Section 6: Endocrinology

CHAPTER 38: DIABETES MELLITUS

Q.1. A 61-year-old woman is seen in cardiology clinic for evaluation of a new-onset

cardiomyopathy. She has had diabetes since 1986 and has been managed with
glipizide 5 mg twice daily and metformin 1000 mg twice daily. At her initial visit,
she was noted to have fasting triglycerides of 565 mg/dL, HbA1c of 8.8, and
creatinine of 2.8. Her heart failure was stable, and she had returned to her normal
level of functioning. What should be done with her therapy?
A. Continue glipizide and metformin and add an injection of insulin at bedtime
B. Discontinue metformin and substitute pioglitazone
C. Discontinue metformin and substitute rosiglitazone
D. Discontinue metformin and add an injection of insulin at bedtime
E. B or D
Answer: E. This case illustrates the importance of considering underlying
comorbidities in selecting therapy. The patient’s renal insufficiency necessitates
discontinuation of the metformin. Given her HbA1c, however, she clearly needs to
substitute another agent. Because her heart failure is stable and her triglycerides
are so high, pioglitazone is a good choice. Pioglitazone lowers triglycerides and
raises HDL, whereas rosiglitazone raises LDL and HDL. Discontinuing metformin
and adding insulin at bedtime would also be a correct option.

Q.2. A 60-year-old man with a 15-year history of diabetes complicated by

nephropathy visits your office. He was initially managed on oral agents but has
now been taking insulin for many years. His current regimen is NPH 54 units in the
morning and 42 units in the evening and insulin lispro 10 units in the morning, 8
units before lunch, and 6 units before dinner. His HbA1c is 10.1%, and his
creatinine is 2.4 mg/dL. What should be your next step?
A. Increase the dose of NPH insulin
B. Add metformin
C. Add pioglitazone
D. Add a sulfonylurea
E. Increase the dose of insulin lispro

Answer: C. This case illustrates the benefit of adding an insulin sensitizer to

a patient’s insulin regimen when he or she is on a very high dose of insulin.
Increasing the insulin dose, either NPH or lispro, might further contribute to
weight gain. Metformin would be another option except that this particular patient
has nephropathy with a creatinine that precludes its use. Adding a sulfonylurea in
 this patient on high doses of insulin with little beta-cell reserve would not be
beneficial.

Q.3. A 36-year-old female with a nine-month history of diabetes diagnosed after

presenting with several months of polyuria, polydipsia, fatigue, and a 15- to 20-
pound weight loss, comes to your office for follow-up. She has been treated
unsuccessfully with glipizide XL 10 mg twice daily, nateglinide 60 mg three times
daily, and metformin 500 mg three times daily, but continues to have blood sugars
in the mid-100s to mid-200s despite compliance with therapy. She has a family
history of diabetes in maternal aunt who was obese. The patient also has
borderline hypercholesterolemia and Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. Most of her adult life,
her weight was under 100 pounds, and her current weight is 125 pounds. She is
approximately 5'7" tall. She has no diabetic complications. Her HbA1c is 6.6,
although fingerstick readings in the month prior to presentation were in the 200s
to 300s. What would be the next best option for her management?
A. Discontinue nateglinide and add pioglitazone or rosiglitazone
B. Add an injection of insulin at bedtime
C. Order antithyroid peroxidase antibodies
D. Continue current therapy
Answer: B. This case illustrates reconsidering the diagnosis of diabetes in
individuals aged 30 to 50 years who do not fit the typical prototype of type 2
diabetes. This woman’s thin frame, lack of response to oral agents despite
compliance, and history of Hashimoto’s thyroiditis suggest that she may have type
1 instead of type 2 diabetes. Continuing her current therapy or changing her to
other oral medications would not provide the best control for her. Antithyroid
peroxidase antibodies for Hashimoto’s thyroiditis would not be helpful in her
diabetic management. One could order antiglutamic acid decarboxylase (GAD) and
anti-islet cell antibodies, which may be positive in type 1 diabetes.

Q.4. A 57-year-old male with type 2 diabetes was readmitted for possible wound
infection two months after his bypass surgery. He was discharged with tube feeds
around the clock and on 55 units of lantus at bedtime. Upon readmission, his diet
has advanced to mechanical soft and is administered three times a day. He is
ordered sliding scale regular insulin (SSI) only without basal insulin. His creatinine
on admission is 1.7. His blood glucose readings over a 48- hour period were as
follows:
Breakfa Lunc Dinn Bedti Breakfa Lunc Dinn Bedti 030
st h er me st h er me 0
Gluco 270 245 86 253 — — 594 477 35
se
SSI 12 9 0 12 0 0 24 24 0
At the last reading, when the patient’s glucose was 35, he was administered 1 amp
of
D50. What is the most likely etiology of his hypoglycemia?
A. Insulin stacking due to overlapping effects of regular insulin administered in
large doses without basal insulin administration
B. Continued effects of lantus insulin previously administered when patient was on
tube feedings
C. Renal insufficiency
D. A and C
Answer: D. This case illustrates the danger of using sliding scale insulin
alone without the administration of basal and prandial insulin. Because of the half
life of regular insulin, the tail end of the dose given at dinnertime for the blood
glucose of 594 overlaps with the peak of the dose given at bedtime for the blood
glucose of 477, resulting in hypoglycemia at 3 a.m. In addition, insulin is cleared
by the kidneys and, in the setting of renal insufficiency, its action is prolonged.
This also increases the risk of hypoglycemia.

Q.5. The patient presented in the previous case weighs 175 pounds and has type 2
diabetes. What is the approximate total daily insulin dose that he requires?
A. 40 units/day
B. 80 units/day
C. 20 units/day
D. 150 units/day
Answer: B. In calculating his daily insulin dose, he weighs 175 pounds, which
is equivalent to 78 kg (1 kilogram = 2.25 pounds). As a type 2 diabetic, he
requires 1.0 units/kg/day. Therefore, his calculated daily insulin need is
approximately 80 units/day. 50% of this should be administered as basal insulin in
the form of 40 units of insulin glargine (Lantus) qhs or 20 units of NPH qam and
qhs. The remaining 50% should be administered as prandial insulin in the form of
12 to 14 units of insulin aspart (or lispro) four times daily or 20 units of regular
before breakfast and dinner.

Q.6. A 55-year-old male with recently diagnosed type 2 diabetes presents for further
management following a recent myocardial infarction that required stent
placement. His HbA1c is 8.8%, and his lipid profile shows triglycerides of 255, HDL
cholesterol of 40, and LDL cholesterol of 124. His blood pressure is 122/70 on
lisinopril 5 mg a day, and he has no evidence of proteinuria. He is already taking
atorvastatin 80 mg a day. In addition to starting him on glucose-lowering therapy,
you would
A. Add gemfibrozil to treat his triglycerides
 B. Add ezetimibe or a bile acid-binding resin to help lowering his LDL
cholesterol further
C. Switch to another statin
D. Continue his current therapy without changes
E. Increase atorvastatin to 160 mg a day
Answer: B. The primary target of lipid-lowering therapy for individuals with
diabetes is the LDL cholesterol, with a goal of being a level well below 100 mg/dL.
This often requires combination therapy with a statin and a bile-acid binding resin
or a cholesterol absorption inhibitor. His triglycerides are most likely elevated due
to poor glycemic control. Glycemic control should always be optimized prior to
starting fibrate therapy for high triglycerides, as glycemic improvement alone
often leads to a decrease of the triglyceride levels into the normal range.

Q.7. A 14-year-old Hispanic adolescent presents to an STD clinic complaining of

increased frequency of urination. She is not reporting any dysuria or vaginal
discharge. On examination she is 5'5" and weighs 85 kg. Her abdominal
examination is negative for CVA or suprapubic tenderness. Her examination is
otherwise significant for hyperpigmented velvety patches behind her neck and in
the axilla. Her blood glucose is 215. Urinalysis is remarkable for 2+ glucose. Her
diagnosis is most likely
A. Type 1 diabetes
B. Type 2 diabetes
C. MODY
D. Cushing’s syndrome
E. Urinary tract infection
Answer: B. This adolescent is obese and has acanthosis nigricans, a sign
strongly associated with insulin resistance. Type 2 diabetes now accounts for one
third of newly diagnosed diabetes in the second decade of life. The diagnosis of
MODY should be suspected in lean adults with new-onset diabetes.

Q.8. A 20-year-old type I diabetic presents to the emergency department with ear
pain and a swollen, red, scaley external ear. He has had ear pain for the past week
but now has developed nausea and vomiting and dizziness. He is started on
antipseudomonal antibiotics, insulin infusion, and intravenous saline. Laboratory
data show rising serum ketones after six hours of therapy:
Presentation Six Hours after Initiation of Therapy
Blood glucose 460 330
Anion gap 24 18
Serum ketone titer 1:8 1:32

Appropriate management at this time is

 A. Increase the rate of insulin infusion
B. Continue current therapy
C. Begin bicarbonate infusion for increasing acidosis
D. Initiate antifungal therapy
E. Discontinue insulin infusion an start subcutaneous insulin injections
Answer: B. This patient has DKA caused by malignant external otitis. He is
being treated appropriately with continuous intravenous insulin, hydration with
normal saline, and antipseudomonal antibiotics. During the treatment of DKA,
beta-hydroxybutyrate which is not measured in standard serum ketone assays is
converted to acetone which is measured. Thus, plasma ketones appear to worsen
during therapy and are not useful in following the treatment of DKA. The anion
gap is a more useful measure. Because the anion gap is still elevated, however, it
is too early to switch to subcutaneous insulin injections.

Q.9. A 36-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents reporting that she has
missed her most recent menstrual cycle. Urine human chorionic gonadotropin
testing in the office confirms that she is pregnant. Her diabetes has been treated
with glyburide 10 mg once a day. Her most recent hemoglobin A1c has been 8.2.
At this point, she should
A. Continue with her current regimen
B. Increase the dosage of her sulfonylurea
C. Add metformin to her regimen
D. Discontinue glyburide and start insulin
E. Switch glyburide to metformin
Answer: D. Insulin is the drug of choice for control of blood sugar during
pregnancy. The patient should be educated about the importance of as near
normal blood glucose levels as possible during the pregnancy. She should also be
referred to a maternal-fetal medicine specialist and/or an endocrinologist for
management.

Q.10. A 42-year-old woman presents with concerns regarding diabetes. She reports
that her father and mother and two siblings have diabetes. She denies any
polyuria or polydipsia, blurry vision, or recent weight change. On examination, she
has a BMI of 28 and a blood pressure of 128/80. Which of the following regarding
testing for diabetes is false?
A. Fasting plasma glucose of greater than or equal to 126 mg/dL is diagnostic
B. Two-hour post glucose challenge of greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL is
diagnostic
C. Random plasma glucose of greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL is diagnostic
 D. A positive test should be repeated
Answer: C. Random plasma glucose of greater than or equal to 200 mg/dL
with symptoms is diagnostic. In the absence of symptoms, this criterion is not
diagnostic. The other criteria are correct. A positive test should be confirmed via
repeat testing.

Q.10. All of the following are important concerns in choosing a sulfonylurea in a

patient except
A. Risk of hypoglycemia
B. Hepatic and renal function
C. Potential for causing cardiovascular disease
D. Risk of weight gain
Answer: C. Important considerations for choosing therapy with a
sulfonylurea include risk of hypoglycemia, especially in elderly patients and those
with renal and hepatic insufficiency. Weight gain may occur as they act as insulin
secretagogues. Despite initial concern that sulfonylureas may increase cardiac
risk, the large UKPDS trial has not shown any increase in cardiovascular events.

Q.11. Which of the following statements regarding metformin therapy is not correct?
A. It should not be used above age 80
B. Lactic acidosis is a rare complication
C. It can be used with significant renal insufficiency if creatinine levels are
monitored closely
D. It reduces insulin resistance
Answer: C. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and reduces
peripheral insulin resistance. The most severe adverse event is the development of
lactic acidosis. The risk of this complication is increased by renal insufficiency.
Therefore it is contraindicated in men with a creatinine above 1.5 or women with a
creatinine above 1.4 or in elderly patients above age 80.

Q.12. Which of the statements regarding thiazolidenediones is incorrect?

A. They reduce peripheral insulin resistance
B. They may be rapidly titrated for effect
C. They may be initiated if ALT is less than 2.5 times the upper limit of normal
D. Liver function tests should be followed every two months for the first year of
therapy
E. The drug should be discontinued if ALT is above three times the upper limit of
normal during therapy
 Answer: B. Thiazolidinediones act via binding of nuclear receptors to modify
peripheral insulin resistance. They take six to eight weeks to effect this change
and should be titrated upwards slowly at this interval. The most severe adverse
event associated with this class is hepatic dysfunction that can be fulminant.
Baseline ALT should be measured and the drug should not be initiated if ALT is
above 2.5 times the upper limit of normal. Levels should be followed every two
months and therapy should be discontinued if ALT rises to above three times the
upper limit of normal.

CHAPTER 39: THYROID DISEASE

Q.1. A 26-year-old woman develops typical symptoms of hyperthyroidism and is

diagnosed with Graves’ disease. She has mild ophthalmopathy and a large goiter
with a bruit. Which is true about possible treatment options?
A. Radioactive iodine therapy should be used, but may worsen her mild
ophthalmopathy
B. Propranolol is preferable to atenolol for symptomatic relief
C. Surgery is indicated to debulk the thyroid first before pursing radioactive iodine
therapy
D. Given the large size of the goiter, radioactive iodine may be inadequate and
antithyroid drugs alone are the best option to achieve remission
E. Radioactive iodine should be avoided in this patient of child-bearing age due to
the long-term association with infertility
Answer: A. Radioactive iodine therapy is a reasonable first-line choice of
therapy, but may worsen her underlying eye disease. Beta-blocker therapy is
appropriate for symptom relief. Longer acting agents (atenolol as opposed to
propranolol) are preferable to avoid frequent symptom recurrence. Surgery is
usually not indicated for Graves’ disease unless there is evidence of tracheal
compression or the patient refuses other options. Antithyroid drugs are less likely
to achieve remission in patients with large goiters. Finally, radioactive iodine has
not been associated with infertility or birth defects and is fine to use in women of
child-bearing age.

Q.2. A 55-year-old woman is seen in your office for a routine annual physical. On
examination, you find a small, firm, nontender nodule in the left thyroid lobe that
is approximately 1 cm in diameter. She has no symptoms, although she does
recall that her mother also had a thyroid nodule. You order a TSH, which is
normal. What do you recommend?
 A. You recommend watchful waiting with close observation, given her lack of
symptoms, no evidence of rapid growth, and lack of cervical adenopathy
B. You recommend a fine needle biopsy to rule out malignancy
C. You recommend an ultrasound to help determine if the nodule is benign or
malignant, and thus whether biopsy is recommended
D. You recommend a calcitonin level, given her family history of thyroid disease
Answer: B. This patient has an asymptomatic thyroid nodule. It is nearly
impossible to discern malignancy by physical exam alone, and watchful waiting
would be inappropriate. A biopsy is required to determine if the nodule if benign or
malignant. An ultrasound is not helpful in this determination, unless it shows a
small, simple cyst. A calcitonin level is useful in screening for medullary thyroid
cancer in patients with family history of medullary cancer or MEN II (not present in
her family history). It is not useful in the routine workup of thyroid nodules.

Q.3. A 65-year-old woman is brought to the emergency room for fever and change
in mental status. Her family found her lying in bed, mumbling unintelligibly. On
examination she is diaphoretic and clammy. She answers to her name but is
otherwise incoherent. An ECG shows atrial fibrillation at a rate of 125. TSH was
undetectable a week ago in her primary doctor’s office.
A. Supportive care, including β-blockers for cardiac rate control and cooling
blankets for hyperthermia, should be administered
B. Aggressive temperature control with aspirin is imperative
C. Methimazole is the preferred antithyroid agent, as it inhibits peripheral
conversion of T4 to T3
D. Given the severity of her illness, potassium iodide is recommended
E. Both A and D are correct
Answer: E. This patient is suffering from acute thyroid storm, as evidenced
by her delirium, fever, and atrial fibrillation. This is a medical emergency.
Supportive care, antithyroid medications, and potassium iodide are all
recommended. Aspirin should be avoided, as it binds to thyroid-binding globulin,
displaces T4, and causes free T4 to rise. Propylthiouracil is the preferred
antithyroid agent, as it inhibits the peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.

Q.4. A 23-year-old woman presents with a two-month history of nervousness, heat

intolerance, and a 10-pound weight loss. Her physical examination reveals a pulse
of 85 beats per minute and a slightly enlarged nontender thyroid. There is no
proptosis. Thyroid function tests are as follows: Free T4 2.5 ng/dL (0.8–1.8), T3
200 ng/dL (70–180), TSH <0.05 mU/L (0.5–5). What would be the next most
appropriate step?
 A. Start an antithyroid drug at a low dose (e.g., PTU 50 mg tid or methimazole 10
mg daily)
B. Refer for radioiodine therapy
C. Order a 24-hour radioiodine uptake
D. Neasure antithyroid antibodies
E. Check thyroid stimulating antibodies (TSAb)
Answer: C. It is unclear whether this patient has mild Graves’ disease or
silent thyroiditis. The 24-hour radioiodine uptake would establish the diagnosis. It
is inappropriate to begin antithyroid drug therapy until the diagnosis is clear.
Measuring antithyroid antibodies would not be of use because they can be positive
in silent thyroiditis, as well as in Graves’ disease. Because her disease is mild,
TSAb would likely be normal even if Graves’ disease were present.

Q.5. A 54-year-old man notes a lump in his neck while shaving. He has no prior
history of thyroid disease, no family history of thyroid disease, and has no
compressive symptoms, such as dysphagia, hoarseness, shortness of breath, or
neck pain. His physical examination reveals a 2.5 × 2.5 cm rubbery left thyroid
nodule. There is no cervical lymphadenopathy. The remainder of the exam is
normal. Thyroid function tests are as follows: Free T4 1.3 ng/dL, TSH 1.0 m U/L. A
thyroid sonogram shows a mildly hypoechoic nodule in the left lobe measuring 2.5
cm. There is another nodule on the right side measuring 0.6 cm. FNA of the
dominant nodule is reported as an “adenomatoid nodule.” What should be done
next?
A. Refer the patient for surgery
B. Start thyroxine suppression therapy at a dose of 1 µg per pound of body weight
C. Start thyroxine therapy at a dose of 50 µg daily
D. Advise the patient to return for follow-up ultrasound in three months
E. Advise the patient to return in one year for follow-up ultrasound
Answer E. The patient has a benign thyroid nodule. Thyroid hormone
therapy either to suppress TSH or in smaller doses is not effective and not
recommended. A follow-up in three months is too soon for any change to have
occurred.

Q.6. A 25-year-old woman has been taking thyroxine replacement therapy for
hypothyroidism for 10 years. Thyroid function tests have generally been normal.
She is seen for a routine follow-up exam and aside from mild fatigue, she reports
feeling well. Her physical examination is normal, and her thyroid is not palpable.
Thyroid function tests are as follows: Free T4 1.0 ng/dL, TSH 25 m U/L. Which of
the following is not an explanation for these results?
A. Iron therapy
 B. Calcium supplementation
C. Over-the-counter cimetidine
D. Oral contraceptives
Answer: C. Iron supplements, calcium, and oral contraceptives can increase
thyroxine requirements. Iron and calcium block thyroxine absorption. Oral
contraceptives increase thyroid-binding globulin levels which, in turn, transiently
decrease free T4, which results in an increased thyroid hormone output in normal
individuals. H2-blockers and proton pump inhibitors have no effect on thyroxine
absorption.

Q.7. A 40-year-old woman presents with a two-week history of a fever, malaise, and
anterior neck pain. Her physical examination is remarkable for a pulse of 100
beats per minute, and an exquisitely tender thyroid that is firm, irregular, and
three-fold enlarged. There is a mild tremor. Thyroid function tests are as follows:
Free T4 2.0 ng/dL, TSH less than 0.05 m U/L. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate
is 100 mm/hour. Which of the following statements is true about this patient’s
condition?
A. Following the hyperthyroid phase, the patient will likely become permanently
hypothyroid
B. The best treatment for this condition is broad-spectrum antibiotics
C. The radioiodine uptake will be markedly elevated
D. Antithyroid drugs should be given until thyroid function is normal
E. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are often helpful in alleviating pain
Answer: E. This patient has subacute thyroiditis. Following the hyperthyroid
phase, most patients ultimately recover normal thyroid function. The best
treatment is nonsteroidals, although prednisone may be needed in severe cases.
The radioiodine uptake is low and antithyroid drugs are not indicated.

Q.8. A 52-year-old man is admitted to the CCU with an acute anterior myocardial
infarction. He subsequently develops cardiogenic shock and requires aortic balloon
pump. Later in his hospital course, he also develops acute renal failure treated
with low-dose intravenous dopamine, as well as drug-induced hepatitis. He is
clinically improving and is slowly recovering kidney function. The medical student
on the team feels a goiter and thyroid function tests are obtained. These reveal a
TSH of 9 m U/L (normal 0.5–4.5) and a free T4 of 0.8 ng/dL (normal 0.8–1.8
ng/dL). Which of the following is true?
A. The patient is probably hypothyroid given the low free T4 and high TSH; to aid
in recovery, thyroxine should be started
B. Intravenous dopamine has probably caused a temporary increase in the TSH
level; nothing further is required
 C. TSH is only mildly elevated in the setting of acute illness and a normal free T4;
nothing further should be done
D. A radioactive thyroid scan would be useful in determining if the patient is truly
hypothyroid
E. None of the above
Answer: C. The diagnosis of thyroid disease can be quite difficult in acutely ill
patients. The patient is in the recovery phase of an acute illness. It is not
uncommon to see mild elevations of TSH in this situation (although usually not
above 20 m U/L). Given his normal T4, the patient is probably euthyroid and does
not require treatment. Dopamine (and glucocorticoids) tends to cause a decrease
in TSH secretion by the pituitary, not an increase. A radioactive thyroid scan is not
useful in diagnosing hypothyroidism, especially in the setting of an acutely ill
patient.

Q.9. A 28-year-old woman presents to your office with a tender neck. She gave birth
to her first child approximately 11 months ago. Last week, she describes having a
sore throat, nasal congestion, and rhinorrhea. She self-medicated with
antihistamines and initially improved. She then developed a fever and severe neck
pain radiating to the left ear. On exam, you are able to palpate an enlarged
thyroid that is exquisitely tender to touch. Initial labs reveal a WBC of 7000 and a
TSH of less than 0.01 m U/L. The most likely diagnosis is
A. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
B. Subacute thyroiditis
C. Silent (postpartum) thyroiditis
D. Acute bacterial thyroiditis
E. Acute onset of Graves’ disease
Answer: B. The constellation of neck pain, fever, and a tender thyroid in a
patient with a recent viral illness is highly suggestive of subacute (de Quervain’s)
thyroiditis. During the acute phase, the TSH is often suppressed. Hashimoto’s
thyroiditis is usually seen in older women (above age 59), and the onset is
typically more gradual. The TSH should also be elevated, not suppressed. In
postpartum thyroiditis the onset is usually sooner than 11 months from delivery,
and patients often have a firm, nontender goiter. Acute bacterial thyroiditis is a
reasonable consideration, but most patients with this remain euthyroid and have a
pronounced leukocytosis. Finally, acute onset of Graves’ disease would be
consistent with the low TSH, but patients do not usually have severe neck pain.

Q.10. A 70-year-old woman with long-standing hypothyroidism is brought to the

emergency room for a witnessed seizure. She had been well until three weeks
ago, when she underwent colon resection for early stage colon cancer. She initially
 did well, but has experienced progressive lethargy over the last two weeks. She
reports that her only medication is oxycodone for postoperative pain. While in the
emergency room, she is found to have a temperature of 95.4o F and a TSH of 77 m
U/L. Which of the following is true?
A. Therapy should be instituted with a loading dose of intravenous levothyroxine,
followed by a daily dose of 100 to 150 g intravenously
B. Therapy should be instituted with intravenous T3 because it acts much more
quickly, with no increase in adverse sequelae
C. She has most likely been hypothyroid for years and noncompliant with her
levothyroxine therapy
D. The mortality rate for this condition is low
E. Intravenous hydrocortisone should be avoided, as it will greatly increase the
risk of infection
Answer: A. This patient has myxedema coma, which is a medical emergency.
The mortality rate is as high as 50%. She should be treated with intravenous
levothyroxine urgently. While intravenous T3 will act more quickly, it is also
associated with greater myocardial oxygen demand. This could lead to ischemia in
this elderly woman. It would be more prudent to start with intravenous
levothyroxine first. While this patient may have been hypothyroid for years, she
has reasons other than noncompliance with levothyroxine that could have
precipitated myxedema coma, including a recent surgical stress and the use of
narcotics for pain control. Finally, many patients with autoimmune thyroiditis
(most common cause) may also have diminished adrenal reserve. Hydrocortisone
is reasonable to administer concurrently. Short-term use (2–3 days) will not
increase the risk of infection.

Q.11. Which of the following statements regarding thyroid malignancy is true?

A. Medullary thyroid cancer is most commonly associated with a mutation in the
p53 oncogene
B. Follicular cancer is the most common type of thyroid malignancy
C. Anaplastic thyroid cancer has the best prognosis
D. Men are more likely to develop thyroid cancer than women
E. Radioactive iodine is a reasonable initial approach to treating localized papillary
cancer
Answer: D. Men are at higher risk of developing thyroid cancer than women.
The other statements are all false. Medullary thyroid cancer is most commonly
associated with a RET oncogene mutation. Papillary cancer is the most common
type of thyroid malignancy, and localized disease should be treated primarily with
surgery. Anaplastic thyroid cancer has the worst prognosis of all types.
Q.12. A 56-year-old woman with a history of osteoarthritis and atrial fibrillation
presents to your office with mild weight loss and heat intolerance. She otherwise
feels well. Her physical examination reveals a diffuse goiter with no discrete
nodules. You run thyroid tests and find her TSH to be less than 0.01 m U/L and
her free T4 to be 2.1 ng/dL (normal 0.8–1.8 ng/dL). An ECG shows normal sinus
rhythm. A subsequent thyroid radioiodine uptake test shows diffusely decreased
uptake. The best course of action is to
A. Discontinue amiodarone and switch to another antiarrhythmic medication
B. Check a toxicology screen for surreptitious use of levothyroxine
C. Start methimazole
D. Perform an oophorectomy for struma ovarii
E. Start suppressive doses of levothyroxine
Answer: A. This woman has symptomatic and biochemical evidence of
thyrotoxicosis. Her examination is notable for a diffuse goiter, but no discrete
nodules. Her radioactive iodine uptake test shows decreased uptake diffusely. All
of these findings are consistent with a diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis secondary to
amiodarone therapy. It should be discontinued. Surreptitious ingestion of
levothyroxine may show decreased radioiodine uptake, but should not produce a
goiter. Methimazole would be appropriate to start for Graves’ disease, but this
diagnosis should demonstrate increased radioiodine uptake. Struma ovarii (ectopic
thyroid tissue in the ovaries) could be treated with oophorectomy, but is unlikely,
given the goiter on exam. It is also quite rare in comparison with common causes,
such as amiodarone. Finally, suppressive doses of levothyroxine would be more
appropriate for a toxic nodule or nodular goiter with increased radioiodine uptake.
This diagnosis is not supported by this woman’s thyroid exam or radioiodine
uptake results.

CHAPTER 40: CALCIUM DISORDERS AND METABOLIC BONE DISEASE

Q.1. A 72-year-old Australian man presents to the office with pain in his right leg for
one year. He has no prior medical problems and denies trauma to the leg. Physical
examination shows lateral bowing of the femur. Labs reveal a calcium of 8.4,
phosphorus of 3.6, AST of 22, total bilirubin of 0.9, and alkaline phosphatase of
740. Possible long-term complications of his disease include all of the following
except
A. Renal failure
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Osteosarcoma
D. Hearing loss
 E. Bone fractures
Answer: A. The first step is to recognize that this patient most likely has
Paget’s disease as evidenced by his ethnicity, unilateral extremity pain, femoral
bowing, and high alkaline phosphatase. All of the above answers are fairly well
recognized complications of Paget’s disease except renal failure. Congestive heart
failure stems from a high-output state from numerous vascular shunts in the
bone, osteosarcoma from high-turnover, hearing loss from impingement of nerves
in the inner ear, and bone fractures from increased fragility.

Q.2. A 72-year-old woman with a history of lung cancer and type 2 diabetes
presents to the emergency room with nausea, vomiting, polydipsia, polyuria, and
change in mental status. Laboratories reveal glucose of 248 mg/dL, creatinine of
1.4 mg/dL, calcium of 13.9 mg/dL, and bicarbonate of 19 mg/dL. Which of the
following is the most appropriate first step in management?
A. Begin an insulin drip at 1 to 2 units per hour with frequent dexisticks
B. Administer mithramycin to inhibit osteoclast function
C. Institute aggressive hydration with IV fluids, followed by diuresis with
furosemide
D. Institute aggressive hydration with IV fluids, followed by diuresis with
hydrochlorthiazide
E. Begin high-dose prednisone at 60 mg per day
Answer: C. This patient presents with symptoms of hypercalcemia, which
mimic those of diabetic ketoacidosis. However, her calcium level is more
worrisome than is her glucose level and should be the focus of treatment. The
appropriate first step is administration of aggressive IV fluids, followed by diuresis
when the volume is replete. Loop diuretics are preferable because thiazides may
further increase the calcium level. The first choice in additional pharmacologic
therapy of hypercalcemia (after volume resuscitation) would be calcitonin or
pamidronate, not mithramycin. Likewise, steroids are most useful for the subset of
patients with granulomatous disease and hypercalcemia. This patient probably has
hypercalcemia of malignancy.

Q.3. A 50-year-old, perimenopausal Caucasian woman presents to your office for the
first time for a routine physical. Her last menses was 12 months ago. She is not
eager to pursue hormone therapy because she read in the newspaper that every
woman on estrogen develops breast cancer. She has no chronic medical conditions
or endocrine disorders. She is on no medications. Her mother had a hip fracture at
age 70 years, but she has no family history of breast cancer. The patient is a
former 20-year, pack-a-day smoker but quit 10 years ago. Her physical
examination reveals a thin body habitus but is otherwise normal. Which of the
following is recommended?
 A. The patient is probably not at high risk for osteoporosis because she does not
suffer from endocrine diseases such as hyperthyroidism or hyperparathyroidism;
nothing further should be done at this time
B. The patient should take calcium and vitamin D and consider screening for
osteoporosis in five years once she is completely through menopause
C. The patient should begin hormone replacement therapy and have a screening
study in five years once her menopause is complete
D. The patient should undergo screening for osteoporosis now
E. The patient has a complicated clinical picture for osteoporosis and should be
referred to an endocrinologist
Answer: D. This woman has numerous osteoporosis risk factors including
being thin, Caucasian, postmenopausal, a former smoker, and a positive family
history. She should be screened for osteoporosis now. Waiting five years without
therapy may result in excessive bone loss, particularly in the perimenopause,
when rate of bone loss is most rapid. Even starting calcium and vitamin D or
hormone replacement therapy now would not preclude the need to obtain baseline
bone mineral measurements (to assess risk for fracture). Osteoporosis screening
can be easily accomplished by an internist; referral to an endocrinologist is not
necessary at this point.

Q.4. A 55-year-old menopausal woman undergoes bone mineral density testing

(DXA scan) because of a strong family history of osteoporosis. Her scores are as
follows: hip T-score of −2.6 and Z-score of −1.2; L-spine T-score of −2.5 and Z-
score of −1.0. Her only medications are calcium and a multivitamin that contains
vitamin D. Which one of the following statements concerning her treatment is
true?
A. The bisphosphonates tend to be less potent than other therapies and lack
randomized, controlled trials that determine efficacy
B. Her bone mineral density scores are concerning; she should start additional
therapy (other than calcium and vitamin D)
C. Estrogen, although useful in the prevention of osteoporosis, will not increase
bone density in women with osteoporosis
D. Increasing bone mineral density by as little as 5% is not enough to decrease
vertebral fracture risk
E. Her bone density scores are somewhat reassuring; she should continue her
calcium supplementation for now
Answer: B. This patient has frank osteoporosis as documented by her bone
density T-score of less than −2.5. She should be started on additional therapy
(e.g., bisphosphonates or raloxifene). A is incorrect because the bisphosphonates
are the most potent inhibitors of bone resorption available and have proven
 efficacy in fracture risk reduction. C is incorrect because estrogen will increase
bone density in osteoporotic patients, although it is currently not FDA-approved
for treatment because of the lack of large, prospective trials. Various drugs
approved for treatment of osteoporosis increase bone mineral density in the first
several years by varying amounts (ranging from 2% to 8%), yet all decrease
vertebral fracture risk. Finally, E is incorrect because her scores are not at all
reassuring; calcium and vitamin D therapy alone is not sufficient.

Q.5. A 77–year-old woman who has been living in a nursing home for the past five
years is brought to your office by her daughter. The daughter reports that the
patient has “not been right” and describes vague total body pains and fatigue. It is
difficult for the daughter to provide more specific symptoms. To her knowledge,
the patient has not had fevers, nausea, vomiting, or other symptoms. Her physical
examination is unremarkable other than very mild diffuse weakness. Her labs
show the following:
Sodium 135
Calcium 9.0
Potassium 3.8
Phosphorus 1.8
AST 25
Alkaline phosphatase 330
A DXA perfomed a year ago had shown mild osteopenia. After confirming the
diagnosis with another test, what therapy should be instituted?
A. Start calcium 650 mg twice a day and ergocalciferol 50,000 IU twice per week;
reassess in three months
B. Start calcium 650 mg twice a day and potassium phosphate 500 mg twice a
day; reassess in three months
C. Start calcium 650 mg twice a day and alendronate 70 mg once a week; repeat
a DXA scan in one year
D. Start calcium 650 mg twice a day and vitamin D 800 IU once a day; reassess in
three months
E. Start calcium 650 mg twice a day, potassium phosphate 500 mg twice a day,
and risedronate 35 mg once a week; repeat DXA in one year
Answer: A. This patient presents with osteomalacia, a disorder of inadequate
mineralization of the bone matrix due to calcium +/− phosphate deficiency. Her
diffuse body pains and lethargy are typical of the vague symptoms patients have.
Living in a nursing home with decreased sunlight exposure leading to decreased
vitamin D synthesis puts a patient at particularly high risk. Lab findings are often
notable for low-normal calcium, low phosphorus, and mildly elevated alkaline
phosphatase. The diagnosis is confirmed by a low 25 (OH) vitamin D level (<30
 ng/mL). Therapy consists of repletion of vitamin D by ergocalciferol in a dose of
50,000 IU once or twice per week. Over-the-counter cholecalciferol will not be
adequate to replenish a patient’s stores. Patients should also be prescribed
calcium. After three months of therapy, it is reasonable to repeat a 25 (OH)
vitamin D level to assess adequacy of therapy. If replete, patients can then be
converted to over-the-counter vitamin D. This patient has only mild osteopenia on
her DXA scan. She does not require bisphosphonates (alendronate or risedronate).
Likewise, potassium phosphate supplements are not needed.

Q.6. A 33-year-old African-American woman presents with a dry cough for the past
six months. She also notes mild dyspnea on exertion but has attributed that to a
weight gain of 10 pounds. Her husband, who accompanies her, also mentions that
she has been more fatigued lately. On examination, you note a few scattered
crackles in the bilateral lung fields but no wheezing or rhonchi. The remainder of
her exam is normal. Labs are notable for a hematocrit of 33, a creatinine of 0.9,
an AST of 45, an ALT of 50, and a calcium of 11.2. Her chest x-ray reveals hilar
adenopathy and a few bilateral lower lobe infiltrates. What is the best approach to
her hypercalcemia?
A. Admit for aggressive hydration with normal saline
B. Arrange infusion of intravenous methylprednisolone in the next several days
C. Arrange infusion of intravenous pamidronate for long-term efficacy
D. Begin oral prednisone at 60 mg per day and taper over 6 to 12 months
E. Prescribe calcitonin, as it will have the quickest onset and the longest duration
of action
Answer: D. This patient has a classic case of sarcoidosis. Supporting
evidence includes symptoms of dry cough and dyspnea on exertion, hilar
adenopathy and infiltrates on chest x-ray, mild anemia, increased liver enzymes,
and hypercalcemia. The hypercalcemia is most likely related to unregulated
synthesis of 1,25 (OH) vitamin D to its active form by granuloma-associated
macrophages. The treatment of choice for this type of hypercalcemia is
prednisone, and one can expect an excellent response. The patient’s presentation
is not acute, and she does not require admission for urgent treatment with normal
saline. There is no reason to think intravenous methylprednisolone is more
efficacious than oral prednisone. An infusion of pamidronate is probably not
necessary, given the odds of a good response to prednisone. Calcitonin is also not
necessary and, although it has the quickest onset of the hypercalcemic options, its
duration of action is not the longest (bisphosphonates are longer).

Q.7. A 35-year-old woman presents to your office for a routine visit. She has been
on prednisone 10 mg a day as treatment for systemic lupus erythematosis for the
last six months. Her symptoms included a malar rash, arthralgias, and mild
 nephropathy. She is doing much better, although attempts to wean her prednisone
below 7.5 mg have been unsuccessful. Should she undergo screening for
osteoporosis with a DXA scan?
A. No—her dose of prednisone is not high enough to result in bone density loss
B. No—the duration of steroid therapy has not been long enough in duration to put
her at risk
C. Yes—any patient on steroids for longer than three months should be screened
D. Yes—any patient on steroids for longer than 12 months should be screened
E. No—she is still premenopausal and thus her risk for osteoporosis is not that
high
Answer: C. Steroid-induced osteoporosis is the most common cause of
secondary osteoporosis. Doses as small as 7.5 mg per day for durations of only
three months or more can result in significant bone loss. This patient should
definitely undergo screening for osteoporosis with a DXA scan. Her dose is large
enough and duration long enough for screening to be indicated. Waiting for 12
months of therapy would be too long. Her premenopausal status does not change
the need for screening, but may be important in therapeutic considerations.

Q.8. A 35-year-old man presents for a routine physical. He has no significant past
medical history and feels well. His physical exam is unremarkable. A set of routine
labs reveal the following:
Sodium 141mg/dL
Potassium 4.2 mg/dL
Chloride 108 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.8 mg.dL
Calcium 11.2 mg/dL
Phosphorus 4.0 mg/dL
On further questioning, he has no history of malignancy. His mother underwent neck
exploration 10 years ago for unclear reasons but nothing was found. His older
sister has hypertension.
A. A sestamibi scan will likely show a single parathyroid adenoma
B. His disorder is hereditary and is usually autosomal recessive
C. A PTH-related peptide level is likely to be elevated
D. A 24-hour urine collection is likely to reveal a calcium excretion of greater than
400 mg per every 24 hours
E. A PTH measurement is likely to be normal
Answer: E. This patient is found to have an incidental slightly elevated
calcium level with no other abnormalities. His history and physical examination are
unremarkable. The most likely diagnosis is familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia
 (FHH). Another clue is that his mother underwent a negative neck exploration,
probably also due to a high serum calcium and subsequent attempt to rule out a
parathyroid adenoma. FHH is a benign genetic disorder (autosomal dominant) that
gives rise to a mutation in the gene encoding the calcium receptor; neither the
kidneys nor parathyroid glands sense calcium appropriately. The result is that the
body’s “set point” for normal calcium level is higher than average. Patients with
FHH have normal life expectancy and no sequelae. PTH levels are usually normal
and 24-hour urine calcium levels are classically less than 100 mg/24 hours. In this
case, a sestamibi scan looking for a parathyroid adenoma is likely to be negative.
Likewise, there is no reason to suspect a malignancy in this patient, and a PTH-
related peptide level (often high in patients with squamous cell cancers and
hypercalcemia) would not be elevated.

Q.9. A 65-year-old man is hospitalized for a severe lower gastrointestinal bleed. His
hematocrit on admission is 17 (baseline around 42). He is given a rapid
transfusion of 4 units of packed red blood cells immediately followed by another 4
units within the first 24 hours. Early the next morning, you are called by the nurse
to evaluate him due to symptoms of numbness in his hands and feet and difficulty
breathing, as well as diffuse muscle twitches on exam. You send stat labs and
confirm the diagnosis. Which of the following is likely to be true about his clinical
presentation?
A. Inflating the blood pressure cuff above systolic is unlikely to provoke carpopedal
spasm
B. His pulmonary exam may reveal diffuse wheezing
C. Tapping on his facial nerve could evoke a Bell’s palsy
D. His ECG is likely to show shortening of the QT interval
E. Parasthesias typically are periumbilical in location
Answer: B. This patient has undergone massive transfusion of packed red
cells in a short amount of time. The citrate contained in the packed red cells can
bind calcium and lead to hypocalcemia of rapid onset. In this patient, stat ionized
calcium confirmed the diagnosis. One must be able to recognize the clinical
presentation of hypocalcemia to answer this question. It is feasible that his
shortness of breath is due to bronchospasm (secondary to the hypocalcemia),
resulting in diffuse wheezing on exam (the correct answer). Inflating a blood
pressure cuff above systolic may induce carpopedal spasm (Trousseau’s sign).
Likewise, tapping on his facial nerve could invoke facial spasm (Chvostek’s sign),
not a Bell’s palsy. An ECG is likely to show QT interval prolongation, not
shortening. Finally, parasthesias tend to be peri-oral, not peri-umbilical.

Q.10. A 35-year-old man is found to have a routine calcium measurement of 11.1

mg/dL. He has no symptoms and feels well. A 24-hour urine calcium reveals an
 excretion of 240 mg per day. A sestamibi scan reveals an isolated left-sided
parathyroid adenoma. He wants to know what he should do for treatment. What
do you recommend?
A. You recommend conservative medical management, as he is asymptomatic at
this time
B. You recommend surgery given his young age and risk of future complications
C. You recommend medical management as he has no history of kidney stones
D. You recommend a thiazide diuretic to increase his urinary excretion of calcium
and thus improve his hypercalcemia
E. You recommend surgery with removal of 3 1/2 parathyroid glands and
transplantation of the remaining 1/2 gland in the arm.
Answer: B. You recommend surgery due to his young age. There are no
absolute rules as to which patients with hyperparathyroidism and an isolated
adenoma should proceed to surgery. A consensus panel, however, suggests
patients with the following should highly consider surgery: young age (<50),
nephrolithiasis, low bone density, serum calcium equal to or greater than 1 mg/dL
above the reference range, or a 24-hour urine excretion greater than 400 mg/day.
This patient qualifies based on his young age and long-term risk of developing
complications, even though he is currently asymptomatic. A thiazide diuretic
results in calcium resorption from the proximal tubule and would worsen his
hypercalcemia. The appropriate surgery is removal of the adenoma. Excision of 3
1/2 glands is reserved for parathyroid hyperplasia.

Q.11. A 65-year-old woman who underwent a right mastectomy for breast cancer
five years ago now presents to the emergency department with new-onset
lethargy and polyuria for 4 to 5 days. Her daughter, who accompanies her, tells
you she has lost weight and has complained of back pain for the last two months.
Physical examination reveals a blood pressure of 115/75 and a heart rate of 110.
She is obtunded, but her neurological examination appears nonfocal. Spine films
showed diffuse bony metastases. Labs include the following:
Hematocrit 50%
Calcium 13.9 mg/dL
Creatinine 1.5 mg/dL
Phosphorus 3.1 mg/dL
Albumin 3.1g/dL
The most appropriate initial management is
A. Intravenous plicamycin
B. Intravenous furosemide
C. Subcutaneous calcitonin
 D. Intravenous saline
E. Intravenous pamidronate
Answer: D. All of the above therapies are helpful, but the most crucial first
step is aggressive intravenous hydration. This should be followed with intravenous
furosemide (once euvolemia has been established) and more long-term therapies
such as pamidronate or calcitonin. Intravenous plicamycin is used much less
commonly due to side effects (e.g., nausea, local irritation, hepatotoxicity).

Q.12. A 26-year-old male postal worker presents to your office for a pre-
employment physical. He feels well and has no symptoms. His past medical history
is notable for appendicitis at age 17 resulting in an appendectomy and severe
peptic ulcer disease, not well controlled on omeprazole. He continues to use TUMs
antacids many times throughout the day. His physical examination is
unremarkable. On routine labs, you find a calcium of 11.0 mg/dL. The remainder
of his electrolytes and chemistries are normal. Upon further questioning, he does
not recall any family history of hypercalcemia, but states his mother underwent
trans-sphenoidal pituitary resection 10 years ago. What test should be done next?
A. VIP level and fasting glucose
B. 24-hour urine for metanephrines
C. Serum calcitonin level
D. Serum intact PTH and gastrin level
E. Glucose tolerance test
Answer: D. The key to this question is recognizing that the patient presents
with a history consistent with multiple endocrine neoplasia 1 syndrome (MEN 1 or
Wermer’s syndrome). The MEN 1 syndrome is characterized by the triad of
hyperparathyroidism, pituitary tumors, and pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors. His
peptic ulcer disease may be representative of an underlying gastrin-secreting
pancreatic tumor (Zollinger-Ellison’s syndrome), especially given his young age.
His hypercalcemia may suggest underlying hyperparathyroidism. The possibility of
hereditary MEN 1 is further supported by the family history of possible pituitary
tumor in his mother. In order to diagnose the syndrome, an intact PTH and gastrin
level should be ordered. He does not have symptoms to suggest a VIPoma,
although this can be seen with MEN 1 syndrome. Diabetes is not part of MEN 1, so
a fasting glucose or a glucose tolerance test would not be useful. A 24-hour urine
for metanephrines and a serum calcitonin level can be used to screen for
pheochromocytoma and medullary thyroid cancer, respectively, but these are seen
with MEN 2a and 2b, not with MEN 1.

Q.13. Which of the following patients is not currently at increased risk for secondary
osteoporosis?
 A. A 32-year-old woman with seizures on phenytoin for 10 years.
B. A 60-year-old woman with a 20-year history of rheumatoid arthritis treated
with etanercept
C. A 24-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosis treated with
hydroxychloroquine
D. A 19-year-old woman admitted to a psychiatric ward for anorexia nervosa,
amenorrhea, and a weight of 88 lbs
E. A 58-year-old man status post lung transplant on cyclosporine
Answer: C. There are many secondary causes of osteoporosis, and this
question illustrates several: anti-seizure medication (A), rheumatoid arthritis
(independent of steroid therapy) (B), poor nutritional intake and amenorrhea due
to relative estrogen deficiency (D), and cyclosporine use (E). Systemic lupus
erythematosis alone does not cause osteoporosis. If steroid therapy is required to
treat the lupus, the patient would be at increased risk of osteoporosis.

Q.14. Which of the following patients meets diagnostic criteria for osteoporosis?
A. A 57-year-old postmenopausal woman who is found to have osteopenia on a
preoperative chest x-ray
B. A 48-year-old perimenopausal woman with a DEXA scan lumbar spine Z-score
of +2.5
C. A 70-year-old woman with a history of a traumatic wrist fracture and a DEXA
scan T-score of −1.9 in the trochanter
D. A 56-year-old woman with a history of hyperthyroidism and a DEXA scan
showing a Z-score of −1.9 and a T-score of −2.6 in the lumbar spine
E. All of the above
Answer: D. The definitive diagnosis of osteoporosis is made through a DEXA
scan T-score of −2.5 or lower. Any one anatomical site with such a low score is
sufficient for diagnosis. A patient with osteopenia on a routine x-ray should
proceed to DEXA scan, but the x-ray is not sufficient for diagnosis. Likewise, an
elderly woman with a wrist fracture should also have bone density measurement
to evaluate the suspicion of osteoporosis. The woman with the Z-score of +2.5
probably also has an excellent T-score and would not be diagnosed with
osteoporosis.

Q.15. You are treating a woman for osteoporosis diagnosed by DEXA scan one
month ago. You have both decided on treatment with alendronate 10mg per day.
Which one of the following statements about assessing response to therapy is
true?
A. A decrease in serum intact-PTH is a good marker of assessment of response to
therapy with bisphosphonates
 B. The earliest marker for assessment of response to therapy is a 50% decrease in
24-hour urine calcium excretion
C. Urine N-telopeptide levels, if initially high, decrease with treatment of
osteoporosis, and serve as a useful early marker for response to treatment
D. A DEXA scan should be repeated at three-month intervals to assess response to
treatment
E. A heel ultrasound can be a less expensive way to monitor response at one year
Answer: C. If the urine N-telopeptide measurement is initially high in an
osteoporotic patient, checking a subsequent level at 90 days may provide an early
indication that the bisphosphonate therapy is effective, and that the patient is
compliant. An intact-PTH and a 24-hour urine calcium excretion are less useful
markers of response. A follow-up DEXA scan should be obtained, but three months
is too early to document a response. The earliest interval one can expect to see a
response for a follow-up DEXA is at one year. Comparing results from a hell
ultrasound and a central DEXA scan is not helpful, as they often do not correlate.

CHAPTER 41: REPRODUCTIVE ENDOCRINOLOGY

Q.1. A 55-year-old disabled firefighter has a history of chronic hip pain caused by
trauma in a motor vehicle accident four years ago. He presents to your office with
symptoms of decreased libido and erectile dysfunction that began a few months
after the accident. He has no other medical history. Medications include oxycontin
for pain and a multivitamin. Physical examination reveals a well-virilized man and
is notable only for mild testicular atrophy. Testosterone level is 110 ng/dL (normal
300–1000); prolactin level is 32 ng/dL (normal 2–18 ng/dL). Which of the
following is most likely false regarding his hypogonadism?
A. It is reversible
B. It is caused by normal aging
C. Oxycontin is a likely cause
D. His FSH and LH are low
Answer: B. This man most likely has hypogonadism due to chronic opiate
use. Opiates can suppress gonadotropin (FSH and LH) secretion directly leading to
low testosterone. In addition, opiates can elevate prolactin, which in turn
suppresses gonadotropin release and causes hypogonadism. This would resolve if
oxycontin were discontinued. Whereas testosterone levels do decline some with
age, a level this low would not be normal.

Q.2. You are the only physician in a rural community. A 13-year-old boy presents to
you with complaints of breast enlargement. His growth and development to date
 have been normal. His school performance is above average. He is on no
medications. Physical examination reveals a young man in the 60th percentile for
height with age-appropriate genital development and secondary sex
characteristics. What should be your recommendation?
A. Bromocriptine once daily
B. Testosterone injections twice weekly
C. Referral for pituitary surgery
D. Reassurance
Answer: D. Most likely this boy has physiologic pubertal gynecomastia. This
resolves in most cases within several months.

Q.3. A 38-year-old woman is referred for hirsutism since age 17 years. She shaves
twice a day to control hair in the beard area, as well as on the midchest, abdomen
below the umbilicus, and inner thighs. She reports menses only twice in her life
until three months prior, when she began to have regular monthly menses. Her
primary physician diagnosed her with diabetes six months ago and started
metformin. She is on no other medications. Physical examination reveals BP of
155/85, hair distribution as the patient described, acanthosis nigricans, and no
signs of virilization. Labs show total testosterone of 55 ng/dL (normal is 15 to 60),
free testosterone of 2.5 ng/dL (normal is 0.1–2.0), and prolactin of 28 ng/dL
(normal is 2–20). What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
B. Testosterone-producing ovarian mass
C. Hyperprolactinemia caused by metformin
D. Adult-onset congenital adrenal hyperplasia
Answer: A. The history of long-term hirsutism and amenorrhea is most
consistent with PCOS. The resumption of menses with metformin use is typical in a
PCOS patient and not in a patient with congenital adrenal hyperplasia. A virilizing
tumor of the ovary would result in a higher testosterone level (possibly >200
ng/dL) and would have induced signs of virilization by now.

Q.4. A 53-year-old obese man presents with a two- to three-year history of erectile
dysfunction. He is able to achieve only a partial erection, which he is unable to
sustain. His interest in sex has diminished. He has no other medical problems,
including hypertension, cardiovascular disease, or diabetes mellitus. On physical
examination, he has a BMI of 33 kg/m2 and a blood pressure of 138/82 mm Hg.
With the exception of generalized obesity, the remainder of the physical
examination is normal. What is the next step in his management?
A. Prescribe sildenafil 25 mg before sexual activity
B. Measure an 8 AM testosterone concentration
 C. Recommend a hypocaloric diet and increase in physical activity to reduce
weight by one to two pounds per week
D. Refer for psychiatric evaluation
Answer: B. Hypogonadism should be ruled out prior to starting therapy for
erectile dysfunction. If the testosterone is normal, a phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor,
such as sildenafil, would be first-line therapy. Weight loss through diet and
exercise can improve erectile function in obese men and should also be
recommended. An investigation into a possible treatable underlying cause of
erectile dysfunction, however, should be done first. There is no indication that an
underlying psychogenic cause exists.

Q.5. A 32-year-old woman presents with oligomenorrhea and hirsutism. She has had
irregular menses since puberty, which were regulated in the past on oral
contraceptives. She discontinued her oral contraceptive one year ago as she is
interested in becoming pregnant. Physical exam reveals an overweight female.
Terminal hairs are present on the chin, cheeks, upper lips, and sternal areas.
Laboratory examination includes a fasting glucose concentration of 102 mg/dL, a
total testosterone of 75 ng/mL, and an LH:FSH ratio of 3:1. Which is the best
treatment for this patient?
A. Spironolactone
B. Clomiphene citrate
C. Metformin
D. Weight loss
Answer: D. This patient has all the characteristics of polycystic ovary disease
(menstrual dysfunction, biochemical and clinical evidence of androgen excess,
evidence of glucose dysregulation). Because she is primarily interested in fertility,
most experts would recommend weight loss as first-line treatment. Ovulation
induction can often be achieved with a relatively small loss in weight (5%–10%).
If weight loss is unsuccessful, a trial of a medication to induce ovulation
(clomiphene), with or without metformin, is generally used. Thiazolidenediones
(rosiglitazone or pioglitazone) can also be an effective adjunct, but concerns about
hepatotoxicity and possible teratogenic effects have limited the use of these
medications. If fertility is not the goal of treatment, weight loss, oral
contraceptives, and insulin sensitizers have been used alone or in combination. For
women with troublesome hirsuitism, anti-androgens such as spironolactone may
be a useful adjunct.

Q.6. A 19-year-old man presents to his university’s health clinic with breast
discomfort. He has noticed that, over the past three months, a painful swelling has
appeared under the areola bilaterally. In addition, he has noted some fatigue and
weakness. He has had normal development and is 5' 11" tall. Libido and erectile
 function have been normal. He is on no medications, but reports occasional
marijuana use. Physical examination shows a weight of 165 pounds, pulse of 95,
and blood pressure of 135/55. His thyroid exam is notable for mild enlargement.
There is firm, tender tissue about 3 cm in diameter underlying each nipple. Genital
exam is normal. What is the next best step in his management?
A. Check an 8 AM testosterone
B. Instruction to stop marijuana use
C. Check a TSH
D. Check a prolactin
Answer: C. Hyperthyroidism should be considered in any man with
gynecomastia. Sex hormone binding globulin (SHBG) production is increased by
thyroid hormone. Because androgens bind more tightly than estrogens to SHBG,
there is a relative excess of free estrogen compared to free androgens in
hyperthyroid men. In about 10% of hyperthyroid men, this results in
gynecomastia. There is no clear evidence for hypogonadism in this case, but part
of the usual workup should include a total testosterone level. A low testosterone
should also prompt an investigation for hyperprolactinemia. Marijuana use has
been associated with gynecomastia, perhaps due to estrogenic compounds in the
inhaled smoke. Other etiologies, however, should be investigated first.

Q.7. A 38-year-old African-American man presents with painful swelling under the
areola for six months. He has been receiving treatment for HIV over the past four
years. He denies erectile dysfunction, weakness, or loss of libido. Other medical
problems include mild diabetes mellitus and hypertension. He denies opiate or
marijuana use. His medications include tenofovir, lamivudine, efavirenz,
trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole, metformin, and hydrochlorothiazide. Physical
examination is normal with the exception of 2 cm of tender tissue below each
nipple. Testicular examination is normal. Total testosterone is 435 ng/dL; TSH and
prolactin are normal. Which of the following is likely contributing to his
gynecomastia?
A. Tenofovir
B. Efavirenz
C. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
D. Hydrochlorothiazide
Answer: B. Among HIV-infected patients, there are multiple reasons for
gynecomastia. Hypogonadism is common in this population and should be ruled
out first. There is some evidence that the chronic inflammation associated with
HIV disease can also be a factor. Medications likely play a significant role and,
among the HIV medications, efavirenz has been cited with the most frequently.
 The nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors zidovudine and stavudine have also
been associated with gynecomastia.

Q.8. Which of the following medications has not been linked to gynecomastia in
men?
A. Ketoconazole
B. Atenolol
C. Lisinopril
D. Spironolactone
E. Omeprazole
Answer: B. Ketoconazole, ACE inhibitors (including lisinopril), spironolactone,
and omeprazole have all been linked to gynecomastia (to varying degrees). Of the
choices listed, only atenolol (and other -blockers) has not been associated with
this process.

Q.9. A 39-year-old female attorney presents to your office with concern about facial
hair. She has noticed increasing amounts of course, black hair on her chin over the
last five years. Her menses began at age 12 and have always been regular. On
further questioning, she recalls that her mother would occasionally shave her facial
area as well. On examination, she weighs 120 pounds and her blood pressure is
125/85. She has no evidence of virilization, such as clitoromegaly or enhanced
musculature. Labs reveal a testosterone of 340 ng/dL (normal is 15–60 ng/dL) and
normal free testosterone level. What is the most appropriate next step in
diagnosing her condition?
A. No further workup is necessary
B. Check an LH/FSH ratio
C. Check a 17-hydroxyprogesterone level
D. Order a CT of the adrenal glands
E. Order a 24-hour urine for urinary free cortisol
Answer: A. This woman has a family history of facial hirsutism and normal
physical examination and laboratory values. She most likely has physiologic
(familial) hirsutism, which is common, particularly in women of Mediterranean
descent (e.g., Greek, Italian). No further workup is necessary. An LH/FSH ration
would be appropriate if you suspected polycystic ovary disease, but her menses
have been regular and she has no other symptoms suggesting this (obesity, acne,
insulin resistance). A 17-hydroxyprogesterone level is useful for ruling out
congenital adrenal hyperplasia. This is unlikely in this case, however, because her
hirsutism did not begin at menarche and she has no menstrual irregularities. An
adrenal CT would be helpful in visualizing an adrenal tumor, but the biochemical
workup does not suggest this. Finally, in a young woman without obesity or
 hypertension, Cushing’s disease is highly unlikely, and a 24-hour urinary free
cortisol would be of low diagnostic yield.

Q.10. A 17-year-old woman presents to your office for a “check-up.” During the
visit, you learn that her mother is concerned because she has never had the onset
of menses. She denies any other symptoms, including headaches, nausea, and
weight loss. She has no family history of delayed puberty. On physical
examination, she is of normal height and weight. Vital signs are normal. She has a
feminine appearance and age-appropriate breast development. On pelvic
examination, pubic hair is noticeably absent, and the vagina ends blindly. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
A. Constitutional delay of puberty
B. Turner’s syndrome
C. Testicular feminization
D. Gonadal dysgenesis
E. Kallman’s syndrome
Answer: C. This patient has primary amenorrhea, as she has never had the
initial onset of menses. The key to this question is distinguishing primary
amenorrhea with versus without secondary sexual characteristics. This patient has
normal breast development and a feminine appearance, suggesting some
secondary sexual features. This, together with the blind-ending vagina, makes
testicular feminization (karyotype XY with androgen insensitivity) likely. The
presence of secondary sexual features (e.g., normal breast development) makes
choices A, B, D, and E unlikely. In addition, she has no family history of delay of
puberty. Her normal height argues against the diagnosis of Turner’s syndrome,
and the lack of anosmia renders Kallman’s syndrome unlikely.

Q.11. A 20-year-old woman presents to your office with primary amenorrhea and
elevated gonadotropin levels. A workup reveals a karyotype of XO. Which of the
following physical features is she not likely to have?
A. Webbed neck
B. Underdeveloped breasts
C. Valgus deformity of the elbow
D. Pectus excavatum
E. Short stature
Answer: C. The patient’s karyotype of XO is consistent with the diagnosis of
Turner’s syndrome. Her primary amenorrhea and elevated gonadotropin levels
support this. Patients with Turner’s syndrome usually have a webbed neck, short
stature, valgus deformity of the elbow, and lack of sexual maturation (e.g.,
 underdeveloped breasts). They often have a shield chest, but not pectus
excavatum.

CHAPTER 42: NEUROENDOCRINE AND ADRENAL DISEASE

Q.1. A 37-year-old female with no significant past medical history is referred to you
because, after an MVA with head trauma, she underwent a brain MRI that revealed
a 0.5-cm pituitary adenoma. She reports being in good health before the accident.
She has 3 children, and the youngest one is 9 months old. She stopped breast-
feeding her 3 months ago. Her menses are regular. On physical examination, her
BP is 115/80, her weight is 120 pounds, and she stands 5 4 . She has no
breast discharge. The rest of the examination is unremarkable. Her prolactin is 14
ng/mL. What should further workup include?
A. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
B. 24-hour urinary free cortisol
C. IGF-1 level
D. Repeat MRI in 6 to12 months
E. Ophthalmology consultation for formal visual fields test
Answer: D. This patient has a pituitary “incidentaloma.” She has no signs or
symptoms of pituitary hormone deficit or excess, as indicated by recent
pregnancy, normal periods, and normal physical examination. Her prolactin is
normal. Less than 10% of these tumors grow over time. Therefore she only needs
a follow-up MRI in 6 to 12 months (and less frequently thereafter) to verify that
the microadenoma is not growing. Visual field testing is not indicated in a
microadenoma.

Q.2. A 27-year-old man is referred to you because of polyuria and polydipsia. He

reports drinking about 2 to 3 gallons of water a day. He is not sure how long he
has had this problem. He admits to having 0 to 1 micturition per night. He has a
history of depression, presently treated with fluoxetine. He is otherwise healthy
and has no history of head trauma, weight change, cold intolerance, or impotence.
Physical examination is entirely normal. Laboratory evaluation shows normal
glucose and calcium, sodium of 134 mEq/L, and uric acid 3.5 mg/dL. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus
B. Psychogenic polydipsia
C. Central diabetes insipidus
D. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
 E. Glucose intolerance
Answer: B. This patient has no evidence of central nervous system diseases
that may cause diabetes insipidus. Furthermore, he has no significant nocturia,
and the fact that he cannot recall how long he has had this problem suggests that
the onset was gradual. Finally, patients with diabetes insipidus (central or
nephrogenic) never present with hyponatremia. Fluoxetine does not cause central
or nephrogenic diabetes inspidus. Polyuria is not a feature of SIADH. Glucose
intolerance does not cause polyuria. All these clinical data point to psychogenic
polydipsia.

Q.3. A 28-year-old woman is diagnosed with medullary thyroid cancer. During the
workup, she is found to have primary hyperparathyroidism. She is adopted, and
has no information on her biological parents. She has one son, aged 4, in good
health. The next step should be
A. Measure calcium in her child
B. Obtain RET-proto-oncogene gene testing
C. Measure prolactin level
D. Obtain brain MRI
E. Measure serum IGF-1
Answer: B. This patient may have MEN-2. The vast majority of MEN-2 cases
can be diagnosed by analysis of mutations in the RET proto-oncogene. This is
particularly important in this case, since the patient has a child. If she has a
mutation, her child should be tested as well, and he should undergo prophylactic
thyroidectomy to avoid the development of medullary thyroid cancer. It is unlikely
her child would have hyperparathyroidism at age 4. Pituitary adenomas are not
part of MEN-2.

Q.4. A 36-year-old woman has a two year history of severe hypertension. She has
normal weight, and no other associated symptoms. Her family history is
unremarkable. She developed hypokalemia (2.9 mEq/L) when she was treated
with HCTZ. After HCTZ was discontinued, hypokalemia resolved (3.7 mEq/L). Her
blood pressure is now controlled on maximal dose of a beta-blocker and of a
calcium channel-blocker. The next step should be
A. Obtain abdomen CT
B. Obtain abdomen MRI
C. Obtain pituitary MRI
D. Measure serum aldosterone and plasma renin activity
E. No additional workup is required
 Answer: D. This young woman has significant hypertension, and no family
history. Although hypokalemia developed only while on HCTZ, some patients with
primary hyperaldosteronism do not have hypokalemia if they are not exposed to
diuretics. Therefore, she should be screened for hyperaldosteronism with an
aldosterone/plasma renin ratio. Imaging of the abdomen is not indicated at this
point; a functional hormonal abnormality should be established first.

Q.5. A 47-year-old woman is referred to you because during an emergency room

visit for right-sided abdominal pain she underwent an abdomen CT that showed a
2.5 cm left adrenal mass. She has normal blood pressure, normal weight, and
normal fasting glucose. Her menses are regular. The next step should be
A. No further workup needed. Repeat CT in 6 to 12 months
B. Abdomen MRI
C. Obtain 24-hour urine free cortisol
D. Obtain 24-hour urine for total and fractionated metanephrines
E. 1 mg dexamethasone suppression test
Answer: D. This is an adrenal “incidentaloma.” The patient shows no
evidence of Cushing’s syndrome or of hyperaldosteronism. However, some
pheochromocytomas can be clinically silent. As this is a potentially fatal disease, it
must be ruled out. If evaluation of pheochromocytoma is negative, she should
have a repeat CT scan of her abdomen in 6 to 12 months.