03-01-2025

9610WMD80100824R014 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A current wave is given by

i = 5 + 5 sin (100 ωt) A. Its average value over one time period is given as :-

(1) 10 A
(2) 5 A
(3) A
(4) 0

2)
If R1 = 6Ω, R2 = 4Ω, R3 = 2Ω then find current in R3.

(1) 4.5 A

(2)
A

(3)
A

(4)
A

3) The current through a wire depends on time (t in seconds) as i = (2 + 3t) A. Calculate the charge
through a cross section of the wire in first 10 sec :-

(1) 150 C
(2) 160 C
(3) 170 C
(4) 180 C

4) A cart of mass M is tied to one end of a massless rope of length 10m. The other end of the rope is

in the hands of a man of mass . The entire system is one a smooth horizontal surface. If the man
pulls the cart by the rope then find the distance the man will slip on the horizontal surface before
the man & the cart will meet each other.

(1)
(2)

(3) 0

(4)

5) The charge on 3μF capacitor in the given network is :

(1) 2μC
(2) 10μC
(3) 6μC
(4) 8μC

6) The equivalent capacitance between A and B is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A particle of mass 100g is performing vertical circular motion as shown in the figure. Find
tangential acceleration at the given position of 30o from lower vertical radius. (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 500 m/s2

(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 0.5 m/s2
(4) 100 m/s2

8) A linear positive straight charge having linear charge density λ, penetrates a cube along the
body diagonal and then it penetrate a sphere diametrically as shown. What will be the ratio of flux

coming cut of cube and sphere?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A square coil having total 'n' turns is kept at the centre of a circular loop of radius 'b'. Side of the
square coil is 'a' and it is placed coaxially in the plane of the loop. If 'I' current flows through the
loop, calculate the flux of magnetic field passing through square coil. (Assume a << b)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) If ampere per meter for a EMW propagating along +z axis (in air) then
electric field in N/C is given by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) Figure below shows regular hexagon, with different charges placed at the vertices. In which of

the following cases is the electric field at the centre zero?

(1) IV
(2) III
(3) I
(4) II

12) A moving coil galvanometer has 150 equal divisions. Its current sensitivity is 10 divisions per
milliampere and voltage sensitivity is 2 divisions per millivolt. For converting galvanometer into
voltmeter so that each division reads 1V, the resistance in ohm needed to be connected in series
with the coil, will be :–

(1) 99995
(2) 9995
(3) 103
(4) 105

13)

A wire elongates by ℓ mm when a load W is hanged from it (one end is attached to ceiling). If the
wire goes over a massless pulley and two weights W each are hung at the two ends, then the new
elongation of the wire will be (in mm):-

(1) ℓ
(2) 2ℓ
(3) Zero
(4) ℓ/2

14) An aeroplane of mass 3 × 104 kg and total wing area of 120 m2 is in a level flight at some height.
The difference in pressure between the upper and lower surfaces of its wings in kilopascals is (g =
10 m/s2)

(1) 2.5
(2) 5.0
(3) 10.0
(4) 12.5

15) A hole is there in bottom of the stationary tank having water. If total pressure at bottom is 3 atm
(1 atm = 105 N m–2), then velocity of water flowing from hole is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) A body is projected up with th the escape velocity from earth's surface. The height reached by
the body is :- (Re = radius of the earth)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A particle is moving towards East with a velocity 10 m/s. In 10 seconds the velocity changes to
10 m/s Northwards. The average acceleration during this period is :-

(1) m/sec2 along North-East direction

(2) m/sec2 along North-West direction

(3)
m/sec2 along North-East direction

(4)
m/sec2 along North-West direction

18) A particle moves in east with velocity of 15 m/s for 2 sec. then moves northward with 5 m/s for 8
sec, then average velocity of the particle is :-

(1) 1 m/s
(2) 5 m/s
(3) 7 m/s
(4) 10 m/s

19) A circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8.0 cm carries a current of A.
What is the magnitude of the magnetic field B at the centre of the coil :

(1) 1 gauss
(2) 2 gauss
(3) 3 gauss
(4) 4 gauss

20) A particle having a mass of 10–2 kg carries a charge of 5 × 10–8 C. The particle is given an initial
horizontal velocity of 105 ms–1 in the presence of electric field and magnetic field . To keep the
particle moving in a horizontal direction, it is necessary that :-
(a) should be perpendicular to the direction of velocity and should be along the direction of
velocity
(b) Both and should be along the direction of velocity
(c) Both and are mutually perpendicular and perpendicular to the direction of velocity
(d) should be along the direction of velocity and should be perpendicular to the direction
velocity
Which one of the following pairs of statements is possible. ?

(1) (c) and (d)

(2) (b) and (c)
(3) (b) and (d)
(4) (a) and (c)

21) The figure shows the result of an experiment involving

photoelectric effect from same surface. The graph A, B, C and D relate to a light beam having
different wavelength. Select correct:
(a) Beam B has a highest frequency
(b) Beam C has longest wavelength
(c) Beam A has highest rate of photoelectric emission
(d) Highest momentum is possesed by fastest moving electrons emitted by B

(1) a & b only

(2) a, b & c
(3) a, b, c & d
(4) a & c only

22) Nuclear binding energy of elements A and B are Ea and Eb respectively. Three nuclei of B form
one nucleus of A. In this fusion process E energy is released, the relation between Ea, Eb and E :-

(1) Ea + E = 3E
(2) Ea = 3Eb
(3) Ea – E = 3Eb
(4) Ea + 3Eb + E = 0
23) A nuclear fusion reaction is given below :
2 2 3
1H + 1H → 2He + n + 3.2 MeV

How much energy will be generated when 2 kg of deuterons are fused :- (approx)

(1) 1030 eV
(2) 5 × 1023 MeV
(3) 1022 MeV
(4) 1033 eV

24) A particle 80 kg is supported by two cables as shown in the figure. Then the ratio of tensions T1

and T2 is :- (AB is Horizontal)

(1) 1 : 1
(2)
(3)
(4) 1:3

25) A body of 2 kg has an initial speed 5ms–1. A force acts on it for some time in the direction of
motion. The force time graph is shown in figure. The final speed of the body will be closest to the
option:-

(1) 9.25 ms–1

(2) 5 ms–1
(3) 14.25 ms–1
(4) 4.25 ms–1

26) The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is cot(A/2).
The angle of minimum deviation is :-

(1) 180° – 2A
(2) 90° – A
(3) 180° + 2A
(4) 180° – 3A
27) Find moment of inertia of system about diagonal of square :-

(1) 2 mℓ2
(2) mℓ2

(3)

(4)

28) The equation of transverse wave in stretched string is

y = 5 sin 2π
Where distances are in cm and time in second. The wavelength of wave is :

(1) 15 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 25 cm
(4) 50 cm

29) In a certain region of space, the electric potential is given by : V = k[2x2 – 2y2 + z2]. The electric
field at the point (1, 1, 1) has magnitude =

(1) 6k
(2) 2k√6
(3) 2k√3
(4) 4k√3

30) A 2V battery (ideal) is connected across the points A and B as shown in the figure given below.
Assuming that the resistance of each diode is zero in forward bias and infinity in reverse bias, the
current supplied by the battery when its positive terminal is connected to A is :

(1) 0.2 A
(2) 0.4 A
(3) Zero
(4) 0.1 A

31) When the angle of incidence for unpolarized light which comes from air and falls on a material,
is 60°, the reflected light is completely polarized. The velocity of the refracted ray inside the
material is (in ms–1) :

(1) 3 × 108

(2)
× 108
(3) × 108
(4) 0.5 × 108

32) An electron having kinetic energy K is moving in a circular path of radius R perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field. If kinetic energy is double and magnetic field tripled, the radius will become
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

33) According to De-Broglie wavelength of electron in second orbit is 10–6 m. The circumference of
orbit is :- (Assume that Bohr's model is valid.)

(1) 10–6 m
(2) 3 × 10–6 m
(3) 4 × 10–6 m
(4) 2 × 10–6 m

34) The focal length of a concave mirror is 50cm. Where an object is to be placed so that its image is
two times & inverted?

(1) 75 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 125 cm
(4) 50 cm

35) A thermodynamic system reaches from initial state i to final state f through two processes A and
B as shown. If the amount of heat given in these processes are ΔQA and ΔQB respectively then :–
(1) ΔQA = ΔQB
(2) ΔQA ≥ ΔQB
(3) ΔQA < ΔQB
(4) ΔQA > ΔQB

SECTION-B

1) In a p–type semiconductor the acceptor level is situated 57 meV above the valence band. The
maximum wavelength of light required to produce a hole will be nearly –

(1) 57 Å
(2) 57 × 10–3 Å
(3) 217100 Å
(4) 11.61 × 10–33 m

2) A string with a mass density of is under tension of 360 N and is fixed at both ends.
One of its resonance frequencies is 375 Hz. The next higher resonance frequency is 450 Hz. Find the
mass of the string.

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) For a particle undergoing SHM (angular frequency 1 rad/sec), the velocity is plotted against
displacement. The curve will be:-

(1) a straight line

(2) a parabola
(3) a circle
(4) an ellipse

4) A diatomic ideal gas (at an ordinary temperature) does 200 J of work when it expands isobarically.
The heat given to the gas in the process is :-

(1) 200 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 600 J
(4) 700 J
5) 420 joule of energy supplied to 10 g of water will raise its temperature by nearly :-

(1) 1°C
(2) 4.2°C
(3) 10°C
(4) 42°C

6) Two thermometers X and Y have ice points marked at 15° and 25° and steam points marked as
75° and 125° respectively. When thermometer X measures the temperature of a bath as 60° on it,
what would thermometer Y read when it is used to measure the temperature of the same bath ?

(1) 60°
(2) 75°
(3) 100°
(4) 90°

7) In terms of G (universal gravitational constant), h (Planck’s constant) and c (speed of light), the
time period will be proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The graph between and p is -

(Ek = kinetic energy and P = momentum)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) A locomotive of mass m starts moving from rest so that its velocity varies according to the law v =
k where k is constant and S is the distance covered. Find the total work performed by all the
forces which are acting on the locomotive during the first t seconds after the beginning of motion.

(1)
W = mk4t2

(2)
W = m2k4t2

(3)
W = mk4t4

(4)
W = mk4t4

10) By Huygen's wave theory of light, we cannot explain the phenomenon of :-

(1) Interference
(2) Diffraction
(3) Photoelectric effect
(4) Refraction

11) In Young’s double slit interference experiment two slits are illuminated with a light of
wavelength 6000 Å. The interference pattern is observed on screen far from slit plane. If the central
bright fringe is numbered as zero, what must be path difference for light from two slits at fourth
bright fringe?

(1) 3 μm
(2) 1.6 μm
(3) 2.4 μm
(4) 3.6 μm

12) Escape velocity at the surface of earth is 11.2 km/sec. If radius of another planet is double that
of earth but mean density same as that of earth then the escape velocity at the surface of another
will be :-
(1) 11.2 km/sec
(2) 5.5 km/sec
(3) 15.5 km/sec
(4) 22.4 km/sec

13) The torque of force newton acting at a point metre about origin is
:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

14) A block of mass 'm' is placed on a rough inclined plane. When the inclination of the plane is θ,
the block just begins to slide down the plane under its own weight. The minimum force applied
parallel to the plane, to move the block up the plane, is :-

(1) mg sin θ
(2) 2mg sin θ
(3) mg cos θ
(4) mg tan θ

15) A particle of mass m = 5 units is moving with a uniform speed v = units in the x–y plane
along the line y = x + 4. The magnitude of the angular momentum about orgin is :-

(1) zero
(2) 60 unit
(3) 7.5 unit
(4) 40 unit

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : When the vapours of a 1° or 2° alcohol are passed over heated Cu at 573 K an
aldehyde or a ketone is formed.
Statement II : 3° alcohols do not react with Cu at 573 K

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2) Consider the following statements :

A Ethanol is known as wood spirit

B Methanol is more acidic than acetylene

Methanol on reaction with copper at 573 K gives methanal as major

C
product
The correct statements are :
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A, B and C
(4) A and C only

3) Assertion :- In friedel craft's reaction of 1-chloropropane with benzene gives isopropyl benzene
as product.
Reason :- The primary carbocation rearranges to form secondary carbocation.

(1) Both assertion & reason are true & the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both assertion & reason are true but reason is NOT a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both assertion & reason are false

4) Consider the following statements

(I) The lower aliphatic amines are gases with fishy odour
(II) Aniline is colourless but get coloured on storage due to atmospheric oxidation
(III) Lower aliphatic amines are soluble in water
(IV) In aqueous medium, the correct order of basicity is
(CH3)3N > CH3NH2 > (CH3)2NH> NH3
The correct statements are

(1) I and III only

(2) II and III only
(3) I, II and III only
(4) I, II, III and IV

5) Assertion - Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to confirm the presence of carbonyl group in
glucose.
Reason - Glucose forms addition product with

(1) Assertion is correct reason is correct and reason explains assertion.

(2) Assertion is correct, reason is not correct.
(3) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not correct explanation.
(4) Reason is correct, assertion is wrong.

6) Match the following:-

(i) Vitamin A (A) Beri Beri

 (ii) Vitamin B6 (B) Xerophthalmia

(iii) Vitamin B1 (C) Convulsions

(iv) Vitamin B2 (D) Cheilosis

(1) i–B, ii–A, iii–C, iv–D
(2) i–B, ii–C, iii–D, iv–A
(3) i–B, ii–C, iii–A, iv–D
(4) i–A, ii–B, iii–C, iv–D

7) Match the correct reagents to bring about the following transformations :-

(a) Ethanenitrile → ethanal (p) O3/Zn + H2O

(b) Allyl-alcohol → propenal (q) PCC

(c) But-2-ene → ethanal (r) DIBAL–H

(1) a-p, b-q, c-r

(2) a-r, b-q, c-p
(3) a-q, b-r, c-p
(4) a-r,b-p, c-q

8) Arrange following is decreasing order of dipole moment :-

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) III > I > II > IV
(3) III > IV > I > II
(4) III > I > IV > II

9) Choose correct statement (s) :

(1) Acidic Strength :

R – COOH > R – OH > H2O > CH ≡ CH

(2) are Electrophiles.

(3) Order of basic strength :

(4) Stability of Anion :

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 2, 4
(3) Only 4
(4) All of these

10) Which step is chain propogation step in the following mechanism ?

(1) (i)
(2) (ii)
(3) (iii)
(4) (iv)

11) Consider the following statements

(a) But-2-yne does not react with ammoniacal silver nitrate solution
(b) Acetylene is more acidic than propyne
(c) But-1-yne decolourises bromine water
The correct statements are

(1) (a) and (b) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (a) and (c) only

12)

To make this ether, which of the following reactions will be most suitable:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

13) Arrange the following in decreasing order of SN2:-

(1) S > P > Q > R

(2) Q > S > R > P
(3) Q > R > P > S
(4) R > Q > P > S

14) The incorrect IUPAC name is :-

(1)

3-(Formyl methyl) heptan- dial

(2)

1, 4-Dimethylcyclobuta-1, 3-diene

(3)

3-(2-Formylethyl)-1,2,6-hexanetricarbaldehyde

(4)

2-Bromocyclobutene

15) Assertion (A) : Thin layer chromatography is an adsorption chromatography.

Reason (R) : A thin layer of silica gel is spread over a glass plate of suitable size in thin layer
chromatography which acts as an adsorbent.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

16) Match List-I with List-II

List-II
List-I (Orbital
(Value of associated with
quantum quantum
number) number given in
List-I

A. n = 2, ℓ = 1 I 4s

B. n = 4, ℓ = 0 II 2p

C. n = 5, ℓ = 3 III 3d

D. n = 3, ℓ = 2 IV 5f

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

17) Species which are isoelectronic to one another are

(a) CN– (b) OH– (c) CH3+
(d) N2 (e) CO

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) a, d, e
(4) b, c, d

18)

At 527°C, the reaction given below has KC = 4

NH3(g) ⇌ N2(g) + H2(g)

What is the Kp for the reaction ?

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
(1) 16 × (800 R)2

(2)
(3)

(4) None of these

19) Which of the following orders is wrong?

(1) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 - Acidic

(2) Li < Be < B < C - IE1
(3) Al2O3 < MgO < Na2O < K2O - Basic
(4) Li+ < Na+ < K+ <Cs+ - Ionic radius

0
20) For a reaction A → P; A plot between [A] Vs is straight line having slope positive when initial
–2
concentration of 1 × 10 M its half life period is found to be 20 min. When concentration of A is 2 ×
10–2 M. Then half life will be ?

(1) 20 min.
(2) 10 min.
(3) 67 min.
(4) 56 min.

21) The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X,Y,Z are 0.52, –3.03 and –1.18
V respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is :-

(1) Y > Z > X

(2) X > Y > Z
(3) Z > Y > X
(4) Z > X > Y

22) Resistance of decimolar solution is 50 ohm. If electrodes of surface area 0.0004 m2 each are
placed at a distance of 0.02 m then conductivity of solution is :-

(1) 1 S cm–1
(2) 0.01 S cm–1
(3) 0.001 S cm–1
(4) 10 S cm–1

23) Following limiting molar conductivities are given as

(Ca(OH)2) = x S cm2 mol–1 (Ca(NO3)2 = y S cm2 mol–1
(NH4NO3) = z S cm2 mol–1
(in s cm2 mol–1) for NH4OH will be

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

24) Match the column I with column II and mark the appropriate choice.

Column I Column II

Almost neutral,
(A) CH3COONa (i)
pH > 7 or < 7

(B) NH4Cl (ii) Acidic, pH < 7

(C) NaNO3 (iii) Alkaline, pH > 7

(D) NH4CN (iv) Neutral, pH = 7

(1) A → (i), B → (ii), C → (iii), D → (iv)
(2) A → (ii), B → (iii), C → (iv), D → (i)
(3) A → (iii), B → (ii), C → (iv), D → (i)
(4) A → (iv), B → (i), C → (iii), D → (ii)

25) Calculate the weight of non-volatile solute having molecular weight 40, which should be
dissolved in 57 g octane to reduce its vapour pressure to 80% :-

(1) 47.2 g
(2) 5 g
(3) 106.2 g
(4) None of these

26) Consider the two solutions :-

(I) 0.5 M NaCl aqueous solution at 25°C ; NaCl is completely ionized
(II) 2.0 M C6H5COOH in benzene at 25°C, the acid dimerizes to the full extent. Which of the following
statement is correct :-

(1) Both the solutions display equal osmotic pressures

(2) Both have equal vapour pressures
(3) Solution II is hypertonic
(4) Solution II is hypotonic

27) Match List-I with List-II :

List-I List-II

4.48 litres of
(a) (i) 0.2 moles
O2 at STP

12.022 × 1022 12.044 × 1023

(b) (ii)
molecules of H2O molecules
 (c) 96 g of O2 (iii) 6.4 g

(d) 88 g of CO2 (iv) 67.2 litres at STP

(Given – Molar volume of a gas at STP = 22.4 L)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

28) During the preparation of Mohr's salt solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), Which of the
following acid is added to prevent hydrolysis of Fe2+ ion?

(1) dilute hydrochloric acid

(2) concentrated sulphuric acid
(3) dilute nitric acid
(4) dilute sulphuric acid

29) For the v balanced reaction aP4 + bOH– + cH2O —→ H2PO2– + PH3 the coefficient of a, b, c are :-

(1) 1, 3, 3
(2) 2, 1, 2
(3) 3, 1, 3
(4) 4, 1, 3

30) Calculate ΔG° during formation of methane at 298 K while = – 74.81 kJ mol–1, S°C
=5.70 JK–1 mol–1, = 130.7 JK–1 mol–1, = 186.3 JK–1 mol–1

(1) – 50.7 KJ mol–1

(2) + 50.7 KJ mol–1
(3) 68 KJ mol–1
(4) None

31)

For which reaction, ΔS will be maximum ?

(1) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)

(2) N2(g) + 2O2(g) → N2O4(g)

(3)
S(s) + O2(g) → SO3(g)
(4) 2C(s)+ O2(g) → 2CO(g)

32) Out of electrode potential (I), temperature (II), ΔG (III), volume(IV) extensive properties are :

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) II, III
(4) III, IV

33) Correct statement is.

(A) Complex [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] show geometrical isomerism.
(B) Optical isomers are mirror images that can not be superimposed on one another. These are
called enantiomers.
(C) Chlorophyll is a complex compound of magnesium.
(D) Ethylenediamine is a mono dentate ligand.

(1) (A), (B), (C), (D) are correct options.

(2) (A), (B), (C) are correct options.
(3) (A), (B), (D) are correct options.
(4) (A), (D) are correct options.

34) Assertion (A) : In metal carbonyls, the metal to ligand bonding creates a synergic effect which
strengthens the bond between CO and the metal.
Reason (R) : The metal carbon bond in metal carbonyls possess both σ and π characters.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true but R is correct explanation of (A).

35) Reducing power of Ge2+, Sn2+, and Pb2+ decreases in the order:

(1) Ge2+ > Sn2+ > Pb2+

(2) Pb2+ > Sn2+ > Ge2+
(3) Sn2+ > Ge2+ > Pb2+
(4) Sn2+ > Pb2+ > Ge2+

SECTION-B

1) Select the correct statement :-

(a) Mn+3 act as stronger oxidising agent than Cr+3 & Fe+3
(b) MnF7, & all are known flouride
+3 +3
(c) La & Lu both are diamagnetic
(d) When K2Cr2O7 react with H2O2 in acidic medium it forms dark orange (CrO5) compound

(1) a,b,d
(2) a,b,c
(3) a,c
(4) a,b,c,d
2)

d-block metal form alloy due to :-

(1) Variable oxidation state

(2) Vacant d-orbital
(3) Almost same size
(4) All

3) Which of the following have one lone pair on the central atom ?
(I) NH3
(II) SF4
(III) XeO4
(IV) XeF6

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, IV
(3) I, IV
(4) I, II,III, IV

4) The solubility products of three sparingly soluble salts are given below :
No. Formula Solubility product
1 PQ 4.0 × 10–20
2 PQ2 3.2 × 10–14
3 PQ3 2.7 × 10–35
The correct order of decreasing molar solubility is :

(1) 1, 2, 3
(2) 2, 1, 3
(3) 3, 2, 1
(4) 2, 3, 1

5) How many coulombs of electricity are required for the reduction of 1 mole of MnO4– to Mn2+ ?

(1) 96500 C
(2) 9.65 × 106 C
(3) 4.83 × 105 C
(4) 1.93 × 105 C

6) Which of the following statements is not correct?

(1) In lanthanide series ionic radius of Ln3+ ion decreases

(2) La(OH)3 is less basic than Lu(OH)3
(3) Atomic radius of Zr and Hf are same because of lanthanide contraction
(4) La is actually an element of transition series rather lanthanides

7) For the reaction : PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g), the forward reaction at constant temperature is favoured
by :-
(a) Introducing inert gas at constant pressure
(b) Introducing inert gas at constant volume
(c) Introducing PCl5 at constant volume
(d) Introducing Cl2 at constant volume

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, d

8) Consider the following statements :-

(A) Bohr model of the hydrogen atom ignores dual behaviour of matter and contradicts Heisenberg
uncertainty principle.
(B) All the information about the electron in an atom is stored in its orbital wave function ψ.
(C) The Paschen series of lines are the only lines in the hydrogen spectrum which appear in the
infrared region of the electromagnetic spectrum.
(D) The brightness or intensity of spectral lines depends upon the number of photons of same
wavelength or frequency absorbed or emitted.
Correct statement(s) is/are :-

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only
(3) A and D only
(4) A, B and D

9) 0.3780 g of an organic chloro compound gave 0.5740 g of silver chloride in Carius estimation.
Calculate the percentage of chlorine present in the compound. Percentage of chlorine present in the
compound.

(1) 32.662%
(2) 37.566%
(3) 72.662%
(4) None of these

10) Assertion (A) : Bond order of N2+ and N2– are same
Reason (R) : N2+ is more stable than N2–

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

11) Which of the following compound has sp hybridised carbon atom?

(i) (ii) CH3–C≡N

(iii) CH2=C=CH2 (iv)

(1) (i), (ii)

(2) (i), (ii), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iii)
(4) (ii), (iii), (iv)

12) Match List I with List II.

List I List II
Isomeric pairs Type of isomers

A. Propanamine and N-Methylethanamine I. Metamers

B. Hexan-2-one and Hexan-3-one II. Positional isomers

C. Ethanamide and Hydroxyethanimine III. Functional isomers

D. o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol IV. Tautomers

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

13) Which of the following reactions yield carboxylic acids.

(1) A, B and C are correct

(2) A & B are correct
(3) B & D are correct
(4) A & C are correct

14)

Match the reaction in column - I with the product of the reaction in column - II

Column - I Column - II
(Reaction) (product)
 A. 1. ArCl

B. 2.

C. 3. ArBr

D. 4. ArI

(1) A - 2, B - 3, C - 4, D - 1
(2) A - 3, B - 1, C - 4, D - 2
(3) A - 3, B - 4, C - 1, D - 2
(4) A - 4, B - 1, C - 3, D - 2

15) Match the reagents (List-I) with the Product (List-II) obtained from phenol.

List-I List-II

(a) (i)

(b) (ii)

(c) (iii)

(d) (iv)

Select the correct option :-

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
 BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) Which of the following is the correct order of taxonomic categories, from broadest to narrowest?

(1) Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom

(2) Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family
(3) Kingdom, Class, Phylum, Order, Family
(4) Phylum, Kingdom, Class, Family, Order

2) Which are smaller than viruses ?

(1) Bacteria
(2) Fungi
(3) Cyanobacteria
(4) Viroids

3) What is common in Ustilago, Neurospora and Agaricus ?

(1) All are edible

(2) All have a dikaryotic phase in their life cycle
(3) All are commonly called 'sac fungi'
(4) All produce motile sexual spores

4) In 1969, R.H. Whittaker proposed five kingdom system of classification. On which basis he
classified organisms into five kingdoms i.e. monera, protista, fungi, plantae and animalia ?

(1) Cell structure & body organisation

(2) Body organisation & the mode of nutrition
(3) Reproduction & phylogenetic relationship
(4) All the above

5) Thallophyta & Bryophyta are correctly termed as

(1) Phanerogames
(2) Cryptogames
(3) Non-vascular cryptogames
(4) Vascular cryptogames

6) Arrange the following events of life cycle of bryophytes in correct sequence :-

I. Germination of spore
II. Gametes formation
III. Formation of Gametophyte
IV. Fertilization
V. Embryo formation

(1) I,III,II,IV,V
(2) II,IV,I,V,III
(3) II,III,IV,V,I
(4) V,I,II,III,IV

7) Which of following pair is wrongly matched :-

(1) Chlorophyceae – Major pigment are chl. a and b

(2) Phaeophyceae – Cell wall made up of cellulose and algin
(3) Rhodophyceae – Stored food as mannitol
(4) Chlorophyceae – Pyrenoid

8) Stem distinguish from root in

(1) Presence of node & internode

(2) Absence of node & internode
(3) Presence of hairs for water absorption
(4) Absence of bud

9) Assertion :- The under ground part of the flowering plant is the root system while the portion
above the ground forms the shoot system.
Reason :- Roots helps in absorption of water and minerals from soil and stem bears leaves, flowers
and fruits.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

10) In roots, the primary xylem is called exarch. Because ?

(1) the protoxylem lies towards the centre and the metaxylem lies towards the periphery
(2) the protoxylem lies towards the periphery and the metaxylem lies towards the centre
(3) both the protoxylem and the metaxylem lie towards the centre
(4) the protoxylem is surrounded by the metaxylem.

11) The features of a typical dorsiventral leaf includes :-

(a) Mesophyll differentiated into pallisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma.
(b) Presence of parenchymatous bundle sheath.
(c) Hypostomatic condition.
(d) Vascular bundles are open type.

(1) a, b, c
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) a, b, c, d

12) Assertion : Pith is large and well developed in Monocots root.

Reason : Monocot root do not undergo any secondary growth.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

13) Which of following statement is not correct :-

(1) First acceptor of CO2 in C3-cycle is 3-carbon compound

(2) Carboxylation step is the most crucial step of C3-cycle
(3) RuBisCO is present in C3 plant which has dual activity
(4) C3-cycle occur in all photosynthetic plants

14) Which of following is not speciality of C4 plant?

(1) Special leaf anatomy

(2) Show response to high light intensity
(3) Lack of Photophosphorylation
(4) Greater productivity

15) The given statement is related to which process? ‘‘The passing on of the electrons removed as
part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2 with simultaneous synthesis of ATP’’

(1) Krebs Cycle

(2) Glycolysis
(3) ETS of photosynthesis
(4) ETS of respiration

16)

Carefully read the following statements :-

(a) All carbohydrates are usually first converted into glucose before they used for respiration.
(b) If fatty acids were to be respired they would first be degraded to pyruvic acid.
(c) When the organism needs to synthesis fatty acids, acetyl CoA would be withdrawn from
respiratory pathway for it.
(d) The respiratory pathway is involved only in catabolism.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three
17) (i) The cell walls are primary in nature, thin and cellulosic with abundant plasmodesmatal
connections. Large conspicuous nuclei.
(ii) Protoplasmic modifications
(iii) Increased vacuolation, cell enlargement and new cell wall deposition
Above characteristics represent respectively which phase of growth in plants ?
Choose the correct option from the following-

(1) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Elongation phase (iii) Maturation phase
(2) (i) Maturation phase (ii) Meristematic phase (iii) Elongation phase
(3) (i) Meristematic phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Elongation phase
(4) (i) Elongation phase (ii) Maturation phase (iii) Meristematic phase

18) The stress hormone :-

(1) Promotes root growth & hair formation

(2) Delay senescence
(3) Helps in cell division
(4) Stimulates closure of stomata

19) Identify the correct match :-

Column-I Column-II

(i) Ethephon (a) Nutrient mobilisation

(ii) ABA (b) Hastens fruit ripening

(iii) Cytokinin (c) Bolting

(iv) Gibberellin (d) Dormin

(1) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b
(2) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
(4) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c

20) The plant parts which consist of two generations one within the other :-
(a) Pollen grains inside the anther
(b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes
(c) Seed inside the fruit
(d) Embryo sac inside the ovule

(1) (a) and (d)

(2) (a) only
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (c) and (d)

21) If t-RNA anticodon have 3'CAC5' will carry amino acid___

(1) Valine
(2) Alanine
(3) Leucine
(4) Proline

22) If leaf cell of Maiz has 20 chromosome find out following–

(i) Number of chromosome in endosperm.
(ii) Number of chromosomes in egg.
(iii) Number of chromosome in zygote.

(1) (i)-10, (ii)-10, (iii)-20

(2) (i)-30, (ii)-20, (iii)-10
(3) (i)-10, (ii)-20, (iii)-30
(4) (i)-30, (ii)-10, (iii)-20

23) Lac operon is

a-Inducible b-Catabolic
c-Negatively regulated

(1) a only
(2) a and c
(3) a, b and c
(4) b and c

24) Hybrid seeds tremendously increases productivity yet has created problems for farmer like loss
of hybrid vigour from generation to generation. This is because of :-

(1) Autogamy
(2) Segregation of characters
(3) Poor adaptability
(4) Recombination of characters

25) Observe the given diagram & select the correct option :-

(1) It is the diagrammatic representation of a out cross.

(2) It is the comparison of two monohybrid crosses, used to find out the phenotype of organisms.
(3) It is the diagrammatic representation of reciprocal cross to find out the genotype of organism.
(4) It is the diagrammatic representation of test cross to find out the genotype of organisms.

26) Number of non parental combination in F2 generation of mendalian dihybrid cross is

(1) 4/16
(2) 2/16
(3) 6/16
(4) 3/16

27) During DNA replication, deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates serve the dual purpose of :

(1) Acting as substrate and has enzymatic activity

(2) Acting as transducer and has enzymatic activity
(3) Acting as substrate and provides energy for polymerisation
(4) Acting as enzyme and provides energy for polymerisation

28) Choose the incorrect match w.r.t. HGP :

(1) Expressed Sequence Tags – Identifying all the genes that are expressed as RNA
Sequence Annotation – Sequencing both coding and non-coding sequences then assigning
(2)
different regions with functions
(3) YAC and BAC – Cloning vectors
(4) Human chromosome number 22 – The last chromosome to be sequenced

29) Statement-I : In prokaryotes, transcription and translation are coupled.

Statement-II : Both processes occur simultaneously in the cytoplasm.

(1) Both statements are true.

(2) Both statements are false.
(3) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.

30) Which of the following is a most appropriate option regarding to DNA replication :-

(1) DNA in the chromosomes replicate semi conservatively was performed on E.coli by Taylor.
The DNA-dependent DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction, that is 3'→
(2)
5'.
(3) In E. coli DNA the replication originates at definite region called promotor
(4) energetically DNA replication is a very expensive process

31) What does the shape of the given age pyramids (A to C) reflect about the growth status of
populations?
 A B C

(1) Declining Stable Expanding

(2) Stable Expanding Declining

(3) Expanding Stable Declining

(4) Declining Expanding Stable

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Which among these breeds only once in its life time

(1) Pacific salmon fish

(2) Pelagic fish
(3) Bamboo plant
(4) Both (1) and (3)

33) Which one of the following processes during decomposition is correctly described ?

(1) Leaching – Water soluble inorganic nutrients rise to the top layers of soil
(2) Fragmentation – Carried out by organisms such as earthworm
Humification – Leads to the accumulation of a dark coloured substance humus which undergoes
(3)
microbial action at a very fast rate
(4) Catabolism – Last step in the decomposition under fully anaerobic condition

34) Study the following.

I) Prophase – Organisation of chromatin into chromosomes
II) Metaphase – Alignment of chromosomes on equatorial line within the nucleus
III) Anaphase-I – Disjunction of bivalents to form chromosomes with single chromatid
IV) Telophase-I – Organisation of haploid daughter nuclei having chromosomes with two chromatids
The correct combinations are

(1) I and III

(2) II and IV
(3) I and IV
(4) II and III

35) Identify A, B, C, D, E and F given in the figure.

 A–Interdoublet bridge, B–Peripheral microtubules (doublets), C–Central microtubule, D– Plasma
(1)
membrane, E–Central bridge, F–Radial spoke
A–Central sheath, B–Radial spoke, C–Interdoublet bridge, D–Central microtubule, E– Plasma
(2)
membrane, F–Peripheral microtubules (doublets)
A–Central sheath, B–Plasma membrane, C–Peripheral microtubules (doublets), D–Radial spoke,
(3)
E–Central microtubule, F–Interdoublet bridge
A–Plasma membrane, B–Radial spoke, C–Peripheral microtubules (doublets), D–Central sheath,
(4)
E–Central microtubule, F–Interdoublet bridge

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following statements is not true ?

(1) A single organism can feed at several trophic levels

(2) Detritivores feed at all trophic levels except the producer level
(3) Primary consumers are herbivores
(4) Energy pyramids of an ecosystem tend to diminish at higher trophic levels

2) Which among the following is odd one ?

(1) Zoological parks

(2) Wildlife sanctuaries
(3) Gene bank
(4) Wildlife safari parks

3) For many taxonomic group, species inventories are more complete in temperate than in tropical
countries because :-

(1) water is not less in tropical area

(2) speies diversity is less in temperate as compared to tropical area
(3) more solar energy in temperate
(4) less solar energy in tropical

4) How many of the following are correct ?

(A) Ecologists have discovered that the value of Z (species area relationship) lies in the range of 0.1
to 0.2 regardless of the taxonomic group or the region
(B) Mutualism may be one of major causes of biodiversity losses, as far as co-extinctions are
concerned
(C) In meghalaya, the sacred groves are the last refuges for a large number of rare and threatened
species
(1) (A) & (B)
(2) (B) & (C)
(3) (C) & (A)
(4) All three

5) Which statement should be correct related with chain polymerization from given diagram :-

(A) A is first nucleotide of

this chain
(B) C is first nucleotide of this chain
(C) A is last nucleotide of this chain
(D) C is last nucleotide of this chain
(E) New nucleotide will polymerize after C

(1) A, D
(2) B, C
(3) A, D, E
(4) B, D, E

6) The percentage of crossing over will be more if

(1) Linked genes are located far apart from each other
(2) Linked genes are located close to each other
(3) Genes are present in different chromosome
(4) Genes are in a different cell

7) In the pedigree shown below, individuals with the solid symbols suffers from albinism. You would
counsel the couple A & B that the probability that each of their child will have the disease is :

(1) 0%
(2) 25%
(3) 50%
(4) 75%

8) Read the following statements :-

Statement A - Exine is made up of sporopollenin which is one of the most resistant organic material
known.
Statement B - Intine is the inner wall of pollen grain which is thin and continuous layer made up of
cellulose and pectin.

(1) Statement A is true, B is false

(2) Statement A is false, B is true
(3) Statement is A and B are false
(4) Statement is A and B are true

9) Which of the following statements is true for the phytohormone, which promotes petiole
elongation in rice plants :-

(1) Precursor – Tryptophan

(2) Promote female and male flower formation in cucumber
(3) Promote seed and bud dormancy
(4) Help plant to increase their water absorbing surface

10) Products of single kreb's cycle are

(1) 1FADH2, 2NADH2, 1ATP

(2) 2FADH2, 2NADH2, 2ATP
(3) 1FADH2, 3NADH2,1ATP
(4) 1FADH2, 4NADH2, 1ATP

11) Cell membrane protected from aqueous environment due to :-

(1) tail of only unsaturated hydrocarbons

(2) tail of unsaturated and saturated hydrocarbons arranged towards inner part
(3) head of saturated hydrocarbons
(4) head of unsaturated hydrocarbons

12) Select the incorrect statement from the following-

(1) Both chloroplast and mitochondria contain DNA.

(2) The chloroplast are generally larger than mitochondria.
(3) Both chloroplast and mitochondria are surrounded by two membrane.
(4) Both chloroplast and mitochondria have inner membrane more permeable than outer membrane

13) Which of the following statement is correct?

(1) Grana are arranged in stack, like the piles of coins, called thylakoids.
(2) Nucleolus is bound by a single membrane.
(3) Several ribosomes attached to a single m-RNA is called as polysome.
(4) Mitochondria is fully autonomous organelle

14) Englemann's experiment with Cladophora demonstrated that :-

(1) The full spectrum of sunlight is need for photosynthesis
(2) Only red wavelength are effective in causing photosynthesis
(3) Only blue wavelength are effective
(4) Both blue and red wavelength are effective

15) Assertion (A) :- Geitonogamy is genetically simillar to autogamy.

Reason(R) :- The pollen grains come from anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant
in Geitonogamy.
Select the correct options.

(1) Assertion is false but Reason is true

(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is correct explanation of Assertion.

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

(A) The cerebrum wraps around a structure called ____________.
(B) The two hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called ____________.
(C) ____________ lies at the base of the thalamus.
(D) A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the ___________.
(E) __________ consists of fibre tracts that interconnect different regions of the brain.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
2)
Which of the following statement is correct explanation of given diagram?

(1) 'A' & 'B' shows depolarisation

(2) 'A' is depolarisation & 'B' is repolarisation
(3) Conduction of impulse is unidirectional
(4) At an 'A' site Na+–K+ pump is open

3) Assertion: The myelin sheath is essential for the rapid conduction of nerve impulses.
Reason: Myelin insulates the axon and prevents the leakage of ions, allowing for saltatory
conduction.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

4) Assertion: Hormone receptor present on the cell membrane of the target cell are called
membrane bound receptor.
Reason: Protein hormones normally do not enter the target cell, but generate secondary
messengers (Eg. cyclic AMP, IP3, Ca++ etc)

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5)

Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

(A) Underproduction of hormones by the adrenal cortex leading to a disease called ____(A)____.
(B) ____(B)____ is the main mineralocorticoid in our body.
(C) ____(C)____is involved in maintaining the cardio-vascular system.
(D) Adrenaline and Nor-adrenaline are commonly called as ____(D)____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) Addison’s disease Aldosterone Cortisol Catecholamines

(2) Grave’s disease Aldosterone Cortisol Catecholamines

(3) Addison’s disease Cortisol Cortisol Iodothyronines

(4) Addison’s disease Aldosterone Aldosterone Corticoids

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Match the Column:

Hormone Function

Act on exocrine pancreas and stimulates the

A. Gastrin 1.
secretion of water and bicarbonate ion

Act on both pancreas and gall bladder and

B. Secretin 2. stimulates secretion of pancreatic enzyme and bile
juice respectively.

Acts on gastric gland and stimulates the secretion

C. CCK (Cholesystokinin) 3.
of HCl and pepsinogen.

D. GIP (Gastric Inhibitory Peptide) 4. Inhibits gastric secretion and motility.

(1) A–3, B–1, C–2, D–4
(2) A–1, B–3, C–4, D–2
(3) A–1, B–2, C–3, D–4
(4) A–4, B–3, C–1, D–2

7) Choose the number of hormone from the given list which doesn't form secondary messenger ?
Glucocorticoid, Adrenalin, Glucagon, Thyroxin, Thymosin, Aldosterone, ADH, Somato-statin,
Somatotrophin, Testosterone.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

8) Select the wrong one from the given statements:

(a) Tyrannosaurus rex was about 20 feet in height and had huge fearsome dagger like teeth.
(b) Jawless fishes evolved into the first amphibians that lived on both land and water
(c) The skull of baby chimpanzee is more like adult human skull than adult chimpanzee skull.
(d) The first mammals were like whales.

(1) a and b
(2) c and d
(3) b and d
(4) a and c

9)

Continental drifts that occurred millions of years back shows

(1) South America join North America

 South American animals like hippopotamus, rabbits, bears get over ridden by North American
(2)
fauna
Pouched animals of Australia survived due to lack of competition from any other mammal
(3)
groups
(4) All of the above

10) Find the total number of organisms evolved from Psilophyton in the following.
Bryophytes, Herbaceous lycopods, Sphenopsids, Ferns, Ginkgos, Conifers, Gnetales, Arborescent
lycopods, Zosterophyllum.

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 5
(4) 6

11)
In the given line diagram identify the values of in the given I, II, III & IV in position.

I – = 104 mm Hg,
II – = 40 mm Hg
(1)
III – = 20 mm Hg
IV – = 95 mm Hg

I– = 104 mm Hg
II – = 95 mm Hg
(2)
III – = 40 mm Hg
IV – = 40 mm Hg

I– = 95 mm Hg
II – = 105 mm Hg
(3)
III – = 52 mm Hg
IV – = 40 mm Hg

I– = 165 mm Hg
II – = 95 mm Hg
(4)
III – = 45 mm Hg
IV – = 40 mm Hg
12) At what pO2, does 50% of haemoglobin get saturated under normal conditions in humans ?

(1) 10-15 mm Hg
(2) 27-30 mm Hg
(3) 37-40 mm Hg
(4) 45-50 mm Hg

13) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(A) Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 70 per cent.
(B) The first heart sound (lub) is associated with the closure of the atrioventricular valves.
(C) The contraction starts shortly after Q and marks the beginning of the systole.
(D) Parasympathetic neural signals increase the speed of conduction of action potential

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) T T F F

(2) F T T F

(3) T F T T

(4) F T F T
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of inactive fibrinogens to fibrins?

(1) Epinephrine
(2) Thrombokinase
(3) Thrombin
(4) Ca2+

15) On an average how much urea is excreted out per week ?

(1) 25-30 gm
(2) 25-30 mg
(3) 175-210 gm
(4) 175-210 mg

16) Which one of the following statements are correct:-

The medullary zone of kidney is divided into a few conical masses called medullary pyramids
(1)
projecting into the calyces
(2) Inside the kidney the cortical region extends in between the medullary pyramids
(3) Glomerulus along with Bowman's capsule is called the renal corpuscle
(4) All the above

17) How many y-chromosomes are present in the 2nd polar body in human beings?

(1) 01
(2) 23
(3) 02
(4) 00

18) For the completion of fertilization which sequence of layers (outer to inner) are crossed by
sperm ?

(1) Theca externa–Theca media–Corona radiata – Zona pellucida–Plasma membrane of oocyte

(2) Corona radiata – Zona pellucida – Perivitelline space – Plasma membrane of oocyte
(3) Zona pellucida – Corona radiata – Theca externa
(4) Theca interna – Zona pellucida – Corona radiata – Plasma membrane of oocyte

19) The figure below show four stage (a, b, c, d) of human development. Select from the given option
giving correct identification together with site of occurrence ?

Developmental stage Site of occurrence

(1) a Fertilised egg Isthmus part of fallopian tube

(2) b Zygote End part of fallopian tube

(3) c Gastrula Starting point of Fallopian tube

(4) d Blastocyst Uterine cavity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

20) Consider the following statements given below and choose the option which include correct
statements only
(A) Contraception pills include administration of progesterone or progesterone–estrogen
combinations.
(B) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is safe during second trimester.
(C) LNG–20 is an example of subcutaneous implant.
(D) Intrauterine devices like Cu–T are effective contraceptives.

(1) B & D
(2) A & D
(3) B & C
(4) A, B & D

21)

Read the given statements and select the correct option:

(A) According to the WHO reproductive health means a total well-being in all aspects of
reproduction.

(B) India was amongst the first country in the world to initiate action plans and programmes at a
national level to attain total reproduction health as a social goal called "family planning" were
initiated in 1971. (C) Amniocentesis is used to test for the presence of certain genetic disorder such
as Down syndrome, scurvy and sex-detection of foetus. (D) An ideal contraceptive should be user-
friendly, easily available, effective and with no or least side-effect

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Which of the following statement show correct sequence of evolution of plant forms :-

(1) Tracheophyte → Ferns → Bryophytes → Seed ferns

(2) Cycads → Gnetales → Ginkgos → Psilophyton
(3) Rhynia → Progymnosperms → Seed ferns → Dicotyledons
(4) Lycopods → Conifers → Sphenopsids → Monocotyledons

23) How many statements are correct about the diagram given below?

(A) Australian marsupials

(B) Shows Homology
(C) Example of divergent evolution
(D) All are examples of adaptive radiation

(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) A, B, C, D All correct

24) Urecose gland which help in excretion is found in

(1) Female cockroach

(2) Male cockroach
(3) Both male and female cockroach
(4) Male frog

25) How many of the given statement are correct ?

(a) Louis pasteur by his experiment, dismissed the theory of special creation.
(b) Darwin implied natural selection as mechanism of evolution.
(c) Biochemical similarities among diverse organism gives clue to common ancestry.
(d) Big-bang theory explains the origin of life.

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

26) Which of the following statements are not incorrect ?

(a) Smack is chemically diacetyl morphine which is obtained by acetylation of heroin
(b) Morphine is obtained from the latex of poppy plant Papaver somniferum
(c) Drugs having their effects on cardiovascular system of body are being abused by some sports
persons.
(d) Crack interfers with the transport of the neuro-transmitter dopamine

(1) a, b, c, d
(2) a, c, d
(3) b, c, d
(4) c, d

27) How many statements given below are the examples of 'Naturally Acquired passive immunity ?
(a) Interferons which protects non infected cells from further viral infection
(b) The foetus receives some antibodies from their mothers through placenta during pregnancy
(c) Colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant IgA antibodies to
protect the infants
(d) ATS (Anti-tetanus serum) provides temporary protection in case of injuries and burns

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

28)

Interferons are secreted by __

(1) Liver
(2) Spleen
(3) Virus infected cells
(4) Lymphocytes

29) Read the following statements

(i) HIV infection can occur from infected mother to her child through placenta.
(ii) Time lag between infection and appearance of AIDS symptoms may vary usually from 2 to 12
weeks.
(iii) AIDS was first reported in 1981.
(iv) Treatment of AIDS with antiretroviral drug is completely effective.
How many of given statement is/are correct?

(1) Two
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Three

30) A jawless fish, which lays eggs in fresh water and whose ammocoetes larvae after
metamorphosis return to the ocean is ___

(1) Myxine
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Hyla
(4) Trygon

31) During anaerobic digestion of organic waste, such as in producing biogas, which of the following
is left undegraded?

(1) Lipid
(2) Lignin
(3) Starch
(4) Cellulose

32) Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the correct option out of the options given
below:
Assertion: Statins reduces blood cholesterol level.
Reason: They competitively inhibit the enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.

If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion
 If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) If both the assertion and reason are false

33)

Match the column A with column B :-

Column A Column B

(i) Tip of nose (a) Calcified cartilage

(ii) Ends of bone (b) White fibrous cartilage

(iii) Intervertebral disc (c) Hyaline cartilage

(iv) Head of femur (d) Yellow fibrous cartilage

(1) i – (d), ii – (c), iii – (b), iv – (a)

(2) i – (d), ii – (c), iii – (a), iv – (b)
(3) i – (c), ii – (d), iii – (b), iv – (a)
(4) i – (a), ii – (b), iii – (c), iv – (d)

34)

Fill up the blanks by choosing correct combination of A, B, C and D :-

1. The ___A____is made up of a single thin layer of flattened cells with irregular boundaries.
2. ___B____ gland secrete digestive enzyme
3. ___C____ provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
4. Cell junction are found in ___D____ and other tissues.

(A)-Cuboidal epithelium, (B)-Endocrine,

(1)
(C)-Columnar epithelium, (D)-Connective tissue
(A)-Squamous epithelium, (B)-Exocrine,
(2)
(C)-Compound epithelium , (D)-Epithelial tissue
(A)-Columnar epithelium, (B)-Liver,
(3)
(C)-Epithelial tissue, (D)-Muscular tissue
(A)-Ciliated epithelium, (B)-Exocrine,
(4)
(C)-Connective tissue, (D)-Nervous tissue

35)

Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a connective tissue. Identify the parts labelled A, B, C and
D and select the right option about them.
 Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

Haversian Haversian
(1) Osteocyte Matrix
canal system

Haversian Haversian
(2) Matrix Osteocyte
system canal

Haversian Haversian
(3) Matrix Osteocyte
canal system

Haversian Haversian
(4) Osteocyte Matrix
canal system
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION-B

1) Assertion: Duodenum receives bile from gall bladder and pancreatic juice from the pancreas
through a common duct in frog.
Reason: Salivary glands are absent in frog. So digestion start in stomach.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Identify the correct answer with respect to RNA interference (RNAi) :-

(P) It is an event of post transcriptional gene silencing.
(Q) It works through RNA induced silencing complex.

(1) P only
(2) Both P and Q
(3) Neither P nor Q
(4) Q only
3) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : When a particular restriction enzyme cuts strand of DNA, overhanging stretches or
sticky ends are formed.
Reason (R): Some restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of
palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options
given below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct

4) Read and following statements carefully and select the correct option :
(A) Source of the restriction enzyme Hind III is E.coli
(B) In biolistic method of gene transfer, microparticles made up of gold or tungsten are coated with
foreign DNA.
(C) Micro-injection method for injecting desired gene is used for animal cell.
(D) Primers are chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to the regions of
DNA in PCR.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

5) Assertion : With the increase in substrate concentration the velocity of the enzymatic reaction
rises at first, the reaction ultimately reaches a maximum velocity which is not exceeded by any
further rise in concentration of the substrate.
Reason : Enzyme molecules are fewer than the substrate molecules and after saturation of these
enzyme molecules there is no free enzyme molecule to bind with the additional substrate molecules.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Ribozymes are deoxyribonucleic acids with catalytic power
(b) Oils have lower melting point and hence remain as liquid in winters.
(c) Majority of simple lipids have both glycerol and fatty acids.
(d) Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon atoms excluding the carboxyl carbon. Options :-

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (b), (c)

7) DNA fragments separated by gel electrophoresis are shown. Mark the correct statement :-

(1) Band '3' contains more positively charged DNA molecule than '1'
(2) Band '3' has longer DNA fragment than '1' and '2'
(3) Band '1' has longer DNA fragment than '2' and '3'
(4) All the bands have equal length and charges but differ in base composition

8) There are 3 drops of blood on a slide Identify the blood group

:-

(1) B+
(2) B–
(3) A+
(4) A–

9)

Match the following:

(1) I - E; II - C; III - A; IV - B; V - D
(2) I - A; II - B; III - C; IV - D; V - E
(3) I - C; II - B; III - D; IV - A; V - E
(4) I - D; II - E; III - C; IV - B; V - A

10) Which of the following is not an Echinoderm character?

(1) Exclusively marine

(2) Radial symmetry in adults
(3) Protostome embryonic development
(4) Water vascular system

11) Assertion : In ultrafiltration, blood is filtered so finely that almost all the constituents of plasma
except proteins pass onto the lumen of Bowman's capsule.
Reason : The filtration unit of Malpighian body consists of endothelium of glomerular blood vessels,
epithelium of Bowman's capsule & basement membrane between these two.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) Statement-I : JGA is a sensitive region formed by cellular modifications in the proximal
convoluted tubule and afferent arteriole at the location of their contact.
Statement-II : A fall in GFR can activate the JG cells to release rennin.

(1) Both Statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
(4) Both Statements are incorrect

13) In the given four statements (a-d) select the options which includes all the incorrect ones only:-
(a) Scapula situated dorsally in thoracic region between 2nd and 7th ribs.
(b) Fibula, Tibia and Patella Participates in knee joint formation.
(c) Tarsal bones are much larger and stronger than carpal bones.
(d) Two halves of pelvic girdle meet dorsally to form the pubic symphysis.

(1) Statement (a), (b), (c)

(2) Statement (b), (c)
(3) Statement (a), (c)
(4) Statement (b), (d)

14) A sarcomere shows characteristic striations due to particular arrangement of actin and myosin
filaments. A schematic representation of sarcomere is shown below :
During muscle contraction, which of the following would shorten:-

(1) H line
(2) Sarcomere
(3) I band
(4) All of above

15) Muscular disorders in List-1 are correctly matched with their characters in List-2

(1) A-(iii), (iv) B-(vi), (ii) C-(i),(v)

(2) A-(iii), (v) B-(vi), (ii) C-(i),(iv)
(3) A-(i), (v) B-(ii), (vi) C-(iii),(iv)
(4) A-(iii), (v) B-(vi), (i) C-(ii),(iv)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 1 3 1 2 4 2 3 1 1 2 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 3 4 3 3 1 2 4 1 1 3 2 4 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 4 4 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 4 3 2 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 2 1 3 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 2 3 4 4 2 3 3 2 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 4 1 1 4 4 2 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 3 3 2 4 3 2 2 4 2 1 3 4 1 4 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 4 2 4 3 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 3 4 3 3 4 4 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 4 3 2 4 3 3 4 1 4 3 4 2 3 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 2 2 4 3 1 3 4 4 3 2 4 3 4 4

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 1 1 1 1 3 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 3 4 4 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 3 4 2 3 3 2 3 1 2 2 1 1 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 2 1 2 1 4 3 1 1 3 1 4 4 4 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

i = 5 + 5 sin (100 ωt)

average value
< i > = 5 + 5 < sin (100 ωt) >
In one time period <sin(100ωt) > = 0
<i> = 5A

2) Assume potential at A to be zero.

3)

q= = =

q = 2(10 – 0) + (102 – 02) = 20 + 150 = 170C

6)

8) Flux coming out of the cube ....(i)

and from sphere ϕ2 = ...(ii)

10) Epeak = c Bpeak

= 3 × 108 × 2 × 4π × 10–7
= 753 volt/m

Since is in & wave is travelling towards ,

∴ is towards
∴ Equation of electric field
= 753 cos(ωt – kz)

13) Since tension in wire in both caus is same. Elongation in length for same material wire in
same length will also be same.

16)

17)

18)

23) Energy released in 2kg of deutron

26) μ =
∵ μ = cot (A/2)

∴ cot (A/2) =

⇒ cos (A/2) = sin

⇒ 90° – A/2 =
⇒ δm = 180° – 2A
27)

28) k = = or λ = 50 cm

29) ⇒ Ex = –4 × 1 = –4k

⇒ Ey = 4 × 1 = 4k

⇒ Ez = – 2 × 1 = –2k

31)

∴ μ = tanθP
∴ µ = tan 60° =

Now

m/s

32)

R=

R' =

33) As 2πr = nλ = 2 × 10–6 m

34)

m=–2
f = – 50
–2=
100 + 2u = – 50
u = – 75 cm

37) and where p is number of loops

so
Mass of wire

39) W = nRΔT

Q = nCPΔT =n

40)
420 J = 10 g × 4.2 × dθ
dθ = 10 °C

41)

Given Tx = 60; Ty = ?

75 = Ty - 25
Ty = 100 °Y

42) Here the time period T depends upon G, h and c, then we can write
T = k(G)a(h)b(c)c
Comparing dimensions from the principle of honogeneity : [LHS] = [RHS]
T = k[M–1L3T–2]a[M1L2T–1]b[L1T–1]c
⇒ [T] = [M]–a+b[L]3a+2b+c[T]–2a–b–c
Thus,
–a + b = 0 ....(1)
3a + 2b + c = 0 ...(2)
–2a – b – c = 1 ....(3)
 Solving we get a = ; b = ; c =
Hence, the time period T = k[G]1/2[h]1/2[c]–5/2

⇒T=k

44)

WALL = ΔK.E.

46)

47) Ve =
Ve ∝ R

Ve1 = 2Ve = 2 × 11.2

22.4 km/s

CHEMISTRY

51) Alcohol reacts with Cu at 573 k gives Alkene.

53) OR
 55) Ncert, class 12th, part-2, Article No: pg No: 283, 285, Edition - 2023 - 24, 10.1.2.1

62)

E2 will be favoured in option 1 whereas will be favoured in option 2.

65)

Thin-layer chromatography is an adsorption chromatography. It is performed on a sheet of

glass plate, which is coated with silica gel or alumina.

70)

72)

K=
ℓ = 0.02 × 100 = 2 cm
A = 0.0004 m2 = 0.0004 × 100 × 100
= 4 cm2

K= = 0.01 S cm–1

74) CH3COONa (salt of WA and SB) ⇒ pH > 7

NH4Cl (salt of SA and WB) ⇒ pH < 7
NaNO3 (salt of SA and SB) : Neutral pH = 7
NH4CN (Salt of WA and WB) : Acidic or basic depends on pKa and pKb

77)

(a) 4.48 litres of O2 at STP → 6.4 g

(b) 12.022 × 1022 molecules of H2O → 0.2 moles

(c) 96 g of O2 → 67.2 litres at STP

(d) 88 g of CO2 → 12.044 × 1023 molecules

N = 6.022 × 1023 × 2 = 12.044 × 1023 molecules

78) Dil. H2SO4 do not acts as oxidising agent which prevent oxidation of Fe+2 into Fe+3. While
concentrated H2SO4 will oxidise Fe+2 into Fe+3

82)

Extensive properties of a system depends upon quantity (size and Mass) present in the system.

83) NCERT-XII, Pg. No. # : 245

86)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 223 & 236

90)

Number of moles × V.F. =

V.F. = Change in O.N. of Mn

1×5=
Q = 482500 C
= 4.83 × 105 C

93) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 45, 49, 42, 51, Part-I,

Paschen, Brackett, P fund series of lines appear in IR region.

95)

N2– is less stable because it has more electron in ABMO

 96)

sp-hybridised carbon atom :

97) A. Propanamine N–Methylethanamine

B. Hexan–2–one Hexan–3–one

C. Ethanamide Hydroxyethanimine

D. o–Nitrophenol p–nitrophenol

98)

BOTANY
101)

Old NCERT-XI, Pg # 8

102) NCERT Pg. # 27

103) NCERT Pg. # 24

106) NCERT (XI) Pg. # 35

109) NCERT Pg. # 59

111)

NCERT XI Page No. # 93,94

112) NCERT Pg#91

113) NCERT - XI Pg. # 143

115)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 233

116)

NCERT Page # 235

117)

NCERT (XIth) (E) Pg. # 241 and 242

(Topic = Phases of growth)

121) NCERT XII Pg. # 19, 21, 39, 40

123)

NCERT XII Pg. # 76,77

124) NCERT XII Pg # 39

125) NCERT XII Pg. # 57

 126) NCERT-XII, Pg # 81

129) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 94

130) NCERT_Pg. No. 88,89,90,91

131)

NCERT XII Page # 192 Fig. 11.1

137)

NCERT Pg. # 266, 267 Para 15.2.2

138) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 259

139) NCERT Pg. # 262, 271, 265, 272, 267

146) NCERT-XI Pg. # 131

150) NCERT Pg. # 11

ZOOLOGY

151) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 321

152) NCERT, Pg. # 318

153)

NCERT Pg. # 317-318

154)

NCERT XII Page No. # 339/340

155) NCERT Pg # 244, 245

156)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 247

157)

NCERT Pg. # 340

158) NCERT Pg. 139.

159) Ncert Pg No. 140

160) Ncert page 138.

161)

NCERT Page No. # 273

162) NCERT Page no 274

163) NCERT PAGE (ENGLISH): 284 TO 287

164) NCERT, Pg # 200,203

165) NCERT_XI_Pg.No.213.

166) NCERT XIth, Pg # 291, 292

167) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 54

168) NCERT XII Pg. # 51

169)

NCERT XII Pg. 52. Fig 3.11

170) NCERT XII Pg # 60-61 (E), 66-67 (H)

171)

NCERT XII Pg. # 41, 42

172) NCERT XII Pg # 138

173) NCERT-XII Pg# 133, Figure-7.6

174) NCERT-XII, Pg # 140,141

175) NCERT XII Pg.# 127,129,131

176)

NCERT XII Pg. # 142/143

177)

b, c are correct statements. Allen module

178)

NCERT Pg. # 146 (E)

179) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 154, 155, 156

180) NCERT Pg : 180

181) Allen module.

182) NCERT Page No. 153

183) NCERT, Pg. # 104

184)

NCERT Pg. # 101-102

185)

NCERT - XI. Pg # 104, Fig 7.6 (b)

186) NCERT-XII Page No. 117

187)

NCERT XII, Pg.#209

188)
189) NCERT XIIth Pg # 195

190) NCERT XI Page # 116

191) NCERT-XI Pg. # 144

192) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 121-123

193)

NCERT-XII Pg#195

194)

Fact
Ncert Page No. 275, 276.

195) NCERT - Pg. # 291

196) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 293

197)

NCERT Pg No # 209

198) NCERT XI Pg. # 311

199)

NCERT, Pg. # 305

200) NCERT XI Pg # 312