02-04-2025

1016CMD303032240051 MD

BIOLOGY

1) Assertion :- The interaction of cattle egret birds and cattle is an example of commensalism.
Reason:- It is an association between members of two different species in which one is benefitted
while other is unaffected.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Given below are two statements.

Statement - I :- Majority of the parasites harm the host, they may reduce the survival, growth and
reproduction of the host and reduce its population density.
Statement - II :- Parasites help in maintaining species diversity in a community.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the option given below :-

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

3) Select the correct option with respect to parasitism ?

(1) Copepods on marine fishes.

(2) Sea anemone and Clown fish
(3) Abingdon tortoise and goats
(4) Fig tree and Wasps

4) Identify the incorrect statement-

(1) Darwin spoke of the struggle for existence and survival of the fittest in nature.
(2) Interspecific competition is a potent force in organic evolution.
(3) Totally unrelated species could also compete for the same resources.
In shallow south American lakes, visiting flaminogoes and resident fish compete for
(4)
phytoplankton

5) Identify the incorrect statement :-

(1) Predators act as 'conduits' for energy transfer across trophic levels.
(2) In the absence of predators, prey species could achieve very high population density.
(3) Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in a community.
(4) Predators in nature are not prudent.

6) Choose the incorrect option from the given below :

The Mediterranean orchid Ophyrs employs "sexual deceit" to get pollination done by a species
(1)
of bee.
(2) In mycorrhizal association, photosynthesis is done by higher plants
(3) Orchid flower and wasp species are example of mutualism.
(4) Lichen is a relationship between algae and fungi

7) Population interactions represented by (+), (–) and (–), (0) refers to respectively :-

(1) Parasitism and Competition

(2) Predation and Amensalism
(3) Amensalism and Parasitism
(4) Amensalism and Predation

8) Match the column-I with column-II and give correct answer :

Column-I
Column-II
(Name of
(Examples)
Interaction)

(A) Mutualism (a) Lice on humans

(B) Commensalism (b) Fig tree and wasp

(C) Parasitism (c) Abingdon tortoise and goats

(D) Competition (d) Clown fish and sea anemone

(1) A-d, B-a, C-b, D-c
(2) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-b
(3) A-b, B-d, C-a, D-c
(4) A-b, B-d, C-c, D-a

9) Match List - I with List - II :-

List - I List - II

The number of deaths in the

(a) Natality (i) population during a given
period.

The number of births in the

(b) Mortality (ii) population during a given
period.

The number of individuals of

the same species that have
(c) Immigration (iii) come into the habitat from
else where during the time
period under consideration.
 The number of individuals of
the population who left the
(d) Emigration (iv) habitat and gone else where
during the time period
under consideration.
Choose the correct answers from the option given below :-
(1) (a) - (ii); (b) - (i); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
(2) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (i); (d) - (ii)
(4) (a) - (iv); (b) - (iii); (c) - (ii); (d) - (i)

10) If in a pond there are 60 lotus plant last year and through reproduction 15 new plants are added.
What would be the birth rate during the year?

(1) 0.25 offspring/lotus/year

(2) 4 offspring/lotus/year
(3) 0.4 offspring/lotus/year
(4) Zero offspring/lotus/year

11) Match the column correctly for this below equation

Nt = N0ert

A B

(i) Nt (a) The base of natural logarithms

(ii) N0 (b) Population density after time t

(iii) r (c) Intrinsic rate of natural increase

(iv) e (d) Population density at time zero

(1) (i) - b, (ii) - d, (iii) - c (iv) - a
(2) (i) - a, (ii) - c, (iii) - b (iv) - d
(3) (i) - d, (ii) - a, (iii) - b (iv) - c
(4) (i) - c, (ii) - b, (iii) - d (iv) - a

12) Study the population growth curves (A and B) in given graph and select the "incorrect option."

(1)
Curve (A) show exponential growth represent by equation
(2)
Curve (B) show logistic growth represent by equation
(3) Exponential growth curve is considered as more realistic than the logistic growth curve.
rt
(4) Curve (A) also represented by Nt = N0e

13) Organism breed many times in their life and produces a small number of large sized offspring :

(1) Pacific salmon fish, Bamboo

(2) Oyster, Pelagic fishes
(3) Pacific salmon fish, Pelagic fishes
(4) Birds, Mammals

14) Which of the following best explains why there are usually not more than five trophic levels in a
food chain ?

(1) There are not enough organisms to fill more than five levels
There is too much competition among the organisms at the lower levels to support more animals
(2)
at higher levels.
(3) The statement is not true, there can be unlimited trophic levels
(4) Energy is lost at each trophic level

15) Which of following is a function of ecosystem?

(1) Productivity
(2) Decomposition
(3) Energy flow
(4) All of these

16) Given below are two statements: One is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : There is unidirectional flow of energy in ecosystem.
Reason (R) : All organisms are dependent for their food on producers, either directly or indirectly.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

17) The diagram shows a pyramid of number in a food chain - What type of
organism are caterpillars ?

(1) Primary producer

(2) Primary consumer
(3) Quaternary consumer
(4) Secondary consumer

18) Select the correct order of different step occuring during decomposition.

(1) Leaching → Catabolism → Fragmentation → Humification

(2) Fragmentation → Catabolism → Leaching → Humification
(3) Catabolism → Fragmentation → Leaching → Humification
(4) Catabolism, Fragmentation, Leaching, occurs simultaneously

19) Given diagram shows the number pyramid of terrestrial ecosystem, maximum amount of energy

transfer will occur in which step?

(1) I
(2) II
(3) III
(4) Both III and II

20) Below two statement are given

Statement - I : Vertical distribution of different species occupying different level is called
stratification.
Statement - II : Productivity is expressed in term of gm–2 yr–1.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

21) Match the column I with column II.

Column – I Column – II

Formation of
(a) Fragmentation (i)
humus

Breakdown of
(b) Leaching (ii) detritus into smaller
particles

Water soluble
inorganic nutrients
(c) Humification (iii) go down into the soil
and get precipitated
as unavailable salts
(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – i
(3) a – ii, b – i, c – iii
(4) a – ii, b – iii, c – i

22) The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent ecosystem are :

(1) Blue-green algae

(2) Coral reefs
(3) Red algae
(4) Chemosynthetic bacteria

23) Primary productivity depend on -

(1) A variety of environmental factor

(2) Availability of nutrients
(3) Photosynthetic capacity of plants
(4) All of these

24) Which one is correct representation of Net Primary Productivity ?

(1) GPP – R = NPP

(2) NCP – R = NPP
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) GPP + R = NPP

25) Which of the following factor is responsible for slow rate of decomposition :-

(1) Nitrogen
(2) Water soluble substance
(3) Low temperature
(4) Aerobic condition

26) Choose the incorrect statement :-

(1) All animals depend on plant directly or indirectly for their food needs.
(2) Primary consumer will be herbivores.
(3) The consumer that feed on herbivores are carnivores, or secondary consumers
(4) Those animals that depend on the herbivores for food are called as secondary carnivores.

27) Match list-I with list-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Tertiary consumer (I) Plant

(B) Secodnary consumer (II) Lion

 (C) Secondary producer (III) Wolf

(D) Primary producer (IV) Zooplankton

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

28) Colonisation of tropical Pacific Islands by humans is said to have led to the extinction of :-

(1) Less than 1000 species of native birds.

(2) More than 2000 species of native birds.
(3) 359 species of vertebrates.
(4) 87 species of vascular plants.

29) Analysis of records shows that extinctions across taxa are not random, then which one of the
following groups are more vulnerable to extinction :-

(1) Vertebrates
(2) Invertebrates
(3) Amphibians
(4) Vascular plants

30) When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligatory
way ?

(1) Will proliferate

(2) Also become extinct
(3) Will show no change
(4) Will select another host

31) The extinction of passenger pigeon was due to

(1) Increased number of predatory birds

(2) Over-exploitation
(3) Non- availability of the food
(4) Disease in pigeon

32) What is the correct order (increasing diversity) of plants in world ?

A. Fungi
B. Angiosperms
C. Algae
D. Mosses

(1) D → C → B → A
(2) B → C → D → A
(3) D → C → A → B
(4) D → A → C → B

33) Considering that an overwhelmingly large proportion of the species are waiting to be discovered
in tropics, biologist make a statistical comparison of the temperate-tropical species richness of an
exhaustively by studied group of :

(1) Amphibians
(2) Insects
(3) Molluscs
(4) Fern and allies

34) One of the ex-situ conservation methods for endangered species is :-

(1) Wildlife Sanctuaries

(2) Biosphere Reserves
(3) Cryopreservation
(4) National Parks

35) When there are situations where an animal or plant is endangered or threatened and needs
urgent measures to save it from extinction, which is the desirable approach ?

(1) In-situ conservation

(2) Ex-situ conservation
(3) In-vivo conservation
(4) In-vitro conservation

36) Which one of the following is not an example of hot spot in India ?

(1) Western Ghat

(2) Indo-Burma
(3) Eastern Ghat
(4) Himalaya

37) According to Robert May the global species diversity is about :

(1) 50 million
(2) 25 million
(3) 15 million
(4) 7 million

38) In rivet popper hypothesis, Paul Ehrlich compared the rivets in an air plane to :

(1) Genus
(2) Community
(3) Species
(4) Ecosystem

39) Given below are 5 plotes :

Which one of the following plot has least year to year variation in productivity ?

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

40) Species-Area relationship is described by the following equation :

log S = log C + Z log A
Where Z is :

(1) Area
(2) Slope of the line
(3) Species richness
(4) Species diversity

41) Given pie-chart shows number of species of major taxa of vertebrates. Find
out the A, B, C and D :

(1) A-Fishes, B-Mammals, C-Birds, D-Reptiles

(2) A-Mammals, B-Birds, C-Reptiles, D-Amphibians
(3) A-Birds, B-Fishes, C-Amphibians, D-Mammals
(4) A-Fishes, B-Birds, C-Reptiles, D-Amphibians

42) The variation shown by the medicinal plant Rauwolfia vomitoria growing in different Himalayan
ranges known as :

(1) Species diversity

(2) Ecological diversity
(3) Genetic diversity
(4) Molecular diversity

43) __A__ long term ecosystem experiment using outdoor plot and found that plots with more species
showed less year to year variation in total biomass.
Identify the A ?
(1) Tilman's
(2) Paul Ehrlich's
(3) Reiter's
(4) Odum's

44) How many mega diversity countries are in the world ?

(1) 15
(2) 13
(3) 12
(4) 5

45) Which one of the following introduced illegaly in our rivers for aquaculture purposes ?

(1) Nile perch

(2) Cichlid fishes
(3) African catfish Clarias gariepinus
(4) Salmon fish

46) Which statement is true :-

(1) All pathogens are parasite

(2) All parasites are pathogen
(3) All parasites are viruses
(4) None

47)

Choose the correct option about given above :-

A B

(1) Hallucinogen Depressant

(2) Morphine Datura

(3) Heroin Bhang

(4) Datura Morphine

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

48) Read the following statements (A - D) (A) When people are healthy they are more efficient at
work
(B) Health for a long time, was considered as a state of body and mind where there was a balance of
certain humors
(C) William Harvey thought that persons with 'blackbile' belonged to hot personality and would have
fevers
(D) Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the host
How many of the above statement/statements is/are incorrect?

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

49) Who disproved the "good humor hypothesis" of health using thermometer to demonstrate normal
body temperature in person with blackbile ?

(1) Hippocrates
(2) Indian Ayurveda system of medicine
(3) William Harvey
(4) Both (1) and (2)

50) Incubation period for AIDS is usually :-

(1) 5-10 months

(2) 5-10 years
(3) 2-12 months
(4) 2-12 weeks

51) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) Health, for a long time was considered as a state of body and mind.
(2) When people are healthy, they are more efficient at work.
Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good
(3)
health.
(4) Health simply means 'absence of disease' or physical fitness.

52) Which one is a wrong statement about passive immunity ?

(1) Induced by vaccination

(2) Immune response is short lived
(3) Immediate effect
(4) No immunological memory
53) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion-A and the other is labelled as
Reason-R.
Assertion (A) : Interferons work like cytokine barriers.
Reason (R) : Interferons protectes non-infected cells from further bacterial infection.

(1) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

54) What measure, a doctor would take to reduce the allergic symptoms of patient.

(1) Inject vaccine

(2) Inject adrenaline
(3) Inject IgE
(4) Inject histamine

55) T-lymphocytes are produced in :-

(1) Bone marrow

(2) Spleen
(3) Thymus
(4) Pancreas

56) Antigen binding site is present on which terminal of peptide chain in antibodies :

(1) N-terminal
(2) C-terminal
(3) Either N or C terminal
(4) In between N and C terminal

57) Statement-I :- Active immunity is very fast and takes time to give its full effective response.
Statement-II :- When ready made antibodies are directly give to protect the body against foreign
agents, it is called passive immunity.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

58) Bluish discoloration of lips and nails due to infection of Alveoli may be caused due to :-

(1) Orthomyxovirus
(2) Haemophilus influenzae
(3) Rhino virus
(4) Corynebacterium diptheriae
59) Which of the following set of diseases is caused by bacteria.

(1) Typhoid and Malaria

(2) Herpes and Dengue
(3) Tetanus and common cold
(4) Plague and pneumonia

60) Read the following statements carefully

(A) Loss of appetite
(B) Sustained high fever.
(C) Parasite in large intestine
(D) In severe cases intestinal perforation is seen.
Select the correct statements for typhoid :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

61) 'A healthy person acquires the infection by using towels, clothes or comb of the infected
individual and the infection occurs easily in moist and warm conditions' Above statement is
applicable to -

(1) Viral infections

(2) Bacterial infections
(3) Fungal infections
(4) Helminthic infections

62) Malignant malaria which is most serious one and can even be fatal is caused by :-

(1) Plasmodium malariae

(2) Plasmodium vivax
(3) Plasmodium falciparum
(4) Plasmodium ovale

63) Active immunity may be gained by?

(1) Introducing weakened antigen or inactive antigen in our body.

(2) Detoxified toxins introduced in our body.
(3) Injection of serum immunoglobulins artificially in infected person.
(4) Passive transfer of mother IgG to baby.

64) Many diseases are spread by insect vectors. One such major vector is mosquito which spreads all
of the following diseases, except :-

(1) Chikungunya
(2) Filariasis
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Malaria

65) Which of the following is the symptom of ascariasis?

(1) Internal bleeding and muscular pain

(2) Fever and anemia
(3) Blockage of intestinal passage
(4) All of these

66) Match List-I with List-II :-

List-I List-II

(A) Pneumonia (I) Fungus

(B) Malaria (II) Nematode

(C) Ringworm (III) Protozoa

(D) Elephantiasis (IV) Bacteria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

67) Assertion (A) : Graft from any source - an Animal, primate, any human being cannot be made
randomly.
Reason (R) : Tissue matching, blood group matching are essential before undertaking any graft /
transplant.

(1) A is true but R is false.

(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

68) Given below are two statements -

Statement 1 : Charas is chemically diacetylmorphine which is a white, odourless, bitter crystalline
compound.
Statement 2 : Tobacco has been used by human beings for more than 400 years.
Choose the correct answer from the following –

(1) Both Statement 1 and 2 are false

(2) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
(3) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
(4) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true.
69) In which part, parasite (Sporozoites) reproduces asexually ?

(1) Salivary gland of human

(2) Gut of mosquito
(3) Liver cells of human
(4) Gut of human

70) Which of the following options are not incorrect regarding Heroine ?

(1) It is also called as morphine

(2) It is a stimulant
(3) Excessive dosage of heroine causes hallucinations
(4) Heroine taken by snorting and injection

71) Alfred Wallace, a naturalist worked on which island ?

(1) Srilanka
(2) Galapagos
(3) South America
(4) Malay Archepelago

72) According to Panspermia theory, life has :

(1) Come out of dead and decaying matter

(2) Originated from non-living organic molecules
(3) Come from another planet
(4) Created by God

73) Industrialization during 1920's in England led to :-

(1) Increase in population of white coloured biston moths.

(2) Increase in population of birds feeding on biston moths.
(3) Increase in population of dark coloured biston moths.
(4) Decrease in population of birds feeding on biston moths

74) Founder effect can be seen in a population because of

(1) No change in allele frequency

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Gene flow
(4) Natural Selection

75) The chronological order of human evolution from first human like being-hominid to recent is:-

(1) Homo habilis → Homo erectus → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens sapiens

(2) Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Homo sapiens
(3) Homo erectus → Homo habilis → Neanderthal → Homo sapiens
(4) Australopithecus → Homo erectus → Homo sapiens → Ramapithecus

76) How many of the following statements are correct?

(a) Homology indicate common ancestry and based on divergent evolution.
(b) Different structures evolving for same function-convergent evolution
(c) Same structure developed along different direction-divergent evolution
(d) Analogy indicate common ancestory and based on convergent evolution

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

77) Identify the ancestor-A in the family tree of dinosaur in given figure :-

(1) Synapsids
(2) Thecodonts
(3) Therapsids
(4) Pelycosaurus

78) Which of the following were formed in Stanley-Miller's experiment ?

(1) Fat, Carbohydrate, Pigments

(2) Carbohydrate, Nucleic acid, Protein
(3) Aspartic acid, Alanine, Glycine
(4) Butyric acid, Fatty acid, Nucleic acid

79) In the given figure which one of the following represent the correct example of convergent
evolution ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

80) Which statement is correct for industrial melanism?

(1) It is a directional natural selection where median population is selected.

It is a directional natural selection where either of the two extremities are selected at particular
(2)
time.
(3) It is a stabilising natural selection where median population is selected.
(4) It is a stabilising natural selection where one of the extremities is selected.

81) Statement-I : Wings of bat and flippers of whale are analogous organs.
Statement-II : Analogy is based on divergent evolution.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

82) Which of the following options show correct sequence of evolution of plant forms :-

(1) Tracheophyte → Ferns → Bryophytes → Seed ferns

(2) Cycads → Gnetales → Ginkgos → Psilophyton
(3) Rhynia → Psilophyton → Progymnosperms → Seed ferns → Dicotyledons
(4) Lycopods → Conifers → Sphenopsids → Monocotyledons

83) In hardy-weinberg principle, frequency of homozygous receive (aa) is represented by :-

(1) p2
(2) q2
(3) 2pq
(4) pq
84) Which of the following were evolved into the first amphibians ?

(1) Sauropsids
(2) Jaw less fishes
(3) Coelacanths
(4) Salamanders

85) Embryological support for evolution was proposed by :

(1) Alfred wallace

(2) Ernst Heckel
(3) Malthus
(4) Karl Ernst Von Baer

86) Direct ancester of Rhynia-type plants :

(1) Chlorophytes
(2) Tracheophytes
(3) Psilophyton
(4) Seed ferns

87) The following could be considered as an example of anthropogenic action :

(1) Antibiotic resistant organisms

(2) Darwin's finches
(3) Dinosaurs
(4) Tasmanian wolf

88) Which of the following is not a factor to affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium ?

(1) Gene flow

(2) Genetic drift
(3) Mutation
(4) Sexual selection

89) In which condition the gene ratio remains constant for any species?

(1) Natural selection

(2) Random mating
(3) Mutation
(4) Gene flow

90) Which of the following is the correct sequence of evolutionary history of mammals?
(i) Pelycosaurs
(ii) Therapsids
(iii) Synapsids
(iv) Early reptiles

(1) iv, iii, ii, i

(2) iv, ii, iii, i
(3) iv, iii, i, ii
(4) iv, i, iii, ii

CHEMISTRY

1)

Compare the rate of SN1 reaction

(I) (II) (III)

(1) I > II > III

(2) II > III > I
(3) II > I > III
(4) III > I > II

2) Which of the following reaction is correctly matched?

(1)

(2)

(3) C6H5–CH2–O–CH3 SN1

(4) CH3-CH2-O-CH2-CH=CH2 SN2

3) Which compound undergoes SN2 reaction at fastest rate :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
4)
Process (K), (L) and (M) are called respectively.

(1) Inversion, Retention, Racemisation

(2) Retention, Inversion, Racemisation
(3) Racemisation, Inversion, Retention
(4) Inversion, Racemisation, Retention

5) In the following reaction

C6H5–CH2Br X,
The product 'X' is :-

(1) C6H5CH2OH
(2) C6H5CH3
(3) C6H5CH2CH2C6H5
(4) C6H5CH2OCH2C6H5

6) The formula suggests given compounds is -

(1) BHC
(2) DNA
(3) DDT
(4) RNA

7)
Product (A) and (B) respectively are :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
;

8)

Arrange the following in correct order of their reactivity while reacting with HCl/ZnCl2:-

(1) IV > I > II > III

(2) I > II > III > IV
(3) IV > III > II > I
(4) III > II > I > IV

9) Williamson ether synthesis follows :-

(1) SN1 reaction

(2) SN2 reaction
(3) E1 reaction
(4) E2 reaction

10) Which of the following alcohol is not oxidised by PCC :-

(1) n-butyl alcohol

(2) sec-butyl alcohol
(3) iso-butyl alcohol
(4) tert-butyl alcohol

11)
What is X and Y in above reaction respectively

(1)

and

(2)

and

(3)

and

(4)

and

12) Which is most reactive towards nucleophilic addition reaction :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13)

What is the major product of the following reaction:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The Cross aldol condensation product of benzaldehyde and acetone is -

(1) C6H5CH = C(CH3)2

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Products
Products will be
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16)

Which of the following will produce silver mirror with Tollen's reagent (ammonical AgNO3)

(1)

(2) HCOOH
(3) Glucose
(4) All of these

17) What is compound Z ?

(1)

(2) CH3–CH2–CH2CH=NOCH2CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2CH(OCH2CH3)2

(4)

18) Which of the following amine can be prepared by Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis ?

(1) Dimethyl Amine

(2) Aniline
(3) Ethyl amine
(4) Trimethyl amine

19) Suppose following reaction

The major product 'C' will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) In the chemical reaction,

CH3CH2NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH →
The product is :-

(1) C2H5NC
(2) CH3CH2CH2–NC
(3) C2H5CN
(4) CH3CH2CONH2

21) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Primary aliphatic amines react with nitrous acid to form aliphatic salt which being
unstable, lebrate N2 gas and alcohol.
Statement II : Primary aromatic amines react with HNO2 to form diazonium salts which are stable
even above 300 K.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

22) A B C D E
E is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Maltose is formed by :-

(1) α-D-glucose and α-D-glucose

(2) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose
(3) α-D-glucose and β-D-fructose
(4) α-D-glucose and β-D-galactose

24) Match the list-I with list - II

List -I List - II

1° structure of The shape in which a polypeptide

(a) (i)
protein chain can exist.
 2° structure of
(b) (ii) Overall folding of polypeptide chains
protein

The spatial arrangement of two or

3° structure of
(c) (iii) more polypeptide chains with respect
protein
to each other.

4° structure of
(d) (iv) Specific sequence of amino acids
protein

Select the correct option :-

(1) (a) – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(2) (a) – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
(3) (a) – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii
(4) (a) – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i

25) In the Lassaigne's test for nitrogen in an organic compound, the prussian blue color is obtained
due to formation of :-

(1) Na4[Fe(CN)6]
(2) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
(3) Fe2[Fe(CN)6]
(4) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]4

26) Which of the following C–X bond enthalpies order is correct :

(1) CH3–F > CH3–Cl > CH3–Br > CH3–I

(2) CH3Cl > CH3Br > CH3F > CH3I
(3) CH3I > CH3Br > CH3Cl > CH3F
(4) CH3I > CH3Cl > CH3F > CH3Br

27) [Major]A CH3–CH2–Br B[Major]

A and B will be :

(1) CH3CH2CN, CH3CH2NC

(2) CH3CH2NC, CH3CH2CN
(3) CH3CH2CN, CH3CH2CN
(4) CH3CH2NC, CH3CH2NC

28)
Identify B and C :

(1) RCHO + R'OH

(2) RCH2OH + R'OH
(3) ROH + R'OH
(4) RCOOH + R'OH

29)
B will be :

(1) Ph–OH
(2) Ph–CHO
(3) Ph–H
(4) Ph–COOH

30) When chlorine is treated with carboxylic acid in the presence of red phosphorus then α-chloro
acid will be formed, this reaction is known as :

(1) Hunsdicker reaction

(2) Hell-Volhard - Zelinsky reaction
(3) Friedel - crafts reaction
(4) Rosenmund reduction

31) Which of the following is "Etard reaction" :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Select incorrect statement :-

(1) 2-Chloro butane give more saytzeff product on reaction with alc. KOH
(2) 2-Fluro butane give more Hoffman product on reaction with alc KOH
(3) 2-Chlorobutane give more Hoffman product on reaction with t-BuOK
(4) Alc KOH preferebly give substitution reaction with 2-Bromobutane.
33) Which of the following vitamin can be stored in our body :

(1) A
(2) C
(3) B12
(4) 1 and 3 both

34) C6H5–CH2–Cl Major product :

(1)

(2) C6H5–CH2–NH–CH3
(3) C6H5–CH2–NH–C6H5

(4)

35) Arrange followings in their boiling point order :

n–C4H9NH2 (C2H5)2NH C2H5N(CH3)2
(I) (II) (III)

(1) I > II > III

(2) I < II < III
(3) I < III < II
(4) I > III > II

36) Which of the following is more reactive towards nucleophile?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
37) In which of the following reaction product is not correctly matched?

(1)
RCH2OH RCHO

(2)

(3)

(4) All are correctly matched

38) Williamson ether continuous process is not suitable to get :-

(1) CH3OCH3
(2) C2H5OC2H5
(3) CH3–O–C2H5
(4) None of these

39) Carboxylic acids are reduced to primary alcohol by :

(1) LiAlH4
(2) B2H6
(3) NaBH4
(4) 1 & 2 Both

40) Which of the following gives sec. alcohol when reacted with grignard reagent, followed by
hydrolysis?

(1) HCHO
(2) CH3CHO

(3)

(4)

41) When anisole reacts with a mixture of conc. H2SO4 & Conc. HNO3, then major product will be-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) 2 & 3 Both

42) Which of the followings will give haloform test?

(1)

(2) CH3–CH=O

(3)

(4) All of the above

43) In which of the following reaction, product is not correct?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Which of the following is non reducing ?

(1) Sucrose
(2) Fructose
(3) Maltose
(4) Lactose

45) During denaturation of protein which of the following structure is not destroyed
(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) All of the above

PHYSICS

1) Find current in 2Ω resistance in the given circuit.

(1) 2.85 A.
(2) 6.66 A.
(3) 2 A.
(4) 5 A.

2) What value of a series resistance is required to control the current through an LED to 20 mA with
a forward voltage drop 2V when connected to 8V supply ?

(1) 600 Ω
(2) 300 Ω
(3) 400 Ω
(4) 800 Ω

3) Assertion (A) : A p-n junction diode is kept in reverse bias while using it as a photodiode.
Reason (R) : Current in forward bias is more than current in reverse bias.

(1) Both A & R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A & R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) Both A & R are incorrect.

4) Identify the wrong statement

(1) In conductors the valence band and conduction band are overlaped.
(2) The resistivity of semiconductor is lower than metals.
(3) Substance with energy gap of the order of 10 eV are insulators.
(4) The resistivity of a semiconductor is lower than insulator.

5) Boolean expression equivalent to :-

(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) A + B
(4) A ⋅ B

6) In terms of energy bands at room temperature, semiconductor have :

(1) Full conduction band

(2) Full valence band
(3) Large energy gap
(4) Moderate energy gap

7) According to energy band theory, a solid can be classified as a semiconductor if the energy gap
between the valence band and conduction band is :-

(1) 3 eV < ΔEg < 6 eV

(2) ΔEg > 3 eV
(3) ΔEg < 3 eV
(4) ΔEg = 0

8) Which of the following is true in the depletion region of a P-N junction ?

(1) It is rich in free charge carriers.

(2) It is void of any charge.
(3) It has immobile ions creating an electric field.
(4) It has an equal number of electrons and holes.

9) In the given circuit diode is ideal. When Vi increase from 2V to 6V then change in the current is :-

(1) 0
(2) 20 mA
(3) 40 mA

(4)

10) The power consumed in zener diode will be-

(1) 60 mW
(2) 120 mW
(3) 160 mW
(4) 240 mW

11) When all the three inputs are first high and then low, then output Y respectively will be
(1) 1, 0
(2) 1, 1
(3) 0, 0
(4) 0, 1

12) The logic behind NOR gate is that it gives :-

(a) High output when one input is low and other is high.
(b) Low output when one input is low and other is high.
(c) High output when both inputs are low.
(d) High output when both inputs are high.

(1) a, c
(2) a, d
(3) b, c
(4) b, d

13) The refractive index of slab C if ray ef is parallel to ray ab is :-

(1) 1.5
(2) 1.45
(3) 1.55
(4) 1

14) A fish at a depth of 12 cm in water is viewed by an observer on the bank of a lake. To

what height the image of the fish is raised :-

(1) 9 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 3.8 cm
(4) 3 cm

15) An object 2 cm tall is placed at 8 cm in front of a mirror. In order to produce an upright image of
6 cm height one needs a :-

(1) Convex mirror of radius of curvature 24 cm.

(2) Concave mirror of radius of curvature 24 cm.
(3) Plane mirror of height 12 cm
(4) Concave mirror of radius of curvature 4 cm

16) One of the refracting surfaces of a prism of angle 30° is silvered. A ray of light incident at angle
of 60° retraces its path. The refractive index of the material of prism is :-

(1)
(2)
(3) 3/2
(4) 2

17) At what distance from a convex lens of focal length 30 cm, an object should be placed so that the
size of the real image be 1/2th of the object :-

(1) 30 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 90 cm

18) A small air bubble is at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 5 cm. When it is viewed from
outside what will be the position of image (Refractive index of glass is 1.5) :-

(1) At the same place as that of object

(2) 10/3 cm from the surface near the eye
(3) 7.5 cm from the surface of sphere near the eye
(4) At infinity

19) A lens of power +2 dioptre is placed in contact with a lens of power –1 dioptre. The combination
will behave like :-

(1) A convergent lens of focal length 50 cm

(2) A divergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(3) A convergent lens of focal length 100 cm
(4) A convergent lens of focal length 200 cm

20) In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is :-

(1) virtual, erect and magnified

(2) real, erect and magnified
(3) real, inverted and magnified
(4) virtual, erect and reduced

21) The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope can be increased, if we :-

(1) Increase the focal length of the objective

(2) Increase the focal length of the eye piece
(3) Decrease the focal length of the objective
Decrease the focal length of the objective and at the same time increase the focal length of the
(4)
eye piece.

22) The image of a real object formed by a plane mirror is :

(1) Erect, real and of equal size

(2) Erect, virtual and of equal size
(3) Inverted, real and of equal size
(4) Inverted, virtual and of equal size

23) Find the deviation caused by a prism having refracting angle 4° and refractive index 3/2.

(1) 4°
(2) 2°
(3) 8°
(4) 6°

24) The refractive indices of violet and red light are 1.54 and 1.52 respectively, if the angle of the
prism is 10°, the angular dispersion is

(1) 0.02°
(2) 0.2°
(3) 3.06°
(4) 30.6°

25) For constructive interference to take place between two monochromatic light waves of
wavelength λ, the path difference should be -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) In two separate set-ups of the Young's double slit experiment, fringes of equal width are
observed when lights of wavelengths in the ratio 1 : 2 are used. If the ratio of the slit separation in
the two cases is 2 : 1, the ratio of the distances between the plane of the slits and the screen in the
two set-ups is -

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 2 : 1

27) For which colour the fringe width is minimum -

(1) Violet
(2) Red
(3) Green
(4) Yellow

28) Two sources of light of wavelengths 2500 Å and 3500 Å are used in YDSE simultaneously. Which
orders of bright fringes of two wavelength patterns coincide -

(1) 3rd order of 1st source and 5th order of the 2nd
(2) 7th order of 1st and 5th order of 2nd
(3) 5th order of 1st and 3rd order of 2nd
(4) 5th order of 1st and 7th order of 2nd

29) A screen is placed 2m away from the single narrow slit. Calculate the slit width if the first
minimum lies 5 mm on either side of the central maximum. Incident plane waves have a wavelength
of 5000 Å -

(1) 2 × 10–4 m
(2) 2 × 10–3 cm
(3) 2 × 10–5 m
(4) none

30) The condition for obtaining a maxima in the diffraction pattern due to single slit is -

(1) a sin θ = nλ

(2)
a sin θ = (2n – 1)
(3) a sin θ = (2n – 1)λ

(4)
a sin θ =

31) In case of diffraction pattern of a single slit under polychromatic illumination first minima of
wavelength λ1 is found to coincide with the second maxima of wavelength λ2, then

(1) 3 λ1 = 2 λ2
(2) 2.5 λ1 = λ2
(3) λ1 = 2.5 λ2
(4) 5 λ1 = λ2

32) Which of the following phenomena exhibits particle nature of light -

(1) Interference
(2) Diffraction
(3) Polarisation
(4) Photoelectric effect
33) Two polarisers are parallel and then one of them is rotated through 60°. The percentage of
incident unpolarised light transmitted is -

(1) 12.5
(2) 25.0
(3) 37.5
(4) 50

34) A stopping potential of 0.82 V is required to stop the photocurrent in a photo cell by light of
wavelength 4000 Å. For light of wavelength 3000 Å, required stopping potential will be (approx.) :-

(1) 2.28 eV
(2) 0.82 eV
(3) 4.13 eV
(4) 1.85 eV

35) At stopping potential if wavelength of light is kept fixed but the intensity is increased two times,
then photo current :-

(1) becomes two times

(2) becomes more than two times
(3) becomes half
(4) still remains zero

36) Photocurrent (ip) versus voltage (V) graph for two different experiments of photo electric effect
are shown, in which radiation beams of same intensity are falling. On the basis of graph consider
following results :-
(A) υ1 < υ2 (B) υ1 > υ2

(C) ϕ1 < ϕ2 (D) ϕ1 > ϕ2 Which of the above is/are correct ? (υ is

frequency and ϕ is work function)

(1) A and C
(2) B and D
(3) A and D
(4) B and C

37)

Consider photocurrent (ip) versus voltage (V) graph as shown below :-

 Match the physical quantities described in column-I to its
numerical value given in column-II :
Column-I Column-II

(A) KE of photoelectrons (eV) (p) 1.2

(B) Saturation current (mA) (q) 2.4

(C) Stopping potential (V) (r) 3.6

(1) A-p, q, B-r, C-q
(2) A-q, B-q, C-q
(3) A-p, B-q, C-r
(4) A-r, B-p, C-q

38) Find ratio of de broglie wavelength of electron and proton if they enter in uniform magnetic field
so that the radii of their path are equal. Assume velocity of electron and proton are perpendicular to
magnetic field.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Mass and energy of a proton are 1.67 × 10–27 kg and 2.0 eV respectively. Its de-Broglie
wavelength is :-

(1) 2 × 10–10 m
(2) 2 × 10–11 m
(3) 1 × 10–10 m
(4) 1 × 10–11 m

40) Statement-1 :- The density of nuclear matter is independent of the size of the nucleus.
Statement-2 :- The mass density of the atom does not follow above rule.

(1) Only statement-1 is correct.

(2) Only statement-2 is correct.
(3) Both statements are correct.
(4) None is correct.
41) (A) Volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to the mass number.
(B) Volume of the nucleus is independent of mass number.
(C) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to the mass no.
(D) Density of the nucleus is proportional to cube root of the mass no.
(E) Density of the nucleus is independent of the mass no.
Choose the correct from the above statements :-

(1) A and D only

(2) A and E only
(3) B and E only
(4) A and C only

42) The mass of 2He4 nucleus is 0.0305(u) lesser than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The
binding energy per nucleon of 2He4 nucleus is nearly :-

(1) 5.1 MeV

(2) 6.1 MeV
(3) 7.1 MeV
(4) 8.1 MeV

43) As per given figure A, B and C are the first, second and third excited energy level of H-atom

respectively. If the ratio of the two wavelengths (i.e. ) is , then the value of n will be :-

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

44) The decay of a proton to neutron is :-

(1) Not possible as proton mass is less than the neutron mass.
(2) Possible only inside the nucleus.
(3) Not possible but neutron to proton conversion is possible.
(4) Always possible as it is associated only with β– decay.

45) Hydrogen is the simplest atom of nature. If all Bohr postulates are followed
m = mass of electron
n = orbit number
choose correct option :

(a) Magnetic moment of orbiting electron in nth orbit is .

(b) Ratio of angular momentum to linear momentum of electron directly proportional to n2.

(c) Minimum wavelength of emitted photon is .

(1) Only a
(2) a, b
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c
 ANSWER KEYS

BIOLOGY

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 1 4 4 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 4 4 4 2 2 4 2 4
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 4 4 4 1 3 4 2 2 3 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 4 3 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 3 1 3 3 1 3 3 3 2 4 1 2 2 1 1 3 2 4 3
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 3 3 1 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 4 3 3 2 1 1 2 3 3 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 4 2 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 1 1 2 3 3 1 2 4 4 3 3 4 1 4 4 3 2 1
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 1 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 4 4 1 1 4 3 3 4 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 2 1 1

PHYSICS

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155
A. 3 2 2 2 2 4 3 3 2 2 4 3 4 4 2 2 4 1 3 3
Q. 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
A. 1 2 2 2 3 1 1 2 1 2 3 4 1 4 4 2 1 1 2 3
Q. 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 3 1 2 3
 SOLUTIONS

BIOLOGY

1)

NCERT XII, Page No. 201

2)

NCERT XII Page No. 198, 200

3) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 200

4) NCERT Page No. 198

5) NCERT Pg. # 197

6) NCERT, Pg. # 201, 202

7) NCERT, Pg. # 197

8) NCERT, Pg. # 199,200,201,202

9) NCERT XII Pg : 193

10) NCERT XII, Page No. 193

11)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 194

12) MODULE Pg. No. # 194

13) NCERT, Pg. # 196

14)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 211

15) NCERT XII Pg#206

16)

NCERT XII, Page No. 209

17) NCERT XII Pg No. # 212, 213

18) NCERT XII Pg. # 207

Catabolism, Fragmentation, Leaching, Occurs Simultaneously

19) NCERT XII Pg. # 212, 213

20)

NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # 206, 207

21) NCERT, Pg. # 207

22)

NCERT-XII, Pg.#209

23)

NCERT-XII Page No. # 207

24) NCERT XII Pg # 207

25) NCERT XII Pg # 208

26) NCERT Pg. # 209

27) NCERT Pg. # 210

28) NCERT Pg. # 221

29) NCERT Pg. # 221, 222

30) NCERT Pg. # 223

31)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 223

32) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 218

33) NCERT, Pg # 217

34)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 225
Solution/Explanation:
In given options cryopreservation is a type of ex-site conversion,
Hence (3) option is correct.

35) NCERT, Pg # 225

36) NCERT, Pg # 224

37) NCERT, Pg # 217

38) NCERT, Pg # 221

39) NCERT, Pg # 221

40) NCERT, Pg # 220

41) NCERT, Pg # 218

42) NCERT, Pg # 217

43) NCERT, Pg # 221

44) NCERT, Pg # 219

45) NCERT Pg. # 223

46) NCERT XII Pg. # 146

47) NCERT (E) Pg. # 159

48) NCERT XII, Pg. # 145

49) NCERT XII Pg. # 145

50) NCERT Pg. # 170

51) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 145, 146 Para. 8.0

52) Module No. # 11, Pg. No. # 7

53) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 135

57) NCERT Pg. # 136(E),149(H)

59)

NCERT-XII, Hint Pg. # 147

60) NCERT Page No. # 146

62)

NCERT Page No. # 147

66) NCERT Pg. # 130,131,132,133

67) NCERT Pg. # 152

68) NCERT Pg. # 159-160

69) NCERT, Pg. # 132

70) NCERT Pg#142

71)

NCERT : PAGE 129

72) NCERT Pg. No. 127

73)

NCERT-XII Pg#116

74)

NCERT : PAGE 137

75) NCERT (XII), Pg # 140, 141

76) NCERT (XII), Pg # 130, 131

77) NCERT XII Pg. # 114

78)

NCERT (XII) Page no. 112

Allen module

79) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 118

80)

NCERT : PAGE 131 & 132 (FIG 7.4)

81) NCERT Page No. 131/143

82) NCERT XII Pg # 138

83) NCERT, Pg. # 121

84) NCERT P.No. 123

First amphibian evolved from coelacanth (Lobefins)

85) NCERT- P.No.113

Embryological support for evolution Proposed by Ernst Heckel.

86)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 138 (Fig. 7.9)

87)
 NCERT-XII, Pg. # 132

88) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 137, Para-7.7

89)

Module-11 Page No. #107

90) NCERT Pg.# 123

CHEMISTRY

92)

94) NCERT (XIIth) Part II, Pg. # 299

95)

97)
98)

Rate towards lucas reagent ∝ [Stability of C⊕]

99)

Fact

100) 3 degree alcohol does not oxidise by PCC.

103)

+ H2O
(NCERT XII/part II, pg. 359)

105)

The given reaction is Cannizzaro reaction in which the aldehydes which does not have
undergoes both oxidation and reduction.
This reaction is also called as disproportionation reaction.

106)

Because sucrose is non reducing.

107)

X = CH3–CH2–CH2–C ≡ N
Y = CH3–CH2–CH2–CO2H

Z = CH3–CH2–CH2– –OEt
Y → Z esterification reaction

108) 1° amine in which NH2 not attached to benzene can be prepared by Gabriel Phthdimide
synthesis ∴ Ethyl Amine (CH3CH2NH2) can be prepared
 111)

112) (A)→ (B)→

(C)→ (D)→

(E)→

115) 6CNϴ + Fe+2 → [Fe(CN)6]–4

3[Fe(CN)6]–4 + 4Fe+3 → Fe4 [Fe(CN)6]3

120)

Name reaction

122)

PHYSICS

136) As shown D1 is in R.B. so circuit below

137)

= 300 Ω

138) Photodiode is used in reverse bias so, A is correct

Current in F.B. > current in F.B. so R is correct.
but photodiode is used to detect light intensity or photo conductivity which can only be
observed while using it in reverse bias, so R is not correct explanation of A.

139) The resistivity of semiconductor is higher than metals but lower than insulator.

140)

=0+0=0

141) In conductor's - No energy gap (≈ 0 eV)

In insulators - Large energy gap (> 3 eV)
In semiconductors - Moderate energy gap (≈ 1 eV)

142) For semiconductor ΔEg ≤ 3 eV

143) The depletion layer or region contains immobile positive ions on the n-side and immobile
negative ions on the p-side, creating an electric field.

144) when Vi = 2V then I = 0

Vi = 6V then I = = 20 mA

145) IL = = 2mA

I= = 14mA
IZ = I – IL = 14 – 2 = 12mA
PZ = VZIZ = 10×(12 × 10–3) = 120mW

146)

147) For NOR gate

148) Angle with normal is same so R.I. will also be same.

149) Shift = d –

150) m = ⇒ f = –12 cm
⇒ R = –24 cm

158)

S = (µ – 1)A

=
= 2°

159)
Angular dispersion
= 0.02 × 10 = 0.2°

161)

β=

= ×
169) In case-1

0.82 = ⇒ ϕ = 3.1 – 0.82 = 2.28 eV

∴ In case-2

eVs = – 2.28 = 4.13 – 2.28 = 1.85 eV

170) For a given wavelength, stopping potential is independent of intensity.

171) Intensity I = and for same I ⇒ x ∝

from the graphs, it is clear that (ip)1 < (ip)2 ⇒ x1 < x2
⇒ ν1 > ν2
but here V0 is same, therefore from photo electric equation
eV0 = hν – ϕ ⇒ ν1 > ν2 means ϕ1 > ϕ2

173) ⇒λ∝

174) λ =

λP =
= 2 × 10–11 m

175) NCERT, Pg. # 320

See NCERT points to ponder page 320

176)

(A) v ∝ A
(B) ρ → constant

177) 2He4 → Δm = 0.0305(u)

B.E. = 0.0305 × 931 MeV
B.E. = 28.39 MeV

= 7.09 MeV
High temperature and high pressure are the necessary condition for fusion process.

178)
A to B

C to B
n=5

179)

P → n + β+ + v (neutrino)

180) (a)

(b) = r & r ∝ n2

(c)
n1 = 1 n2 = ∞