical
(A) A chemical change takes place because conditions but this time using half the mass of
covalent bonds are broken. CH3OH that was used originally. What will be the
(B) A chemical change takes place because pressure in the vessel at 400 K ?
intermolecular attractions are overcome.
(A) 0.15 atm
(C) A physical change takes place because
covalent bonds are broken. (B) 0.30 atm
(D) A physical change takes place because (C) 0.40 atm
intermolecular attractions are overcome. (D) 0.60 atm

15. The value of Kp for the evaporation of CH3OH(l) 17. Compared to the equilibrium vapor pressure of
at 300 K is closest to CH3OH(l) at 300 K, the equilibrium vapor
(A) 0.04 pressure of C2H5OH(l) at 300 K is
(B) 0.2 (A) the same, because both compounds have
(C) 5
hydrogen bonding among their molecules
(D) 30
(B) higher, because London dispersion forces
among C2H5OH molecules are greater than
those among CH3OH molecules
(C) lower, because London dispersion forces
among C2H5OH molecules are greater than
those among CH3OH molecules
(D) lower, because of the larger number of
hydrogen bonds among C2H5OH molecules

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-15-
18. Which of the following Lewis electron-dot Ionic Radius
diagrams represents the molecule that is the most Ion
(pm)
polar?
Cl − 181
− 216
(A) I
S2 − 184
(B) 2−
Te 221
(C)
19. Based on Coulomb’s law and the information in
(D) the table above, which of the following anions is
most likely to have the strongest interactions with
nearby water molecules in an aqueous solution?
(A) Cl −
(B) I−
(C) S2 −
(D) Te2 −

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-16-
20. For which of the equilibrium systems represented AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
below will the amount of product(s) at
equilibrium increase if the volume of the reaction 21. In an experiment a student mixes a 50.0 mL
vessel is increased at a constant temperature? sample of 0.100 M AgNO 3(aq) with a 50.0 mL
(A) PCl5(g) ← → PCl (g) + Cl (g) sample of 0.100 M NaCl(aq) at 20.0°C in a
3 2
→ 2 NO (g) coffee-cup calorimeter. Which of the following is
(B) 2 NO(g) + O2(g) ← 2
→ 2 NO( g) the enthalpy change of the precipitation reaction
(C) N2(g) + O2(g) ←
→ C(s) + CO (g) represented above if the final temperature of the
(D) 2 CO(g) ← 2
mixture is 21.0°C? (Assume that the total mass of
the mixture is 100. g and that the specific heat
capacity of the mixture is 4.2 J/(g⋅°C).)
(A) −84 kJ/molrxn
(B) −0.42 kJ/molrxn
(C) 0.42 kJ/molrxn
(D) 84 kJ/molrxn

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-17-
Questions 22-24 refer to the following information.

A group of students was asked to recover Cu(s) from a blue-green aqueous solution containing an unknown
concentration of Cu2+(aq). The students took a 100.0 mL sample of the solution and added an excess of
1.0 M Na3PO4(aq), causing the Cu2+(aq) to precipitate as Cu3(PO4)2(s), as shown in step 1 below.

Step 1

The Cu3(PO4)2(s) was filtered, dried, and weighed. Then the Cu3(PO4)2(s) was dissolved in a 3.0 M HCl(aq)
solution, as shown in step 2 below.

Step 2

The students added a strip of Zn(s) to the solution to recover the Cu(s) , as shown in step 3 below.

Step 3

Finally, the Cu(s) was filtered, dried, and weighed.

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-18-
22. If 3.8 g of Cu3(PO4)2(s) was recovered from
H3PO4(aq)
step 1, what was the approximate [Cu2+] in
the original solution? (The molar mass of K a1 7.5 × 10−3
Cu3(PO4)2 is 381 g/mol.) K a2 6.2 × 10−8
(A) 0.10 M K a3 4.2 × 10−13
(B) 0.30 M
(C) 1.0 M
(D) 3.0 M 24. The values of the dissociation constants for
H3PO4 are given in the table above. Given that
23. The mass of the Cu(s) produced in step 3 was the solution in the beaker at the end of step 2 had
slightly more than the mass predicted from the a pH of approximately 1, which of the following
3.8 g of Cu3(PO4)2(s) recovered from step 1. chemical species had the lowest concentration
Which of the following could account for the among the products of step 2 ?
discrepancy in the yield of Cu(s) from step 3 ?
(A) H+(aq)
(A) All of the Cu3(PO4)2(s) dissolved in the
(B) H2PO4−(aq)
HCl(aq).
(B) Some of the Cu(s) adhered to the side of the (C) HPO42−(aq)
funnel used to filter the solution. (D) PO43−(aq)
(C) Some unreacted Zn(s) was mixed in with the
Cu(s).
(D) Too much Na3PO4(aq) was added to the
original Cu2+(aq) solution.

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-19-
25. Which of the following most likely describes the
solid represented in the diagram above?
(A) It is soft and is a poor thermal and electrical
conductor.
(B) It has a low melting point and is a poor
thermal and electrical conductor as a solid.
(C) It is a brittle, water-soluble electrolyte that is
a poor thermal and electrical conductor as a
solid. 27. The Maxwell-Boltzmann distributions of
(D) It is malleable and is an excellent thermal and molecular speeds in samples of two different
electrical conductor as a solid. gases at the same temperature are shown above.
Which gas has the greater molar mass?
(A) Gas A
(B) Gas B
26. Which of the following best helps to explain why (C) Both gases have the same molar mass.
CCl4 is a liquid whereas CI4 is a solid when both (D) It cannot be determined unless the pressure of
are at 25°C? each sample is known.
(A) The dipole moment of the CCl4 molecule is
larger than that of the CI4 molecule because
Cl is more electronegative than I.
(B) The dipole moment of the CI 4 molecule is
larger than that of the CCl4 molecule
because there is stronger repulsion between
electrons in the C−I bonds compared to the
repulsion between electrons in the C−Cl
bonds.
(C) The London dispersion forces are stronger in
CCl4 than in CI 4 because Cl is more
electronegative than I.
(D) The London dispersion forces are stronger in
CI4 than in CCl4 because CI4 has a more
polarizable electron cloud than CCl4 .

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-20-
→ Ca 2+(aq) + 2 F −(aq)
CaF2(s) ← ∆H > 0 30. When a small amount of 12 M HNO3(aq) is
added to a buffer solution made by mixing
28. Dissolution of the slightly soluble salt CaF2 is CH3 NH2(aq) and CH3NH3Cl(aq), the pH of the
shown by the equation above. Which of the buffer solution changes from 10.64 to 10.62.
following changes will decrease [Ca2+] in a
Which of the following equations represents the
saturated solution of CaF2 , and why? (Assume
reaction that accounts for the fact that the pH does
that after each change some CaF2(s) remains in
not change significantly when the HNO3(aq) is
contact with the solution.)
added?
(A) Allowing some of the water to evaporate
(A) CH3NH2(aq) + H+(aq) → CH 3NH3+(aq)
from the solution, because more CaF2(s)
will precipitate (B) CH3NH3+(aq) + H+(aq) → CH 3NH42+(aq)
(B) Adding 0.1 M HNO3(aq), because some (C) NO3−(aq) + H+(aq) → HNO 3(aq)
F −(aq) ions will become protonated (D) OH−(aq) + H+(aq) → H2O(l)
(C) Adding 0.1 M NaNO3(aq), because
additional liquid will dilute the solution
(D) Adding NaF(s), because the reaction will 31. The pH of a solution made by combining
proceed toward reactants 150.0 mL of 0.10 M KOH(aq) with 50.0 mL
of 0.20 M HBr(aq) is closest to which of the
following?
(A) 2
Compound Ksp at 25°C (B) 4
(C) 7
Pb(OH)2(s) 1.2 × 10−15 (D) 12
PbI2(s) 1.4 × 10−8
PbF2(s) 4.0 × 10−8

29. Equimolar samples of Pb(OH)2(s), PbI2(s), and


PbF2(s) are placed in three separate beakers, each
containing 250 mL of water at 25°C. After the
solutions are stirred, solid remains in the bottom
of each beaker. Based on the Ksp values for the
compounds listed in the table above, a solution of
which of the compounds will have the lowest
[Pb2+] ?
(A) Pb(OH)2(s)
(B) PbI2(s) only
(C) PbF2(s) only
(D) Both PbI2(s) and PbF2(s) will produce
solutions with the same, lowest [Pb2+].

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-21-
Step 1: H2SeO3(aq) HSeO 3−(aq) + H+(aq) Ka = 2.1 × 10−3

Step 2: HSeO3−(aq) SeO 32−(aq) + H+(aq) K a = 5.3 × 10−9

32. The step-wise dissociation of selenous acid, H2SeO3(aq), is represented by the equations above. Which of the
following best helps explain why the value of K a is so much smaller than the value of Ka ?

(A) The Se atom in H2SeO3(aq) is in a higher oxidation state than the Se atom in HSeO3−(aq).
(B) Water is more attracted to HSeO3−(aq) ions than to SeO32− ions, which drives the step 2 equilibrium
toward the reactant.
(C) The HSeO3−(aq) ions produced in step 1 are asymmetrical, but the SeO32− ions produced in step 2 are
symmetrical.
(D) Removing the first H+ from H2SeO3(aq) requires less energy than removing the second H+, because the
second H+ is removed from a negatively charged species.

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-22-
Questions 33-36 refer to the following information.

→ LiNH (s) + 2 LiH(s)


Li3N(s) + 2 H2(g) ← ∆H° = −192 kJ/molrxn
2

Because pure H2 is a hazardous substance, safer and more cost effective techniques to store it as a solid for
shipping purposes have been developed. One such method is the reaction represented above, which occurs at 200°C.

33. When 70. g of Li3N(s) (molar mass 35 g/mol) 35. Which of the following is the most likely reason
reacts with excess H2(g), 8.0 g of LiH(s) is that the reaction occurs at a significant rate only if
produced. The percent yield is closest to the temperature of the reaction mixture is greater
than 200°C?
(A) 17%
(B) 25% (A) The reaction is exothermic.
(C) 50.% (B) ∆S° for the reaction is negative.
(D) 100% (C) The reaction has a high activation energy.
(D) ∆G° < 0 when T < 200°C.
34. Which of the following happens to H atoms in
the forward reaction? 36. The amount of H2(g) present in a reaction
(A) H atoms are oxidized only. mixture at equilibrium can be maximized by
(B) H atoms are reduced only. (A) increasing the temperature and increasing the
(C) H atoms are both oxidized and reduced. pressure by decreasing the volume
(D) H atoms are neither oxidized nor reduced. (B) increasing the temperature and decreasing the
pressure by increasing the volume
(C) decreasing the temperature and increasing the
pressure by decreasing the volume
(D) decreasing the temperature and decreasing
the pressure by increasing the volume

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H2(g) + I2(g) 2 HI( g) Kc = 50. at 600°C
37. Equimolar samples of each of three gases, H2(g), I2(g), and
HI(g), are introduced into a 3.0 L container that is heated to
600°C. According to the information above, which of the
following will occur as the system approaches equilibrium?
(A) More H2(g) will be produced because Q > Kc .
(B) More I2(g) will be produced because Q < Kc .
(C) More HI(g) will be produced because Q < Kc .
(D) No change will occur because Q = Kc .

Reaction 1 : 4 NH 3(g) + 5 O2(g) → 4 NO(g) + 6 H2O(l) ∆G° = −1010 kJ/molrxn


Reaction 2 : 2 NO 2(g) → 2 NO( g) + O2(g) ∆G° = 70 kJ/molrxn
Reaction 3 : 4 NO 2(g) + O2(g) + 2 H2O(l) → 4 HNO 3(aq) ∆G° = −170 kJ/molrxn
38. Based on the values of ∆G° for the three reactions represented above, what is the value of ∆G° for the reaction
represented below?
4 NH3(g) + 8 O2(g) → 4 HNO 3(aq) + 4 H2O(l)
(A) −1040 kJ/molrxn
(B) −1110 kJ/molrxn
(C) −1250 kJ/molrxn
(D) −1320 kJ/molrxn

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→ H O+(aq) + CHO −(aq)
HCHO2(aq) + H2O(l) ← 3 2

39. HCHO2(aq), a weak acid (Ka = 2 × 10−4), dissociates in water


according to the equation above. Which of the following
provides the best estimate of the pH of 0.5 M HCHO 2(aq)
and identifies the species at the highest concentration
(excluding H2O) in the solution?

pH Species at Highest Concentration


(A) 1 H3O+(aq)
(B) 1 HCHO2(aq)
(C) 2 H3O+(aq)
(D) 2 HCHO2(aq)

X → Products

40. A student studied the kinetics of the reaction represented


above by measuring the concentration of the reactant, X,
over time. The data are plotted in the graph below.

Which of the following procedures will allow the student to


determine the rate constant, k, for the reaction?
(A) Plot ln [X] versus time and determine the magnitude
of the slope.
1
(B) Plot versus time and determine the magnitude of
[X]
the slope.
(C) Run another trial of the experiment with a different initial
concentration, plot the data on the same graph, and see
where the curves intersect.
(D) Run another trial of the experiment at a different
temperature, plot the data on the same graph, and see
where the curves have the same slope.

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CH4(g) + Cl(g) → CH 3(g) + HCl(g) ∆H° = −14 kJ/molrxn
NH3(g) + Cl(g) → NH 2(g) + HCl(g) ∆H° = −36 kJ/molrxn
H2O(g) + Cl(g) → OH(g) + HCl(g) ∆H° = + 40 kJ/molrxn

41. Based on the data above, what can be concluded regarding


the strength of the C −H, N−H , and O−H bonds in the
molecules shown?
(A) The C −H bond is the strongest.
(B) The N −H bond is the strongest.
(C) The O −H bond is the strongest.
(D) Nothing can be concluded without knowing the strength
of the H −Cl bond.

Reaction Keq
1 → SO (g) K1
SO2(g) + O (g) ←
2 2 3

→ 2 SO (g) + O (g)
2 SO3(g) ← K2
2 2

42. Which of the following shows the relationship between K1


and K2 in the reactions represented above?
(A) K2 = (K1)2

(B) K2 = K1

(C) K2 =
K
1
(D) K2 =
K1

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Questions 43-46 refer to the following information. 45. A 0.0300 mol sample of NO2(g) is placed in a

→ N O (g) rigid 1.00 L reaction vessel and allowed to reach


2 NO2(g) ← 2 4
equilibrium at a certain temperature. What is the
dark brown colorless value of Kc at this temperature if 0.00500 mol of
N2O4(g) is present at equilibrium?
The dimerization of NO2(g), an exothermic
(A) 0.0800
process, is represented by the equation above.
(B) 0.250
(C) 4.00
43. Which of the following experimental techniques
(D) 12.5
will allow the most accurate determination of the
concentration of NO2(g) at equilibrium?
46. A mixture of NO2(g) and N2O4(g) is at
(A) Paper chromatography equilibrium in a rigid reaction vessel. If the
(B) Gravimetric analysis temperature of the mixture is decreased, then
(C) Titration
(D) Spectrophotometry (A) [NO2] will increase and the mixture will turn
a darker brown
44. The forward reaction is thermodynamically (B) [N2O4] will increase and the mixture will
favored at which of the following temperatures? turn a lighter brown
(A) All temperatures (C) [N2O4] will decrease and the mixture will
(B) Low temperatures only turn a lighter brown
(C) High temperatures only (D) no change will be observed
(D) No temperature

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NO(g) + NO3(g) → 2 NO 2(g) N2O(g) + CO(g) → N2(g) + CO2(g)
47. The reaction between NO(g) and NO3(g) is 48. The rate of the reaction represented above
represented by the equation above. Which of the increases significantly in the presence of Pd(s).
following orientations of collision between NO(g) Which of the following best explains this
observation?
and NO3(g) is most likely to be effective?
(A) Pd increases the activation energy of the
reaction.
(B) Pd absorbs the heat produced in the reaction.
(C) One of the reactants binds on the surface of
Pd, which introduces an alternative reaction
pathway with a lower activation energy.
(D) One of the products binds on the surface of
(A) Pd, which increases the reaction rate by
decreasing the concentration of products in
the mixture.

(B)

(C)

(D)

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49. Which of the following particulate representations 50. A 50.0 g sample of Fe at 100°C is added to
shows a process during which the entropy of the 500.0 mL of water at 35°C in a perfectly insulated
system decreases? container. Which of the following statements
is true?
Before After
(A) The temperature of the water will decrease.
(A) (B) The temperature change of the Fe will have
the same magnitude as the temperature
change of the water.
(C) The heat energy lost by the Fe will be less
than the heat energy gained by the water.
(D) The heat energy lost by the Fe will be equal
to the heat energy gained by the water.
(B)

(C)

(D)

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-29-
END OF SECTION I

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,


YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.

DO NOT GO ON TO SECTION II UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

________________________________

MAKE SURE YOU HAVE DONE THE FOLLOWING.

• PLACED YOUR AP NUMBER LABEL ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET

• WRITTEN AND GRIDDED YOUR AP NUMBER CORRECTLY ON YOUR


ANSWER SHEET

• TAKEN THE AP EXAM LABEL FROM THE FRONT OF THIS BOOKLET


AND PLACED IT ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET

-37-
Section II: Free-Response Questions

This is the free-response section of the 2018 AP xam.


It includes cover material and other administrative instructions
to help familiarize students with the mechanics of the exam.
(Note that future exams may differ in look from the following content.)
AP Chemistry Exam
®

SECTION II: Free Response 2018


DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

At a Glance
Total Time
1 hour and 45 minutes
Number of Questions
7
Percent of Total Score
50%
Writing Instrument
Either pencil or pen with
black or dark blue ink
Electronic Device
Calculator allowed
Suggested Time
Approximately
23 minutes each for
questions 1 3 and
9 minutes each for
questions 4 7 Instructions
Weight The questions for Section II are printed in this booklet. Pages containing a periodic table
Approximate weights:
Questions 1 3: and lists containing equations and constants are also printed in this booklet.
22% each
Questions 4 7: You may use the pages that the questions are printed on to organize your answers or for
9% each scratch work, but you must write your answers in the areas designated for each response.
Only material written in the space provided will be scored.
Examples and equations may be included in your responses where appropriate. For
calculations, clearly show the method used and the steps involved in arriving at your
answers. You must show your work to receive credit for your answer. Pay attention to
significant figures.
Write clearly and legibly. Cross out any errors you make; erased or crossed-out work will
not be scored.
Manage your time carefully. You may proceed freely from one question to the next. You
may review your responses if you finish before the end of the exam is announced.

Form I
Form Code 4OBP4- S

25
-2-
®
AP CHEMISTRY EQUATIONS AND CONSTANTS

Throughout the exam the following symbols have the definitions specified unless otherwise noted.
L, mL = liter(s), milliliter(s) mm Hg = millimeters of mercury
g = gram(s) J, kJ = joule(s), kilojoule(s)
nm = nanometer(s) V = volt(s)
atm = atmosphere(s) mol = mole(s)

ATOMIC STRUCTURE
E = energy
E=h = frequency
c= = wavelength
Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 10 34 J s
Speed of light, c = 2.998 108 m s 1
Avogadro’s number = 6.022 1023 mol 1
Electron charge, e = 1.602 × 10 19 coulomb

EQUILIBRIUM

[C]c [D]d
Kc = , where a A + b B cC+dD Equilibrium Constants
[A]a [B]b
Kc (molar concentrations)
(PC )c (PD )d
Kp = Kp (gas pressures)
(PA )a (PB )b Ka (weak acid)
Ka = [H ][A ] Kb (weak base)
[HA] Kw (water)
Kb = [OH ][HB ]
[B]
Kw = [H+][OH ] = 1.0 10 14 at 25 C
= Ka Kb
pH = log[H+] , pOH = log[OH ]
14 = pH + pOH
pH = pKa + log [A ]
[HA]
pKa = logKa , pKb = logKb

KINETICS

ln[A] t ln[A] 0 = kt k = rate constant


t = time
1 1 = kt
A A
t ½ = half-life
t 0

t ½ = 0.693
k

-3-
GASES, LIQUIDS, AND SOLUTIONS
P = pressure
V = volume
PV = nRT
T = temperature
moles A n = number of moles
PA = Ptotal XA, where XA =
total moles m = mass
Ptotal = PA + PB + PC + . . . M = molar mass
D = density
n = m KE = kinetic energy
M
v = velocity
K = C + 273
A = absorbance
D= m a = molar absorptivity
V
b = path length
KE per molecule = 1 mv 2 c = concentration
2
Molarity, M = moles of solute per liter of solution Gas constant, R = 8.314 J mol 1 K 1

A = abc = 0.08206 L atm mol 1 K 1

= 62.36 L torr mol 1 K 1

1 atm = 760 mm Hg = 760 torr


STP = 273.15 K and 1.0 atm
1
Ideal gas at STP = 22.4 L mol

THERMODYNAMICS / ELECTROCHEMISTRY
q = heat
q = mc T m = mass
c = specific heat capacity
S = S products S reactants T = temperature
S = standard entropy
H = DHf products DHf reactants
H = standard enthalpy
G = standard Gibbs free energy
G = DGf products DGf reactants
n = number of moles
E = standard reduction potential
G = H T S I = current (amperes)
= RT ln K q = charge (coulombs)
= n E t = time (seconds)
q Faraday’s constant, = 96,485 coulombs per mole
I =
t of electrons
1 joule
1 volt =
1 coulomb

-4-
SECTION II BEGINS ON PAGE 6.

.
-5-
CHEMISTRY
Section II
Time—1 hour and 45 minutes
7 Questions

YOU MAY USE YOUR CALCULATOR FOR THIS SECTION.

Directions: Questions 1–3 are long free-response questions that require about 23 minutes each to answer and are
worth 10 points each. Questions 4–7 are short free-response questions that require about 9 minutes each to answer
and are worth 4 points each.

Write your response in the space provided following each question. Examples and equations may be included in
your responses where appropriate. For calculations, clearly show the method used and the steps involved in arriving
at your answers. You must show your work to receive credit for your answer. Pay attention to significant figures.

1. Elemental sulfur can exist as molecules with the formula S8 . The S8 molecule is represented by the incomplete
Lewis diagram above.

(a) The diagram of S8 shows only bonding pairs of electrons. How many lone pairs of electrons does each S
atom in the molecule have?
(b) Based on your answer to part (a), determine the expected value of the S–S–S bond angles in the S8
molecule.
(c) Write the electron configuration for the S atom in its ground state.
(d) The complete photoelectron spectrum for the element chlorine is represented below. Peak X in the spectrum
corresponds to the binding energy of electrons in a certain orbital of chlorine atoms. The electrons in this
orbital of chlorine have a binding energy of 273 MJ/mol, while the electrons in the same orbital of sulfur
atoms have a binding energy of 239 MJ/mol.

(i) Identify the orbital and explain the difference between the binding energies in terms of Coulombic
forces.
(ii) Peak Y corresponds to the electrons in certain orbitals of chlorine atoms. On the spectrum shown,
carefully draw the peak that would correspond to the electrons in the same orbitals of sulfur atoms.

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-6-
3 S8 + 8 OH− → 8 S 3− + 4 HOOH
In an experiment, a student studies the kinetics of the reaction represented above and obtains the data shown in
the following table.

Initial [S8] Initial


Experiment Initial [OH−] Reaction Rate
(M) (M) (M/s)
Trial 1 0.100 0.0100 0.699

Trial 2 0.300 0.0100 2.10

Trial 3 0.300 ? 4.19

(e) Use the data in the table to do the following.

(i) Determine the order of the reaction with respect to S8 . Justify your answer.

(ii) Determine the value of [OH−] that was used in trial 3, considering that the reaction is first order with
respect to OH− . Justify your answer.

The next day the student conducts trial 4 using the same concentrations of S8 and OH− as in trial 1, but the
reaction occurs at a much slower rate than the reaction in trial 1. The student observes that the temperature in
the lab is lower than it was the day before.

(f) Using particle-level reasoning, provide TWO explanations that help to account for the fact that the reaction
rate is slower in trial 4.

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-7-
ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 1

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 1

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-9-
2. Answer the following questions relating to HCl, CH3Cl, and CH3Br.

(a) HCl(g) can be prepared by the reaction of concentrated H2SO4(aq) with NaCl(s), as represented by the
following equation.
H2SO4(aq) + 2 NaCl(s) → 2 HCl( g) + Na2SO4(aq)

(i) A student claims that the reaction is a redox reaction. Is the student correct? Justify your answer.
(ii) Calculate the mass, in grams, of NaCl(s) needed to react with excess H2SO4(aq) to produce 3.00 g of
HCl(g). Assume that the reaction goes to completion.

HCl(g) can react with methanol vapor, CH3OH(g), to produce CH3Cl(g), as represented by the following
equation.
CH3OH(g) + HCl(g) CH 3Cl(g) + H2O(g) Kp = 4.7 × 103 at 400 K

(b) CH3OH(g) and HCl(g) are combined in a 10.00 L sealed reaction vessel and allowed to reach equilibrium at
400 K. The initial partial pressure of CH3OH(g) in the vessel is 0.250 atm and that of HCl(g) is 0.600 atm.

(i) Does the total pressure in the vessel increase, decrease, or remain the same as equilibrium is
approached? Justify your answer in terms of the reaction stoichiometry.
(ii) Considering the value of Kp , calculate the final partial pressure of HCl(g) after the system inside the
vessel reaches equilibrium at 400 K.
(iii) The student claims that the final partial pressure of CH3OH(g) at equilibrium is very small but not
exactly zero. Do you agree or disagree with the student’s claim? Justify your answer.

(c) The table below shows some data for the compounds CH3Cl and CH3Br .

Molar Mass Dipole Moment Boiling Point DHvaporization


Compound
(g/mol) (D) (K) (kJ/mol)
CH3Cl 50.5 1.87 249 18.9
CH3Br 94.9 1.81 277 22.8

(i) Identify all the types of intermolecular forces that exist among molecules in CH3Cl(l).
(ii) In terms of intermolecular forces, explain why the boiling point of CH3Br(l) is greater than that of
CH3Cl(l).

(d) A 2.00 mL sealed glass vial containing a 1.00 g sample of CH3Cl(l) is stored in a freezer at 233 K.
(i) Calculate the pressure in the vial at 298 K assuming that all the CH3Cl(l) vaporizes.
(ii) Explain why it would be unsafe to remove the vial from the freezer and leave it on a lab bench
at 298 K.

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-10-
ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 2

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-11-
ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 2

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 2

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-13-
3 Cu+(aq) + Au3+(aq) → 3 Cu 2+(aq) + Au(s)

3. A student studying the reaction represented above constructs a voltaic cell as shown in the diagram below. The
cell contains an Au(s) electrode in a beaker containing 1.00 M Au(NO 3)3(aq) and a Pt(s) electrode in a beaker
containing 1.00 M CuNO 3(aq) and 1.00 M Cu(NO 3)2(aq).

The standard reduction potentials associated with the cell are given in the following table.

Half-reaction E° (V)
Cu2+(aq) + e− → Cu +(aq) 0.16

Au3+(aq) + 3 e− → Au(s) 1.50

(a) Calculate the value of the standard cell potential, E°.


(b) Does the mass of the Pt(s) electrode increase, decrease, or remain the same as the cell operates? Justify your
answer.

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-14-
An expanded view of the Au half-cell before the reaction occurs is shown in box A below. An expanded view
of the Au electrode after the cell operates for a period of time is shown in box B below.

(c) Assuming that the representation in box A is accurate, explain what is wrong with the stoichiometry
represented in box B.

(d) After the cell has operated for 30.0 minutes, 0.185 g of Au(s) is deposited on the Au electrode.
(i) Calculate the number of moles of Au(s) deposited.
(ii) Calculate the average current that passed through the cell during the deposition of Au(s).

The student adds some NaCl(s) to the half-cell that contains Cu+(aq) and Cu2+(aq), and a precipitate forms.

(e) Based on the information in the following table, determine the identity of the precipitate. Justify your answer
with a calculation.

Compound Solubility (mol/L) Ksp

CuCl ? 1.7 × 10 −7
CuCl2 5.2 ?

(f) Write the net ionic equation for the formation of the precipitate.

(g) The student predicts that the cell voltage will increase after the precipitate forms. Do you agree with the
student’s prediction? Justify your answer.

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 3

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-16-
ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 3

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-17-
4. To spectrophotometrically determine the mass percent of cobalt in an ore containing cobalt and some inert
materials, solutions with known [Co2+ ] are prepared and the absorbance of each of the solutions is measured at
the wavelength of optimum absorbance. The data are used to create a calibration plot, shown below.

A 0.630 g sample of the ore is completely dissolved in concentrated HNO3(aq). The mixture is diluted with
water to a final volume of 50.00 mL. Assume that all the cobalt in the ore sample is converted to Co2+(aq).
(a) What is the [Co2+ ] in the solution if the absorbance of a sample of the solution is 0.74 ?
(b) Calculate the number of moles of Co2+(aq) in the 50.00 mL solution.
(c) Calculate the mass percent of Co in the 0.630 g sample of the ore.

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 4

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-19-
3 Ag(s) + 4 HNO3(aq) → 3 AgNO 3(aq) + NO(g) + 2 H2O(l)

5. A student investigates the reaction between Ag(s) and HNO3(aq) represented by the equation above.

(a) Predict the sign of the entropy change, ∆S°, for the reaction. Justify your answer.
(b) Use the information in the table below to calculate the value of DHrxn , the standard enthalpy change for the
reaction, in kJ/molrxn .

Substance HNO3(aq) AgNO3(aq) NO(g) H2O(l)


Standard Heat of Formation,
DH f (kJ/mol) −207 −101 90. −286

(c) Based on your answers to parts (a) and (b), is the reaction more likely to be thermodynamically favorable
at 25°C, or at 95°C? Justify your answer.
(d) The student runs the reaction using a 3 to 4 mole ratio of Ag(s) to HNO3(aq). Suggest a method the student
can use to isolate solid AgNO3 from the other products of the reaction.

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-20-
ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 5

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-21-
6. A student is asked to determine what mass of butane, C4H10(g), needs to burn in order to raise the temperature of
a 1650 g beaker of sand by 180.°C. The student is provided with the equipment shown below.

(a) Calculate the amount of heat energy needed to raise the temperature of the beaker of sand by 180.°C.
Assume that all the heat energy from the burner is transferred to the beaker of sand and that the specific heat
capacity of the beaker and sand together is 0.810 J/(g⋅°C).

The student runs the experiment and collects the data shown in the table below.

Mass of the beaker and sand 1650 g


Mass of butane burner before combustion 225.26 g
Mass of butane burner after combustion 218.20 g
Initial temperature of the beaker of sand 20.°C
Final temperature of the beaker of sand 200.°C

(b) Calculate the number of moles of butane that was used in the experiment. Report your answer to the
appropriate number of significant figures.

The combustion of butane is represented by the equation below.


13
C4H10(g) + O (g) → 5 H 2O(g) + 4 CO2(g) DHrxn = −2659 kJ/molrxn
2 2
(c) Using the balanced equation for the combustion of butane and DHrxn , determine the amount of heat energy
produced by the combustion of butane in the experiment.

(d) The student claims that some of the heat energy produced by the combustion of butane was lost to the air
surrounding the system. Do your answers to parts (a) and (c) support the student’s claim? Explain.

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PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 6

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-23-
Solution X 100 mL of 0.10 M NaOH(aq) is mixed with 100 mL of 0.10 M HBr(aq)

Solution Y 100 mL of 0.10 M NaBr(aq) is mixed with 100 mL of 0.10 M HBr(aq)

Solution Z 100 mL of 0.10 M HC2H3O2(aq) is mixed with 100 mL of 0.10 M NaC2H3O2(aq)

7. A student prepares three solutions, X, Y, and Z, as described in the table above. The values of Ka for the acidic
species in the solutions are given in the table below.

Species Ka

HBr(aq) >>1 (very large)


HC2H3O2(aq) 1.8 × 10−5

(a) Using the information above, write the letters of the solutions in the boxes below to rank the solutions in
order of increasing pH. Explain your reasoning for the ranking.

Lowest pH Highest pH
< <

(b) Does the pH of solution Y increase, decrease, or remain the same when 100 mL of water is added? Justify
your answer.

(c) The student adds 0.0010 mol of NaOH(s) to solution Y, and adds 0.0010 mol of NaOH(s) to solution Z .
Assume that the volume of each solution does not change when the NaOH(s) is added. The pH of
solution Y changes much more than the pH of solution Z changes. Explain this observation.

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ADDITIONAL PAGE FOR ANSWERING QUESTION 7

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-25-
STOP

END OF EXAM

IF YOU FINISH BEFORE TIME IS CALLED,


YOU MAY CHECK YOUR WORK ON THIS SECTION.

________________________________

THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS APPLY TO THE COVERS OF THE


SECTION II BOOKLET.

• MAKE SURE YOU HAVE COMPLETED THE IDENTIFICATION


INFORMATION AS REQUESTED ON THE FRONT AND BACK
COVERS OF THE SECTION II BOOKLET.

• CHECK TO SEE THAT YOUR AP NUMBER LABEL APPEARS


IN THE BOX ON THE FRONT COVER.

• MAKE SURE YOU HAVE USED THE SAME SET OF AP


NUMBER LABELS ON ALL AP EXAMS YOU HAVE TAKEN
THIS YEAR.

-26-
Multiple-Choice Answer Key

The following contains the answers to


the multiple-choice questions in this exam.
Answer Key for AP Chemistry
Practice Exam, Section I

Question 1: D Question 26: D


Question 2: B Question 27: A
Question 3: D Question 28: D
Question 4: D Question 29: A
Question 5: C Question 30: A
Question 6: D Question 31: D
Question 7: C Question 32: D
Question 8: D Question 33: B
Question 9: C Question 34: C
Question 10: D Question 35: C
Question 11: D Question 36: B
Question 12: C Question 37: C
Question 13: A Question 38: D
Question 14: D Question 39: D
Question 15: B Question 40: A
Question 16: A Question 41: C
Question 17: C Question 42: C
Question 18: B Question 43: D
Question 19: C Question 44: B
Question 20: A Question 45: D
Question 21: A Question 46: B
Question 22: B Question 47: D
Question 23: C Question 48: C
Question 24: D Question 49: D
Question 25: C Question 50: D
Free-Response Scoring Guidelines

The following contains the scoring guidelines


for the free-response questions in this exam.
AP® CHEMISTRY
2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 1

Elemental sulfur can exist as molecules with the formula S8 . The S8 molecule is represented by the
incomplete Lewis diagram above.

(a) The diagram of S8 shows only bonding pairs of electrons. How many lone pairs of electrons does each S
atom in the molecule have?

Two 1 point is earned for the correct answer.

(b) Based on your answer to part (a), determine the expected value of the S–S–S bond angles in the S8
molecule.

109.5
1 point is earned for an angle
Acceptable range: 104 angle 110 .
in the acceptable range.
(The experimentally determined angle is 107.8 )

(c) Write the electron configuration for the S atom in its ground state.

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4 OR [Ne]3s2 3p4 1 point is earned for a correct configuration.

(d) The complete photoelectron spectrum for the element chlorine is represented below. Peak X in the
spectrum corresponds to the binding energy of electrons in a certain orbital of chlorine atoms. The
electrons in this orbital of chlorine have a binding energy of 273 MJ/mol, while the electrons in the same
orbital of sulfur atoms have a binding energy of 239 MJ/mol.

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Question 1 (continued)

(i) Identify the orbital and explain the difference between the binding energies in terms of Coulombic
forces.

Peak X represents electrons in a 1s orbital. A Cl atom has


1 point is earned for identifying
one more proton in its nucleus than does a S atom; therefore,
the orbital as 1s.
the electrons in Cl are more strongly attracted to the nucleus,
and the binding energy of the 1s electrons in the Cl atom is
1 point is earned for a valid explanation.
greater than that of the 1s electrons in the S atom.

(ii) Peak Y corresponds to the electrons in certain orbitals of chlorine atoms. On the spectrum shown,
carefully draw the peak that would correspond to the electrons in the same orbitals of sulfur atoms.

See example of a correct response 1 point is earned for a peak that is to the right
(dashed peak) above. of peak Y and that has the correct height.

3 S8 + 8 OH 8 S3 + 4 HOOH
In an experiment, a student studies the kinetics of the reaction represented above and obtains the data shown
in the following table.

Initial [S8] Initial


Experiment Initial [OH ] Reaction Rate
(M) (M) (M/s)
Trial 1 0.100 0.0100 0.699

Trial 2 0.300 0.0100 2.10

Trial 3 0.300 ? 4.19

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2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 1 (continued)

(e) Use the data in the table to do the following.


(i) Determine the order of the reaction with respect to S8 . Justify your answer.

The reaction is first order with respect to S8 . Comparing trials 1 and 2,


tripling [S8] while keeping [OH ] constant results in the tripling of
the initial reaction rate.
OR
x y 1 point is earned for the correct
k order and a valid justification.
x y
k
x y
M k
3.00 = 3.00 x x = 1
M k x y

(ii) Determine the value of [OH ] that was used in trial 3, considering that the reaction is first order
with respect to OH . Justify your answer.

Comparing trials 2 and 3, [S8] is kept constant and the


initial reaction rate doubles. Since the reaction is first 1 point is earned for the correct concentration
order with respect to OH , the concentration of OH in of OH and a valid justification.
trial 3 must be 2 0.0100 M = 0.0200 M.

The next day the student conducts trial 4 using the same concentrations of S8 and OH as in trial 1, but the
reaction occurs at a much slower rate than the reaction in trial 1. The student observes that the temperature in
the lab is lower than it was the day before.

(f) Using particle-level reasoning, provide TWO explanations that help to account for the fact that the
reaction rate is slower in trial 4.

The temperature was lower on the second day so the average


1 point is earned for a valid
kinetic energy of the reactant particles was lower. Therefore,
explanation that addresses the effect
there were fewer collisions between particles with sufficient
on energy of collisions.
energy to react.
1 point is earned for a valid
Since the temperature was lower, the kinetic energy was lower
explanation that addresses the effect
and the average speed of the particles was lower. At the lower
on frequency of collisions.
speeds, the reactant particles collided less frequently.

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AP® CHEMISTRY
2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 2
Answer the following questions relating to HCl, CH3Cl, and CH3Br.

(a) HCl(g) can be prepared by the reaction of concentrated H2SO4(aq) with NaCl(s), as represented by the
following equation.
H2SO4(aq) + 2 NaCl(s) 2 HCl(g) + Na2SO4(aq)

(i) A student claims that the reaction is a redox reaction. Is the student correct? Justify your answer.

1 point is earned for indicating the


No, the student is not correct. None of the oxidation numbers of
student is incorrect and for providing
the elements change (H = +1, S = +6, O = 2, Na = +1, Cl = 1).
a valid justification.

(ii) Calculate the mass, in grams, of NaCl(s) needed to react with excess H2SO4(aq) to produce 3.00 g
of HCl(g). Assume that the reaction goes to completion.

1 point is earned for determining


the number of moles of HCl(g)
(may be implicit).

= 4.81 g NaCl 1 point is earned for calculating a mass


of NaCl based on the number of moles
of HCl(g).

HCl(g) can react with methanol vapor, CH3OH(g), to produce CH3Cl(g), as represented by the following
equation.
CH3OH(g) + HCl(g) CH3Cl(g) + H2O(g) Kp = 4.7 103 at 400 K

(b) CH3OH(g) and HCl(g) are combined in a 10.00 L sealed reaction vessel and allowed to reach
equilibrium at 400 K. The initial partial pressure of CH3OH(g) in the vessel is 0.250 atm and that of
HCl(g) is 0.600 atm.
(i) Does the total pressure in the vessel increase, decrease, or remain the same as equilibrium is
approached? Justify your answer in terms of the reaction stoichiometry.

The pressure will remain the same. The reaction


stoichiometry shows that two moles of gaseous
1 point is earned for the correct
reactants produce two moles of gaseous products.
answer and a valid justification.
Because the number of moles of gas does not change,
the pressure does not change.

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2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 2 (continued)

(ii) Considering the value of Kp , calculate the final partial pressure of HCl(g) after the system inside
the vessel reaches equilibrium at 400 K.

The value of Kp is large, so the reaction will proceed to the right until the limiting
reactant is essentially used up. Thus practically all of the CH3OH(g) will react and
the final pressure of HCl(g) is 0.600 0.250 = 0.350 atm.

1 point is earned
CH3OH(g) HCl(g) CH3Cl(g) H2O(g) for the correct
answer.
I 0.250 atm 0.600 atm 0 0
C x x +x +x
E 0.250 x 0 0.600 x 0.350 +x 0.250 +x 0.250

The final pressure of HCl(g) is 0.350 atm at equilibrium.

(iii) The student claims that the final partial pressure of CH3OH(g) at equilibrium is very small but not
exactly zero. Do you agree or disagree with the student’s claim? Justify your answer.

Agree. The large value of Kp means that the partial pressure of the limiting
reactant at equilibrium will be extremely small, but some CH3OH molecules must
exist for the system to be in dynamic equilibrium.
1 point is earned for
OR the correct choice and
p p a valid justification.
Kp = = 4.7 103 = p = 3.8 10 5
atm
p p p
The partial pressure of CH3OH(g) is very small but is not zero.

(c) The table below shows some data for the compounds CH3Cl and CH3Br.

Molar Mass Dipole Moment Boiling Point DHvaporization


Compound
(g/mol) (D) (K) (kJ/mol)
CH3Cl 50.5 1.87 249 18.9
CH3Br 94.9 1.81 277 22.8

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2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 2 (continued)

(i) Identify all the types of intermolecular forces that exist among molecules in CH3Cl(l).

London dispersion forces and dipole-dipole forces 1 point is earned for identifying both types of forces.

(ii) In terms of intermolecular forces, explain why the boiling point of CH3Br(l) is greater than that of
CH3Cl(l).

The electron cloud in CH3Br is larger and more polarizable than that
of CH3Cl. As a result the London dispersion forces are stronger in CH3Br 1 point is earned for a
compared to those in CH3Cl and consequently the boiling point of CH3Br valid explanation.
is higher than that of CH3Cl.

A 2.00 mL sealed glass vial containing a 1.00 g sample of CH3Cl(l) is stored in a freezer at 233 K.
Calculate the pressure in the vial at 298 K assuming that all the CH3Cl(l) vaporizes.

PV = nRT
1.00 g CH3Cl
n= = 0.0198 mol
50.5 g/mol CH3Cl
1 point is earned for the correct
pressure with the correct units.
nRT
P
V
= 242 atm

(ii) Explain why it would be unsafe to remove the vial from the freezer and leave it on a lab bench
at 298 K.

At room temperature the liquid will vaporize. Consequently the glass 1 point is earned for
vial may not be strong enough to withstand the increase in pressure. a valid explanation.

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Question 3

3 Cu+(aq) + Au3+(aq) 3 Cu2+(aq) + Au(s)

A student studying the reaction represented above constructs a voltaic cell as shown in the diagram below.
The cell contains an Au(s) electrode in a beaker containing 1.00 M Au(NO3)3(aq) and a Pt(s) electrode in a
beaker containing 1.00 M CuNO3(aq) and 1.00 M Cu(NO3)2(aq).

The standard reduction potentials associated with the cell are given in the following table.

Half-reaction E (V)
Cu2+(aq) + e Cu+(aq) 0.16

Au3+(aq) + 3 e Au(s) 1.50

(a) Calculate the value of the standard cell potential, E .

E = 1.50 V – 0.16 V = 1.34 V 1 point is earned for the correct answer.

(b) Does the mass of the Pt(s) electrode increase, decrease, or remain the same as the cell operates? Justify
your answer.

The mass of the Pt(s) electrode remains the same because


1 point is earned for the correct
the Pt does not react and no Cu atoms will be deposited
answer and a valid justification.
on the Pt electrode.

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2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 3 (continued)

An expanded view of the Au half-cell before the reaction occurs is shown in box A below. An expanded
view of the Au electrode after the cell operates for a period of time is shown in box B below.

(c) Assuming that the representation in box A is accurate, explain what is wrong with the stoichiometry
represented in box B.

In a redox reaction, the number of electrons lost must


equal the number gained, so the net charge must be
1 point is earned for a valid explanation.
zero. The total charge of the cations is less than the
total charge of the anions.

(d) After the cell has operated for 30.0 minutes, 0.185 g of Au(s) is deposited on the Au electrode.
(i) Calculate the number of moles of Au(s) deposited.

0.185 g Au = 9.39 10 4 mol Au 1 point is earned for the correct calculation


of the number of moles.

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2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 3 (continued)

(ii) Calculate the average current that passed through the cell during the deposition of Au(s).

1 point is earned for the correct number


e
of electrons transferred
q e (may be implicit).
I = =
t
1 point is earned for the correct
= 0.151 C/s = 0.151 A calculation of the current.

The student adds some NaCl(s) to the half-cell that contains Cu+(aq) and Cu2+(aq), and a precipitate forms.

(e) Based on the information in the following table, determine the identity of the precipitate. Justify your
answer with a calculation.

Compound Solubility (mol/L) Ksp

CuCl ? 1.7 7
10
CuCl2 5.2 ?

For CuCl:
CuCl(s) Cu+(aq) + Cl (aq) 1 point is earned for a correct
Ksp = [Cu+][Cl ] calculation of the solubility of CuCl.
1.7 10 7 = x2
x = 4.1 10 4 M = solubility of CuCl 1 point is earned for identifying the
CuCl has a lower solubility compared to CuCl2 and will precipitate with the lower solubility.
precipitate first.

(f) Write the net ionic equation for the formation of the precipitate.

1 point is earned for the equation


Cu+(aq) + Cl (aq) CuCl(s) consistent with the answer to part (e).

(g) The student predicts that the cell voltage will increase after the precipitate forms. Do you agree with the
student’s prediction? Justify your answer.

Disagree.
1 point is earned for
The precipitate will decrease [Cu+], which will cause Q to increase and a correct choice and a
become closer to the value of K. Therefore, the voltage of the cell will valid justification.
decrease.

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2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 4

To spectrophotometrically determine the mass percent of cobalt in an ore containing cobalt and some inert
materials, solutions with known [Co2+ ] are prepared and the absorbance of each of the solutions is measured
at the wavelength of optimum absorbance. The data are used to create a calibration plot, shown below.

A 0.630 g sample of the ore is completely dissolved in concentrated HNO3(aq). The mixture is diluted with
water to a final volume of 50.00 mL. Assume that all the cobalt in the ore sample is converted to Co2+(aq).

(a) What is the [Co2+ ] in the solution if the absorbance of a sample of the solution is 0.74 ?

1 point is earned for a concentration


An absorbance of 0.74 corresponds to a concentration
that is consistent with an absorbance
of 0.0130 M (0.0125 M to 0.0135 M).
of 0.74 on the graph.

(b) Calculate the number of moles of Co2+(aq) in the 50.00 mL solution.

1 point is earned for the correct


Co2+ calculation of the number of moles.

(c) Calculate the mass percent of Co in the 0.630 g sample of the ore.

1 point is earned for a correct calculation of


the number of grams of Co that is consistent
with the number of moles of Co2+ in part (b).
(may be implicit)

1 point is earned for a correct calculation


of the mass percent that is consistent
with the number of grams of Co.

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2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 5

3 Ag(s) + 4 HNO3(aq) 3 AgNO3(aq) + NO(g) + 2 H2O(l)

A student investigates the reaction between Ag(s) and HNO3(aq) represented by the equation above.

(a) Predict the sign of the entropy change, S , for the reaction. Justify your answer.

The entropy change is positive because the reaction has 1 point is earned for the correct
one mole of gas in the products and none in the reactants. answer and a valid justification.

(b) Use the information in the table below to calculate the value of DHrxn , the standard enthalpy change for
the reaction, in kJ/molrxn .

Substance HNO3(aq) AgNO3(aq) NO(g) H2O(l)


Standard Heat of Formation,
DH f (kJ/mol) 207 101 90. 286

DH rxn = 3( 101) + 90. +2( 286) 4( 207) 1 point is earned for the correct
= 43 kJ/molrxn calculation of the value of DH rxn

(c) Based on your answers to parts (a) and (b), is the reaction more likely to be thermodynamically favorable
at 25 C, or at 95 C? Justify your answer.

G = H T S
1 point is earned for the
The reaction is more likely to be favorable at 95 C. At the higher temperature, correct answer and a
the term T S is larger and positive; thus, when subtracted from H , the valid justification.
value of G is more likely to be negative.

(d) The student runs the reaction using a 3 to 4 mole ratio of Ag(s) to HNO3(aq). Suggest a method the
student can use to isolate solid AgNO3 from the other products of the reaction.

The student can evaporate the water, leaving behind solid


1 point is earned for a valid method.
silver nitrate.

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2018 SCORING GUIDELINES

Question 6

A student is asked to determine what mass of butane, C4H10(g), needs to burn in order to raise the temperature
of a 1650 g beaker of sand by 180. C. The student is provided with the equipment shown below.

(a) Calculate the amount of heat energy needed to raise the temperature of the beaker of sand by 180. C.
Assume that all the heat energy from the burner is transferred to the beaker of sand and that the specific
heat capacity of the beaker and sand together is 0.810 J/(g C).

q = mc T
1 point is earned for the correct
q = calculation of the energy.

The student runs the experiment and collects the data shown in the table below.

Mass of the beaker and sand 1650 g


Mass of butane burner before combustion 225.26 g
Mass of butane burner after combustion 218.20 g
Initial temperature of the beaker of sand 20. C
Final temperature of the beaker of sand 200. C

(b) Calculate the number of moles of butane that was used in the experiment. Report your answer to the
appropriate number of significant figures.

225.26 g 218.20 g = 7.06 g butane 1 point is earned for the correct calculation
of the number of moles with the correct
= 0.121 mol butane
number of significant figures.

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Question 6 (continued)

The combustion of butane is represented by the equation below.

C4H10(g) + O2(g) 5 H2O(g) + 4 CO2(g) DH rxn = 2659 kJ/molrxn

(c) Using the balanced equation for the combustion of butane and DHrxn , determine the amount of heat
energy produced by the combustion of butane in the experiment.

1 point is earned for the correct determination of


0.121 mol butane = 322 kJ the amount of heat produced.

(d) The student claims that some of the heat energy produced by the combustion of butane was lost to the air
surrounding the system. Do your answers to parts (a) and (c) support the student’s claim? Explain

Yes, the answers to parts (a) and (c) support the hypothesis. The
amount of heat generated from the combustion of the butane is
1 point is earned for a correct choice
greater than the amount of heat required to cause the temperature
and a valid explanation.
change of the sand, indicating that some of the heat from the
combustion of butane was lost.

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Question 7

Solution X 100 mL of 0.10 M NaOH(aq) is mixed with 100 mL of 0.10 M HBr(aq)

Solution Y 100 mL of 0.10 M NaBr(aq) is mixed with 100 mL of 0.10 M HBr(aq)

Solution Z 100 mL of 0.10 M HC2H3O2(aq) is mixed with 100 mL of 0.10 M NaC2H3O2(aq)

A student prepares three solutions, X, Y, and Z, as described in the table above. The values of Ka for the
acidic species in the solutions are given in the table below.

Species Ka

HBr(aq) >>1 (very large)


HC2H3O2(aq) 1.8 10 5

(a) Using the information above, write the letters of the solutions in the boxes below to rank the solutions in
order of increasing pH. Explain your reasoning for the ranking.

Lowest pH Highest pH
Y < Z < X

Solution Y is a strong acid solution with a very low pH.


1 point is earned for the correct ordering.
Solution Z is a buffer solution with pKa = 4.74 = pH.
Solution X is a neutral solution created from equimolar 1 point is earned for a valid
amounts of a strong acid and a strong base that react in explanation of the ranking.
a 1:1 ratio.

(b) Does the pH of solution Y increase, decrease, or remain the same when 100 mL of water is added?
Justify your answer.

The pH of the solution increases. The addition of water will 1 point is earned for the correct
decrease [H+]; therefore, the pH will increase. choice and a valid justification.

(c) The student adds 0.0010 mol of NaOH(s) to solution Y, and adds 0.0010 mol of NaOH(s) to solution Z .
Assume that the volume of each solution does not change when the NaOH(s) is added. The pH of
solution Y changes much more than the pH of solution Z changes. Explain this observation

Solution Z is a buffer system (composed of a weak acid 1 point is earned for a valid explanation.
and its conjugate base), whereas solution Y is not a buffer.

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Scoring Worksheet

The following provides a scoring worksheet and conversion table


used for calculating a composite score of the exam.
2018 AP Chemistry Scoring Worksheet

Section I: Multiple Choice

1.0000 =
Number Correct Weighted Section I Score
(out of 50) (Do not round)

Section II: Free Response

Question 1 1.0869 =
(out of 10) (Do not round)

Question 2 1.0869 =
(out of 10) (Do not round)

Question 3 1.0869 =
(out of 10) (Do not round)

Question 4 1.0869 =
(out of 4) (Do not round)

Question 5 1.0869 =
(out of 4) (Do not round)

Question 6 1.0869 =
(out of 4) (Do not round)

Question 7 1.0869 =
(out of 4) (Do not round)

Sum =
Weighted
Section II
Score
(Do not round)

Composite Score

+ =
Weighted Weighted Composite Score
Section I Score Section II Score (Round to nearest
whole number)

AP Score Conversion Chart


Chemistry
Composite
Score Range AP Score
75-100 5
60-74 4
44-59 3
30-43 2
0-29 1
Question Descriptors and Performance Data

The following contains tables showing the content assessed,


the correct answer, and how AP students performed on each question.
Multiple-Choice Questions

Question Learning Objective(s) Essential Knowledge Science Practice(s) Key % Correct


1 1.4, 1.18, 3.1 1A3, 1E2, 3 1.4, 1.5, 7.1 D 76
2 1.3 1A2 2.2, 6.1 B 82
3 2.22 2D 4.2, 6.4 D 75
4 2.1, 2.16 2B3 6.2, 6.4, 7.1 D 74
5 2.4 2A2 1.4, 6.4 C 63
6 2.9 2A3 1.1, 1.4 D 75
7 3.2 3A1 1.5, 7.1 C 59
8 3.12 3C3 2.2, 2.3, 6.4 D 68
9 1.11, 1.6 1C1, 1B1 3.1, 5.1 C 55
10 1.9 1C1 6.4 D 58
11 6.12 6C1 1.4, 6.4 D 25
12 4.4 4B1 7.1 C 62
13 2.4, 2.6 2A2 1.4, 2.2, 2.3, 6.4 A 64
14 3.10, 5.10 3C1, 5D2 1.4, 5.1, 6.1 D 52
15 6.5 6A3 2.2 B 72
16 2.6 2A2 2.2, 2.3 A 69
17 2.16 2B3 6.2 C 52
18 2.21 2C4 1.4 B 40
19 2.14 2B2 1.4, 6.4 C 28
20 6.8 6B1 1.4, 6.4 A 58
21 5.7 5B4 4.2, 5.1, 6.4 A 14
22 1.19 1E2 4.2, 5.1, 6.4 B 51
23 1.19 1E2 4.2, 5.1, 6.4 C 66
24 6.17 6C1 6.4 D 56
25 2.24 2D1 1.1, 6.2, 7.1 C 54
26 2.11 2B1 6.2, 6.4 D 55
27 5.2 5A1 1.1, 1.4, 7.1 A 54
28 6.23 6C3 5.1, 6.4 D 52
29 6.21 6C3 2.2, 2.3, 6.4 A 70
30 6.20 6C2 6.4 A 61
31 6.15 6C1 2.2, 2.3, 6.4 D 41
32 2.2 2 7.2 D 70
33 3.3 3A2 2.2, 5.1 B 47
34 3.8 3B3 6.1 C 41
35 5.18 5E5 1.3, 7.2 C 52
36 6.9 6B1 4.2 B 43
37 6.4 6A3 2.2, 6.4 C 61
38 6.2 6A2 2.2 D 57
39 6.16 6C1 2.2, 6.4 D 50
Question Learning Objective(s) Essential Knowledge Science Practice(s) Key % Correct
40 4.3 4A3 2.1, 2.2 A 60
41 5.8 5C2 2.3, 7.1, 7.2 C 72
42 6.2 6A2 2.2 C 64
43 1.16 1D3 4.2, 5.1 D 44
44 5.13 5E2 2.2, 2.3, 6.4 B 52
45 6.5, 1.4 6A3, 1A3 2.2, 7.1 D 19
46 6.8 6B1 1.4, 6.4 B 53
47 4.5 4B2 6.2 D 72
48 4.9 4D2 6.2, 7.2 C 75
49 5.12 5E1 1.4 D 86
50 5.5 5B1, 5B2 2.2 D 70

Free-Response Questions

Question Learning Objective(s) Essential Knowledge Science Practice(s) Mean Score


1 1.7, 1.10, 2.21, 4.1, 4.2 1B2, 1C1, 2C4, 4A1, 4A2 5.1, 6.2, 6.1, 1.4, 4.2, 6.4 5.25
2.2, 2.3, 6.2, 2.2, 5.1, 6.1,
2 2.6, 2.16, 3.3, 3.8, 6.6, 6.7 2A2, 2B3, 3A2, 3B3, 6A3, 6A4 4.88
6.4
3 3.1, 3.12, 3.13 2A2, 3C3 1.5, 7.1, 2.2, 2.3, 6.4, 5.1 3.35
4 1.1, 1.4, 1.16 1A1, 1A3, 1D3 6.1, 7.1, 4.2, 5.1 2.09
4.2, 5.1, 6.4, 2.3, 7.1, 7.2,
5 1.19, 5.8, 5.12, 5.13 1E2, 5C2, 5E1, 5E2 1.70
1.4, 2.2
6 3.3, 5.7 3A2, 5B4 2.2, 5.1, 4.2, 6.4 2.00
7 6.18, 6.19, 6.20 6C2 2.3, 4.2, 6.4, 5.1 0.82
AP Chemistry

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