MR 2,3

FULL SYLLABUS TEST

APR 23 ,2025 PHYSICS

1. 5. In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same

material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly
decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If
the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original
frequency of B will be:
2. When Young’s double slit experiment is performed (1) 537 Hz (2) 523 Hz
in vacuum, the 8th bright fringe is at distance ‘X’ (3) 524 Hz (4) 536 Hz
from the central maxima. When the experiment is
6. Light of frequency 1.5 times the threshold
performed in a liquid, 9th dark fringe lies at same
frequency is incident on a photosensitive material.
distance ‘X’ from the central maxima. What is the What will be the photoelectric current if the
refractive index of the liquid? frequency is halved and intensity is doubled ?
(1) 1.06 (1) zero (2) doubled
(2) 1.50 (3) four times (4) one-fourth
(3) 1.75
(4) 1.25 7.

3. If E and B represent instantaneous electric and    

 
magnetic field vector in an electromagnetic wave,    
   
then choose the correct option:
     
(1) E  B = 0    
   
(2) E . B = 0

(3) (E B) E = 0 8. A projectile launched on a horizontal surface

(x-axis) follows a trajectory described by the
(4) Both (2) and (3)
x2
equation y = x − , where the y-axis is directed
20
4. The nuclear density of helium nucleus is 0. What
vertically upwards. The horizontal range of the
will be the nuclear density of oxygen nucleus?
projectile is: (all quantities are in SI units)
(1) 40 (2) 20 (1) 20 m (2) 10 m
(3) 0 (4) 80 (3) 40 m (4) 80 m

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 9. Suppose the charge of a proton and an electron 13.
differ slightly. One of them is – e, the other is
(e + e). If the net of electrostatic force and
gravitational force between two hydrogen atoms
placed at a distance d (much greater than atomic
size) apart is zero, then e is of the order of
[Given mass of hydrogen mh = 1.67 × 10–27 kg]
(1) 10–23 C (2) 10–37 C
(3) 10–47 C (4) 10–20 C 14. A spherical black body with a radius of 12 cm
radiates 450 watt power at 500 K. If the radius
10. A long solenoid of diameter 0.1 m has 2 × 10 turns4 were halved and the temperature doubled, the
per meter. At the centre of the solenoid, a coil of power radiated in watt would be :-
100 turns and radius 0.01 m is placed with its axis
(1) 450 (2) 1000
coinciding with the solenoid axis. The current in
(3) 1800 (4) 225
the solenoid reduces at a constant rate to 0A from
15. Figure shows a circuit that contains three identical
4 A in 0.05 s. If the resistance of the coil is
102. the total charge flowing through the coil resistors with resistance R = 9.0  each, two
during this time is :- identical inductors with inductance
(1) 16 C (2) 32 C
L = 2.0 mH each, and an ideal battery with emf 
(3) 16  C (4) 32  C = 18 V. The current 'i' through the battery just
after the switch closed is,...... :-
11. The value of two resistors are R1 = (5  0.1) k
R R
and R2 = (20  0.4) k . The maximum percentage +

L
–
error in the equivalent resistance when they are
connected in parallel is: R L C
(1) 5.125% (2) 2%
(1) 0.2 A (2) 2 A
(3) 10.125% (4) 7%
(3) 0 ampere (4) 2 mA

12. Statement I: In a series LCR a.c. circuit, the

power factor at resonance is one. 16. A ball at rest is released from a height equal to RE
Statement II: At resonance in a series LCR a.c. above Earth’s surface where RE is the radius of
circuit, the voltage phasor and current phasor are Earth. What is the speed of the ball when it is at a
perpendicular to each other. R
distance E above the Earth’s surface? (ME is
(1) Statement I and Statement II both are correct. 2
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is mass of earth)
incorrect. GM E GM E
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is (1) (2)
3RE 2RE
correct.
(4) Statement I and Statement II both are GM E GM E
(3) (4)
incorrect. 6RE RE

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17. Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum (c)
21. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of O2 and 4
and Newton's gravitational constant (G) are three moles of Ar at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
fundamental constants. Which of the following
system is :-
combinations of these has the dimension of length? (1) 15 RT (2) 9 RT
(3) 11 RT (4) 4 RT
(1) (2)

22. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a

(3) (4) process described by the equation PV3 =

constant. The heat capacity of the gas during this

18. A body of mass m is attached to the lower end of process is

a spring whose upper end is fixed. The spring has (1) 2 R (2) R

negligible mass. When the mass m is slightly (3) (4)

pulled down and released, it oscillates with a time
period of 3s. When the mass m is increased by 23. A wire in form of a quarter circle is placed in the
1 kg, the time period of oscillations becomes 5 s. x-y plane with its center at the origin as shown. If
The value of m in kg is :- the wire carries current 2A and there is a
uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T present along Z-axis
(1) (2) (3) (4) then what is the magnetic force acting on the wire?

19. The equation of a particle performing SHM along x-axis

 
about x = 0 is given by x = 2sin  2t +  (where
 6
x is in m and t is in s). What is the maximum
acceleration of the particle?
(1) 82 m/s2 (2) 8 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 42 m/s2 (1) 210−1 N (2) 40 N
(3) 0.4 N (4) 4 N
20. A wire carries current of 1A as shown. What is the
magnitude of magnetic field due to the wire at
24. The output Y of the logic circuit shown in figure
point P? will be:

(1) AB + B (2) AB + B
(3) A (4) B

(1) 3.2 × 10–6 T

(2) 3.6 × 10–6 T
(3) 6.0 × 10–6 T
(4) 4.0 × 10–6 T

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25. The magnitude of magnetic moment of the current
29. The moment of inertia of a uniform thin rod of
loop shown in the figure is:
length L and mass M about an axis passing through
L
a point at a distance of from one of its ends and
3
perpendicular to the rod is:
7ML2 ML2
(1) (2)
(1) Ia2 (2) 2 Ia2 48 12
(3) zero (4)
3 2
Ia ML2 ML2
(3) (4)
2 9 3

26. A block of mass 10 kg is kept over a rough surface

30. A uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius 'a' is
and a horizontal force F = (4t) N is applied on it
surrounded symmetrically by a uniform thin
(where t is time in second). At what value of t will
spherical shell of equal mass and radius 2a. Find the
the block just start moving? (g = 10 m/s2)
3
gravitational field at a distance a from the centre.
2
4 GM 4 GM
(1) (2)
9 a2 16 a2
(1) 10 s (2) 8 s 2 GM
(3) (4) zero
(3) 9 s (4) 5 s 3 a2

31. The distance between two bodies A and B is r.

27. The ratio of the velocity of an electron in the first Taking the gravitational force according to the law
orbit of hydrogen atom to that in the first orbit of of inverse square of r, the acceleration of body A is
singly ionised helium is: a. If the gravitatinal force follows an inverse fourth
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 power law, then what will be the acceleration of the
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 4 body A?
a a
(1) 3 (2)
28. Three charges each of magnitude 1 µC are placed at r r
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm. a a
(3) (4) 2
The electric potential at the centre O of the triangle r r
is:
(1) 27 3 10+4 V 32. A metal rod 4 m long has a circular cross-section
of radius 1 cm. One end of rod is kept at 100°C
(2) 27 3 10+5 V
and the other at 20°C, then the temperature of
(3) 5.4  105 V cross-section at 50 cm from the hot end in steady
(4) zero state would be: (thermal conductivity of metal is
401 Wm–1 K–1)
(1) 87.5°C (2) 30°C
(3) 90°C (4) 40°C

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33. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as 37. The equation of progressive wave is given by
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:  t x
y = a sin   −  , where ‘t’ is in seconds and x is
Assertion (A): A double convex lens (l = 1.5) has 2 2
focal length 10 cm. When the lens is immersed in in metre. The distance through which the wave
water (m = 4/3) its focal length becomes 40 cm.
moves in 8 seconds is (in metre)
1 l − m  1 1 
Reason (R): =  −  (1) 8 m (2) 16 m
f m  R1 R2  (3) 4 m (4) none
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 38. Two charges, q1 and q2 repel each other with a force
(1) A is true but R is false. of 100 N. On increasing the separation between
(2) A is false but R is true. them by 5 m, the force reduces to 64 N. The initial
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct separation is:
explanation of A. 80 9
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct (1) m (2) m
9 80
explanation of A.
(3) 20 m (4) 10 m
34. The rate of flow of a liquid through an orifice at the
bottom of a tank does not depend on: 39. In an electric field E = (2î + 4 ĵ) N/C, electric
(1) The area of cross-section of the orifice potential at origin is 0 V.
(2) The height of the liquid above the orifice Match the List-I with List-II.
(3) The acceleration due to gravity
List-I List-II
(4) The density of the liquid
(A) Potential at (4m, 0) (I) 8 V
35. Three concentric metallic spherical shells A, B and (B) Potential at (–4m, 0) (II) –8 V
C of radii a, b and c with a < b < c, have surface (C) Potential at (0m, 4m) (III) 16 V
charge densities , – and  respectively. The (D) Potential at (0, –4m) (IV) –16V
potential of the spherical shell A is:
Choose the correct answer from the options given
 
(1) ( a − b + c ) (2) ( a + b + c) below:
0 0
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
 3a
(3) (b − a + c ) (4)
(2) A-II, B-I C-IV D-III
0 0 (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

36. A bob of mass m and charge q is suspended from an 40. A block of mass 2 kg moves inside a frictionless
insulation string of length l. The string deflects by circular track of radius 5m in a vertical plane. If
an angle  with the vertical due to a uniform a speed of block at lowest point of track is 20 m/s,
horizontal electric field E. Then the normal force exerted on block by the track at
mg cos  mg sin  lowest point is: (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) E = (2) E = (1) 180 N
q q
(2) 20 N
mg tan  mg
(3) E = (4) E = (3) 160 N
q q (4) 200 N

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41. A wave pulse is generated in string P having linear 44. What is the distance of center of mass of the
mass density 2g/cm. What is the speed of the wave system of particles shown in figure from point
pulse? (g = 10 m/s2, pulley is massless) 1 3
 4, 2 ?
 

(1) 10 2 m/s (2) 10 m/s (1) 5 m

(3) 5 m/s (4) 20 m/s (2) 3 m
(3) 4 m
42. A uniform disc having mass M is placed in xy (4) 8 m
plane with its centre at the origin. What is the
moment of inertia about the axis shown? (Axis of 45. The motion of a body in a straight line is given by
rotation is in the plane of the disc) dv
the equation = 6t , (where v is speed in m/s and
dt
t is time in second). If the body has velocity 2 m/s
at t = 0, then the magnitude of velocity at t = 1 s is:
(1) 3 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 4 m/s
MR2 3MR2
(1) (2)
5 4
MR2 MR2
(3) (4)
2 4

43. Find the current in the branch AB in the given

circuit

(1) 0.25 A (2) 0.50 A

(3) 0.125 A (4) 0.75 A

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 CHEMISTRY

46 Which of the following statements correctly describes the 51

nature of bonding in PbCl2 and PbCl4?

1. Both are 100% ionic in nature.

2. P bCl is ionic and P bCl is covalent.
4 2

3. P bCl is largely covalent and P bCl is largely ionic.

4 2

4. Both are 100% covalent in nature.

47 A compound consists of 54.2% carbon (C), 9.2%

hydrogen (H), and 36.6% oxygen (O) by mass. The molar
mass of the compound is 132 g/mol.
Determine the molecular formula of the compound.
(Given -Relative atomic masses: C = 12, H = 1, O = 16)
1. C H O 4 9 3 2. C H O 6 12 6

3. C H 6 O 12 34. C H O 4 8 2

48.48 The type of π bonds present in ClO −

52
4 containing three π
bonds is:
1. Three dπ-pπ 2. Two dπ-pπ and 1pπ-pπ
3. One dπ-pπ and 2 pπ-pπ 4. Three pπ-pπ

49 In the given reaction sequence, the standard electrode

potentials (in volts) are provided for each step as follows:
+2.0 V 0.8 V −0.5 V

FeO
2−

4
−−−−→ Fe
3+
−−
−→ Fe
2+
−−−−→ Fe
0
53 Match the complex species given in Column-I with the
The value of E Θ
2− 2+
is: possible isomerism given in Column-II and assign the correct
FeO /Fe
4
code :
1. 1.7 V
2. 1.2 V Column-I
Column-II (Isomerism)
3. 2.1 V (Complex species)
A. 1. Optical
+
4. 1.4 V [Co (NH3 )
4
Cl2 ]

B. 2. Ionisation
+
cis − [Co (en) Cl2 ]
2

50 Which of the following molecules exhibit a square C. [Co (NH3 ) (NO2 )]Cl2 3. Coordination
5

pyramidal geometry? D. [Co (NH3 ) ][Cr(CN ) ]

6 6
4. Geometrical
1. BrF & XeOF5 4 2. SbF5 & XeOF4
5. Linkage
3. SbF & PCl 5 5 4. BrF5 & PCl5
1. A-(1), B-(2), C-(4), D-(5)
2. A-(4), B-(3), C-(2), D-(1)
3. A-(4), B-(1), C-(5), D-(3)
4. A-(4), B-(1), C-(2), D-(3)

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54. 59.

55

60 Consider the given elementary reaction:

A( g) + B( g) → C( g) + D( g)

56 What is the correct sequence of osmotic pressure for 0.01 If the volume of the reaction mixture is suddenly reduced to
1

M aqueous solutions of the following compounds? (π , π ,a b of its initial volume, the reaction rate will become ‘x’ times
π , and π represent the osmotic pressures of the respective
c d the original reaction rate. The value of x is:
solutions) 1

a. Al (SO )
2 4 b. Na PO
1. 2. 9
3 3 4 9

c. BaCl2 d. Glucose 1
3. 4. 3
1. π d > πb > πc > πa 3

2. π c > πd > πb > πa

3. π > πd > πa > πb

The quantum numbers of four electrons (e1 to ) are
4. π
c

a > πb > πc > πd

61 e4

given below:
57 Equal volumes of 0.1 M AgN O3 and 0.2 M NaCl are n l m s n l m s
mixed. The concentration of N O ions in the mixture will be:
− e1 3 0 0 +1/2 e2 4 0 0 1/2
3

1. 0.1 M 2. 0.05 M e3 3 2 2 -1/2 e4 3 1 -1 1/2

3. 0.2 M 4. 0.15 M The correct order of decreasing energy of these electrons is:
1. e4 > e3 > e2 > e1
The rate of a chemical reaction doubles when the 2. e2 > e3 > e4 > e1
58 3. e3 > e2 > e4 > e1
temperature increases by 10 K (from 298 K). What is the 4. e1 > e4 > e2 > e3
activation energy of the reaction?
1. 65.6 Jmol-1
2. 52.9 kJmol-1 62 Which of the following reactions has the least difference
between the change in enthalpy (∆H) and the change in inter-
3. 45.9 kJmol-1
nal energy (∆E) at a given temperature?
4. 35.7 Jmol-1 1. 2SO ( g) + O ( g) → 2SO ( g)
2 2 3

2. CaCO (s) → CaO(s) + CO (g)

3 2

3. NH SH(s) → NH (g) + H S(g)

4 3 2

4. 2NH (g) → N (g) + 3H (g)

3 2 2

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63 Match the names of the nitrogenous bases in List-I with
65
the correct structures in List-II.
List-I (Name) List-II (Structure)

(A) Adenine (I)

(B) Cytosine (II)

(C) Thymine (III)

(D) Uracil (IV) 66

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
2. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
4. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)

6460 Consider the given reaction: 67 An acid with the molecular formula HXO₂ contains an
H2 (g) + I2 (g) ⇌ 2HI( g) unknown element X. The mass of 0.0242 moles of this acid is
If initially only H and I are present, which graph correctly
2 2
1.657 g.
predicts the attainment of equilibrium? Determine the atomic weight of element X.
1. 35.5
2. 28.1
3. 128
1. 2. 4. 19.0

3. 4.

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68 73

69

74

70 Given below are two statements:

Fructose does not contain an aldehydic group
Statement I:
but still reduces Tollen’s reagent.
In the presence of base, fructose undergoes
Statement II:
rearrangement to give glucose.
75 The electronegativity of the following elements increases
in the order:
1. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. 1. C < N < Si < P 2. Si < P < C < N
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 3. N < C < P < Si 4. C < Si < N < P
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
4. Statement I is true but Statement II is false. 76 What is the ratio of the difference in radii between the 4th
71
64 Which of the following compound in 3d series does not and 3rd orbits of a hydrogen (H) atom and a lithium (Li )
ion?
2+

show +3 oxidation state? 1. 2.

1 : 1 3 : 1
1. V 2. Cr
3. 4.
3 : 4 9 : 1
3. Mn 4. Cu

77 Which of the following has a maximum number of lone

72 Consider the following information about elements P and
pairs associated with Xe?
Q:
1. XeF4 2. XeF6
Period number Group number
3. XeF2 4. XeO3
P 2 15
Q 3 2
The formula of the compound formed by P and Q elements is:
1. PQ 2. P Q 3 2

3. Q P 3 2 4. PQ 2

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78 82

79 The best statement among the following that most

appropriately describes the difference between a galvanic cell The types of hybrid orbitals of nitrogen in
and an electrolytic cell is: 83
NO
+

2
, NO
−

3
, and NH
+

4
respectively, are expected to be:
In a galvanic cell, the anode is the site of oxidation, 1. sp, sp 3
and sp
2

1. whereas in an electrolytic cell, the anode is the site of 2. sp, sp 2

and sp
3

reduction. 3. sp , sp
2
and sp
3

In a galvanic cell, the cathode is the negative electrode, 4. sp , sp

2 3
and sp

2. whereas in an electrolytic cell, the cathode is the positive

electrode. 84 Which of the following pairs of graphs represents the
In a galvanic cell, spontaneous reactions generate a same order of reaction?
3. current, whereas in an electrolytic cell, a current forces
non-spontaneous reactions to occur.
In a galvanic cell, the electrons flow from the anode to the
4. cathode, whereas in an electrolytic cell, the electrons flow 1.
from the cathode to the anode.

8070 Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of

3+
absorption in the visible region for the complexes of Co is:
1. 3+ 3+ 3+
[Co(en)3 ] < [Co(NH3 ) ] < [Co(H2 O) ]
6 6

3+ 3+ 2.
2. [Co(H2 O) ]
6
< [Co(en)3 ]
3+
< [Co(NH3 ) ]
6

3.
3+ 3+ 3+
[Co(H2 O) ] < [Co(NH3 ) ] < [Co(en)3 ]
6 6

4.
3+ 3+ 3+
[Co(NH3 ) ] < [Co(en)3 ] < [Co(H2 O) ]
6 6

81
71 Consider the given standard electrode potentials:
E
0
= 1.33 V E
0
= 1.36 V
3.
2− 3+ (−)
Cr2 O /Cr Cl2 /Cl
7

0 0
E − 2+
= 1.51 V E 3+
= −0.74 V
MnO /Mn Cr /Cr
4

The strongest reducing agent is:

1. Mn
2+
2. Cr
3. 4.
− −
MnO4 Cl

4.

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 85 Choose the correct set of True/False for the following 88 The solubility product of silver chromate is 1. 1 × 10 .
−12

statements: The solubility of silver chromate will be:

Silver chloride is more soluble in very concentrated 1. 6. 5 × 10 mol L
−5 −1

(i)
sodium chloride solution than in pure water. 2. 6. 5 × 10 mol L
−6 −1

The pH of a buffer solution does not change on addition 3. 5. 5 × 10 mol L

−5 −1

(ii)
of small amount of an acid or a base. 4. 5. 5 × 10 mol L
−6 −1

Addition of NH Cl does not affect the pH of solution

(iii)
8988
4

of NH OH 4
Al2 (SO4 ) + NH4 OH → X ↓ + other products
3
The degree of hydrolysis of ammonium acetate does not
(iv) depend upon the concentration of ammonium acetate Select the correct statements about compound X:
solution. (a) X is a white coloured compound
(b) X is insoluble in excess of NH OH4
A mixture of acetic acid and sodium acetate can act as a (c) X is soluble in excess of NaOH
(v)
buffer solution. (d) X can be used as an antacid
1. FTFTT 1. (a), (b) and (d) 2. (b) and (c)
2. FTTTF
3. TFFTF 3. (a), (b) and (c) 4. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
4. FFTTT
9089 Match the processes or properties in List-I with their
corresponding characteristics in List-II.
86 An acid-base indicator which is a weak acid haspK
a a
List-I List-II
value = 5.45. At what concentration ratio of sodium acetate (Process/Property) (Characteristic)
to acetic acid would the indicator show a colour halfway Independent of the
between those of its acid and conjugate base forms? A. Adiabatic process I.
amount of substance
[pK of acetic acid = 4.75]
a
The reaction can proceed
1. 4 : 1
in both directions, from
2. 6 : 1 B. Reversible process II.
reactants to products and
3. 5 : 1
vice versa
4. 3 : 1
No transfer of heat
C. Intensive property III. between the system and
the surrounding
87 The values of the crystal field stabilization energies for a Dependent on the amount
D. Extensive property IV.
high spin d6 metal ion in octahedral and tetrahedral fields, of substance
respectively, are : Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. –0.4 Δ and –0.27 Δ
0 t
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
2. –1.6 Δ and –0.4 Δ
0 t
3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV 4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. –0.4 Δ and –0.6 Δ
0 t

4. –2.4 Δ and –0.6 Δ

0 t

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 BIOLOGY
91. How many matching are incorrect : 95. An animal which is marine but migrate for
a. Pinus – Male cone spawning to fresh water. After spawning within a
few days, they die their larvae, after
b. Cycas – Female cone
metamorphosis, return to the ocean this animal
c. Pinus – Female cone is:
d. Cycas – Male cone
(1) Petromyzon
(1) Two
(2) Angel fish
(2) Three
(3) Dog fish
(3) Four
(4) Saw fish
(4) One
96. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
92. Given below are two statements : Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Statement I : Reason (R)
All protozoans are heterotrops Assertion (A) :
Statement II : Cockroach is ureotelic
Protozoans live as predators or parasites.
Reason (R) :
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Malpighian tubules absorb nitrogenous waste product
below
and convert them into uric acid which is excreated out
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
through the hindgut.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct correct answer from the options given below :
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
93. Match the column I and column II and choose correct explanation of (A)
correct option:
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
Column I Column II
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
a. Nostoc i. Biogas
b. Methanogen ii. Heterocysts (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
c. Mycoplasma iii. Lack of cell wall
97. Match List - I with List - II
d. Heterotrophic iv. Most abandant
bacteria List - I List - II

(1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (a) Thalamus (i) Calyx and corolla
(2) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv (b) Accessory organs (ii) Lily
(3) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (c) Stamen fuse with (iii) Papaya
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-ii perianth
94. Protochordates includes which sub phylum : (d) Unisexual (iv) Recepticle
(1) Tunicata Chose the correct answer from option given below
(2) Cephalochordata
(1) (a) - iv, (b) - iii, (c) - ii, (d) - i
(3) Chordata
(2) (a) - iv, (b) - i, (c) - ii, (d) - iii
(4) Both 1 and 2
(3) (a) - iii, (b) - i, (c) - ii, (d) - iv

(4) (a) - iii, (b) - iv, (c) - i, (d) - ii

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98. Given below are four statement (a-d) regarding 101. Given below are two statements :
inflorescence of angiospermic plant
Statement I :
(a) In racemose type of inflorescences the main
Frog never drink water but absrob it through the skin.
axis continues to grow.
Statement II :
(b) In cymose type of inflorescence the main axis
terminates in a flower. In frog skin act as aquatic respiratory organ.

(c) In cymose type of inflorescence the flowers are In the light of the above statements, choose the
borne in a acropetal succession correct answer from the options given below

(d) In racemose type of inflorescences the flower (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
borne in an basipetal succession
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
Which of the statements are correct
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(1) (a) (b) and (d) (2) (a) (b) and (c)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(3) (a) and (b) (4) (a) and (d)
102. Match the column I and column II and choose
99. Match List - I with List - II correct answer :
List - I List - II Column - I Column - II
(A) Adipose tissue (i) Skeletal connective
(a) Reserve food starch (i) Two lobes in anther tissue
(b) Diadelphous (ii) Enclosing stamens and (B) Ligament (ii) Dense connective
pistil tissue
(c) Keel (iii) Number of stamen 10 in (C) Cartilage (iii) Loose connective
two bundles tissue
(d) Dithecous (iv) Underground stem tuber (D) Blood (iv) Fluid connective
in potato tissue
(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
Chose the correct answer from the option given
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
below
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(1) (a) - iv, (b) - iii, (c) - ii, (d) - i (4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
(2) (a) - iv, (b) - i, (c) - ii, (d) - iii 103. Which of the following matching is incorrect :
(3) (a) - iii, (b) - i, (c) - ii, (d) - iv (1) Bulliform cells – Monocot leaf
(4) (a) - iii, (b) - iv, (c) - i, (d) - ii (2) Bean shaped guard – Monocot leaf
100. Given below are two statements : cells
(3) Cambium present – Open vascular bundle
Statement I :
(4) None of these
In dicotyledonous leaf adaxially placed palisade
parenchyma is made up of elongated cells which 104. How many matching are correct:
are arranged vertically and parallel to each other. (A) Anton Von Leeuwen – First Saw dead cell
Statement-II: hoek
In monocotyledonous leaf mesophyll is not
(B) Rudolf virchow – Omnis cellula-e-
differenciated into palisade and spongy paren-
chyma. cellula in 1838

Choose the correct answer from the option given (C) Matthias Schleiden – First reported plasma
below:
membrane
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(D) Singer and Nicolson – Fluid mosaic model
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (1) One (2) Two

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (3) Three (4) Four

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105. Which of the following correct option 109. Which of the following is correct option

(a) Lipids could be simple fatty acid (i) Decapitation usually results in the growth of
(b) Neural tissue have lipids lateral buds
(c) Oils have lower melting point.
(ii) Decapitation is widely used for tea plantations
(d) Lipids have glycerol and fatty acid
(iii) Decapitation is widely used for hedge-making
(1) Only a and b
(iv) Auxin induce parthenocarpy in tomato
(2) Only b, c, d
(v) Rapid growth in apical bud take place due to
(3) Only a, b,d
auxin
(4) All a,b,c,d
106. Given below are two statements : (1) i, ii and iii only (2) i, ii and iv only
Statement I :
(3) i, ii and v only (4) All of these
N - acetyl galactosamine have chemically modified
110. Which of the following is correct option :
Cholesterol.
(i) Auxin promote flowering in pineapple.
Statement II :
(ii) ABA acts as on antagonist to GAs.
Exoskeletons of arthropods have a complex
(iii) Ethylene promotes root hair formation
oligosaccharide chitin.
(iv) IAA and NAA are natural auxin
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below (1) i, ii and iii only

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) i and ii only

(3) i, iii and iv only

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(4) All of these
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
111. Which of the following is incorrect :
(4) Both, Statement I and Statement II are correct
(1) In maize, calvin cycle occur in mesophyll cells
107. Electron micrographic view of which stage of
prophase–I will show clear tetrad : (2) Hatch and slack pathway occurs in sorghum
(3) During hatch and slack pathway aspartic acid
(1) Leptotene
formed in mesophyll cells
(2) Pachytene
(4) During calvin cycle, 3 – phosphoglycerate is formed
(3) Zygotene in mesophyll cell
(4) Diplotene 112. Identify A, B, C and D in given two relax sarcom-
ere and choose the correct option :
108. How many matching are correct:
Component % of total cellular
mass
A. Proteins – 70 - 90

B. Carbohydrates – 3
C. Nucleic acis – 50 - 70
(1) A–'H' Zone, C–'A' Band
D. Ions – 5-7
(2) B–'I' Band, C–'H' Zone
(1) One (2) Two (3) C–'I' Band, D–'Z' Line
(3) Three (4) Four (4) A–'Z' Line, B–'H' Zone

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113. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as 116. The following size, number, temperature are
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) associated with

Assertion (A) : a) 60,000-80,000 i) Limbs and digits

JGA play a complex regulatory role on heart. b) 3-5 days ii) Morula
c) 50 years iii) Menopouse
Reason (R) :
d) 8-16 cells iv) Manstrual phase
A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release
angiotensin. e) Second month v) Primary follicle
(1) a-v, b-iv, c-ii, d-i, e-iii
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below : (2) a-v, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-i

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (3) a-iv, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-ii
correct explanation of (A) (4) a-i, b-iv, c-iii, d-ii, e-v
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 117. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding Lac operon:
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(a) Lac operon is an example of an inducible
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
operon
explanation of (A)
114. Which is a correct statement : (b) Lac operon is regulated by a repressor protein

(a) AV node is called as pace maker (c) It is found in prokaryotes such as E. coli.

(b) Atrial systole causes 70% ventricular filling (d) Lactose act as inducer for operon

(c) Cardiac output depends on ventricular filling (1) a and b only

(d) Blood pumped during a cardiac cycle is cardiac (2) b and c only
output (3) a,b and d only
(1) Only c & d (2) Only c (4) a,b,c,d
(3) Only d (4) Only a & d 118. Flying phalanger is a marsupial while Flying
115. Match the hormone with the roles given under. squirrel is placental mammal. This shows :
Select the choice in which the alphabets of the (1) Convergent evolution
two columns are correctly matched :
(2) Divergent evolution
Hormones Roles
(3) Parallelism
a. FSH i. Preparation of
endometrium for (4) Inheritance of acquired characters
implantation 119. Match the following process with their specific
b. LH ii. Female secondary events :
sexual characters (a) Translation (i) Splicing of intron
c. Progesterone iii. Contraction of (b) Transcription (ii) Formation of
uterine muscles polypeptide
d. Estrogen iv. Development of (c) Initiation of (iii) formation of RNA
corpus luteum translation
v. Maturation of (d) Post transcriptional (iv) Start codon AUG
Graafian follicle
modifications recognition
(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(2) a-v, b-i, c-iv, d-ii (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(3) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(4) a-v, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i

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120. Match the columns and choose correct option : 124. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Column I Column II Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)

A. Cocaine i. Cannabis Assertion (A) :

B. Opioids ii. Erythroxylum Restriction endonuclease are used in genetic

engineering to form recombinant molecules of
C. Morphine iii. Painkiller
DNA.
D. Cannabinoids iv. Papaver
Reason (R) :
(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iii, D – iv
The recombinants will grow in ampicillin
(2) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i containing medium if pBR321 integrated with foreign
(3) A – ii, B – iii, C – iv, D – i gene on tetR gene.
(4) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i Choose the correct answer from the options given
121. Read the following statment about elephantiasis : below :

(a) Elephantiasis spreads through contaiminated (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct
water explanation of (A)
(b) Elephantiasis caused by filarial worm (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(c) Elephantiasis is caused by Wucheria bancrofti (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(d) Causes gross deformities (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
Choose the correct option : explanation of (A)
(1) a, b incorrect (2) b, c correct 125. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(3) a, d correct (4) b, c, d correct as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as

122. How many matching are correct : Reason (R).

(a) Selectable marker – Antibiotic resistance Assertion (A) : Rate of decomposition is controlled by
gene chemical composition of detritus and climatic factor.
(b) PCR – Invivo DNA synthesis
Reason (R) : Warm and moist environment favour de-
(c) Gene therapy – 1990
composition and in lignin and chitin rich detritus de-
(d) Army worm – Lepidopterans
composition rate is faster.
(1) One (2) Two
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Three (4) Four
correct answer from the options given below
123. Read the following statements :
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(a) In Mammals insulin is synthesised as a prohormone
explanation of (A)
(b) Prohormone contain extra stretch called B peptide
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) B peptide is removed during maturation into insulin
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) C peptide is not present in mature insulin (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
Choose the correct option : explanation of (A)
Energy transfer from one trophic level to other in a
(1) a,b,c correct
food chain, is:
(2) a,b,d correct (1) 10%
(2) 1%
(3) a, d correct
(3) 20%
(4) b,c correct (4) 2%

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127. Diversity in species of amphibians is ............ in 132. Which one of the following is the correct match
Eastern Ghats than Western Ghats : (1) Human liver fluke – One intermediate host
(1) Less (2) More (2) MacArthur – Warblers
(3) Equal (4) None (3) Parasitic Adaptation – Presence of unnecessary
sense organ
128. According to the IUCN (2004), the total number of
plant and animal species described so far is : (4) All

(1) Slightly more than 1.5 million 133. Which of the following statements are correct for
the given diagram:
(2) Slightly less than 1.5 million
(3) 7-8 billion
(4) 1.5 million
129. Assertion (A): Pyramid of energy is always upright,
can never be inverted.
Reason (R): In ecosystem when energy flows from
a particular trophic level to the next trophic level
some energy is always gained back to previous
level.
(a) It represent male sex organ
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A) (b) It represent female sex organ in angiosperm
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false (c) It represent female sex organ in gymnosperm
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) It represent male and female both sex organ
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
in angiosperm
explanation of (A)
130. Which of the following statements is not correct (e) It develops in aggregates fruits
about microbes :
(1) b, e
(1) Microbes cause a large number of diseases in
human beings. (2) Only b
(2) Microbes also cause diseases in plants and (3) a, e
animals.
(4) d, e
(3) Several microbes are usefull to man
134. Match the following
(4) All microbes can be grown in nutritive media to form
colonies that can be seen with naked eyes. (i) rop a. Pvu II
131. Given below are two statements (ii) BamH I b. TetR
Statement I: When Darwin spoke of the struggle for (iii) Pvu I c. AmpR
existence and survival of the fittest in Natures he was (iv) Sal I d. TetR
convinced that interspecific competition is a potent force
in organic evolution. (1) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
Statement II : The abingdon tortoise in galapagos (2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
islands became extinct within a decade after goats were (3) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-b
introduced on the island, apparently due to the greater
browsing efficiency of the goats. (4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

Choose the correct answer from the option given 135. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
below: (1) Micro injection - Animal cells
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) Ti plasmid - Escherichia coli
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) A. tumifaciens - Pathogen
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Non recombinant - Blue colour colonies
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct bacteria

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136. Given below are two statements 141. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
Statement I: Transgenic animals can be specifically (1) 1983 Eli lily – American company
designed to allow the study of how genes are regulated,
prepared insulin
and how they affect the normal functions of the body
and its development. (2) 1990 Four year old girl – First Clinical gene
Statement II : The modification / usage of living given therapy
organisms for public services (as food and medicine
sources for example) has also created problems with (3) 1997 – First transgenic cow
patents granted for the same. rosie
Choose the correct answer from the option given (4) None of these
below:
142. Which one of the following are correct statements
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect for the given diagram
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
137. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
(1) Colour blindness – sex linked recessive

(2) Sickle - cell anaemia – Autosomal recessive

(3) Phenylketonuria – Autosomal dominant

(4) Thalassemia – Autosomal recessive

138. Which one of the following is the correct match
(1) Thalassemia – Quantitative problem.
I. A–Irregular boundaries and found in the alveoli
(2) Klinefelters syndrome – Aneuploidy
of lungs
(3) Sickle-cell anaemia – Qualitative problem.
II. B–Found in tubular part of Nephrons
(4) All
139. Select the correct match III. C–Help in secretion and absorptions
a. Pleiotropy I. Phenylketonuria
IV. A–Found in duct of glands and phagocytic
b. Henking II. Heterogametes
c. Female bird III. X-body V. C–Their function is to move particles or mucus

d. Cystic fibrosis IV. Mendelian disorder (1) I, II, V

(1) a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-IV
(2) I, II, IV
(2) a-I, b-III, c-II, d-IV
(3) a-II, b-I, c-III, d-IV (3) I, II, III

(4) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II (4) I, III, V

140. Which one of the following is the incorrect match
143. Function of neuroglial cell
(1) DNA – Hydrophobic molecules
(1) Protect the nephrons
(2) Gel electrophoresis – Separation of DNA
fragments (2) Support the neuron
(3) Gel electrophoresis – Agarose gel
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) DNA fragments – Negatively charged
molecules (4) Support the nephrons

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144. Given below are two statements 148. Select the incorrect statement in the followings :

Statement I: The shape, Margin, Apex, surface and (1) Close conjoint, collateral or bicollateral vascular
extent of incision of lamina varies in different leaves. bundles found in dicot stem
Statement II : Veins provide rigidity to the leaf blade (2) All the tissues on the innerside of the endodermis
and act as channels of transport for water, minerals and
such as pericycle, vascular bundles and pith in dicot
food materials
root consitute the stele
Choose the correct answer from the option given
(3) Polyarch vascular bundles found in monocot root
below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (4) Phloem parenchyma is absent in most of the
monocotyledons stem
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
149. The natural amino acid present in protein have
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(1) NH2 group on -carbon and COOH group on -
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct carbon
145. Which one of the following are incorrect match (2) NH2 group and COOH on same -carbon

Animal Respiratory Organ (3) NH2 group on -carbon and COOH group on -
carbon
(1) Earthworm – Moist cuticle (4) CHO group as main functional group and NH2 group
on -carbon
(2) Birds – Lungs
150. Which of the following are correct statements
(3) Insect – Tracheal tubes between Adenine and Uracil :
(4) Earthworm – Gills (a) Both are present in RNA

146. Given below are two statements (b) Both are present in DNA

Statement I: Malpighian tubules are excretory organ (c) Both are heterocyclic compound
in all Arthropodes. (d) Both are acidic molecule
Statement II : Statocysts are respiratory organ in (1) a, c, d (2) b, c, d
Arthropodes. (3) a, c (4) a, d
Choose the correct answer from the option given 151. Which one of the following are correct statements
below: for the given diagram
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
147. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Psittacula bird are able to maintain a
constant body temperature.
Statement II : In Aptenodytes air sacs connected to
lungs supplement respiration.
a. Power house of cell
Choose the correct answer from the option given
b. Semiautonomous organelles
below:
c. Matrix contain single circular DNA molecule
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
d. Found only in plants and animals
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
e. A part of endomembrane system
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (1) a, b (2) a, b, c
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (3) a, b, e (4) a, b, d, e

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152. Which of the following statements are correct 157. Given below are two statements
Statement I:
(1) Ploidy of cell at S-phase will be double of G1 phase
In Chlorella and Amoeba Reproduction non-
(2) Ploidy of cell at S & G1 phase will remain same synonymous with growth
Statement II :
(3) Ploidy of cell at S-phase will be half of G1 phase
Metabolism is absent in some living organism.
(4) Both 1 and 3 Choose the correct answer from the option given
below:
153. In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed by
cytokinesis as a result of which : (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(1) Uninucleate condition arises leading to the formation (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
of syncytium (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(2) Multinucleate condition arises leading to the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
formation of syncytium
158. Given below is the ECG of a normal human. Which
(3) Liquid endosperm in mango one of its components is correctly interpreted
below:
(4) Both (2) and (3)
154. Roots of sweet potato are modification of :
(1) Tap root (2) Adventitious root

(3) Fibrous root (4) Stem

155. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Deuteromycetes known as Imperfect
fungi because only the sexual or vegetative phase (1) Complex QRS–ventricular depolarisation
of these fungi are known. (2) Peak T–initiation of total cardiac contraction
Statement II : Morel, Truffles and puffballs are (3) Peak P and peak R together – systolic and
edible fungi. diastolic blood
Choose the correct answer from the option given pressures
below: (4) Peak P – Initiation of left atrial contraction only
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect 159. Conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate, the
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect first irreversible reaction of glycolysis, is catalysed
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct by :

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct (1) Phosphofructokinase (2) Aldolase
156. Given below are two statements (3) Hexokinase (4) Enolase
Statement I: 160. Assertion (A): The respiratory pathway consider as
Viruses, viroids and prions are acellular organism. an anabolic pathway rather than as a catabolic
Statement II : one.

In the five kingdom classification of whittaker there Reason (R): The respiratory pathway is involved
is no mention of lichens. in both anabolism and catabolism.
Choose the correct answer from the option given (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
below: explanation of (A)
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect (2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect (3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct (4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct explanation of (A)

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161. Which of the following statement concerning the 167. In dihybrid experiment on garden peas worked by
Calvin cycle are correct mendel. What is the % of yellow round seed :

(1) CO2 is assimilated into sugars (1) 56.25%

(2) RuBP is regenerated (2) 12.5%

(3) 25%
(3) It needs ATP and NADPH
(4) 37.5%
(4) All of these
168. Full form of ICSI is :
162. Which one of the following bone are single in
number (1) Inter Cytoplasmic Sperm Insemination

a. Sacrum b. Coccyx (2) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection

c. Sternum d. floating ribs (3) Intra Cervical Sperm Injection

e. Parietal bone (4) Inter Cervical Sperm Injection

(1) a,b, c 169. Which of these comes under sacred groves :

(2) only b, c (1) Aravalli Hills

(3) b, c, e (2) Jaintia Hills
(4) b, c, d, e
(3) Khasi Hills
163. How many of the following aspect which are not
similar between C3 and C4 plants : (4) All

a. Photorespiration 170. Which of the following is correct match

b. Number of ATP used (1) National park – 95

c. Number of NADPH used (2) Wildlife sanctuaries – 448

d. Calvin cycle (3) Biosphere reserves – 24

e. Amount of CO2 fixation (4) Zoological parks – 5
(1) Five (2) Four 171. Blood pressure in the mammalian aorta is
(3) Three (4) Two maximum during :

164. The main enzyme of DNA replication is : (1) systole of the left ventricle
(1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase (2) diastole of the right atrium
(2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase (3) systole of the left atrium
(3) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(4) diastole of the right ventricle.
(4) RNA dependent RNA polymerase 172. Natural cytokinins are synthesised in
165. Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in an
(1) Root apices
exposed portion of :
(1) m-RNA (2) Developing shoot buds
(2) r-RNA (3) Young fruits
(3) t-RNA
(4) All of these
(4) Both 1 and 2
173. Euchromatin and heterochromatin is said to be :
166. The qualitative problem of synthesising an
incorrectly functioning globin is : (1) Transcriptionally active and inactive chromatin
respectively
(1) Thalassemia
(2) Transcriptionally inactive and active chromatin
(2) Phenylketonuria respectively
(3) Sickel - cell anaemia (3) Both are Transcriptionally active
(4) Haemophilia (4) Both are transcriptionally inactive

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174. Which of the following statements is incorrect with 178. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
reference to Nucleopolyhedrovirus : as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
(1) Used as biological control agents Assertion (A):

(2) Attack insects and other arthropods The distribution of pteridophytes are limited and
restricted to narrow geographical regions.
(3) Are species specific and narrow spectrum Reason (R) :
In pteridophytes water is required for fertilisation
(4) Have no negative impact on plants, mammals, birds,
and gametophytes require cool, Damp, Shady
fish or even on target insects. places to grow.
175. Which is the correct statement about Hind-II Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below :
(1) It is the first restriction endonuclease
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(2) Its functioning depends on a specific DNA nucleotide correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
sequence
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) It cuts DNA by identifying a specific sequence of (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
six base pairs explanation of (A)
179. Given below are two statements : one is labelled
(4) All of these as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
176. Which of the following statement are true for (R).
Assertion (A):
Klinefelter's syndrome with XXY karyotype :
Generally leaf are the most important vegetative
rd
i. One extra Y chromosome in 23 pair sex chro- organ for photosynthesis but stem also work as a
mosome of females photosynthetic organ.
Reason (R) :
ii. One extra Y chromosome in 21th pair of auto- In Opuntia stem modified into flattened structures.
some of male They contain chlorophyll and carry out
photosynthesis.
iii. Development of breast (Gynaecomastia)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
rd
iv. One extra X chromosome in 23 pair sex chro- most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
mosome of males
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(1) i and ii correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(2) ii and iii
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) i and iv (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A)
(4) iii and iv 180. Identified the correct description of the below
177. Which of the following statement is correct figure :

(1) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground sub-

stance

(2) Bones are rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres

(3) Calcium salts and collagen fibres provides strength

to the bone
(1) Stabilising (2) Directional
(4) All of these (3) Disruptive (4) None

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