CBSE-2023 PRACTICE PAPER 1
BIOLOGY
Time : 3 hrs Max. Marks : 70
General Instructions
1. All questions are compulsory.
2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section B has 5 questions of 2 marks each;
Section C has 7 questions of 3 marks each; Section D has 2 case based questions of 4 marks
each; and Section E has 3 questions of 5 marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions.
A student has to attempt only one of alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.
Section-A
1. A test tube baby programme was suggested to an infertile couple by the doctor. Out of the
options given below, select the correct technique that is used in this programme?
(a) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT)
(b) Intra Uterine Insemination (IUI)
(c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
(d) All of the above
2. Given below are four reproductive terms and their definitions. Select the correct match.
Terms Definition
A. Parturition 1. Attachment of embryo to endometrium
B. Gestation 2. Release of egg from Graafian follicle
C. Ovulation 3. Delivery of -baby from- uterus
D, Implantation 4. Duration between pregnancy and birth
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 2 3
B- !,
(b) A- C-
4 D
3, , £ -
4. Single step large mutation which leads to speciation is also called
(a) natural, selection
(b) founder effect
(c) saltation
(d) branching descent
5. Yeast respires using sugar. Identify the conditions required and the products formed from the
given table during this process.
Conditions Products
(a) Aerobic Alcohol
(b) Aerobic Lactic acid
(c) Anaerobic Alcohol
(d) Anaerobic Lactic acid
6, Chemical and physical agents that can cause cancer are called carcinogens. The chemical
carcinogen present in tobacco smoke is responsible for which of the following cancer in
humans?
(a) Stomach cancer (b) Skin cancer
(c) Lung cancer (d) Pancreatic cancer
7. Which of the following diseases can be cured by antibiotics?
Gonorrhea HIV infection
(a) Yes No. .
(b) . Yes Yes
(c) No Yes
(d) No No
8. The figure shows action of restriction enzyme.
Different enzymes (I and II) are involved in this action. Choose the correct enzymes that are
involved in this process.
Enzyme 1 Enzyme II
(a) EcoRI DNA ligase '
(b) Hind II DNA ligase
(c) fcoRI Hind III
(d) Endonuclease Exonuclease
9. If N = Population density at time t, then population density at time t+1 can be written as Nt+1
= Nt + [(A + B) - (C + D)].
Which of the following options is correct for A, B, C and D in the above equation.
(a) A can be mortality and B can be natality
(b) B can be immigration and C can be natality
(c) C can be mortality and D can be immigration
(d) A can be natality and D can be emigration
10. Brood parasitism is an example of parasitism in which one organism lays its eggs in the nest
of another organism (host) for the latter to incubate them. Which of the following birds acts
as a parasite setting an example of the above process.
(a) Crow
(b) Eagle
(c) Cuckoo
(d) House sparrow
11. By which process do producers and consumers obtain energy?
Producers Consumers
(a) Grazing Transpiration
(b) Photosynthesis Feeding
(c) Photosynthesis Transpiration
(d) Grazing Feeding
12. The diversity of organisms sharing the same habitat or community is termed as which of the
following?
(a) Alpha diversity (b) Beta diversity
(c) Delta diversity (d) Gamma diversity
Question No. 13 to 16 consists of two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer the
questions selecting the appropriate option given below.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
13. Assertion (A) Endosperm is formed by the fusion of one male gamete and two polar nuclei.
Reason (R) In pea, the endosperm remains the part of seed as it is not completely consumed
up during embryo formation.
14. Assertion (A) In humans, the gamete contributed by the male determines whether the child
produced will be male or female.
Reason (R) Sex in humans is a polygenic trait depending upon a cumulative effect of some
genes on X-chromosome and some on Y-chromosome.
15. Assertion (A) Biotechnology produces transgenic microorganisms that function as
microfactories for proteins.
Reason (R) Transgenic microorganisms can be developed to produce proteins of human
use like insulin.
16. Given below is a population pyramid in the country of Cambodia as per 2005. It depicts the
male population on the left hand side, female on the right hand side, young age group
towards the base and gradually age group increases as we move from base to top, with
oldest population. Study this pyramid and comment upon the appropriateness of the
Assertion and the Reason.
Assertion (A) It shows an expanding population.
Reason (R) Pre-reproductive individuals are more than reproductive ones and post-
reproductive individuals are lesser than the two, increasing the population size in future.
Section-B
17. In the figure given below, the post- pollination events are shown. Study the figure and answer
the guestions that follow.
(i) What type of growth does the part X show?
(ii) What post-fertilisation changes are observed in the parts A and B?
Arts, (i) Part X (pollen tube) shows chemotropic growth through solid part of the style of the ovule.
[1]
18. How are sticky ends formed on a DNA strand? Why are they so called?
19. Due to improper functioning, thymus gland was removed from the body of a 15-year-old
person. Can you predict the effects that will be observed in the immune functions of this
individual?
20.
(i) What are the names given to each of these age pyramids?
(ii) Which one is ideal for human population and why?
(ii) Stable population is considered to be ideal for human population because it is beneficial for
the survival and better living of the human population. It is helpful for planning sustainable
living. [i]
21. (i) Find out the genotype and phenotype of regeneration dominant and red, r = recessive and
white from the given cross in snapdragon plant showing incomplete dominance.
(ii) Comment upon the concept of incomplete dominance.
Or
(i) How is the child affected, if it has been grown from the zygote formed by an XX-egg fertilised
by a Y-carrying sperm?
(ii) What do you call this abnormality?
1]
Section-C
22. Explain the functions of the following reproductive parts of a flower.
(i) Synergids (ii) Micropyle (iii) Hilum
23. Explain the events in a normal woman during her menstrual cycle on the following days.
(i) Ovarian event from 13-15 days.
(ii) Ovarian hormone level from 16-23 days
(iii) Uterine events from 24-29 days.
(i) Identify the polarity of the strand in the diagram from a to a' and mention how many more
amino acids can be expected to be added to their polypeptide chain.
(ii) Mention the DNA sequence coding for serine and the anticodon to tRNA for the same amino
acid.
(iii) Why are some untranslated sequence of bases seen in mRNA coding for a polypeptide?
Where exactly are they present on mRNA?
[1]
25. (i) Write two differences between Homo erectus and Homo habilis.
(ii) Rearrange the following from early to late geological period, Carboniferous, Silurian,
Jurassic.
26. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite which causes amoebic dysentery in man. This
parasite occurs worldwide wherever sanitation and hygiene are poor. Comment on the
transmission of this parasite from its reservoir to a host. Also, identify the symptoms of this
disease which are displayed by an affected individual. What will be your advice for measures
to be adopted for the prevention of this disease?
Or (i) Name the causative agent of typhoid in humans. '
(ii) Name the test administered to confirm the disease.
(iii) How does the pathogen gain entry into the human body? Write the diagnostic symptoms and
mention the body organ that gets affected in severe case?
27.
With reference to the above diagram of E.coli cloning vector pBR322, answer the following
questions.
(i) In E. coli cloning vector pBR322, a foreign gene segment is to be introduced into the ampR
region. From the restriction enzymes given below, which one you would probably use and
why? Bam HI, Sal I, Pvu II, Eco RI.
(ii) Highlight the reasons for why you could not choose the other remaining restriction enzymes
for your work,
(iii) How will the insertion of this enzyme aid in RDT process?
28. (i) Explain what do you understand by the term death rate in a population by taking a suitable
example.
(ii) Write the other two characteristics, which only a population show but an individual cannot.
Section-D
29. Study the given pedigree chart showing the pattern of blood group inheritance in a family.
(i) On the basis of the inheritance pattern exhibited in this pedigree chart, what conclusion can
you draw about the genotype of the parents (A and B)? [l]
(ii) If the individual in the second generation shows dominant allele IA and IB. What genotype is
shown by the individual X. Also tell the possible blood group shown by it. [1]
(iii) If the parents in the second generation show both dominant and recessive allele,
what possible blood groups can be shown by the individual ' Y' in third generation? [2]
Or
(iii) If the individual in the second generation has blood group B and not A, what possible blood
groups can be seen of the individual ‘Y’ in third generation? [2]
30. The two graphs given below show the comparison of two people who took part in a study to
find out the effectiveness of two types of immunisation. Person A received an injection of
antibodies against tetanus and person B received a tetanus vaccination. A blood test was
analysed after few weeks for the presence of antibodies to tetanus.
(i) With reference to the above graph explain, why the antibody concentration in person A
decreased during the study period. [1]
(ii) What are the types of immunity that are shown in the person A and B, respectively? [1]
(iii) How will you explain that the antibody concentration in person A did not increase? [2]
Or
(iii) Explain why the experiments had to measure the concentration of antibodies to tetanus
rather than the concentration of all antibodies in the blood A and B. [2] Ans. (i) The antibodies
in person A are destroyed or broken down to certain products in its concentration which are
then excreted out from the body. Thus, shows decrease. [1]
(ii) The types of immunity shown in person A is artificial passive immunity and person B is
artificial active immunity. [1]
(iii) The person A shows no antigen entering the body, resulting in no immune response. The B-
lymphocytes are not activated and not differentiated into plasma cells and memory cells in
his body. Thus, no antibody is formed. [2]
Or
(iii) Antibodies are always specific for specific antigens/proteins of a pathogen. There is a
variable region in the structure of antibody which makes a specific antigen binding site for a
specific antigen. [2]
Section-E
31. (i) Describe the process of aminoacylation. Also, mention its significance.
(ii) 'Process of transcription and translation are coupled in prokaryotes, but not in eukaryotes'.
Explain.
Or
(i) Describe the structure and function of a tRNA molecule. Why is it referred to as an adapter
molecule?
(ii) Explain the process of splicing of Bn RNA in a eukaryotic cell.
32. The graph given below highlights the variations occurring in the levels of ovarian hormones
during various phases of the menstrual cycle.
(i) Indicate the source of the hormones marked as A and B in the graph.
(ii) Explain why A peaks before B,
(iii) Compare the roles of A and B in menstrual cycle.
Or
(a) (b)
With reference to the diagram of (a) tubectomy and (b) vasectomy, answer the following
questions.
(i) Define sterilisation or surgical method of contraception to cause any side effects?
(ii) Describe the process of tubectomy and vasectomy.
(iii) Why these methods are generally not recommended to couples?
33. Scientists have long been altering the genes of food crops to boost food production and to
make crops more pest or cold resistant. Proponents of GMO says that these crops are
environmental friendly and safe to eat. However, critics claim that GM crops reguire
increased amount of pesticides and herbicides and thus, damages the environment.
(i) Giving an example of Bt cotton, prove the critics point invalid.
(ii) Name the Indian organisation which make decisions regarding the validity of GM research.
(iii) State any two potential risks of GM crops.
(iv) Name two Indian crops which were biopirated by some multinational companies.
Or
The importance of biotechnology for the global economy is growing, including development
in the field of genetically modified plants. In an experiment, different responses are observed
(given below in the form of graph) from the, genetically modified plants.
Observe the same and answer the guestions that follows.
(i) Evaluate the graph and tell which of the two responses are the most positive for the
genetically modified plants. Why?
(ii) Which of the response have no changes in the outcome of the genetically modified plants?
Why?
(iii) Which of the response have most negative impact on the genetically modified plants?
SOLUTIONS OF PRACTICE PAPER 1
BIOLOGY
Ans,1 (a) In test tube baby programme, the zygote is allowed to divide upto 8 blastomeres in the
laboratory, then it is transferred into the Fallopian tube. This technique is called ZIFT (Zygote
Intra Fallopian Transfer). [1]
Ans.2 (b) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
3. Which of the following options represents a test cross correctly?
(a) Pp x pp (b) Pp x PP
(c) Pp x Pp (d) PP x pp
Ans.3 (a) A .test cross is a type of cross done between the heterozygous ^-generation and
recessive parent, i.e.
Pp x pp
(F-1 -generation) (Recessive parent)
Ans.4 (c) Hugo de Vries believed that mutation causes- evolution and not the minor heritable
variations which were mentioned by Darwin. According to de Vries, mutations appear
suddenly and hence, called it saltation (single step large mutation). [1]
Ans.5 (c) Yeast respires under anaerobic conditions and converts glucose to alcohol and C02.
[1]
Ans.6 (c) Tobacco smoke can induce lung cancer in humans. [1]
Ans.7 (a) The antibiotics are used to cure bacterial infections by disrupting their cell wall. But as
HIV is a virus (causative agent of AIDS), it cannot be killed by antibiotics due to their different
structure and way of surviving. m
Ans.8 (a) EcoRI is a restriction enzyme (endonuclease) that cuts the DNA segment at specific
location during rDNA technology. Whereas, DNA ligase (molecular scissor) is an enzyme
that joins the two separated strands of plasmid and foreign DNA. [1]
Ans.9 (d) A and 6 are natality and immigration that increases population density, whereas, C and
D are mortality and emigration that decreases population density. [1]
Ans.10 (c) The cuckoo (parasite) lays its eggs in the nest of crow (host) as the eggs of parasitic
birds have evolved to resembles hosts’ egg to reduce the chances of host bird from detecting
and ejecting parasitic eggs from the nest. [1]
Ans.11 (b) The producers obtain energy through photosynthesis while, consumers obtain their
energy by feeding either on plants or other animals, [1]
Ans.12 (a) Alpha diversity is a species diversity of any given community or a habitat. The species
diversity depends upon the species richness and evenness. [1]
Ans.13 (c) insertion is true, but Reason is false.
Endosperm develops from fusion of one male gamete and two polar nuclei. It is a nutritive
tissue present in the seeds. It provides nutrition to the developing embryo.
In pea (dicot) seed, there is no residual endosperm as it is completely consumed during
embryo formation. Hence, is considered as non-endospermic seed. [1]
Ans.14 (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
In humans, sex is determined by sex chromosomes. Sex chromosomes in human female are
XX and in human male are XY which means that human male produces X and Y
chromosomes containing gametes, while, human females produces only X-containing
gametes. Therefore, males determine the sex of offspring. Sex in humans is a monogenic
trait as there is lack of interaction between genes on X and Y-chromosomes which required
for a trait to be polygenic. [l]
Ans.15 (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Transgenic microorganisms can be developed by inserting genes encoding for desired
protein products using recombinant DNA technology. These transgenic organisms function
as living microfactories that produces proteins like human insulin, human growth hormone,
etc.
Ans.16 (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion,
It shows an expanding population which is pyramid-shaped which increases the population
size. [1]
Ans.17 (i) Part X (pollen tube) shows chemotropic growth through solid part of the style of the
ovule. [1]
(ii) After fertilisation, part A (ovary) develops into a fruit arid part B (ovule) develops into seed.
[1]
Ans.18 Restriction enzymes cut the strands of the DNA, a little away from the centre of the
palindromic sites, but between the same two bases on the opposite strands. This leaves
sticky ends single-stranded position at the ends. These overhanging stretches are called
sticky ends. These are named so because they form hydrogen bonds with their
complementary cut counterparts. [1 +1]
Ans.19 Thymus is the primary lymphoid organ. In thymus gland, the immature lymphocytes, such
as B-lymphocytes differentiate into an antigen-sensitive lymphocytes. Hence, thymus gland
is removed from the body of a person, his immune system will become weak. As a result, of
which the individual’s body becomes prone to the infectious diseases easily. [2]
Ans.20 (i) The names given to the above mentioned pyramids are
A-Expanding, B-Stable, C-Declining [1]
Ans.21 (i) The genotype of F1generation is Rr and phenotype is pink, [1]
(ii) Incomplete dominance is a form of gene interaction in which both alleles of a gene at a locus
are partially expressed, often resulting in an intermediate or different phenotype. [1]
Or
(i) The zygote will be XXY It means the zygote is male with feminine character. [1]
(ii) This abnormality is called Klinefelter’s syndrome. [
Ans.22 (i) Synergids These possess special cellular thickenings at their micropylar tip
called filiform apparatus. This filiform apparatus guides the pollen tube, to enter embryo sac.
[1]
(ii) Micropyle It facilitates the entry of pollen tube and so that male gamete can enter the ovule
to fuse egg cell. [1]
(iii) Hilum It controls the content of water in seeds during the last phase of formation of seeds.
[1]
Ans.23 (i) In the ovarian event from 13-15 days, an immature ovum (egg cell) is released from
the Graafian follicle. Both LH and FSH attain the maximum peak. FSH helps Graafian follicle
to attain maturity and LH helps in its rupture. An ovum is covered by a number of layer and
a yellow fat layer forms corpus luteum that releases (secretes) the hormone called
progesterone. [1]
(ii) During menstrual cycle, the period from 16-23 days is called luteal phase (secretory phase).
During this phase, the corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone which is
essential for the maintenance of endometrium layer of the uterus. [1]
(iii) The uterine events from 24-29 days are also under the influence of progesterone hormone
only. As it influences the maintenance of the endometrium for any pregnancy to occur.
[1]
Ans.24 (i) a to a' is 5' -> 3".
No more amino acids will be added, [1]
(ii) DNA sequence coding for serine is UCA and its anticodon is AGU. [1]
(iii) The untranslated regions are required for efficient translation process. [1]
They are present before the initiation codon at the 3 end and after the stop/termination codon
at the Tend.
Ans.25 (i) Differences between Homo erectus and Homo habilis are as
Homo erectus Homo habilis
Origin period is 1.5 mya. Origin period is 1.2-1.5 mya. '
Brain capacity 900 cc, meat eater, First human like beings, brain capacity 650-800 cc,
fossils found in Java. herbivorous and fossils found in East Africa.
(ii) The correct sequence from early to late geological period is Silurian -> Carboniferous ->
Jurassic(1)
Ans.26 Transmission The disease causing parasite is transmitted by mechanical vectors like
houseflies, cockroaches, etc. from the faeces of the infected person (reservoir) to the food
and contaminate it. [1] Symptoms The patient passes out blood and mucus with stools. He
also experiences griping pain in the abdomen (cramps) along with fever, constipation, etc.
[1]
Preventive measures
• Maintain cleanliness in public and at personal level.
• Practice hygiene like washing hands before eating, keeping food covered, etc.
• Proper medication or vaccination should be taken for treatment and prophylaxis. (Any two)
[1]
Or
(i) Salmonella typhi [1]
(ii) Widal test [1]
(iii) Pathogens enter the human body through contaminated food and water.
The diagnostic symptoms are high fever, weakness, stomach pain.
The body organ affected is small intestine. [1]
Ans.27(i) Restriction enzyme EcoRI would be used, because the restriction site for this enzyme
is present in our target site, i.e. ampR region. [1]
(ii) Other enzymes like Bam HI, Sal I and Pvu II cannot be used because their restriction site is
not present in ampR region, but in tetfi region. [1]
(iii) The insertion of foreign DNA fragment will inactivate the ampiciliin resistance gene in the
vector. As a result, the recombinant plasmid will become ampiciliin sensitive. [l]
Ans.28 (i) Death rates or mortality is expressed as the number of death of individuals of a
population per year. For example, if 80 individuals of a laboratory population of 800 fruit fly
died -in a week, then death rate is,
80
800
= 0.1 per fruit fly/week. [2]
(ii) The two characteristics of population, i.e. not exhibited by an individual are
(i) Population size or density
(ii) Population interactions [1]
Ans.29 (i) The genotype of the parents can be seen as
lAi-> A and lBi-> B, i.e. lAi and lBi. [i]
(ii) The individual ‘X’ in the second generation will show lAlA or lAi and blood group will be A or
O. [1]
(iii) The individual T in the third generation will have
possible groups or group A or 0. [2]
Or (iii) When the individual in second generation has blood group B, then the individual Y in the
third generation will have possible groups as B or O. [2]
Ans.31 (i) Aminoacylation or charging of tRNA is a process in which amino acids get activated in
the presence of ATP and get linked to their cognate tRNA. [1]
Significance of aminoacylation The charged tRNA carries amino acids to the site of protein
synthesis. If two charged tRNAs are brought close to each other, the formation of peptide
bond is favoured energetically. [1]
(ii) In bacteria, both processes occur in the cytoplasm as there is no nucleus. In eukaryotes,
transcription occurs in the nucleus, while, translation occurs in the cytoplasm.
Complexities in Eukaryotic Transcription Eukaryotes have additional complexities in gene
expression than prokaryotes as mentioned in gene expression below
(a) There are at least three RNA polymerases in the nucleus other than the RNA polymerase in
organelles. The RNA polymerase-l transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S), RNA
polymerase-lll is responsible for the transcription of tRNA, 5'srRNA and snRNAs (small
nuclear RNAs).
RNA polymerase-ll transcribes precursor of mRNA, the heterogeneous nuclear RNA (/in
RNA).
(b) Another complexity is that the primary transcripts contain both the exons and the introns and
are non-functional. Hence, it is subjected to a process called splicing. In this process, introns
are removed and exons are joined in a definite order.
(c) hnRNA undergoes additional processing called capping and tailing. In capping, an unusual
nucleotide is added to the 3 end of hnRNA.
In tailing, adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 3" end in a template. Capping and tailing
protect the mRNA from degradation by the activity of digestive enzymes present in the
cytoplasm.
It is the fully processed /inRNA, now called mRNA that is transported out of the nucleus for
translation process.
Complexities in Translation in Eukaryotes
• The mRNA formed in nucleus has to be transported to the cytoplasm.
• Transcription and translation cannot be coupled in eukaryotes. [3]
Or
(i) Structure of tRNA
• The secondary structure of tRNA looks like a clover-leaf.
• All RNA molecules have a guanine residue at their 3 end.
• At the 3', end an unpaired CCA sequence is present. Amino acids get attached to this end
during translation.
• tRNA has an anticodon loop, an amino acid acceptor arm and a ribosome site.
• The anticodon loop has bases complementary to the code. Amino acid accejctor end binds
to amino acids.
tRNA the adapter molecule
Function of tRNA The function of tRNA is to align the required amino acids according to the
nucleotide sequence of mRNA. [2]
tRNA is also called the adapter molecule because on one hand it can read the code and on
the other hand, it can bind to specific amino acid. It acts as intermediate molecule between
triplet code of mRNA and amino acid sequence of polypeptide chain. . [l]
(ii) Splicing of /mRNA Eukaryotic transcripts possess extra segments called introns or
intervening sequences or non-coding sequences. They do not appear in mature or processed
RNA. The functional coding sequences are called exons. Splicing is removal of introns and
fusion of exons to form functional RNAs. A complex called spliceosome is formed between
5' end (GU) and 3 end (AG) of intron. Energy is obtained from ATR and introns are removed.
The adjacent exons are brought together. The ends are then sealed by RNA ligase. [2]
ANS 32, (i) In' the given graph, A is oestrogen and is secreted by the granulosa cells of maturing
Graafian follicles. B is progesterone secreted by corpus luteum. [2]
(ii) The release of oestrogen hormone {A) is followed by the formation and release of
progesterone (6) hormone. [1]
(iii) The hormone oestrogen brings about changes in the lining of endometrium through its
proliferation. The hormone progesterone maintains the endometrium linings for implantation
of the fertilised ovum. [2]
Or
(i) Sterilisation or surgical methods are those that involve in the terminal and permanent
modification of reproductive ducts. Yes, these methods are found to cause some side effects
including irregular menstruation, nausea, abdominal pain, etc. [2]
(ii) Tubectomy is a sterilisation procedure in females, where a small part of the Fallopian tube
is removed and tied up through a small incision in the abdomen/vagina, thus preventing the
ovulated egg to enter Fallopian tube.
Vasectomy is sterilisation procedure in males, where a small part of the vas deferens is
removed and tied up through a small incision on the scrotum, thereby preventing the sperms
to reach urethra. [2]
(iii) Though the above described methods are highly . effective as they block transport and fusion
of gametes, but are irreversible in nature. Thus, are not suggested to the couples. [1]
ANS33, (i) Bt cotton produces toxin proteins that kill certain insects like lepidopterans.
coleopterans and dipterans. Thus, this crop does not require the application of herbicides
and pesticides. [1]
(ii) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC).
(iii) The potential risks of GM crops are as
(a) Unintentional introduction of allergens and other anti-nutritional factor in food crops,
(b) Toxin containing crops might affect non-target organisms. [2]
(iv) Basmati rice and turmeric, neem. [1]
Or
(i) The genetically modified plants show higher yields or the plants are modified with mixing
genes of different crops to give high yield and increase their production. Also, they show
higher resistance to pathogens. [2]
(ii) The genetically modified plants have no change or impact or production of medicine as the
medicinal plants are found from the source itself so it is not required to bring different modified
plants. [2]
(iii) The genetically modified plants have negative impact on the cost of food, as these plants are
mostly not found on cheaper price and are usually highly priced. [1]
