SECTION 1

Topic: Are parents the best teachers?

Directions: Do you agree or disagree with the following statement? Parents are the best
teachers. Use specific reasons and examples to support your answer.
 SECTION 2

1. HARSH： 4. SECURE：
(A) angry (A) safe
(B) poor (B) secret
(C) useless (C) aware
(D) severe (D) knotty
(E) cold (E) unseen

2. INDICATE: 5. ALIEN:
(A) look at (A) unclear
(B) point out (B) brutal
(C) search for (C) futile
(D) help with (D) valuable
(E) meet with (E) strange

3. BLEAK: 6. CHRONIC:
(A) cheerless (A) legal
(B) trembling (B) elaborate
(C) quiet (C) difficult
(D) timid (D) doubtful
(E) unknown (E) persistent
7. QUENCH： 14. HEADSTRONG：
(A) demean (A) hysterical
(B) satisfy (B) foreign
(C) withdraw (C) useless
(D) compare (D) delicate
(E) complete (E) stubborn
8. SEVERE: 15. CODDLE:
(A) limited (A) carry
(B) long (B) baby
(C) essential (C) riddle
(D) extreme (D) assume
(E) frozen (E) waddle
9. RANSACK: 16. KEEN:
(A) denounce publicly (A) nice
(B) cover completely (B) forgiving
(C) make secure (C) sharp
(D) act quickly (D) rotund
(E) search thoroughly (E) dense
10. SUMMIT: 17. MURKY:
(A) slope (A) musty
(B) plateau (B) gloomy
(C) landscape (C) religious
(D) peak (D) forgetful
(E) island (E) sentimental
11. ALIAS: 18. TRYING:
(A) deep emotion (A) weathered
(B) formal relationship (B) morose
(C) assumed name (C) impossible
(D) blatant falsehood (D) strenuous
(E) presumed location (E) easy
12. PHOBIA： 19. ADHERE：
(A) anxiety (A) complete
(B) illumination (B) listen
(C) dismissal (C) connect
(D) retraction (D) alter
(E) height (E) stick
13. PROPEL: 20. ENIGMATIC:
(A) project (A) confused
(B) intend (B) happy
(C) repel (C) unfortunate
(D) belie (D) attractive
(E) fly (E) mysterious
21. CLANDESTINE： 26. DISSEMINATE：
(A) dated (A) collect
(B) exclusive (B) collate
(C) secret (C) strip
(D) overt (D) spread
(E) fortunate (E) disagree

22. BOUNTEOUS: 27. CHAGRIN:

(A) abundant (A) anger
(B) energetic (B) delight
(C) industrious (C) alter
(D) elastic (D) embarrass
(E) mutinous (E) wreck

23. DIVERGE: 28. VALOR:

(A) stay (A) foreboding
(B) analyze (B) courage
(C) distract (C) hate
(D) annoy (D) disclosure
(E) change course (E) treason

24. BENIGN: 29. NONCHALANT:

(A) malignant (A) impoverished
(B) initial (B) interested
(C) virulent (C) indifferent
(D) gentle (D) persecuted
(E) blessed (E) caring

25. CAUCUS: 30. LIAISON:

(A) corpse (A) laziness
(B) meeting (B) scarf
(C) partnership (C) permission
(D) cosmetic (D) association
(E) dispersal (E) remedy
31. Subject is to predicate as senator is to______.
(A) president
(B) capitol
(C) representative
(D) senate
(E) congress

32. Pungent is to odor as______.

(A) infect is to spread
(B) proverb is to paragraph
(C) resent is to denial
(D) pervade is to atmosphere
(E) intense is to emotion

33. Exploit is to adventure as______.

(A) safari is to expedition
(B) school is to field trip
(C) attack is to hunt
(D) chase is to escape
(E) rule is to governor

34. Spread is to scatter as separate is to______.

(A) distribute
(B) group
(C) displace
(D) reap
(E) integrate

35. Exuberant is to mood as adroit is to______.

(A) hand
(B) dexterous
(C) adept
(D) movement
(E) proficient

36. Defiance is to opposition as exertion is to______.

(A) restraint
(B) endeavor
(C) vigor
(D) challenge
(E) expert

37. Food is to nutrition as light is to______.

(A) reading
(B) vision
(C) bulb
(D) electricity
(E) watt

38. Perpetuity is to impermanence as interminable is to______.

(A) brief
(B) incessant
(C) occasional
(D) impertinent
(E) eternal

39. Erratic is to predictable as exorbitant is to______.

(A) small
(B) implicit
(C) productive
(D) absorbent
(E) reasonable

40. Comment is to speech as______.

(A) written is to spoken
(B) question is to answer
(C) exclamation is to statement
(D) note is to letter
(E) prose is to essay

41. Redundant is to necessary as______.

(A) plain is to valuable
(B) desirable is to pretty
(C) fake is to expensive
(D) original is to needed
(E) vague is to explicit

42. Coral is to pink as aquamarine is to______.

(A) bland
(B) deep
(C) blue
(D) rosy
(E) shady

43. Fan is to air as heart is to______.

(A) lung
(B) power
(C) wind
(D) blood
(E) heat

44. Palette is to colors as______.

(A) collage is to images
(B) paint is to canvases
(C) kaleidoscope is to glass
(D) side is to pictures
(E) brush is to pictures

45. Salutation is to letter as______.

(A) heading is to stationary
(B) introduction is to book
(C) handwriting is to analysis
(D) postscript is to note
(E) postcard is to picture

46. Quill is to porcupine as______.

(A) pouch is to kangaroo
(B) scent is to skunk
(C) wings is to duck
(D) needle is to thread
(E) tail is to pig

47. Caterpillar is to butterfly as______.

(A) tadpole is to frog
(B) worm is to bait
(C) nest is to chick
(D) salmon is to fish
(E) egg is to dinosaur

48. Budget is to cost as______.

(A) definition is to vocabulary
(B) demonstration is to argument
(C) foundation is to concrete
(D) blueprint is to design
(E) ratio is to value

49. Juror is to judge as soothsayer is to______.

(A) soften
(B) report
(C) punish
(D) deny
(E) predict

50. Buffer is to impact as______.

(A) boundary is to design
(B) bandage is to heal
(C) injury is to fault
(D) antiseptic is to infection
(E) median is to lane

51. Astute is to acumen as______.

(A) clumsy is to skill
(B) vacuous is to intelligence
(C) diplomatic is to tact
(D) rainbow is to hue
(E) indigent is to wealth

52. Judge is to adjudicate as______.

(A) champion is to defend
(B) doctor is to sublimate
(C) bodyguard is to guide
(D) suburb is to neighborhood
(E) lawyer is to propitiate

53. Imperceptible is to notice as______.

(A) assuage is to repair
(B) enviable is to foresee
(C) insoluble is to discern
(D) invisible is to sense
(E) intangible is to touch

54. Claustrophobic is to enclosure as______.

(A) misogynist is to women
(B) miser is to money
(C) narcissist is to sell
(D) myth is to tragedy
(E) glutton is to food

55. Hammer is to carpenter as______.

(A) author is to typewriter
(B) awl is to cobbler
(C) scale is to musician
(D) computer is to printer
(E) saw is to timber

56. Gullible is to bilk as______.

(A) vanquish is to disappear
(B) valiant is to cow
(C) affluent is to impoverish
(D) confident is to perturb
(E) docile is to lead

57. Overblown is to exaggerated as______.

(A) anachronism is to timely
(B) malapropism is to accurate
(C) warrant is to justify
(D) indefinite is to tomorrow
(E) requirement is to optional
58. Ruthless is to pity as______.
(A) ingenious is to character
(B) bewildered is to comprehension
(C) merciful is to kindness
(D) elderly is to longevity
(E) enamored is to love

59. Clown is to zany as______.

(A) jester is to lugubrious
(B) canvas is to paint
(C) showoff is to flamboyant
(D) zealot is to patrician
(E) spy is to effusive

60. Horn is to blow as harp is to______.

(A) pluck
(B) denounce
(C) pants
(D) democracy
(E) play
 SECTION 3
1. Which of the following is NOT a multiple of 3?
(A) 20
(B) 30
(C) 36
(D) 45
(E) 96

Questions 2‐3 refer to the following definition.

For all real numbers m, * m = 10m ‐ 10.
2. * 8 =______.
(A) 70
(B) 60
(C) 17
(D) 7
(E) 0

3. If * m = 100, then m =______.

(A) 11
(B) 12
(C) 13
(D) 120
(E) 130

4. At Nifty Thrifty Buy “N Sell”, an item that usually sells for $12 is on sale for
$8. What approximate discount does that represent?
(A) 10%
(B) 25%
(C) 33%
(D) 50%
(E) 66%

5. In Jackie’s golf club, 14 of the 21 members are right‐handed. What is the ratio of left‐
handed members to right‐handed members?
(A) 1:2
(B) 2:1
(C) 2:3
(D) 3:4
(E) 4:3

6. The sum of five consecutive positive integers is 55. What is the square of the greatest of
these integers?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 13
(D) 81
(E) 169
7. 22 x 23 x 24 = ______.
(A) 24
(B) 64
(C) 28
(D) 29
(E) 218

8. If the area of a square is 121 s2, what is the length of one side of the square?
(A) 121s2
(B) 11s2
(C) 121s
(D) 11s
(E) 11

9. If 5 books cost d dollars, how many books can be purchased for 7 dollars?
7𝑑
(A)
5
(B) 35d
𝑑
(C)
35
35
(D)
𝑑
5𝑑
(E)
7

10. If g is an even integer, h is an odd integer, and j is the product of g and h, which of the
following must be true?
(A) j is a fraction.
(B) j is an odd integer.
(C) j is divisible by 2.
(D) j is between g and h.
(E) j is greater than 0.

5
11. What is the reciprocal of ?
6
1
(A)
6
5
(B)
6
6
(C)
5
(D) 5
(E) 6

1 1
12. If N = 2, then N =______.
4 8
1
(A)
2
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 8
(E) 16

13. In Figure 1, the number of shaded triangles is what fractional part of the total number of
triangles?

1
(A)
3
2
(B)
5
2
(C)
3
4
(D)
5
3
(E)
2

14. If the largest of five consecutive whole numbers is 11, then the average of these
numbers is______.
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 10

2 3 1
15.
3 6 4
______
1
(A)
12
1
(B)
6
3
(C)
4
(D) 1
(E) 2

3
16. If cats sleep of every day, how many full days would a cat sleep in a five‐day period?
5
1
(A)
4
3
(B)
4
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) 4

17. What is the least number that can be added to 2,042 to produce a result divisible by 9?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6

18. An art club of 7 boys and 6 girls makes craft projects. If the girls average 3 projects each
and the boys average 4 projects each, what is the total number of projects produced by
this group?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C) 22
(D) 23
(E) 46

19. The area of a rectangle with width 4 and length 10 is equal to the area of a triangle with
base 8 and height of______.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 10

Questions 20‐21 refer to the following definition.

For all real numbers r and s, r ♣ s=(r s) ‐ (r + s).
20. 8♣4 =______.
(A) 20
(B) 16
(C) 12
(D) 8
(E) 4

21. If L(5♣4) =33, then L =______.

(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
(E) 7

22. Jessie scores an 89, 87 and 92 on her first 3 exams. What must she score on her fourth
exam to receive an average of 91?
(A) 92
(B) 96
(C) 98
(D) 99
(E) 100

23. Solve for x: 3x + 8 = 10x ‐ 13

5
(A)
7
5
(B) ‐
7
(C) ‐35
(D) ‐3
(E) 3

24. If the price of a handbag is $75.00 before a discount of 25 %, what is the final discounted
price?
(A) $11. 25
(B) $60. 00
(C) S63. 75
(D) $75. 00
(E) $56. 25

25. Find the height of a triangle whose base is 15 inches and whose area is 150 square
inches.
(A) 5 inches
(B) 5 square inches
(C) 10 inches
(D) 10 square inches
(E) 20 inches
 SECTION 4
On May 18, 1980, in Washington State, the volcano Mount Saint Helens erupted,
sending a cloud of dust 15 miles into the air. The explosion was not unexpected; the
earth's crust had shaken for weeks beforehand, providing people in the surrounding area
with plenty of advance warning. In spite of these danger signals, no one was prepared
5 for the extent of the blast; over the course of several weeks, the volcano's eruption
ripped the top 1,300 feet off the mountain, resulting in a landslide that was the largest
in recorded history. 540 million tons of ash from the volcano were spread over three
states, altering the earth’s weather patterns for several years afterward. One thing
missing from the initial eruption was fluid lava usually identified with volcanic activity.
10 Later eruptions emitted a thick and oozing lava. Thick lava is easily outrun because it
moves extremely slowly. In addition, thick lava creates taller volcanoes because it often
cools and hardens instead of flowing down the volcano’s sides.
1. This passage is primarily about______.
(A) the difficulty of predicting volcanic activity
(B) a contrast between different forms of lava
(C) a story of an unusual geological event
(D) the factors that cause landslides
(E) the geological history of Washington state

2. As used in line 4, the word “advance” means______.

(A) moving forward
(B) undetected
(C) extremely urgent
(D) in the past
(E) ahead of time

3. According to the passage, all of the following were caused by the Mr. St. Helens eruption
EXCEPT_______ .
(A) changes in the earth's climate
(B) a massive landslide
(C) the emission of clouds of ash
(D) tidal waves
(E) streams of lava

4. It can be inferred from the passage that fluid lave______.

(A) destroyed many forests in Washington
(B) is only found in the United States
(C) is not easily outrun
(D) is very thick
(E) creates tall volcanoes

5. The author’s style is best described as______.

(A) skeptical (B) mysterious (C) informative
(D) surprised (E) dramatic

6. The author most likely mentions “providing people in the surrounding area with plenty of
advance warning” in order to______.
(A) criticize people who did not evacuate on time
(B) convey the importance of volcano warning systems
(C) indicate that no one was hurt in the blast
(D) show that experts thought they knew what was coming
(E) describe how experts were not seeing fluid lava
 Hope is the thing with feathers
That perches in the soul.
And sings the tune without the words
And never stops at all,
5 And sweetest in the gale is heard;
And sore must be the storm
That could abash1 the little bird
That kept so many warm.
I’ve heard it in the chillest land,
10 And on the strangest sea;
Yet, never, in extremity.
It asked a crumb of me.

1
discourage
15 “Hope” by Emily Dickinson
7. In this poem, hope is compared to______.
(A) a sea (B) a storm (C) a song
(D) a gale (E) a bird

8. What is the poet saying in the last stanza of the poem?

(A) The potential for hope is always present but it takes a great effort to make it a reality.
(B) The bird is very hungry because it is constantly singing and never takes any time to eat.
(C) It is terrible to imagine a world without hope and we must therefore do everything
possible to preserve our hopes.
(D) The bird continues to sing through all conditions.
(E) Hope can be found anywhere and never asks anything in return for its loyalty.

9. The lines “the little bird/That kept so many warm” in the second stanza refer to the fact
That______.
(A) hope has comforted a great many people over the years
(B) the bird provided protection before it was destroyed in a storm
(C) the feathers of birds have traditionally provided protection against the cold
(D) hope is a good last resort when faced with a difficult situation
(E) hope has often proven useless in the face of real problems

10. The attitude of the speaker in this poem can best be described as______.
(A) respectful (B) angry (C) nervous
(D) grateful (E) unconcerned

11. The term “sore” most nearly means______.

(A) wet (B) hurt (C) kind
(D) angry (E) severe
 The Big Bang theory, an explanation of the origins of our universe, is one of the
greatest intellectual achievements of the twentieth century. According to this theory,
about ten to twenty million years ago, the matter of which the universe is made was
infinitely tightly compressed. Something —called the Big Bang —turned this matter into
5 a gigantic and flew away from its compressed state, bits of it became glued together to
create galaxies and, later, stars and planets. The motion of the matter that flew out of
the fireball continues today, and the universe appears to be expanding. The theory
grew out of observations of the Doppler effect. It explains that the frequency of
radiation given off by a moving body decreases as the sources get farther from the
10 observer. In 1965, scientists discovered that the radiation bathing the earth is at the
precise micro‐wave frequency that would be expected if the universe began with a big
bang. Some scientists think the expansion of the universe will continue to infinity,
while others theorize that gravity will, at some point in the far distant future, collapse
back onto itself in a “big crunch”, returning it to a state of compressed matter.
12. The best title for this passage is______.
(A) “Our Expanding Universe”
(B) “The Big Bang”
(C) “Scientific Discoveries”
(D) “The Big Crunch”
(E) “The Doppler Effect”

13. As a moving object gets farther from its source, its radiation frequency______.
(A) collapses (B) stays the same (C) grows larger
(D) grows smaller (E) expands

14. The matter of which the universe is made was originally______.

(A) growing (B) expanding (C) loosely connected
(D) decreasing. (E) tightly packed

15. According to the passage» which of the following is true?

(A) Gravity will cause the universe to collapse.
(B) Scientists believe the universe will expand infinitely.
(C) The Doppler effect created the universe.
(D) Scientists do not agree about the universe's future.
(E) Stars and planets grew out of galaxies.

16. The author of this passage thinks the Big Bang theory______.
(A) shows the frequency of radiation bathing the earth
(B) is a very important contribution to knowledge
(C) explains what happens when a moving body gets farther from its source
(D) does not explain the creation of the universe
(E) has not been proven
 Each town is built in a given site and situation. If the surrounding terrain is
Limited, most of our large cities have grown on fairly flat land. Here they have ready
accessibility as well as the important advantage of the low cost of developing and
servicing flat land. Thus, topographic differences between towns, affecting accessibility and
5 cost, can help some communities grow at the expense of others.
Nevertheless, Iandforms are more often important in determining how (that is, in
what shape) towns and cities grow than why they grow. For example, Amsterdam, a
city virtually built on water, and San Francisco, which is built on steep hills and
surrounded on three sides by water, continue to grow and prosper. Each of these has
10 developed a unique character, partly because of its physical setting. In the early days of
town buildings when sites were chosen for defense (for example, the island location of
Montreal), the Iandforms limited the towns' outward growth. Although these original
limitations have ceased to affect any but the downtown areas, some modern
communities must still adapt to their sites. The outposts of western Newfoundland,
15 which are limited to a narrow strip of land between the mountains and the ocean,
provide one picturesque example.
It has often been observed by conservationists that cities such as Vancouver,
Toronto, and Los Angeles have grown at the expense of some of our best farmland.
This phenomenon does not mean, however, that good soils are a prerequisite for urban
20 growth. Many of these cities were originally agricultural market towns and grew
because farming prospered. Only when transportation improvements enabled long‐
distance shipping of food could the city afford to “bite off the land that feeds it”. The ease
and low cost of building on flat land were also significant factors.
An example of this conflict between urban and agricultural land uses is found in the
25 Niagara Peninsula fruit belt of Ontario. This district has both sandy, well‐drained soils
and a moderate climate suited for tender‐fruit growing, a very rare combination in
Canada. However, the soils and climate, combined with its proximity to the Toronto‐
Hamilton urban industrial complex, make this region ideal for urban growth. As a
Result, some of the most valuable and irreplaceable farmland in southern Ontario has
30 been taken out of production and built on.
A pleasant climate has played a significant role in the growth of some towns and
cities. Many Florida cities have prospered because of an almost year‐round tourist
trade. Arizona’s warm dry winters attract many people, often with respiratory
diseases, to Tucson, Phoenix, and other urban centers. The famous climate of
35 southern California has been one of the major factors in its rapid urbanization and
general population growth. Much of the California boom was also due to the fact that the
film and airplane industries located there to take advantage of the sunshine and warm
winters. Thus, some urban growth can best be explained by environmental factors.
17. The main idea of this passage is______.
(A) town growth is affected by environmental factors
(B) Los Angeles grew at the expense of farmland
(C) climate is crucial to urban growth
(D) a town should be built on flat land
(E) important cities are built by water

18. From this passage one can assume that a “conservationist” is interested in______.
(A) the best use of land
(B) transportation of goods and services
(C) the creation of parks
(D) determining the growth of cities
(E) the creation of cities

19. What is most unusual about the Niagara Peninsula?

(A) Its location to cultural centers.
(B) Its sandy soil and moderate climate.
(C) Its warm, dry winters.
(D) Its abundance of flat land.
(E) Its mountains and desert.

20. In building a town today, which of the following can be inferred to be least important
based on the passage?
(A) Transportation (B) Climate (C) Flat land
(D) Defense (E) Accessibility

21. The best title of this passage is______.

(A) “Great Cities of the World”
(B) “Vancouver, Toronto, and Los Angeles: Great Cities”
(C) "Environment and Its Effects on City Growth”
(D) “The Suburb Versus the Inner City”
(E) “Population Growth”
 The kangaroo is found nowhere in the world but in Australasia. Ages ago, when
that part of our earth was cut off from the Asian mainland» this fantastic animal from
nature's long ago was also isolated. There are about two dozen species distributed
through Australia, southward to Tasmania and northward to New Guinea and
5 neighboring islands. Some are no bigger than rabbits; some can climb trees. They are
known by a variety of picturesque names: wallabies, wallaroos, potoroos, boongaries,
and paddymelons. But the kangaroo ‐‐ the one that is Australia's national symbol ‐‐ is the
great gray kangaroo of the plains, admiringly known throughout the island continent as
the Old Man, and also as Boomer, Forester, and Man of the Woods. His smaller mate* in
10 Australian talk, is called a flyer. Their baby is known as Joey.
A full‐grown kangaroo stands taller than a man, and commonly weighs 200 pounds.
Even when he sits in his favorite position, reposing on his haunches and tilting back on
the propping support of his “third leg” — his tail—his head is five feet or more above the
ground. His huge hind legs, with steel‐spring power, can send him sailing over a ten‐
15 foot fence with ease* or in a fight can beat off a dozen dogs. A twitch of his tail can
break someone's leg like a match stick.
Kangaroos provide an endless supply of tall tales to which wide‐eyed visitors are
treated in the land Down Under. The beauty of the tall tales about the kangaroo is that
they can be almost as tall as you please and still be close to fact.
22. Kangaroos are found only______.
(A) in Australasia (B) on the Asian mainland (C) in Tasmania
(D) on New Guinea (E) in Australia

23. A female kangaroo is called______.

(A) a potoroo (B) a flyer (C) the Old Man
(D) a Joey (E) a wallaby

24. The amazing jumping power of the kangaroo is chiefly due to the______.
(A) kangaroo's size
(B) kangaroo's weight
(C) support of the tail
(D) kangaroo's tilted sitting position
(E) power of the hind legs

25. Which statement is true according to the passage?

(A) A kangaroo's tail is a powerful weapon.
(B) The most widely known species of kangaroo is no larger than a rabbit.
(C) Visitors to Australia hear very little about kangaroos.
(D) Kangaroos have three legs.
(E) The name “Old Man" shows the people’s dislike of kangaroos.

26. The author believes that the stories told about kangaroos are generally______.
(A) beautiful (B) suspicious (C) true
(D) ancient (E) harmful
 One day recently, a man in a ten‐gallon hat appeared at the gate of New York’s
famous Bronx Zoo. “Just stopped by on my way through town,” he told zoo officials.
“I’ve gan animal outside I think you might like to see.
The officials raised their eyebrows and looked at each other meaningfully, but the
5 man in the hat didn’t seem to notice. He went on to introduce himself as Gene Holter.
“I call it a Zonkey,” he said calmly, “because it’s a cross between a donkey and a
zebra. I’ve got his parents out there, too.”
The zoo officials didn’t wait to hear about the parents. They left their desks and
started for the gate. Outside, Mr. Holter opened the side door of a huge truck and
10 reached inside. Calmly, he pulled out a gibbon, and hung it, by its tail, from a tree.
Then he walked past five ostriches and carried out the baby Zonkey.
Just three weeks old, the only Zonkey in the world had long ears, a face and legs
covered with candy stripes, and a body covered with brown baby fuzz. The parents
were on hand, too. The father was no ordinary zebra. He was broken to ride, and one
15 of the zoo officials realized a lifelong dream when he jumped on the zebra's back and
cantered around.
When last seen, Mr. Holter and his caravan were on their way to Dayton and then
to Anaheim, California, where they live year‐round.
27. Mr. Holter's manner was______.
(A) excitable (B) demanding (C) matter‐of‐fact
(D) personable (E) boastful

28. When Mr.Holter first approached the zoo officials, they______.

(A) laughed behind his back
(B) couldn’t wait to realize a lifelong dream
(C) thought he was telling a tall tale
(D) thought he was an interesting person
(E) were excited about his announcement

29. Mr. Holter probably made a living______.

(A) filming animals
(B) working as a zoo official
(C) traveling and showing his animals
(D) breeding animals for scientific experiments
(E) as a veterinarian
 In 1904, the U. S. Patent Office granted a patent for a board game called “The
Landlord’s Game”, which was invented by a Virginia Quaker named Lizzie Magie.
Magie was a follower of Henry George, who started a tax movement that supported the
theory that the renting of land and real estate produced an unearned increase in land
5 values that profited a few individuals (landlords) rather than the majority of the people
(tenants). George proposed a single federal tax based on land ownership; he believed
this tax would weaken the ability to form monopolies, encourage equal opportunity, and
narrow the gap between rich and poor.
Lizzie Magie wanted to spread the word about George’s proposal, making it more
10 understandable to a majority of people who were basically unfamiliar with economics.
As a result, she invented a board game that would serve as a teaching device. The
Landlord's Game was intended to explain the evils of monopolies, showing that they
repressed the possibility for equal opportunity. Her instructions read in part: “The
object of this game is not only to afford amusement to players, but to illustrate to them how,
15 under the present or prevailing system of land tenure, the landlord has an
advantage over other enterprisers, and also how the single tax would discourage
speculation.”
The board for the game was painted with forty spaces around its perimeter,
including four railroads, two utilities, twenty‐two rental properties, and a jail. There
20 were other squares directing players to go to jail, pay a luxury tax, and park. All
properties were available for rent, rather than purchase. Magie’s invention became
very popular, spreading through word of mouth, and altering slightly as it did. Since it
was not manufactured by Magie, the boards and game pieces were homemade. Rules
were explained and transmuted, from one group of friends to another. There is
25 evidence to suggest that The Landlord’s Game was played at Princeton, Harvard, and
the University of Pennsylvania.
In 1924, Magie approached George Parker (President of Parker Brothers) to see if
he was interested in purchasing the rights to her game. Parker turned her down, saying
that it was too political. The game increased in popularity, migrating north to New
30 York state, west to Michigan, and as far south as Texas. By the early 1930s, it reached
Charles Darrow in Philadelphia. In 1935, claiming to be the inventor, Darrow got a
patent for the game, and approached Parker Brothers. This time, the company loved
it, swallowed Darrow's prevarication, and not only purchased his patent, but paid him
royalties for every game sold. The game quickly became Parker Brolhers’ bestseller,
35 and made the company, and Darrow, millions of dollars.
When Parker Brothers found out that Darrow was not the true inventor of the
game, they wanted to protect their rights to the successful game, so they went back to
Lizzie Magie, now Mrs. Elizabeth Magic Phillips of Clarendon, Virginia. She agreed to a
payment of $ 500 for her patent, with no royalties, so she could stay true to the
40 original intent of her game's invention. She therefore required in return that Parker
Brothers manufacture and market The Landlord’s Game in addition to Monopoly.
However, only a few hundred games were ever produced. Monopoly went on to become
the world's bestselling board game, with an objective that is the exact opposite of the
one Magie intended: “The idea of the game is to buy and rent or sell property so
45 profitably that one becomes the wealthiest player and eventually monopolist. The game
is one of shrewd and amusing trading and excitement.”
30. In line 13, what does repressed the possibility for equal opportunity mean?
(A) Monopolies led to slavery.
(B) Monopolies were responsible for the single tax problems.
(C) Monopolies made it impossible for poorer people to follow Henry George.
(D) Monopolies were responsible for Lizzie Magie's $ 500 payment and Charles
Darrow's millions.
(E) Monopolies made it impossible for poorer people to have the same chances as the
wealthy.

31. In line 33, what does swallowed Darrow's prevarication mean?

(A) Ate his lunch.
(B) Believed his lie.
(C) Understood his problem.
(D) Played by his rules.
(E) Drank his champagne.

32. In line 24, the statement that the rules of The Landlord's Game were explained and
transmuted relies on the notion that______.
(A) when people pass along information by word of mouth, it goes through changes
(B) when people explain things to their friends, they take on a different appearance
(C) friends rely on one another for vital information
(D) it's not always easy to play by the rules
(E) word of mouth is the best way to spread information

33. In paragraph 4, the author implies that______.

(A) Parker Brothers bought the game from Charles Darrow
(B) it is not difficult to get a patent for an idea you didn't invent
(C) Monopoly made Parker Brothers and Darrow millions of dollars
(D) Lizzie Magie tried to sell her game to George Parker
(E) The Landlord's Game was popular with Quakers

34. Why did Mrs. Phillips sell her patent to Parker Brothers?
(A) So a large company would market her game and spread the word about Henry
George's single tax theory.
(B) So she could make money.
(C) So The Landlord's Game could compete with Monopoly.
(D) So the truth would be told about Charles Darrow.
(E) So she would become famous.

35. All of the following questions can be explicitly answered on the basis of the passage
EXCEPT________ ?
(A) Why did Lizzie Magie invent The Landlord’s Game
(B) Was was the object of The Landlord’s Game
(C) What were some of the properties on The Landlord’s Game board
(D) Who did Charles Darrow sell the game to
(E) How did Parker Brothers find out that Charles Darrow didn’t invent the game
 Acupuncture is a type of medical therapy that has been part of Chinese medicine
since ancient times. It involves the insertion of thin, solid needles into specific sites on
the body's surface. The belief is that the application of a needle at one particular point
produces a specific response at a second point. It is based on the ancient Chinese
5 philosophy that human beings are miniature versions of the universe and that the forces
that control nature also control health. These forces are divided between two main
principles called the yin and the yang, which have an opposite but complementary effect
on each other. For example, one force keeps the body's temperature from rising too
high and the other keeps it from dropping too low. When they are in balance, the body
10 maintains a constant, normal state. Disease occurs when these forces get out of
balance.
Although acupuncture had been used in Western countries during many periods, it
was not until the 1970s that it gained widespread interest, when it was determined that
it could be used to control pain during surgery. The mechanism for its effectiveness is
15 still a mystery, but it has become a very popular technique in many countries in the
treatment of various diseases and medical problems.
36. Which of the following is true about acupuncture?
I. Although originally only a part of Chinese medicine, it is now practiced in many
Western countries.
II. It has been used to control pain during surgery since ancient times.
III. The mechanism for its effectiveness was discovered during the 1970s.
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
(E) I, II and III

37. This passage is primarily about______.

(A) the meaning and use of the yin and the yang
(B) different types of medical therapies and their relative effectiveness
(C) the historical and philosophical back ground to acupuncture
(D) modern uses of acupuncture both in China and in Western countries
(E) various diseases that are particularly common among the Chinese

38. According to the passage, acupuncture is based on______.

(A) an ancient Chinese religious ceremony that involves the insertion of needles into
the body
(B) a philosophy of health and disease that originated in China but has been totally
changed by Western countries
(C) a firm belief in the Chinese gods known as the yin and the yang
(D) the ideas of an astronomer who was attempting to study the universe in ancient
times
(E) the idea that the human body is a model of the universe and is therefore controlled
by the forces of nature

39. According to the passage, the yin and the yang are principles that represent______.
(A) competing, balancing forces within the body
(B) similar treatments for different diseases
(C) states of health and disease
(D) the ideas of comfort and pain
(E) high and low extremes of temperature

40. The author includes the example of the yin and the yang controlling the extremes of
body temperature in order to______.
(A) suggest a possible explanation for why people sometimes run high fevers
(B) highlight a feature of the body that acupuncture has not yet been shown to
influence
(C) clarify how these forces have a complementary effect on each other
(D) provide proof that acupuncture is an effective medical therapy
(E) back up her claim that the forces within the body mirror the forces of the universe
 SECTION 5
1. The crown in Figure 1 is made up of toothpicks that each have the same length. If each
toothpick is 3 meters long and each side is equal to one toothpick, what is the perimeter
of the crown in meters?

(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 14
(E) 21

2. D is an odd number between 4 and 11. If D is also between 7 and 18, what is the value of
D?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
(E) 11

3. Gary has a collection of 20 different operas and his roommate Paul has a collection of 18
different operas. If Paul and Gary have 4 operas common to both record collections, how
many different operas do they have between them?
(A) 18
(B) 30
(C) 34
(D) 36
(E) 38

1 1
4. If G= 18, then G =______.
6 3
(A) 6
(B) 9
(C) 36
(D) 54
(E) 63

5. A model sailboat floating on the water is attached to a string 1 meter long, as shown in
Figure 2. If the string is tied to a post on the dock, which of the following best shows the
area of water on which the sailboat can float?
6. At a party, there are exactly 3 times as many adults as children. Which of the following
could be the total number of people at this party?
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 21
(D) 25
(E) 29

7. Using a pair of scissors, which of the following can be made from a 20 cm by 28 cm

rectangular sheet of paper by 1 straight cut?
I. Triangle
II. Square
III. Rectangle
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and II only
(E) I, II and III

8. According to the graph in Figure 3, the average number of students taking the swimming
class during the four months of March through June was______.
(A) 50
(B) 55
(C) 60
(D) 65
(E) 70

Questions 9‐10 refer to the following definition.

𝑛
For all real numbers n and r, n♣r = (n – 1) ‐ .
𝑟
3 5 1
EXAMPLE: 5♣3= (5 ‐ 1) ‐
5
=4‐ 3
= 23
9. What is the value of 6♣2?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) 8
(E) 16

10. If Q♣2 = 3, then Q=______.

(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) 4
(E) 2

11. Justine bought a comic book at $ 6 above the cover price. A year later she sold the book
for $ 8 less than she paid. At what price did Justine sell the book?
(A) $ 14 below the cover price
(B) $ 2 below the cover price
(C) The cover price
(D) $ 2 above the cover price
 (E) $14 above the cover price

Questions 12‐13 refer to the graph in Figure 4.

12. How many fewer boxes of cereal were sold in February than in January?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 20
(D) 40
(E) 60

13. The number of boxes sold in March was how many times the number of boxes sold in
February?
(A) 2
2
(B) 1
3
(C) 3
(D) 40
(E) 60

14. Team A has 5 times as many losses as it had ties in a season. If Team A won none of its
games, which could be the total number of games it played that season?
(A) 10
(B) 15
(C) 18
(D) 21
(E) 26

15. Figure 5 contains rectangles and a triangle. How many different rectangles are there in
Figure 5?
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 10
(E) 12

1
16. Which of the following is NOT less than ?
4
2
(A)
9
3
(B)
14
14
(C)
64
19
(D)
70
27
(E)
125

17. In Figure 6, the sides of triangles ABC and FGH, and of squares BCFE and CDGF, are all
equal in length. Which of the following is the longest part from A to H?

(A) A‐B‐C‐F‐H
(B) A‐B‐E‐F‐H
(C) A‐C‐D‐G‐H
(D) A‐B‐E‐G‐H
(E) A‐C‐F‐G‐H

1
18. If 5 (5 ‐ x) = 0, then what does x equal?
3
(A) 0
(B) 5
 1
(C) 5
3
(D) 14
(E) It cannot be determined from the information given.

19. Which of the following is closest to 1. 08?

(A) 12
(B) 2. 2
(C) 1. 9
(D) 1. 1
(E) 1

1
20. If X is greater than 25, then 5 of X must always be______.
(A) less than 5
(B) equal to 5
(C) greater than 5
(D) equal to 45
(E) less than 45

词汇 数学 阅读 数学
1 D A C E
2 B A E D
3 A A D C
4 A C A C
5 E A C A
6 E E D B
7 B D E E
8 D D E D
9 E D A B
10 D C D B
11 C C E B
12 A B B E
13 A B D B
14 E D E C
15 B A D E
16 C D B D
17 B A A E
18 D E A B
19 E E B D
20 E A D C
21 C A C
22 A B A
23 E E B
24 D E E
25 B E A
26 D C
27 D C
28 B C
29 C C
30 D E
31 C B
32 E A
33 A B
34 A A
35 D E
36 D A
37 B C
38 A E
39 E A
40 D C
41 E
42 C
43 D
44 A
45 B
46 B
47 A
48 D
49 E
50 D
51 C
52 A
53 E
54 A
55 B
56 E
57 C
58 B
59 C
60 A