Pinnacle Polity

Indian Constitution? Q.7. The original Constitution of India

Polity SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift) was hand written in English by:
(a) Liberty of expression, civil, political, SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Constitution worship and belief (a) HVR Iyenger
(b) Liberty of thought, expression, belief, (b) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada
Q.1. Which of the following is the faith and worship (c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya
Fundamental Law of any country which (c) Liberty of belief, fiscal, personal, faith (d) SN Mukherjee
sets out the framework and the principal and worship
functions of various organs of the (d) Liberty of opportunity, economic, Sol.7.(b) Prem Behari Narayan Raizada -
government ? social, faith and expression The calligrapher of the Indian
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Constitution. The original constitution
(a) Customs (b) International Law Sol.4.(b) Preamble basically gives ideas - was handwritten by him in a flowing italic
(c) Constitution (d) Ordinance Source of the Constitution, Nature of style.
Indian State, Statement of its objectives,
Sol.1.(c) Constitution is a legal, political, Date of its adoption. Preamble declares Q.8. Who among the following
and social instrument. Legally, it India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular personalities was the chief draftsman of
enshrines human rights and creates a and democratic republic. The Objective the constituent assembly that drafted the
predictable legal landscape. Politically, it Resolution of the Indian Constitution document of the Constitution?
establishes, distributes and limits contained the fundamental propositions SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift)
governmental power. Socially, it reflects a of the constitution and laid down the (a) KM Munshi
shared identity or civic vision of the political ideas, which was adopted by the (b) Vasant Krishan Vaidya
state. Indian constitution (Adopted on 26 Constituent Assembly on January 22, (c) SN Mukherjee
November 1949 and came into force on 1947. (d) HVR Iyenger
26th January 1950) is the world's longest
Q.5. Which of the following is NOT a Sol.8.(c) SN Mukherjee. The drafting
written constitution. 26th November is
political philosophy of the Indian committee was formed under the
celebrated every year as Samvidhan
Constitution? chairmanship of Dr B R Ambedkar by the
Divas (Law Day or Constitution Day) in
SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (2nd shift) Constituent Assembly on 29th August
India.
(a) Sensitive for the historically 1947. The other six members of the
Q.2. Who among the following disadvantaged groups committee were K.M. Munshi,
personalities was appointed as the legal (b) Open to community values Muhammed Sadullah, Alladi
advisor of the Constituent Assembly that (c) Sensitive to the needs of religious and Krishnaswamy Iyer, N. Gopalaswami
drafted the document of the linguistic minorities Ayyangar, Devi Prasad Khaitan and BL
Constitution? (d) Non-committal to building a common Mitter.
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift) national identity
Q.9. Which of the following is an
(a) HVR Iyengar (b) SN Mukherjee
Sol.5.(d) The philosophy of the Indian incorrect statement in regard to the
(c) BR Ambedkar (d) BN Rau
Constitution is based on the principles of meaning of ‘Union of States’ in the Indian
Sol.2.(d) BN Rau. On 9 December 1946, secularism, democracy, social justice, context?
the Constituent Assembly of India met fundamental rights, and directive SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift)
for the first time. Temporary President - principles of state policy. The (a) Country was divided into different
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha. President of philosophical postulates of the states for administrative convenience.
the Assembly - Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Constitution of India are based on - (b) The Indian federation was the result
Vice-President of the Assembly - H C Objective Resolution of Pandit Nehru of an agreement by sovereign units to
Mukherjee. The Constituent Assembly which was moved in the first session of join it.
had a total of 389 members. the constituent assembly on 13 Dec (c) Enumerates the power of the centre
1946. and states through various lists.
Q.3. Which of the following words was (d) Federation not being the result of
NOT a part of the original Preamble of Q.6. Which of the following words is NOT agreement, no state has a right to
the Indian Constitution? mentioned in the Indian Constitution? secede from it.
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift) SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Democratic (b) Republic (a) Secular (b) Republic Sol.9.(b) Federalism is a system of
(c) Secular (d) Sovereign (c) Federalism (d) Socialist government in which the power is divided
between a central authority and various
Sol.3.(c) Secular - All religions are Sol.6.(c) Federalism - A system of constituent units of the country. Article
treated equally by the government. It was government in which powers have been 1(1) of the Constitution of India says that
added in the Preamble by 42nd divided between the centre and its India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of
Amendment, 1976. Democratic : the constituent parts such as states or States. In India, the component units
government is elected by the people. provinces. Republic - The head of the have no freedom to secede from the
Republic : the head of state is an elected state is elected by the people of the federation. Dr. B R Ambedkar called India
president. Sovereign : independent and country. Socialist - A democratic as an indestructible Union of destructible
not subject to the control of any other socialism where both public and private states (the Central Government can
country. sectors function together towards change the name, boundaries of the
socialist goals. states without their permission).
Q.4. Which of the following noble ideals @ebookstore01
is mentioned in the Preamble of the
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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.10. Who among the following wrote in resolution was unanimously adopted on the Constitution of India?
calligraphic style the Hindi version of the 22 January 1947 and the Preamble to the Graduate Level 01/08/2022 ( Shift - 4 )
original Indian Constitution? Constitution is based on it. (a) Bicameral Legislature
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) (b) Integrated Judicial System
(a) SN Mukherjee Q.14. The Constitution of India is a (c) Single Citizenship
(b) Prem Behari Narain Raizada sovereign socialist secular democratic (d) Appointment of the Governor by the
(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya republic with a _____________system of President
(d) Nand Lal Bose government.
SSC CGL 06/12/2022 (4th Shift) Sol.17.(a) Bicameral Legislature
Sol.10.(c) Vasant Krishan Vaidya. The (a) unitary (b) parliamentary (legislative body with two houses). At the
original version of the constitution was (c) monarchical (d) presidential central level (Lok Sabha and Rajya
beautified and decorated by artists from Sabha). Other Unitary features of Indian
Shantiniketan including Nand Lal Bose Sol.14.(b) Parliamentary system is a Constitution: Single Constitution for
and Beohar Rammanohar Sinha. form of government where executives Union and States, Common All-India
hold the power with the majority support Services, Inequality of Representation in
Q.11. The structural part of the Indian of the legislature. In a presidential the Council of States, Centralised
Constitution is, to a large extent, derived system, the head of the government Electoral Machinery, Special Powers of
from the Act of _____________. leads an executive that is distinct from Council of State over State List, etc.
SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (4th shift) the legislature. A monarchy is a form of
(a) 1909 (b) 1935 (c) 1947 (d) 1919 government in which a person, the Q.18. Which of the following is NOT a
monarch, is head of state for life or until federal feature of the Indian Constitution ?
Sol.11.(b) 1935. Government of India abdication. A unitary system is SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Morning)
Act, 1935 provides the establishment of composed of one central government (a) Dual Government
an All India federation consisting of that holds all the power. (b) Division of Powers
provinces and princely states as units. It (c) All India Services
divided the powers between the centre Q.15. The ceremony that marks the end (d) Written Constitution
and units in terms of three lists- Federal of Republic Day celebrations is ________.
list, provincial list and the concurrent list. SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Sol.18.(c) All India Services. Federal
Jawaharlal Nehru called it a “machine (a) the beating retreat ceremony Features of the Indian Constitution -
with strong brakes but no engine”. He (b) the fly-past by the Indian Air Force Division of powers, Supremacy of the
also called it a “Charter of Slavery”. fighter aircraft constitution, Written constitution, Rigid
(c) the ‘At Home’ ceremony at constitution, Independent Judiciary,
Q.12. The constitution of India was Rashtrapati Bhawan Bi-cameral Legislature.
adopted by the Constituent Assembly in (d) the homage ceremony at National
the year _______. War Memorial Q.19. Who among the following
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening) described the Indian Constitution as
(a) 1947 (b) 1949 (c) 1950 (d) 1948 Sol.15.(a) Beating retreat ceremony (end ‘quasi federal’ ?
of Republic Day). The republic day SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon)
Sol.12.(b) 1949. The Constitution was
celebrations are majorly divided into (a) MV Pylee (b) Gunnar Myrdal
passed and adopted by the assembly on
three parts (the Republic Day Parade, the (c) AV Dicey (d) KC Wheare
26th November 1949, but it came into
Beating Retreat, and the Award
force on 26th January 1950. It took 2 Sol.19.(d) K.C. Wheare. Different
Distributions). Republic Day marks the
years, 11 months, 18 days to frame the scholars have different opinions on the
commencement of the Constitution of
Constitution of India. The original text of federal structure of India - ‘bargaining
India on January 26th, 1950. The opening
the constitution had 395 Articles, 22 federalism’ by Morris Jones, ‘co-operative
Ceremony started with laying a wreath at
parts and 8 schedules. In 1934, the federalism’ by Granville Austin,
the Amar Jawan Jyoti at India Gate.
Indian National Congress made the ‘federation with a centralising tendency’
demand for a Constituent Assembly. M N Q.16. All the _______ countries likely to by Ivor Jennings, etc.
Roy first proposed the idea of a have a Constitution.
constituent assembly in 1934. SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (1st Shift) Q.20. With reference to the Constituent
(a) communist (b) democratic Assembly, which of the following
Q.13. Who moved the Objective Resolution statements is Correct?
that was later adapted as the Preamble (c) oligarchic (d) totalitarian
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Afternoon)
of the Constitution of India? Sol.16.(b) democratic countries are most (a) The Constituent Assembly ratified
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (1st Shift) likely to have a constitution . All countries India’s membership of the
(a) Rajendra Prasad (b) JB Kripalani that have a constitution are not Commonwealth in May1947.
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) BR Ambedkar necessarily democratic. Democratic is a (b) The Constituent Assembly adopted
Sol.13.(c) Jawaharlal Nehru introduced form of government in which the rulers the National Anthem in January
the 'Objective Resolution' on 13 are elected by the people. A Communist 1950.
December 1946. This resolution is a classless society with common (c) The Constituent Assembly adopted
enshrined the aspirations and values of ownership. Oligarchic - government by the National Song in January 1948.
the constitution-makers. Under this, the few. A Totalitarian government has (d) The Constituent Assembly adopted
people of India were guaranteed social, absolute power with no opposition the National Flag in July 1949.
economic and political justice, equality (single-party dictatorship).
@ebookstore01 Sol.20.(b) The National Anthem of India
and fundamental freedoms. This Q.17. Which is NOT a unitary feature of was adopted by the constituent
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 Pinnacle Polity
assembly on 24th January 1950. It was Rights, Minorities and Tribal and SSC CGL 18/08/21 (Evening)
first sung on 27 December 1911 in the Excluded Areas (a) 84 (b) 102 (c) 109 (d) 93
Kolkata session of INC. The Constituent (b) Committee on the Functions
Assembly ratified India’s membership of (c) Order of Business Committee Sol.29.(d) 93. The total membership of
the Commonwealth in May 1949. On 24 (d) Ad hoc Committee on the National the Constituent Assembly was 389, of
Jan 1950, the Indian Constituent Flag which 292 were representatives of the
Assembly adopted "Vande Mataram" as a provinces, 93 represented the princely
national song. On July 22, 1947, the Sol.25.(b) Committee on the Functions. states and 4 were from the chief
Constituent Assembly adopted the GV Mavalankar was the first speaker of commissioner provinces of Delhi,
Independent Indian National Flag. Lok Sabha. Advisory Committee on Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg and British
Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Baluchistan.
Q.21. How many female members were Tribal and Excluded Areas- Vallabhbhai
part of the Constituent Assembly that Patel. Ad hoc Committee on the National Q.30. The members of the Constituent
framed the Constitution of India? Flag - Rajendra Prasad. Assembly signed the Constitution of
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening ) India on ______.
(a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 15 Q.26. When was the Tenth Session of the SSC CHSL 16/04/21 (Afternoon)
Constituent Assembly held? (a) 26 November 1948
Sol.21.(d) 15. The Constituent Assembly SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) (b) 24 January 1950
was formed on 6 December 1946. The (a) 6 - 17 October 1949 (c) 26 November 1949
idea for a Constituent Assembly was (b) 14 - 31 July 1947 (d) 24 January 1952
proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy. (c) 4 November 1948 - 8 January 1949
(d) 16 May - 16 June 1949 Sol.30.(b) 24 January 1950. On that day,
Q.22. Who was the chairman of the the last meeting of the Constituent
House Committee of the Constituent Sol.26.(a) 6-17 October 1949. The Assembly was held and the 'Constitution
Assembly of India ? Constituent Assembly took almost three of India' ( with 395 Articles, 8 schedules,
SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Afternoon) years (two years, eleven months and 22 parts) was signed and accepted by
(a) B Pattabhi Sitaramayy (b) AV Thakkar eighteen days) to complete its historic all.
(c) JB Kripalani (d) K.M. Munshi task of drafting the Constitution for
Independent India. During this period, it Q.31. In 1946, who among the following
Sol.22.(a) B Pattabhi Sitaramayya. In held eleven sessions covering a total of was made the interim president of the
1922, AV Thakkar founded the Bhil Seva 165 days. First Session : 9-23 December, Indian Constituent Assembly?
Mandal. JB Kripalani was the president of 1946, Eleventh Session : 14-26 SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
Indian National Congress during November, 1949. (a) Sarojini Naidu
Independence. K M Munshi - Founder of (b) Sachchidananda Sinha
Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan (1938), Member of Q.27. Who among the following became (c) S Subramaniya Iyer
the Constituent Assembly of India, a part of the Constituent Assembly from (d) Sachindra Nath Sanyal
Minister for Agriculture & Food (1952–53) Madras Constituency in 1946?
SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning) Sol.31.(b) Sachchidananda Sinha. He
Q.23. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar was the (a) Ammu Swaminathan was from Arrah, Bihar. Dr Rajendra
chairman of the ______ of the Constituent (b) Hansa Jivraj Mehta Prasad was elected the permanent
Assembly of India. (c) Kamla Chaudhry president of the Constituent Assembly
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Morning) (d) Begum Aizaz Rasul on December 11 ,1946.
(a) Credential Committee
Q.32. Who described the preamble of
(b) Union Powers Committee Sol.27.(a) Ammu Swaminathan. He was
Indian Constitution as the 'Political
(c) Order of Business Committee involved in the Quit India Movement in
horoscope of the Indian Constitution'?
(d) Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee 1942. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected
SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Morning)
as the president and its vice-president
Sol.23.(a) Credential Committee. Union (a) NA Palkhiwala
was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee.
Powers Committee - Jawaharlal Nehru, (b) Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi
Order of Business Committee - K.M. Q.28. What is the minimum age (c) Thakurdas Bhargav
Munshi, Fundamental Rights Sub - prescribed by the Constitution of India (d) Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
Committee - J.B. Kripalani. for appointment as Governor of a State?
Sol.32.(b) Kanhaiyalal Maniklal Munshi
SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Afternoon)
Q.24. The Constituent Assembly was (a) 35 years (b) 21 years Q.33. When was the first Constituent
recognised by Section ______ of the (c) 25 years (d) 30 years Assembly election held in India?
Indian Independence Act, 1947.
SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Afternoon)
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon) Sol.28.(a) 35 years. Article 153 states
(a)1947 (b)1946 (c)1949 (d)1948
(a) 6(2) (b) 10(1) (c) 12(2) (d) 8(1) that each state will have a Governor.
Articles from 153 to 167 in Part VI of the Sol.33.(b) 1946. The Constituent
Sol.24.(d) Section 8(1) . constitution deal with the state Assembly appointed a total of 13
Q.25. GV Mavalankar was the Chairman executive. committees to deal with different tasks
of the ______ of the Constituent Assembly of constitution making. Out of these, 8
Q.29. The total membership of the were major committees and the other
of India. Constituent Assembly was 389, of which
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning) were minor committees. The Provincial
______ were representatives of princely Constitution Committee was headed by
(a) Advisory Committee on Fundamental @ebookstore01
states. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.34. In which year did Motilal Nehru (a) The USSR (b) Japan (c) Australia (d) Japan
(Chairman) and eight other Congress (c) Australia (d) The USA
Sol.42.(b) France : Concept of Republic,
leaders draft a constitution for India?
Sol.38.(d) The USA. Sources of the Ideals of Liberty, equality and fraternity.
SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Evening)
Indian Constitution: France - Ideals of Provisions borrowed from other
(a) 1925 (b) 1950 (c) 1928 (d) 1930
Liberty, Equality and Fraternity in the countries: Suspension of fundamental
Sol.34.(c) 1928. The Motilal Nehru Preamble. Australia - Freedom of Trade rights during emergency - Germany.
Report 1928 was made by a committee and Commerce, Concurrent List. South
Q.43. The concept of "Amendment of the
headed by Pt. Motilal Nehru. This Africa - Election of Rajya Sabha
Constitution" in the Indian Constitution
committee was created when Lord members, Procedure for amendment in
was borrowed from the constitution of
Birkenhead, Secretary of State of India the constitution.
which of the following countries?
asked the Indian leaders to draft a
Q.39. The provision for the post of SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon)
constitution for the country.
Vice-President in the Indian Constitution (a) South Africa (b) Germany
was taken from _______. (c) Canada (d) Australia
Sources of Indian Constitution SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Sol.43.(a) South Africa. Article 368 of
(a) France (b) United States of America
Q.35. The Directive Principles of State Part XX - "Constitutional Amendment".
(c) Ireland (d) Japan
Policy are an adaptation from which of Indian Constitution Sources : South
the following Constitutions? Sol.39.(b) United States of America. US Africa - Election of members of Rajya
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) Constitution - The position of Vice Sabha. Australia - Concurrent List,
(a) UK Constitution President, Judicial Review, Independent Provisions of Freedom of Trade and
(b) Irish Constitution Judiciary, removal of the High court and Commerce within the country and
(c) USSR Constitution Supreme court judges, and fundamental between the states, and the joint sitting
(d) Polish Constitution rights. of both the houses of Parliament.

Sol.35.(b) Irish Constitution. Sources of Q.40. In the Indian constitution the Q.44. Which of the following provisions
Indian Constitution : Ireland - Method of concept of ‘equality before law’ is of the Indian constitution is borrowed
Election of President, the nomination of borrowed from the _____ constitution. from the Constitution of Canada?
members to Rajya Sabha by the SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (1st shift) SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift)
President. Russian Constitution - (a) British (b) Canadian (c) US (d) Irish (a) Independence of judiciary
Fundamental Duties. Japanese (b) Concept of Republic
Sol.40.(a) British. Article 14: Equality
Constitution - The procedure established (c) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme
before the law. 'Equality before law'
by law. court
connotes: the absence of any special
(d) Concept of concurrent list
Q.36. From which country has the privileges in favour of any person, the
concept of Martial Law, which restricts equal subjection of all persons to the Sol.44.(c) Advisory jurisdiction of the
Fundamental rights, borrowed? ordinary law of the land administered by Supreme court. Borrowed Features of
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) ordinary law courts, and no person is Indian Constitution from Canada -
(a) China (b) The UK above the law. Centrifugal form of federalism where the
(c) Japan (d) The USSR center is stronger than the states, To
Q.41. India is a parliamentary democracy provide residuary powers to the Centre,
Sol.36.(b) The UK. The expression based on the Westminster model of Supreme Court’s advisory jurisdiction,
‘martial law’ has not been defined _________ . and Appointment of state governors by
anywhere in the Constitution. It refers to SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) the Centre.
the suspension of ordinary law and the (a) the United States of America
government by military tribunals. (b) South Africa Article, Schedule, Parts and
(c) France
Q.37. The provision of fundamental (d) the United Kingdom
list
duties in the Indian Constitution is
inspired by ____________ . Sol.41.(d) The United Kingdom. Q.45. Match the following subject
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Countries where the Westminster model matters with their concerned Articles.
(a) the constitution of USA is used - Britain, Canada, New Zealand as A B
(b) the constitution of France well as in many parts of the Pacific, Asia 1. Superintendence, A) Article 329 and
(c) the constitution of Canada and Africa. British - Parliamentary form direction control of elections to
(d) the constitution of USSR of government, The idea of single be Vested in an
citizenship, The idea of the Rule of law, Election commission
Sol.37.(d) The constitution of the USSR. Writs, Institution of Speaker and his role, 2. Power of B) Article 324 provision
Sources of Indian Constitution: United Law making procedure, The Political Part parliament to make with respect to election
States of America - Fundamental Rights, of the Indian Constitution, Bicameralism. to legislature
Preamble. 3. Bar of C) Article 327 courts in
Q.42.The concept of "Republic" in the
interference by electoral matters
Q.38. The Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from
Indian Constitution are inspired by the the constitution of which of the following
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
'Bill of Rights' of which of the following countries ?
(a) 1-C, 2-B, 3-A (b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B
countries? SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Evening)
@ebookstore01 (c) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C (d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (a) Germany (b) France
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.45.(d) 1-B, 2-C, 3-A. Article 325 - No Sol.49.(c) Article 39 A. Part IV - Directive fundamental rights shall vest only in the
person to be ineligible for inclusion in, or Principles of State Policy (Articles Parliament and not in the state
to claim to be included in a special, 36-51). Article 50 - Separation of judiciary legislatures.
electoral roll on grounds of religion, race, from executive. Article 43 A -
caste or sex. Article 328 - Power of Participation of workers in management Q.53. Which Article of the Indian
Legislature of a State to make provision of industries. Article 51 - Promotion of Constitution provides for equal
with respect to elections to such international peace and security. opportunity for all citizens in the matter
Legislature. of employment under the state ?
Q.50. Which of the following Articles of SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Q.46. Which Article deals with the the Indian Constitution mentions that all (a) Article 17 (b) Article 15
election of the Vice President? executive actions of the Government of (c) Article 18 (d) Article 16
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning) India shall be expressed to be taken in
(a) Article 66 (b) Article 74 the name of the President? Sol.53.(d) Article 16 - It comes under
(c) Article 70 (d) Article 52 SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) Right to Equality (Article 14 to 18) in the
(a) Article 67 (b) Article 77 Part III (fundamental rights) of the
Sol.46.(a) Article 66. The post of Vice (c) Article 81 (d) Article 48 Constitution. Article 18 - Abolition of
President of India is taken from the US titles.
Constitution. Article 64 - The Vice Sol.50.(b) Article 77. Other Article of the
President to be ex officio Chairman of Constitution: Article 67 - Term of office of Q.54. As per Article 361 of the
the Council of States. Article 70 - Vice President. Article 81 - Composition Constitution of India, who among the
Discharge of President's functions in of the House of the People. Article 48 - following shall NOT be answerable to any
other contingencies. The organisation of agriculture and court for the exercise and performance
animal husbandry. Article 48A - of the powers and duties of his/her
Q.47. Which article allows the state to Protection and improvement of office?
make provisions for the upliftment of environment and safeguarding of forests SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
certain categories of people like socially and wildlife. (a) Secretary (b) Chief Minister
and culturally backward classes and (c) Prime Minister (d) Governor
Scheduled caste and Scheduled Tribes? Q.51. Which of the following Articles of
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening) the Constitution of India provides that Sol.54.(d) Governor. Article 361 - The
(a) Article 15 (b) Article 14 the Governor appoints the Chief Minister President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh
(c) Article 16 (d) Article 17 and later, the Chief Minister recommends of a State, shall not be answerable to any
the appointment of ministers to the court for the exercise and performance
Sol.47.(a) Article 15. Article 17- Governor? of the powers and duties of his office or
“Untouchability” is abolished and its SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) for any act done or purporting to be done
practice in any form is forbidden. (a) Article 163 (b) Article 165 by him in the exercise and performance.

Q.48. Which Article of the Constitution (c) Article 164 (d) Article 167 Q.55. Which schedule of the Constitution
of India mentions that “there shall be a Sol.51.(c) Article 164. Other of India contains provisions for
Public Service Commission for the Union Appointments by Governor: State disqualification of legislators on the
and a Public Service Commission for Election Commissioner (Article 243 K), ground of defection?
each State” ? Vice-Chancellors of the universities in the SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning) state (University Grants Commission (a) Schedule-X (b) Schedule-XI
(a) 315 (4) (b) 315 (1) (UGC) Regulations, 2018), Advocate (c) Schedule-VIII (d) Schedule-IX
(c) 315 (3) (d) 315 (2) General for the State (Article 165) etc. Sol.55.(a) Schedule-X: Popularly known
Sol.48.(b) Article 315 (1). Article 315 (2) Article 163 - Council of Ministers to aid as the Anti-Defection Act, was included
- Two or more States may agree that and advise the Governor of the State. in the Constitution via the 52nd
there shall be one Public Service Q.52. Which of the following Articles of Amendment Act, 1985. Schedule-IX (laws
Commission for that group of States. the Indian Constitution empowers the that are immune from judicial review) - It
Article 315 (3) - Any such law as Parliament to restrict or abrogate the was added by the First Amendment Act,
aforesaid may contain such incidental fundamental rights of the members of 1951.
and consequential provisions as may be the armed forces, paramilitary forces,
necessary or desirable for giving effect Q.56. Which Article of the Constitution of
police forces, intelligence agencies and India states that the Prime Minister is
to the purposes of the law. Article 315 (4) analogous forces ?
- UPSC can, if requested by a state appointed by the President of India ?
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
government, conduct examinations and (a) Article 33 (b) Article 31
interviews to select candidates for state (a) Article 74 (b) Article 76
(c) Article 37 (d) Article 35 (c) Article 73 (d) Article 75
government jobs.
Sol.52.(a) Article 33. Fundamental rights Sol.56.(d) Article 75: Other provision -
Q.49. Which of the following articles are included in Part III (Article 12-35) of
provides for ‘equal justice and free legal Council of Ministers (COM) shall be
the Constitution. It is borrowed from the appointed by the President on the advice
aid’? Constitution of the United States of
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) of the Prime Minister; Total number of
America. It is described as the Magna COM, including Prime minister shall not
(a) Article 43 B (b) Article 48 A Carta of India. Article 35 - Power to make
(c) Article 39 A (d) Article 43 A exceed fifteen percent of the total
laws to give@ebookstore01
effect to certain specified number of members of the House of the

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 Pinnacle Polity
People; COM shall be collectively (b) To separate judiciary from the (a) Cultural and educational rights
responsible to the House of the People; executive in the public services of the (b) Right to freedom
President shall administer to him the State (c) Right to equality
oaths of office and of secrecy of COM; A (c) To protect and improve the (d) Right to freedom of religion
Person who is not a member of either environment and safeguard the
House of Parliament, can become forests and wildlife of the country Sol.63.(a) Cultural and educational
Ministers for any period of six (d) To secure for the citizen, a uniform rights. Article (12 - 35) contained in Part
consecutive months; The salaries and civil code through the territory of India III of the Constitution deals with
allowances of Ministers shall be such as Fundamental Rights. Right to Equality -
Sol.60.(d) Directive Principles of State Article (14 - 18). Right to Freedom -
Parliament may from time to time by law
Policy (Part IV, Article 36-51). Article 50 - Article (19 - 22). Right against
determine.
Separation of judiciary from Executive. Exploitation - Article (23 - 24). Right to
Q.57. Articles 36 to 51 of the Indian Freedom of Religion - Article (25 - 28).
Constitution deal with__________. Q.61. Article 149 of the Constitution
Right to Constitutional Remedies - Article
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) deals with ___________ .
(32 - 35).
(a) fundamental duties SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift)
(b) fundamental rights (a) the qualifications required for the Q.64. The __________ of the Indian
(c) preamble of Indian constitution appointment of the Comptroller and Constitution defines the Fundamental
(d) directive principles of state policy Auditor-General of India Duties of Indian Citizens.
(b) the duties and powers of the SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift)
Sol.57.(d) directive principles of state Comptroller and Auditor-General of (a) Article 51A (b) Article 41B
policy. Article 38 - State to secure a India (c) Article 49C (d) Article 21A
social order for the promotion of welfare (c) the term of office of the Comptroller
of the people. Article 41 - Right to work, and Auditor-General of India Sol.64.(a) Article 51A - It shall be the
education and public assistance in (d) the appointment of the Comptroller duty of every citizen of India, to abide by
certain cases. and Auditor-General of India the Constitution and respect its ideals
and institutions, the National Flag and
Q.58. Which Article of the Indian Sol.61.(b) Part V (Chapter V) of the the National Anthem. Article 41 - Right to
Constitution mentions that all the Indian Constitution (Articles 148-151) work, to education and to public
authorities— civil and judicial— in the deals with the Comptroller and assistance in certain cases. Article 49 -
territory of India shall act in aid of the Auditor-General (CAG). Article 148 - Protection of monuments and places
Supreme Court? Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. and objects of national importance.
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) Article 150 - Form of Accounts of the Article 21A - Right to education. Article
(a) Article 143 (b) Article 141 Union and the states. Article 151 - Audit 43B - Promotion of co-operative
(c) Article 144 (d) Article 142 Reports. societies.
Sol.58.(c) Article 144. Article 143: Power Q.62. Which of the following statements Q.65. How many schedules are there in
of President to consult the Supreme is correct about Article 129 of the our Constitution as of June 2023?
Court. Article 142: Enforcement of Constitution of India? SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift)
decrees and orders of the Supreme Court SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 12 (d) 10
and orders as to discovery, etc. Article (a) It provides for the Supreme Court to
141: The law declared by the Supreme give advisory opinions to the President. Sol.65.(c) 12 Schedules in Indian
Court shall be binding on all courts within (b) It provides for the Supreme Court to Constitution: First - List of States and UT;
the territory of India. be a court of original jurisdiction Second - Emoluments, allowances, and
(c) It provides for the Supreme Court to privileges; Third - Oath and affirmation ;
Q.59. Which Article of the Indian Fourth - Seat allocation of the Rajya
be a court of record.
Constitution refers to the Rights of Sabha; Fifth - Administration of
(d) It provides for the Supreme Court to
Ministers with respect to the State Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes;
be the highest court of appeal.
Legislature? Sixth - Administration of Tribal Areas in
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) Sol.62.(c) Article 143 - Power of the the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
(a) Article 176 (b) Article 178 President to consult the Supreme Court. and Mizoram; Seventh - Union list, State
(c) Article 177 (d) Article 175 Article 131 - Original jurisdiction of the list and the concurrent list; Eight - List of
Supreme Court. Article 132 - Appellate recognized languages; Ninth - Land
Sol.59.(c) Article 177. Article 175 - Right
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in reforms and regulations; Tenth - Anti
of Governor to address and send
appeals from High Courts in certain defection law; Eleventh - Panchayati Raj
messages to the House or Houses.
cases. Article 133 - Appellate jurisdiction and Twelfth - Municipalities.
Article 176 - Special address by the
of the Supreme Court in appeals from
Governor. Article 178 - The Speaker and Q.66. Which Article of the Constitution of
High Courts in regard to Civil matters.
Deputy Speaker of the Legislative India deals with the organisation of
Article 134 - Appellate jurisdiction of the
Assembly. village panchayat?
Supreme Court in regard to criminal
Q.60. What is the aim of Article 44 of the matters. SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Indian Constitution? (a) Article 38 (b) Article 45
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (1st Shift) Q.63. Articles 29-30 of the Constitution (c) Article 40 (d) Article 36
(a) To protect every monument or place of India deals with _______
SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (2nd Shift) Sol.66.(c) Article 40. Directive Principles
of artistic or historic interest @ebookstore01
of State Policy: Part IV (Articles 36 to
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 Pinnacle Polity
51). Article 38 - State to secure a social (Fundamental Rights), Article 36-51 Article 25 - It guarantees the freedom of
order for the promotion of welfare of the (directive principles of state policy). conscience, the freedom to profess,
people. Article 45 - Provision for early practice, and propagate religion to all
childhood care and education to children Q.70. Which Article of the Indian citizens.
below the age of six years. Article 36 - It Constitution mandates that the state
defines a 'State' for Directive Principles to should protect every monument or place Q.74. In India which of the following is a
be followed. of artistic or historic interest? Gandhian principle of Directive Principles
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift) of State Policy ?
Q.67. Which Clause of Article 19 of the (a) Article 39A (b) Article 50 SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift)
Indian Constitution guarantees the 'right (c) Article 49 (d) Article 48A (a) To Separate judiciary from executive
to move freely throughout the territory of (b) To organise village panchayat
India' ? Sol.70.(c) Articles 49. Part IV: Directive (c) To secure uniform civil code
SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift) Principle of State Policy (Article 36-51). (d) To provide equal pay for equal work
(a) Clause (b) (b) Clause (c) Article 45 - Provision for free and
(c) Clause (d) (d) Clause (a) compulsory education for children below Sol.74.(b) Article based on Gandhian
the age of six years. Article 48A - principles : 40 - Organise village
Sol.67.(c) Clause (d). Article 19 - It Protection and improvement of panchayats. 43 - Living wage, etc., for
guarantees the right to freedom of environment and safeguarding of forests workers. 43B - To promote voluntary
speech and expression. Article 19 (1) of and wildlife. formation, autonomous functioning,
the constitution gave the following right democratic control of cooperative
to citizens : (a) Freedom of speech and Q.71. Which of the following statements societies. 46 - promote educational and
expression, (b) to assemble peacefully is not correct about the Directive economic interests of the weaker
and without arms, (c) to form Principles of State Policy? sections. 47 - To improve public health.
associations or unions, (e) to reside and SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (2nd Shift) 48 - To prohibit the slaughter of cows,
settle in any part of the territory of India, (a) To ensure the above mentioned calves and other milch. Directive
(f) omitted, (g) to practise any employment and clean working Principles of State Policy (DPSP) - Part IV
profession, or to carry on any occupation, environment for men, women and , Article (36 to 51). Taken From - Ireland.
trade or business. children. Other Groups - Socialist Principle - Article
(b) Providing adequate means of (38, 39, 41, 42, 43, 43A, 47).
Q.68. Which Article of the Constitution of livelihood for both men and women Liberal-Intellecutal Principle - Article (44,
India provides for a governor for each (c) Ensuring equal remuneration for 45, 48, 48A, 49, 50, 51).
state? equal work only for men
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (d) Reorganizing the economic system to Q.75. Which of the following Articles
(a) Article 173 (b) Article 157 prevent concentration of wealth in a says that double jeopardy which says
(c) Article 153 (d) Article 156 few hands that “no person shall be prosecuted or
punished for the same offence more
Sol.68.(c) Article 153. Article 156 (1) - Sol.71.(c) Part IV {Directive Principles of than once?
The Governor shall hold office during the State Policy (Articles 36-51)}. It is SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (2nd shift)
pleasure of the President. Article 157 - imported from the Ireland Constitution. (a) Article 21 (2) (b) Article 19 (1)
No person shall be eligible for Article 46 - Promotion of educational and (c) Article 20 (2) (d) Article 22 (2)
appointment as Governor unless he is a economic interests of Scheduled Castes,
citizen of India and has completed the Scheduled Tribes and other weaker Sol.75.(c) Article 20 (2). Article 20 of the
age of thirty-five years. Article 173 - sections. Constitution provides for the protection
Qualification for membership of the State of conviction for offences. Article 21 -
Legislature. Q.72. Which Article of the Constitution of Protection of life and personal liberty.
India provides early childhood care and Article 19 (1) - The right to freedom of
Q.69. Which Articles of the Constitution education for all children until they speech and expression. Article 22 -
of India deal with the Union and its complete the age of six years? Protection Against Arrest and Detention
territory ? SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (3rd Shift) in Certain Cases.
SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (1st Shift) (a) Article 38 (b) Article 39
(a) Articles 5-11 (b) Articles 1-4 (c) Article 45 (d) Article 40 Q.76. Under which Article of the Directive
(c) Articles 12-35 (d) Article 36-51 Principles of State Policy, a working
Sol.72.(c) Article 45. Article 38 - State to woman on maternity leave, must receive
Sol.69.(b) Articles 1-4. Article 1- Name secure a social order for the promotion all maternity benefits from the employer?
and territory of the Union; Article 2 - of welfare of the people. Article 40 - SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
Admission or establishment of new Organisation of village panchayats. (a) Article 42 (b) Article 44
States; Article 3 - Formation of new (c) Article 45 (d) Article 43
States and alteration of areas, Q.73. Which of the following Articles of
boundaries or names of existing States; the Indian Constitution prohibits forced Sol.76.(a) Article 42. Directive Principles
Article 4 : Laws made under articles 2 labour and prevents exploitation ? of State Policy (Part-IV, Articles 36 - 51)
and 3 to provide for the amendment of SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (1st shift) are borrowed from Ireland. They are
the First and the Fourth Schedules and (a) Article 20 (b) Article 19 non-justiciable rights (which means that
supplemental, incidental and (c) Article 25 (d) Article 23 they cannot be enforced by a Court of
consequential matters. Articles 5-11 Sol.73.(d) Article 23. Article 19 - Law). Article 43 - The State shall
(Citizenship), Articles 12-35 @ebookstore01 endeavour to secure all workers a living
Freedom of Speech and Expression.

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 Pinnacle Polity
wage and a decent standard of life. classification. 36-51, Part-IV. Article 39A: To provide
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift) free legal aid to the poor. Article 45 -
Q.77. Which of the following articles (a) Article 15 (b) Article 16 Provide early childhood care and
says that 'It shall be the duty of every (c) Article 13 (d) Article 14 education for all children until they
citizen of India who is a parent or complete the age of six years.
guardian to provide opportunities for Sol.80.(d) Article 14. Article 13 - Laws
education to his child or, as the case may inconsistent with or in derogation of the Q.85. Which of the following sets of
be, ward between the age of six and fundamental rights. articles is related with the feature of
fourteen years' ? Emergency Provisions in the Indian
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (4th shift) Q.81. Which of the following Articles of Constitution?
(a) 51A(k) (b) 51A(j) (c) 51A(i) (d) 51A(h) the Indian Constitution mentions the SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (2nd shift)
right to form co-operative societies? (a) 352 to 360 (b) 309 to 312
Sol.77.(a) 51A(k). 51A Fundamental SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (3rd shift) (c) 343 to 351 (d) 330 to 342
Duties (PART IVA): 51A (a) to abide by (a) 19 (1) (d) (b) 19 (1) (c)
the Constitution and respect its ideals (c) 19 (1) (b) (d) 19 (1) (a) Sol.85.(a) 352 to 360. National
and institutions, the National Flag and Emergency (Article 352): There is a
the National Anthem. 51A (h) to develop Sol.81.(b) 19 (1) (c) . Article 19(1)(d) - To threat of war - from external aggression
the scientific temper, humanism and the move freely throughout the territory of or armed rebellion. President's Rule
spirit of inquiry and reform. 51A (i) to India. Article 19(1)(b) - To assemble (Article 356): If the President is satisfied
safeguard public property and to abjure peaceably and without arms. Article that a situation has arisen that the
violence. 51A (j) to strive towards 19(1)(a) - Freedom of speech and Government of the State cannot be
excellence in all spheres of individual expression. Article 19(1)(e) - To reside carried on in accordance with the
and collective activity so that the nation and settle in any part of the territory of provisions of the Constitution. Financial
constantly rises to higher levels of India. Emergency (Article 360): President is
endeavour and achievement. satisfied that the financial stability of
Q.82. A father was speaking about the
India is threatened.
Q.78. X and Y are working as managers rich cultural heritage of India to his young
in a restaurant but they receive unequal son and his teenager friends. The Q.86. Article 1 of the Indian Constitution
pay for the same work. Which Article of fundamental duty in which Article was which states India, that is Bharat, shall be
the Directive Principles of State Policy the father promoting a Union of States, mentions which of the
provides for equal pay for equal work ? SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (1st shift) following features?
SSC CHSL 03/08/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Article 51A (f) (b) Article 51A (e) SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) Article 38 (b) Article 41 (c) Article 51A (d) (d) Article 51A (c) (a) Independence of the Judiciary
(c) Article 39 (d) Article 40 (b) Cooperative Federalism
Sol.82.(a) Article 51A (f). Article 51A (e)
(c) Secularism
Sol.78.(c) Article 39. Part IV {Directive - To promote harmony and brotherhood
(d) Parliamentary sovereignty
Principle of State Policy (Articles 36 - among the people of a different religion.
51)}. Article 41 - Right to work, to Article 51A (d) - Defend the country and Sol.86.(b) Cooperative Federalism - A
education and to public assistance in provide national service when called concept of a stable relationship between
certain cases. upon to do so. Article 51A (c) - Maintain the centre and state governments to
and protect India’s sovereignty, unity, and coordinate on issues of common
Q.79. The government scheme, Pradhan integrity. interests. Example - India is a federal
Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana aims for crop country with power divided between the
insurance service for farmers. This type Q.83. The Fundamental Rights have been
Centre and the States. The word 'Federal'
of government efforts falls under________ guaranteed to protect the public from
is not mentioned in the Indian
of the Directive Principles of the Indian repressive state actions; judicial
Constitution. Granville Austin called
Constitution. decisions tend to expand the scope of
Indian federalism ‘Cooperative
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (2nd shift) the word "State" as defined by __________
federalism’. India borrowed the concept
(a) Article 47 (b) Article 45 of the Indian Constitution.
of a federal system with a strong centre
(c) Article 48 (d) Article 46 SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift)
from Canada.
(a) Article 12 (b) Article 14
Sol.79.(c) Article 48. Pradhan Mantri (c) Article 15 (d) Article 13 Q.87. Which of the following Articles
Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFBY) - Launched on about fundamental duties is related to
18th February 2016 by the Prime Sol.83.(a) Article 12.
the respect of the National Anthem?
Minister. Objectives: To provide Q.84. The working conditions also SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (4th shift)
insurance coverage and financial support include prevention of sexual harassment (a) Article 51A (b) (b) Article 51A (c)
to the farmers in the event of failure of of working women and making (c) Article 51A (a) (d) Article 51A (d)
any of the notified crops as a result of arrangements in the organisation for it,
natural calamities, pests and diseases. Sol.87.(c) Article 51A (a). The Swaran
this falls under______________ . Singh Committee emphasised the
Q.80. Since complete equality is SSC CHSL 09/08/2023 (1st shift) importance of incorporating fundamental
impossible, __________ of the Indian (a) Article 44 (b) Article 42 duties into the Indian Constitution, urging
Constitution deals with the right to (c) Article 45 (d) Article 43 citizens to recognize their rights and
equality and equal protection of law Sol.84.(b) Article 42: Directive responsibilities. “Jana Gana Mana”
subject to appropriate classification. Principles of @ebookstore01
State Policy (DPSP), Articles (National Anthem of India), was adopted
Equal protection subject to appropriate by the Constituent Assembly on 24
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 Pinnacle Polity
January 1950 and is the first stanza of enforcement of Fundamental rights ? foreign State not to be citizens. Article 10
Rabindranath Tagore's Bengali hymn SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (3rd shift) - Continuance of the rights of citizenship.
'Bharoto Bhagyo Bidhata'. (a) Article 30 (b) Article 32 Article 11 - Parliament to regulate the
(c) Article 33 (d) Article 31 right of citizenship by law.
Q.88. 'The state shall endeavour to
secure to all workers a living wage and a Sol.91.(b) Article 32 (Right to Q.95. KA Najeeb Vs Union of India case
decent standard of life'. Which of the Constitutional Remedies) - The ‘Heart deals with violation of rights under_____
following is correct about the given and Soul of the Constitution’ by Dr. B.R. SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
statement in the context of india? Ambedkar. Article 30 - Right of minorities (a) Article 16 (b) Article 21
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift) to establish and administer educational (c) Article 14 (d) Article 19
(a) It is mentioned in the 43rd Article of institutions. Article 31 - Compulsory
the Constitution. acquisition of property. This Article was Sol.95.(b) Article 21 (Protection of life
(b) It is mentioned in the 44th Article of deleted from Part-III of the Constitution and personal liberty). Important Cases
Constitution. by the Constitution (44th Amendment) related to Article 21: A.K Gopalan vs the
(c) This is a Gandhian principle of Act, 1978, and a modified version was State of Madras 1950 : The Supreme
Directive Principles of State Policy. inserted as Article 300A. court has taken a narrow interpretation
(d) This is a liberal principle of Directive of Article 21 in this case. Maneka Gandhi
Principles of State Policy. Q.92. Poshan Abhiyaan is a programme vs. Union of India, 1978: In this case, the
to achieve nutritional status of children SC overruled its judgement of the
Sol.88.(a) Article 43 (Living wage, etc., from 0 to 6 years. Which of the following Gopalan Case by taking a wider
for workers). Directive Principles of State Articles of the Indian Constitution interpretation of Article 21.
Policy ( Part IV, Article 36 - 51). Borrowed provides for raising the nutrition level?
from - Irish Constitution. SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift) Q.96. Which part of the Constitution of
(a) Article 47 (b) Article 44 India contains the provisions of the
Q.89. Which of the following articles is (c) Article 46 (d) Article 45 Union Executive?
related to the provision of Co-operative SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Societies in the Indian Constitution? Sol.92.(a) Article 47 - Duty of the State (a) Part V (b) Part III
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) to raise the level of nutrition and the (c) Part IV (d) Part VI
(a) 243 ZG to 243 ZJ (b) 243 P to 243 ZG standard of living and to improve public
(c) 243 ZH to 243 ZT (d) 243 A to 243 health comes under Directive Principles Sol.96.(a) Part V:- The Union, Articles (52
of State Policy (Articles 36-51 under - 151): Articles (52 - 62) - President.
Sol.89.(c) 243 ZH to 243 ZT. Articles (63 - 73) - Vice-president. Article
Part-IV).
Co-operative Societies - A form of 78 - Duties of the Prime Minister as
business organisation that is formed Q.93. Which of the following Articles of respects the furnishing of information to
with the objective of helping the society the Indian Constitution has the idea that the President, etc. Articles (74 - 75) -
members. Under 97th Amendment Act 'No child below the age of fourteen years Council of Ministers. Article 76 - Attorney
2011, the right to form cooperative shall be employed to work in any factory -General for India. Article (112 - 117) -
societies was included as Right to or mine or engaged in any other Procedure in Financial Matters Part III -
Freedom {Article 19(1)(c)}. Promotion of hazardous employment? Fundamental Rights (Article 12 to 35),
Cooperation societies was inserted as SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift) Part IV - Directive Principle of State Policy
one of the DPSPs (Article 43-B). (a) Article 22 (b) Article 24 (Article - 36 to 51), Part VI - The States
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 20 (Article 152 to 237).
Q.90. The government is bound to
ensure observance of social welfare and Sol.93.(b) Article 24. Article 22 - Q.97. Fundamental duties were not
labour laws enacted to secure for Protection against arrest and detention placed in Part III of the Indian
workmen a life compatible with human in certain cases. Article 19 - Protection of Constitution because Part III is_________.
dignity, under _____ of the Indian certain rights regarding freedom of SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
Constitution. speech, etc. (a) non-justiciable (b) justiciable
SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) (c) not enforceable (d) absolute
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 15 Q.94. Which of the following Articles of
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 21 the Indian Constitution are related to Sol.97.(b) Justiciable. Part III Article
citizenship ? (12-35): Fundamental Rights. Part - IV A
Sol.90.(d) Article 21. Part III - SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift) (Article 51A): Fundamental duties -
Fundamental Rights (Article 12-35) : (a) Articles 15 to 21 (b) Articles 5 to 11 Added by the 42nd Amendment Act
Right to Equality (Article 14 -18). Right to (c) Articles 2 to 4 (d) Articles 25 to 31 (1976).
Freedom (Article 19 - 22). Right against
Exploitation (Article 23-24). Right to Sol.94.(b) Article 5 to 11 (Part II). Article 5 Q.98. Which of the following Articles of
Freedom of Religion (Article 25-28). - Citizenship at the commencement of the the Indian Constitution provides for a
Cultural and Educational Rights (Article Constitution. Article 6 - Rights of bicameral Parliament of India?
29-30). Right to Constitutional Remedies citizenship of certain persons who have SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (3rd shift)
(Article 32 - 35). Article17 - Abolition of migrated to India from Pakistan. Article 7 - (a) Article 49 (b) Article 59
Untouchability. Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to (c) Article 79 (d) Article 89
Pakistan. Article 8 - Rights of citizenship
Q.91. In the Indian Constitution which of Sol.98.(c) Article 79 :- Constitution of
of certain persons of Indian origin
the following Articles deals with the right Parliament - There shall be a Parliament
residing outside India. Article 9 - Persons
@ebookstore01
to move to the Supreme Court for of the Union consisting of the President
voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a
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 Pinnacle Polity
and two Houses known as the Council of Q.102. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the organisation,
States (Rajya Sabha, Article 80) and the Constitution empowers the Supreme composition and powers of the state
House of the People (Lok Sabha, Article Court to review its own judgements or legislature?
81). Article 49 - Protection of orders ? Graduate Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 1)
monuments and places and objects of SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (3rd shift) (a) Part IV (b) Part VI
national importance. Article 59 - (a) Article 138 (b) Article 135 (c) Part III (d) Part V
Conditions of the President's office. (c) Article 136 (d) Article 137
Article 89 - The Chairman and Deputy Sol.106.(b) Part VI Article (152 to 237).
Sol.102.(d) Article 137. Article 138 - Article 168 Constitution of Legislatures
Chairman of the Council of States.
Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the in States. Article 169 deals with abolition
Q.99. As per Article 172 (2)_______of a Supreme Court. Article 135 - Jurisdiction or creation of Legislative Councils in
State shall NOT be subject to dissolution. and powers of the Federal Court under states. Article 170 - Composition of the
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) existing law to be exercisable by the Legislative Assemblies. Article 171 -
(a) Legislative Assembly Supreme Court. Article 136 - Special Composition of the legislative Councils.
(b) Legislative Council leave to appeal by the Supreme Court. Article 172 - Duration of State
(c) House of People Legislatures.
Q.103. Which Article of the Indian
(d) Council of States
Constitution empowers the Parliament to Q.107. Which of the following Articles of
Sol.99.(b) Legislative Council (Saasana establish additional courts for better the Constitution of India provides that
Mandali) - It is the upper house in those administration of laws made by it there shall be a Legislative Assembly for
states of India that have a bicameral SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (3rd shift) the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
state legislature. Six States have a (a) Article 246 (b) Article 248 Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, (c) Article 253 (d) Article 247 (a) Article 231AA (b) Article 239AA
Telangana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, (c) Article 233AA (d) Article 237AA
Sol.103.(d) Article 247. Article 246 -
Maharashtra, Karnataka. The State
Subject-matter of laws made by Sol.107.(b) Article 239AA. It empowers
Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) - A
Parliament and by the Legislatures of the Lieutenant Governor to refer a
legislative body in the states and union
States. Article 248 - Residuary powers of difference of opinion on ‘any matter’ with
territories of India. Council of States
legislation. Article 253 - Legislation for the Council of Ministers to the President.
(Rajya Sabha). House of People (Lok
giving effect to international agreements. 69th Amendment Act (1991) - A special
Sabha).
Article 98 - Secretariat of Parliament. status to the Union Territory of Delhi by
Q.100. Article 323 of the Indian Q.104. Which Article of the Indian designing it as the National Capital
Constitution deals with __________ . Constitution prohibits religious Territory of Delhi. Brahm Prakash was
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (3rd shift) instructions in any state - funded the first chief minister of Delhi.
(a) expenses of Public Services educational institution ?
Q.108. In May 2023, the Supreme Court
Commissions SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift)
of India granted couples the right to get
(b) reports of Public Services (a) Article 28 (b) Article 29
divorce on the grounds of 'irretrievable
Commissions (c) Article 30 (d) Article 27
breakdown of marriage' under _______ of
(c) functions of Public Services
Sol.104.(a) Article 28. Other Articles- the Indian Constitution.
Commissions
Article 27 - Freedom as to payment of SSC CHSL Tier-2 26/06/2023
(d) power to extend functions of Public
taxes for promotion of any particular (a) Article 142(1) (b) Article 132(1)
Services Commissions
religion. Article 29 - Protection of (c) Article 122(1) (d) Article 152(1)
Sol.100.(b) reports of Public Services interests of minorities. Article 30 - Right
Commissions. Articles 315 to 323 in Part Sol.108.(a) Article 142(1). Article 142
of minorities to establish and administer
XIV of the Constitution of India provides provides a unique power to the Supreme
educational institutions.
for the establishment of Union Public Court, to do “complete justice” between
Service Commission ((UPSC) and State Q.105. Which Article of the Indian the parties, where, at times, the law or
Public Service Commission(SPSC).The Constitution deals with the removal and statute may not provide a remedy. Article
UPSC Chairman is appointed for a period suspension of a member of the Public 132 - Appellate jurisdiction of the
of six years or till the age of 65 years, He Service Commission? Supreme Court in appeals from High
is appointed by the President of India Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4) Courts in certain cases. Article 122 -
and can also be removed by him. In case (a) Article 320 (b) Article 324 Courts not to inquire into proceedings of
the Chairman wants to resign, he can (c) Article 317 (d) Article 315 Parliament.
tender the resignation to the President. Sol.105.(c) Article 317. Removal of Q.109. Which among the following is a
Q.101. The Indian Constitution originally UPSC members by President on the subject of Union Lists in the Constitution
consisted of __________ Articles. ground of proven misbehaviour by the of India ?
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (2nd shift) Supreme Court or if he is adjudged an SSC MTS 04/05/2023 (Morning)
(a) 395 (b) 385 (c) 365 (d) 375 insolvent. Part XIV (Articles 315 to 323) - (a) Liquor (b) Social planning
Establishment of UPSC for Union and (c) Extradition (d) Boilers
Sol.101.(a) 395. The original text of the Public Service Commission for each
Constitution contained 395 Articles in 22 state. Article 320 - Functions of Public Sol.109.(c) Extradition. The 7th Schedule
parts and 8 schedules (came into effect Service Commission. of the Indian Constitution consists of 3
on 26 January 1950). Now 448 Articles in @ebookstore01 lists: Union, Concurrent, and State. The
25 parts and 12 schedules. Q.106. Which part of the Indian Union List- 100 items The state list
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 Pinnacle Polity
comprises 61 items. The concurrent list Articles of the Indian Constitution Q.116. Which Bill was passed in the
comprises 52 items. Examples - provides for the Attorney General of India Parliament in 2022 to authorize payment
Concurrent list (education, forest, trade SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening) of certain sums from and out of the
unions, marriage), Union list (Defence, (a) 79 (b) 76 (c) 72 (d) 81 Consolidated Fund of India for the
Army, International Relations, Ports, services of the financial year 2022-23?
Railways, Highways, Communication), Sol.113.(b) Article 76. Attorney General SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Afternoon)
State list (Local government, Public of India - The highest law officer in the (a) The Finance Bill
health and sanitation, Prisons). country. Appointment - By the President. (b) The Electricity (Amendment) Bill
Duty - As a chief legal advisor to the (c) The Appropriation Bill
Q.110. As per Schedule 8 of the Indian government of India, he advises the (d) The Wild Life (Protection)
Constitution, how many official union government on all legal matters. Amendment Bill
languages are there in India? Article 79 - Constitution of Parliament.
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning) Article 72 - Power of President to grant Sol.116.(c) The Appropriation Bill
(a) 22 (b) 12 (c) 42 (d) 32 pardons, etc., and to suspend, remit or (Article 114) - The government can
commute sentences in certain cases. withdraw money from the Consolidated
Sol.110.(a) 22. Eighth Schedule (all Fund only after receiving approval from
languages) - Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Q.114. Part XVI of the Indian constitution Parliament. It is introduced in the Lok
Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, deals with ___________ . Sabha. Vote on Account (Article 116) is a
Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, Nepali, SSC MTS 18/05/2023 (Morning) grant in advance for the central
Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Sindhi, Tamil, (a) Elections government to meet short-term
Telugu, Urdu, Bodo, Santhali, Maithili and (b) Special provisions related to certain expenditure. Finance Bill - Give effect to
Dogri. Sindhi (21st Amendment Act of classes the financial proposals of the
1967). Manipuri, Nepali and Konkani (71st (c) Constitutional amendments Government of India for the following
Amendment, 1992). Bodo, Santhali, (d) Special provisions related to financial year.
Dogri, Maithili (92nd Amendment, 2003). municipal corporation
Q.117. Provisions related to the
Q.111. Which Article of the Indian Sol.114.(b) Special provisions related to
Municipalities are mentioned under
Constitution provides freedom to manage certain classes (Article 330 to 342A).
which part of the Indian constitution?
its own affairs in matters of religion? Article 330 - Reservation of seats for
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Evening)
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(a) Part IXA (b) Part VII
(a) Article 30 (b) Article 5 in the House of the People. Article 338 -
(c) Part V (d) Part XII
(c) Article 26 (d) Article 210 National Commission for Scheduled
Castes. Article 338A - National Sol.117.(a) Part IXA. The Municipalities
Sol.111.(c) Article 26 - Mentioned under Commission for Scheduled Tribes (Urban Local Governments) is a system
Fundamental Rights (Part III of the Indian (Inserted by the 89th Amendment Act of Democratic Decentralisation. It was
constitution). Right to Freedom of 2003). Part XV (Article 324-329): added through the 74th Constitutional
religion (Article 25 to 28). Article 30 - All Elections. Part XX (Article 368): Amendment Act of 1992. Part VII -
minorities shall have the right to Amendment of the Constitution. Part IXA Repealed by the Constitution (Seventh
establish and administer educational (Article 243P-243ZG): The Municipalities. Amendment Act, 1956). Part V -
institutions of their choice. Article 5 - Provisions for the functioning of the
Citizenship at the commencement of the Q.115. Which of the following Articles of
Union Government. Part XII - Laws
Constitution. Article 210 - Language to the Indian constitution provides for the
pertaining to Finance, Property, Contracts
be used in the Legislature. National commission for Scheduled
and Suits for Republic of India.
Castes ?
Q.112. Provisions related to the seat of SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) Q.118. Which part of the Indian
the "Supreme Court of India" is (a) Article 337 (b) Article 344 constitution talks about the Union
mentioned in which Article? (c) Article 343 (d) Article 338 Territories ?
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Morning) SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning)
(a) Article 132 (b) Article 131 Sol.115.(d) Article 338 - It is a
(a) Part VI (b) Part X
(c) Article 130 (d) Article 129 constitutional body established with a
(c) Part XI (d) Part VIII
view to provide safeguards against the
Sol.112.(c) Article 130. The Federal exploitation of Scheduled Castes and to Sol.118.(d) Part VIII (Article 239 - 241).
Court of India was established on 1 promote and protect their social, List of Union Territories: Andaman and
October 1937. After Independence, the educational, economic and cultural Nicobar, Chandigarh, Daman and Diu and
Federal Court was replaced as the interests. Other Commissions - National Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Delhi, Jammu
Supreme Court of India (28 January Commission for Scheduled Tribes and Kashmir, Ladakh, Lakshadweep and
1950). Other related Articles : Article (Article 338A) and National Commission Puducherry. Other Parts: Part VI (The
124: Establishment and Constitution of for Backward Classes (Article 338B). States), Part X (Scheduled and Tribal
Supreme Court. Article 129: Supreme Article 343 - Official language of the Areas), Part XI - Relations Between The
Court to be a Court of Record. Article Union. Article 344 - Commission and Union And The States.
131: Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Committee of Parliament on Official
Court. Article 132: Appellate Jurisdiction Language. Article 337 - Special Q.119. Which Article of the Indian
of Supreme Court in appeals from High provisions in terms of educational constitution mentions that it is duty of
Court in certain cases. grants/subsidies provided to the the Union government to protect States
Anglo-Indian@ebookstore01
population of India. against external aggression and internal
Q.113. Which among the following
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 Pinnacle Polity
disturbance? proportional representation. Every Q.126. The part VII of the Indian
SSC CHSL 09/03/2023 (1st Shift) second year, one-third of Rajya Sabha constitution has been omitted. It is
(a) 353 (b) 356 (c) 355 (d) 358 members retire. Article 81: Composition related with which of the following?
of the House of the People or Lok Sabha SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Sol.119.(c) Article 355. Other Articles - (Lower House). The maximum strength (a) Provision relating to property
Article 353 - States about the Effect of of the Lok Sabha is 550 members. (b) States in part B of the first schedule
the proclamation of emergency. Article (c) Armed forces in states in part A of
356 - States about the Provision in case Q.123. Central Bureau of Intelligence and the second schedule
of failure of constitutional machinery in Investigation comes under which list of (d) Reservation for Anglo - Indian
the state (president rule). Article 358 - It the seventh schedule of the Indian communities in parliament
deals with the suspension of constitution ?
fundamental rights guaranteed under SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift) Sol.126.(b) States in part B of the first
Article 19 of the constitution. (a) Union list (b) Concurrent list schedule (Article 238). Provision relating
(c) State list (d) Transferred list to property - constitutional right under
Q.120. Which Article of the constitution Part XII , Article 300A ( Added by 44th
of India is related to the Comptroller and Sol.123.(a) Union list (100) - Defence, Amendment Act, 1978).
Auditor General of India Audit reports? Army, International Relations, Ports,
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (1st Shift) Railways, Census, Communication, Q.127. Which Article of the Indian
(a) 148 (b) 150 (c) 151 (d) 149 Central Bureau of Investigation etc. State Constitution specifies Hindi as the
list (61) - Public order, Police, Public official language of the Union?
Sol.120.(c) 151. Part V: The Union, health and sanitation, Hospitals and SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (1st Shift)
Chapter V : Comptroller and Auditor - dispensaries, Agriculture, State Public (a) Article 51A (b) Article 370
General (CAG) of India (Article 148 - Service Commission, etc. Concurrent list (c) Article 343 (d) Article 80
151): Responsible for auditing the (52) - Education, Forest, Trade unions,
accounts of the Union and State population control and family planning, Sol.127.(c) Article 343. Language (8th
governments and public sector Marriage, Adoption, etc. Seventh Schedule, Part XVII and Articles 343 to
organisations and for maintaining the schedule under Article 246 of the 351). Initially, the constitution included
accounts of State governments. The constitution deals with the division of 14 languages. Later 8 other languages
reports of the CAG are taken into powers between the union and the were added in the 8th schedule.
consideration by the Public Accounts states.
Committees. Article 150: Form of Q.128. The Indian parliament has power
accounts of the Union and of the States. Q.124. State Public Service Commission to impose restrictions on trade,
Article 149: Duties and powers of the comes under which list of seventh commerce and intercourse through
Comptroller and Auditor-General. Article schedule of the Indian constitution ? which Article of the Indian constitution?
148: Comptroller and Auditor-General of SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift) SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
India. (a) State list (b) Transferred list (a) 304 (b) 300 A (c) 303 (d) 302
(c) Concurrent list (d) Union list Sol.128.(d) Article 302. Part XIII (Article
Q.121. In which of the following Articles
of the Indian constitution is the Sol.124.(a) State list (61) . 301-307) - Trade, Commerce and
procedure for impeachment of the Intercourse within the Territory of India.
Q.125. Which of the following comes Article 304: Restrictions on trade,
President of India mentioned?
under the 5th schedule of the Indian commerce and intercourse among
SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
constitution? States. Article 303: Restrictions on the
(a) 60 (b) 59 (c) 62 (d) 61
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (4th Shift) legislative powers of the Union and of the
Sol.121.(d) Article 61. Other Articles- (a) Provisions related to Schedule Areas States with regard to trade and
Article 60: Oath or affirmation by the and Scheduled Tribes commerce. Article 300A: Persons not to
President, Article 59: Conditions of the (b) Provisions related to Tribal areas in be deprived of property save by authority
President’s office, Article 62: Time of states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, of law.
holding the election to fill the vacancy in Mizoram
the office of President and the term of (c) Provisions related to Oaths or Q.129. Which Article of the Indian
office of the person elected to fill the Affirmations constitution states that "Governor has
casual vacancy. (d) Provisions related to Languages power to promulgate ordinances during
recess of legislature"?
Q.122. Which Article of the Indian Sol.125.(a). Article 244 (1) - Mentions SSC CHSL 15/03/2023 (4th Shift)
constitution specifies the composition of scheduled areas. 5th schedule (a) 212 (b) 214 (c) 213 (d) 210
the Council of States? administration and control of Scheduled
SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (2nd Shift) Areas as well as of Scheduled Tribes Sol.129.(c) Article 213. The governor
(a) Article 80 (b) Article 395 residing in any State other than the can promulgate an ordinance when the
(c) Article 51A (d) Article 12 States mentioned in 6th schedule. 6th state legislature is not in session. These
Schedule: administration of the tribal ordinances should be approved by the
Sol.122.(a) Article 80. The maximum areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and state government within 6 weeks from its
strength of Rajya Sabha is 250, out of Mizoram. Article 244(2) - mentions re-coordination. Article 210 - Language to
which 12 members are nominated by the tribal areas. 8th Schedule - Provisions be used in the Legislature. Article 212 -
President. Rajya Sabha members are related to Languages. 3rd Schedule Courts not to inquire into proceedings of
elected by the elected members of state Provisions @ebookstore01
related to Oaths or the Legislature. Article 214 - High Courts
legislative assemblies using a method of Affirmations. for States.
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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.130. Part V chapter II of the Indian Emergency powers of the President: (d) Advocate General of the State
constitution does not include which of (three types) National Emergency (Article
the following provisions? 352), President's Rule (Article 356), Sol.136.(c) Comptroller and Auditor
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (1st Shift) Financial Emergency General of India (Article 148) : Head of
(a) Joint sitting of both house of (Article 360). the Indian Audit and Accounts Department
Parliament in certain cases and bulwarks of the democratic system of
(b) Power of President to promulgate Q.133. Article 350A of the Indian government in India. Attorney General of
Ordinances during recess of constitution is related with______. India (Article 76) : Highest law officer of
Parliament SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (3rd Shift) India. Advocate General of State (Article
(c) Language to be used in Parliament (a) Special officers for linguistic 165) : Highest law officer of State.
(d) Restriction on discussion in minorities
(b) Facilities for instruction in Q.137. How many types of writs can be
Parliament issued under Article 32 and 226 of the
mother-tongue at primary stage
Sol.130.(b) Constitution of India, Chapter (c) Direction for development of the Hindi Constitution of India ?
II, Parliament (Article 79 - 88) : Article 79 language SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023)
- Constitution of Parliament, Article 80 - (d) Language to` be used in Supreme (a) Four (b) Six (c) Five (d) Seven
Composition of the Council of States, Court and High Courts of India Sol.137.(c) Five. Articles 32 (Heart and
Article 82 - Readjustment after each Soul of Indian Constitution) - Supreme
census, Article 83 - Duration of Houses Sol.133.(b) Article - 350 : Language to be
used in representations for redress of Court has the authority to issue writs and
of Parliament, Article 84 - Qualification Article 226 - High Court has the authority
for membership of Parliament, Article 86 grievances. Article - 350B: Special Officer
for linguistic minorities. Article- 351: to issue a writ. Writs - Habeas corpus (to
- Right of President to address and send have the body of), Mandamus (We
messages to Houses, Article 87 - Special Directive for development of the Hindi
language. Article 348 (1)(a): All Command), Prohibition (to forbid),
address by the President, Article 88 - Certiorari (to be certified or to be
Rights of Ministers and Attorney-General proceedings in the Supreme Court and in
every High Court, shall be in English informed) and Quo-warranto (By what
as respects Houses. authority or warrant).
language.
Q.131. Article 243K of the Indian Q.138. Which Article of the Constitution
constitution is related with which of the Q.134. Which Article of the Indian
constitution is related with the special does India mention that business in
following ? Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or
SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (3rd Shift) provision with respect to the States of
Maharashtra and Gujarat? English?
(a) Durations of panchayat, etc. SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
(b) Grounds of disqualification from SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (4th Shift)
(a) Article 371 (b) Article 386 (a) Article 120 (b) Article 121
membership of Panchayat. (c) Article 122 (d) Article 119
(c) Reservation of seats in Panchayat. (c) Article 377 (d) Article 380
(d) Election to the Panchayats. Sol.134.(a) Article 371. Sol.138.(a) Article 120. Article 121 -
Restriction on discussion in Parliament.
Sol.131.(d) Election to the Panchayats. Q.135. Which part of the Constitution of Article 122 - Courts not to inquire into
Panchayati Raj is a three-tiered India consists of the idea of a Welfare proceedings of Parliament. Article 119 -
administrative framework in India that State? Regulation by law of procedure in
focuses on rural development. The SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023) Parliament in relation to financial
Panchayati Raj is a system of local (a) Directive Principles of State Policy business.
self-government that is used to build (b) Fundamental Duties
districts, zones, and villages. Article - (c) Fundamental Rights Q.139. Which Article of Indian
243E: Duration of Panchayats. Article - (d) Preamble constitution is related with the Special
243D: Reservation of seats in Panchayat provisions with respect to the State of
Article - 243F: Grounds of disqualification Sol.135.(a) Directive Principles of State Sikkim?
from membership of Panchayat. Policy is mentioned in Part IV, Article SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift)
36–51. Article 38 gives the idea of a (a) Article 371C (b) Article 371
Q.132. Article 72 of the Indian Welfare State. The directive principles of (c) Article 371F (d) Article 371A
constitution is related with the power of state policy are borrowed from Ireland.
the ______to grant pardons, etc. and to Fundamental Duties (Part IV A, Article Sol.139.(c) 371 F - Sikkim (36th
suspend, remit or commute sentences in 51A). Fundamental Rights (Part III, Amendment Act, 1975). Article 371 of
certain cases. Article 12-35). A preamble is an the Constitution includes special
SSC CHSL 21/03/2023 (1st Shift) introductory statement in a document provisions for 11 states (6 states of the
(a) Chief Minister (b) Governor that explains the document's philosophy Northeast). Article 371 - provisions for
(c) President (d) Prime Minister and objectives. Maharashtra and Gujarat. Article 371 A -
Nagaland (13th Amendment Act, 1962).
Sol.132.(c) President. This pardoning Q.136. Article 148 of the Constitution of 371 B - Assam (22nd Amendment Act,
power of the President is independent of India provides for an independent office 1969). 371 C - Manipur (27th Amendment
the Judiciary. Article-52: There shall be of the ________. Act, 1971). 371 D - Andhra Pradesh and
a President of India. Article-60: Oath or SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023) Telangana (32nd. Amendment Act, 1973).
affirmation by the President. Article 111 - (a) Attorney General of India 371 E - To establish Central University in
Assent to bills. Article 123- Ordinance (b) President@ebookstore01
of India Andhra Pradesh. 371 G - Mizoram (53rd.
making power of the president. (c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India Amendment Act, 1986). 371 H -
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 Pinnacle Polity
th
Arunachal Pradesh (55 Amendment Act, allowances that are defined for the UPSC, the appointment, and removal of
1986). 371 I - Goa. judges of the Supreme Court. Article 126: its members, and the powers and
Appointment of acting Chief Justice of functions of UPSC are provided in Part
Q.140. Under which Article of the
India. Article 128: Attendance of retired XIV of the Indian Constitution under
Constitution of India is the National
judges at sitting of the Supreme Court. Article 315 to Article 323. PART X: The
Commission for Scheduled Castes
Scheduled and Tribal areas. PART XVI:
established? Q.145. Which Article of the Constitution Special Provisions relating to certain
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening) of India deals with the Sessions of the classes. PART VIII: The Union Territories.
(a) Article 336 (b) Article 338 Parliament?
(c) Article 333 (d) Article 335 SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening) Q.149. Which Articles of the Indian
(a) Article 85 (b) Article 89 Constitution deal with the Union
Sol.140.(b) Article 338. By 89th
(c) Article 90 (d) Article 101 Executive ?
Amendment, 2003 the erstwhile National
SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Evening)
Commission for SC and ST was replaced Sol.145.(a) Article 85 - Sessions of (a) Articles 38 to 50
by two separate Commissions from the Parliament, prorogation, and dissolution. (b) Articles 52 to 78
year 2004 : National Commission for A session is a period during which a (c) Articles 80 to 86
Scheduled Castes (NCSC) (Article - 338) House meets almost every day (d) Articles 112 to 118
and National Commission for Scheduled uninterruptedly to manage the business.
Tribes (NCST) (Article 338-A). Article 90 - Vacation and resignation of Sol.149.(b) Article 52 to 78 (Part V).
(and removal from) the office of Deputy Articles 80 to 86 (Part V) deals with the
Q.141. Which Part of the Indian
Chairman. Article 101- Vacation of seats general provisions of the Union
Constitution is known as ‘Magna Carta of
in Parliament. Parliament. Articles 112 to 118 (Part V)
India’ ?
deal with the legislative procedures of
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) Q.146. Which chapter of the Constitution the Union Parliament.
(a) Part III (b) Part II (c) Part VI (d) Part IV of India, discusses the Articles of
Parliament ? Q.150. Who termed Article 32 as the
Sol.141.(a) Part III (The Fundamental
SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Morning) ‘heart and soul of the Constitution of
Rights, Articles 12-35). ‘Magna Carta’, the
(a) Chapter III (b) Chapter I India’?
Charter of Rights issued by King John of
(c) Chapter II (d) Chapter IV SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Afternoon)
England in 1215 was the first written
(a) MV Pylee
document relating to the Fundamental Sol.146.(c) Chapter II (79-122). Part V - (b) BR Ambedkar
Rights of citizens. The Union of Indian Constitution Chapter (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
Q.142. Which Article of the Constitution II deals with the Articles of Parliament . (d) Sachchidananda Sinha
of India provides for the power to the Chapter I (The Executive; Articles 52 to
President to convene a joint sitting of 78); Chapter III: Legislative powers of the Sol.150.(b) B.R. Ambedkar. Article 32
both the Houses of Parliament? President; Article 123); Chapter IV (The empowers Parliament to authorise any
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) Union Judiciary; Articles 124 - 147). other court to issue these writs.
(a) Article 331 (b) Article 105 Chapter V (Comptroller and Auditor -
General of India (CAG); Articles 148 to Q.151. Which Article of the Indian
(c) Article 108 (d) Article 85 Constitution states that “Supreme Court
151).
Sol.142.(c) Article 108. Article 105 - to be a court of Record”?
Powers, privileges, etc. of Parliament and Q.147. The Article of the Indian SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Evening)
its members. Constitution that deals with all the (a) Article 135 (b) Article 126
executive powers of the Governor is ____ (c) Article 129 (d) Article 131
Q.143. Which Article of the Constitution SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Morning)
of India deals with the Conduct of (a) Article 150 (b) Article 157 Sol.151.(c) Article 129. Article 135-
Business of the Government of a State? (c) Article 154 (d) Article 156 Jurisdiction and powers of the Federal
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening) Court under existing law to be
(a) Article 165 (b) Article 163 Sol.147.(c) Article 154- Executive power exercisable by the Supreme Court. Article
(c) Article 166 (d) Article 164 of Governor. Article 150 - Form of 126- Appointment of acting Chief
accounts of the Union and of the States. Justice, Article 131- Original jurisdiction
Sol.143.(c) Article-166. Article-163 Article 157 - Qualifications for of the Supreme Court.
(Council of Ministers to aid and advise appointment as Governor. Article 156 -
Governor), Article-164 (Other provisions Term of office of Governor. Q.152. Which Article of the Indian
as to Ministers), Article-165 (Advocate - Constitution deals with the definition of
General for the State). Q.148. Which Part of the Indian the Money Bill ?
Constitution provides for the Union SSC CHSL 09/06/2022 (Afternoon)
Q.144. Which Article of the Constitution Public Service Commission? (a) Article 120 (b) Article 100
of India deals with the appointment of SSC CHSL 27/05/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Article 115 (d) Article 110
ad-hoc judges? (a) Part X (b) Part VIII
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) (c) Part XIV (d) Part XVI Sol.152.(d) Article 110. Article 100:
(a) Article 126 (b) Article 127 Voting in Houses, power of Houses to act
(c) Article 128 (d) Article 125 Sol.148.(c) Part XIV. Union Public notwithstanding vacancies and quorum,
Service Commission (UPSC) is an Article 115: Supplementary, additional or
Sol.144.(b) Article 127. Article 125: talks independent constitutional body. The excess grants, and Article 120:
about the financial privileges and @ebookstore01
provisions regarding the composition of Language to be used in Parliament.

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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.153. ‘All minorities, whether based on of the Constitution of India, ensuring (c) Article 189 (d) Article 354
religion or language, shall have the right special status and internal autonomy for
to establish and administer educational Jammu and Kashmir? Sol.161.(b) Article 149. Article
institutions of their choice’. Which Article SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Afternoon) 234-"Appointments of persons other than
of the Constitution of India guarantees (a) 1952 (b) 1949 (c) 1961 (d) 1950 district judges to the judicial service of a
this right? State shall be made by the Governor.
SSC CHSL 10/06/2022 (Morning) Sol.157.(b) 1949. On 6 August 2019, the Article 189-Voting in Houses, power of
(a) Article 25 (b) Article 28 Government of India revoked the special Houses to act notwithstanding vacancies
(c) Article 36 (d) Article 30 status, or autonomy, granted under and quorum. Article 354- Application of
Article 370 of the Indian Constitution to provisions relating to the distribution of
Sol.153.(d) Article 30. Article 36- Jammu and Kashmir. revenues while a Proclamation of
Definition of state. Article 28- Freedom Emergency.
as to attendance at religious instruction Q.158. Which of the following Articles of
or religious worship in certain the Constitution of India lays down the Q.162. Which of the following Articles of
educational institutions. Article 25 - duties and functions of the Union and the constitution of India provides for the
Freedom of conscience and free State Public Service Commissions in creation of a GST Council?
profession, practice and propagation of India ? SSC CGL 16/08/2021 (Morning)
religion. SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Afternoon) (a) Article 246A (b) Article 279A
(a) Article 312 (b) Article 320 (c) Article 269A (d) Article 323A
Q.154. Article ______ of the Constitution (c) Article 308 (d) Article 316
of India lays down the process for Sol.162.(b) Article 279A. It empowers
introducing changes in the Constitution. Sol.158.(b) Article 320. Article 312- All the president to constitute a joint forum
SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Morning) India Services. Articles (308 – 314) - of the central and states namely, Goods
(a) 342 (b) 351 (c) 374 (d) 368 Contain provisions with regard to All and Services Tax Council. The GST
India Services, Central services and state Council is a constitutional body for
Sol.154.(d) 368. The procedure of services. Article - 316 - Appointment and making recommendations to the union
amendment in the constitution is laid term of office of members. and state government on issues related
down in Part XX (Article 368) of the to Goods and Service Tax.
Q.159. 'Police and Public Order' are State
Constitution of India. Article 342 deals
subjects under the ______ Schedule of the Q.163. According to which of the
with the provisions related to Scheduled
Constitution of India. following Articles of the Constitution of
Tribes. Article 351- Directive for
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Evening) India shall a Money Bill NOT be
development of the Hindi language.
(a) 5th (b) 9th (c) 7th (d) 12th introduced in the Council of States?
Article 374- Provisions as to Judges of
the Federal Court and proceedings SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Afternoon)
Sol.159.(c) 7th. The Seventh Schedule to
pending in the Federal Court. (a) Article 109 (b) Article 354
the Constitution of India defines and
(c) Article 298 (d) Article 193
specifies allocation of powers and
Q.155. Article ______ of the Indian
functions between Union & States. It Sol.163.(a) Article 109. Rajya Sabha
Constitution states that ‘there shall be a
contains three lists; i.e. Union List (100 (Council of States), the upper house of
Commission for the socially and
subjects), State List (61 items) and the Parliament of India. A money bill is a
educationally backward classes to be
Concurrent List (52 items). specific type of financial legislation that
known as the National Commission for
Backward Classes’. exclusively deals with matters related to
Q.160. Which of the following Articles of
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening) taxes, government revenues, or
the Constitution of India states that Hindi
(a) 124 A (1) (b) 243S (1) expenditures.
in Devanagari script shall be the official
(c) 243Y (1) (d) 338B (1) language of the Union? Q.164. As per Article ______ of the
SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning) Constitution of India, English is the
Sol.155.(d) Article 338B (1). Article
(a) Article 343(2) (b) Article 354(2) official language for all the high courts in
243S(1) - There shall be constituted
(c) Article 343(1) (d) Article 343(3) the country.
Wards Committees, consisting of one or
more wards, within the territorial area of SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening)
Sol.160.(c) Article 343(1). Article 343(2)
a Municipality having a population of (a) 329 (1) (b) 336 (1)
-The Constitution adopted in 1950
three lakhs or more. (c) 315 (1) (d) 348 (1)
stipulated that English and Hindi would
be used for the Union's official business Sol.164.(d) Article 348 (1). 329(a) the
Q.156. Which of the following Articles of
for a period of fifteen years. Article 354 validity of any law relating to the
the Constitution of India empowered the
deals with the application of provisions delimitation of constituencies or the
Parliament to provide by law for
related to the distribution of revenues allotment of seats to such
continued use of English for official
while a Proclamation of Emergency is in constituencies, made or purporting to be
purposes even after 25 January 1965?
operation. made under Article 327 or Article 328,
SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Afternoon)
(a) Article 348 (2) (b) Article 348 (3) shall not be called in question in any
Q.161. Which of the following Articles of
(c) Article 343 (3) (d) Article 343 (2) court
the Constitution of India deals with the
duties and powers of the Comptroller Q.165 Which of the following Articles of
Sol.156.(c) Article 343 (3).
and Auditor-General of India? the Constitution of India defines for a
Q.157. In which year did the Indian SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Evening) separate secretarial staff for each House
Constituent Assembly adopt Article 370 @ebookstore01
(a) Article 234 (b) Article 149 of the Parliament?

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 Pinnacle Polity
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Evening) Ministers with the Prime Minister at the SSC CHSL 12/10/2020 (Afternoon)
(a) Article 98 (b) Article 123 head to aid and advise the President who (a) 167 (b) 168 (c) 163 (d) 165
(c) Article 155 (d) Article 34 shall in the exercise of his functions, act
in accordance with such advice." Sol.174.(b) Article 168 of the Indian
Sol.165.(a) Article 98. Article 123- Power SSC CHSL 04/08/2021 (Afternoon) Constitution, there shall be a legislature
of President to promulgate Ordinances (a) Article 71(1) (b) Article 71(2) in every State and it shall consist of the
during recess of Parliament. Article 155- (c) Article 74(1) (d) Article 74(2) Governor. Article 167 casts on the Chief
Appointment of the Governor. Article 34- Minister the duty to keep the Governor
Restriction on rights conferred by third Sol.170.(c) Articles 74(1). Article 74 (2) - informed of all decisions of the Council
Part while martial law is in force in any The question if any, and if so what, of Ministers in regard to administration
area. advice was tendered by Ministers to the and legislation. Article 163- There shall
President shall not be inquired into in any be a Council of Ministers with the Chief
Q.166. According to which of the court. Minister as the head to aid and advise
following Articles of the Constitution of the Governor in the exercise of his
India shall a Money Bill not be introduced Q.171. Which of the following Articles of functions.
in a Legislative Council? the Constitution of India deals with the
SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Morning) organisation of agriculture and animal Q.175. Under which Article of the Indian
(a) Article 333 (b) Article 198 husbandry ? Constitution are special provisions
(c) Article 451 (d) Article 189 SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Afternoon) provided to language spoken in a section
(a) Article 84 (b) Article 92 of the population?
Sol.166.(b) Article 198. A money bill
(c) Article 29 (d) Article 48 SSC CGL 05/03/2020 (Evening)
contains the imposition, abolition,
(a) Article 337 (b) Article 357
remission, change, or regulation of any Sol.171.(d) Article 48. Article 84- (c) Article 347 (d) Article 374
tax, according to the Constitution. Qualification for membership of
Parliament. Article 92- The Chairman or Sol.175.(c) Article 347 Under part XVII,
Q.167. Which of the following Articles of
the Deputy Chairman not to preside while of the Indian constitution : Special
the Constitution of India states that there
a resolution for his removal from office is Provision Relating to Language Spoken
would be no tax levied or collected
under consideration. by a Section of the Population of a State.
EXCEPT by the authority of law?
SSC CGL 24/08/2021 (Evening) Q.172. Which of the following subjects is Q.176. Which of the following Articles is
(a) Article 107 (b) Article 123 covered in the Eleventh Schedule of the related to the Ancillary powers of the
(c) Article 265 (d) Article 301 Constitution of India? Supreme Court?
SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening) SSC CGL 06/03/2020 (Evening)
Sol.167.(c) Article 265. Article 107-
(a) Major forest produce (a) Article 150 (b) Article 143
Provisions as to introduction and passing
(b) Health and sanitation (c) Article 138 (d) Article 140
of Bills. Article 123- Power of President
(c) Large scale industries
to promulgate Ordinances during recess Sol.176.(d) Article 140. Article 150-
(d) Police and public order
of Parliament. Article 301- Freedom of Form of accounts of the Union and of the
trade, commerce and intercourse. Sol.172.(b) Health and sanitation. The States. Article 143- Power of the
11th schedule of the Indian constitution President to consult the Supreme Court.
Q.168. In 1959, the Central Government
was added in 1992 by the 73rd Article 138- Enlargement of the
of India undertook the governance in
constitutional Amendment Act. This jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Kerala under______ of the Constitution of
schedule contains 29 subjects. These
India. Q.177. Which of the following schedules
include Rural electrification, Fisheries,
SSC CHSL 12/04/2021 (Evening) of the Constitution of India has been
drinking water, Fodder, Animal
(a) Article 356 (b) Article 352 INCORRECTLY matched with its content?
Husbandry, dairying and Poultry,
(c) Article 360 (d) Article 349 SSC CGL 07/03/2020 (Afternoon)
Agriculture and Land Improvement.
(a) Second Schedule - Languages
Sol.168.(a) Article 356.
Q.173. Which of the following states is (b) First Schedule - The states and the
Q.169. Which of the following Articles of included in the sixth schedule of the union territories
the Constitution of India states that 'The Constitution of India? (c) Third Schedule - Forms of oath or
President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh SSC CHSL 17/03/2020 (Morning) affirmations
of a State, shall not be answerable to any (a) Nagaland (b) Manipur (d) Fourth Schedule - Allocation of seats
court for the exercise and performance (c) Mizoram (d) Arunachal Pradesh in the council of state
of the powers and duties of his office'?
SSC CHSL 16/04/2021 (Evening) Sol.173.(c) Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule Sol.177.(a)The second schedule of the
(a) Article 396 (b) Article 361 consists of provisions for the Indian constitution talks about the salary
(c) Article 384 (d) Article 352 administration of tribal areas in Assam, and emoluments of the various posts
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram, such as president, vice president,
Sol.169.(b) Article 361. Protection of according to Article 244 of the Indian chairman, deputy chairman, judges of
President and Governors and Constitution. supreme court and high court and many
Rajprakukhs. more. Whereas Languages have been
Q.174. Which of the following Articles of
mentioned in eight schedules.
Q.170. Which of the given Articles of the the Constitution of India has a provision
Constitution of India mentions the for the Constitution of Legislatures in
@ebookstore01
following? "There shall be a council of States?

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 Pinnacle Polity
SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (1st Shift) (‘Mini Constitution’): Added three new
Amendments
(a) To abide by the Constitution and words (socialist, secular and integrity) in
respect its ideals and institutions, the the Preamble. Seventh Schedule - Shifted
Q.178. In which year did the 44th
National Flag and the National Anthem 5 subjects from the state list to the
Amendment remove the right to property
(b) To protect and to improve the natural concurrent list. Fundamental Duties -
from the list of fundamental rights?
environment including forests, lakes, Article 51A was added. Added three new
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening)
rivers and wildlife, and to have Directive Principles (equal justice and
(a) 1978 (b) 1975 (c) 1973 (d) 1981
compassion for living creatures free legal aid, the participation of
Sol.178.(a) 1978. The right to property (c) To provide opportunities for workers in the management of industries
was listed under Article 31 before its education to his/her child or, as the and protection of the environment,
deletion. At present the right to property case may be, ward between the age forests, and wildlife). Part XIV-A - Articles
is listed under Article 300A as a legal of six and fourteen years 323A and 323B for Tribunals were added.
right. (d) To cherish and follow the noble ideals
which inspired our national struggle Q.184. The Family Courts (Amendment)
Q.179. Which among the following is for freedom Act 2022 has amended the Family Courts
INCORRECT about the salient features of Act, 1984. The Act allows ________ to
the 73rd Amendment Act ? Sol.181.(c) Fundamental Duties (Article establish Family Courts.
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon) 51-A): These were incorporated in Part SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift)
(a) The Act corresponds to Part III of the IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd (a) District Courts
Constitution of India. Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on (b) State Governments
(b) The Act gives a Constitutional status the recommendations of the Swaran (c) Union Government
to the Panchayati Raj Institutions. Singh Committee. Originally 10 in (d) District Collector
(c) The Act has added the Eleventh number, 11th duty was added through
the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, Sol.184.(b) State Governments. Purpose
Schedule to the Constitution of India.
2002. of establishment of family court - To
(d) It contains 29 functional items of the
promote conciliation and secure speedy
Panchayats and deals with Article
Q.182. The Unlawful Activities settlement of disputes relating to
243 to 243(O).
(Prevention) Act, which provides for the marriage and family affairs and for
Sol.179.(a) Part III (Article 12 to 35) - It more effective prevention of certain related matters. This bill was passed by
contains the provision regarding unlawful activities of individuals and Lok Sabha on 26th July 2022. This bill
Fundamental Rights. The 73rd associations dealing with terrorist has granted statutory cover to already
Amendment Act - It was enacted in 1992 activities, was first put into effect in India established family courts in Himachal
and came into force from April 1993. It in the year. Pradesh and Nagaland.
added Part IX (Article 243-243O) to the SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (4th shift)
(a) 1991 (b) 1967 (c) 2014 (d) 1947 Q.185. In August 2021, Ram Nath Kovind
constitution. It was enacted to
granted assent to which Constitution
implement the Directive Principles of
Sol.182.(b) 1967. Unlawful Activities Amendment Act empowering states and
State Policy under Article 40 on the
(Prevention) Act - Its main objective is UTs to identify and specify Socially and
recommendation of L.M. Singhvi
dealing with activities directed against Educationally Backward Classes?
Committee. Its provisions: Constitution
the integrity and sovereignty of India. It SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift)
of District Planning Committees, State
assigns absolute power to the central (a) 105th (b) 104th (c) 103rd (d) 102nd
Election Commissions to conduct all
government and provides for death
panchayat elections, Establishment of Sol.185.(a) 105th. Reservation in India:
penalty and life imprisonment of culprits.
State Finance Commissions. Other Backward Class (OBCs) were
Related acts - Armed Forces Special
Powers Act (AFSPA) 1958; Prevention of included in the ambit of reservation in
Q.180. How many types of the
Terrorism Act, 2002; The National 1991 on the recommendations of the
amendment are mentioned by the Indian
Investigation Agency Act, 2008; The Mandal Commission. It recommended a
Constitution as per Article 368 ?
Anti-Hijacking Act, 2016. 27% reservation quota for OBC.
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning)
Constitutional Provisions: Part XVI deals
(a) Four (b) Two (c) Five (d) Three
Q.183. Which of the following principles with reservation of SC and ST in Central
Sol.180.(b) Two. Article 368 (Part XX) - was added by the 42nd Constitutional and State legislatures. Article 338 -
Power of parliament to amend the Amendment in the Indian Constitution? National Commission for Scheduled
constitution and its procedures. Two SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift) Castes. Article 338A - National
types of amendments: The special (a) The State shall provide free and Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
Majority, and special majority of compulsory education Article 338B - National Commission for
parliament along with the ratification of (b) To organise agriculture and animal Backward Classes. 342A - Socially and
half of the state's legislatures by a simple husbandry on modern and scientific educationally backward classes.
majority. The procedure of amending the lines
Q.186. In which year was the Andhra
constitution has been adopted from the (c) To protect and improve the
Pradesh Reorganisation Act passed?
constitution of South Africa. environment and to safeguard forests
Graduate Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 3)
and wildlife
Q.181. Which of the following (a) 2013 (b) 2012 (c) 2014 (d) 2015
(d) Reservation of SC's and ST's in
fundamental duties was added to the services Sol.186.(c) 2014. The States
Indian Constitution by the 86th
@ebookstore01 Reorganisation Act (1956), under the
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002? Sol.183.(c) 42nd Amendment Act,1976

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 Pinnacle Polity
provisions of Part I (Article 3). The State Q.190. Which among the following cession of the Berubari union. 13th
Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was Constitutional Amendment Act of the Amendment (1962) - Nagaland was
constituted in 1953 appointed by Indian constitution reduced the age of formed with special status under Article
Jawahar Lal Nehru. It was headed by Sir voting from 21 to 18 for elections to the 371A.
Fazal Ali. The first state formed on the Lok Sabha and to the Legislative
linguistic basis is Andhra Pradesh (1 Assemblies of states? Q.193. The Seventy - First Amendment to
October 1953). Formation of other SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift) the Indian Constitution included Konkani,
states: Gujarat and Maharashtra (1960), (a) 81st (b) 61st (c) 52nd (d) 72nd Manipuri, and Nepali languages in the
Karnataka (1956), Nagaland (1963), Schedule.
Haryana (1966), Sikkim (1975). Sol.190.(b) 61st. It was done by SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
amending Article 326 of the constitution (a) Eighth (b) Sixth (c) Fifth (d) Seventh
Q.187. How many Directive Principles of in 1988. 81st Constitutional Amendment
the original list in the Indian Constitution Act 2000 was inserted to protect the Sol.193.(a) Eighth Schedule. 22
were amended by the 44th Amendment reservation for SCs and STs in backlog of languages in this schedule. 21st
Act of 1978 ? vacancies. 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1967) - Include Sindhi
Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) Amendment Act 1985, known as language. 92nd Amendment Act (2003) -
(a) Three (b) One (c) Two (d) Four anti-defection law and 10th schedule Include Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali
added in the Indian constitution. 72nd language. 5th schedule - The President
Sol.187.(b) One (Article 38 was added). Constitutional Amendment Act 1992 can declare any such area or the whole
Directive Principles of State Policy: Part provides reservation to Scheduled Tribes state as a scheduled area. 6th schedule
IV of the Constitution of India (Article in Tripura State Legislative Assembly. - Deals with administration of tribal areas
36–51). It was borrowed from the Irish in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.
Constitution. Article 38 - State to secure Q.191. Which Constitution Amendment 7th Schedule - Deals with the division of
a social order for the promotion of the Act added provisions related to powers between the Union government
welfare of the people. It is not Municipalities in the Indian Constitution ? and State governments
enforceable by law and is non-justiciable. SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
(a) 97th Amendment Act 2011 Q.194. The Eighty - ninth Amendment
Article 37 - Application of the principles
(b) 71st Amendment Act 1992 Act, 2003 of the Indian Constitution
contained in the directive principles.
(c) 74th Amendment Act 1992 established which of the following
Q.188. The Delhi Municipal Corporation (d) 69th Amendment Act 1993 Commission ?
(Amendment) Bill, 2022 aimed at unifying SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (4th Shift)
the _____ Municipal Corporations of Delhi Sol.191.(c) 74th Amendment Act 1992. (a) Competition Commission of India
to ensure a robust setup for synergised It was passed to constitutionalize the (b) National Commission for Backward
and strategic planning and optimal system of urban local government. 71st Classes
utilisation of resources. Amendment Act of 1992 included (c) National Commission for Woman
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Afternoon) Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali languages (d) National Commission for Scheduled
(a) three (b) two (c) four (d) five in the eighth schedule. 97th Amendment Tribes
Act of 2011 granted constitutional status
Sol.188.(a) Three. The Delhi Municipal to cooperative societies and inserted Sol.194.(d) The National Commission for
Corporation (Amendment) Bill, 2022 Part IXB in the constitution. 69th Scheduled Tribes (NCST) was
introduced in Lok Sabha aims to unify the Amendment Act of 1991 granted a established by amending Article 338 and
previously trifurcated North, South, and special status to the union territory of inserting a new Article 338A in the
East Delhi Municipal Corporations under Delhi as the national capital territory of Constitution.
the Delhi Municipal Corporation Act, Delhi. Q.195. Which among the following
1957. It amended the Delhi Municipal
Q.192. Which amendment in the Indian constitutional amendments of the Indian
Corporation Act, 1957 passed by
constitution is related to extension of Constitution deals with the formation of
Parliament.
jurisdiction of High Courts to Union Sikkim as a state?
Q.189. The Juvenile Justice (Care and territories ? SSC CHSL 20/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
Protection of Children) Amendment Bill, SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (a) 36th (b) 51th (c) 42nd (d) 30th
2021 seeks to amend Juvenile Justice (a) 9th Amendment (b) 7th Amendment Sol.195.(a) 36th. 51st amendment:
(Care and Protection of Children) Act, ___ (c) 1st Amendment (d) 13th Amendment Reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha for
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Morning) Scheduled Tribes in Meghalaya,
(a) 2016 (b) 2013 (c) 2014 (d) 2015 Sol.192.(b) 7th Amendment. This
constitutional amendment was done in Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and
Sol.189.(d) 2015. Juvenile Justice (Care 1956 to reorganise the classes of states Mizoram as well as in the Legislative
and Protection of Children) Act - It in the country and to change the powers Assemblies of Meghalaya and Nagaland.
replaced the Juvenile Delinquency Law and functions of the state governors. 1st 30th amendment: Abolished provision to
and the Juvenile Justice (Care and Amendment (1951) - The rights of appeal to the Supreme Court on a civil
Protection of Children Act) 2000.The bill property owners and made it more case related to a certain amount.
was passed in Lok Sabha in March 2021. difficult for the government to enact land Q.196. Which of the following
It allows the trial of juveniles of the age reform measures. It also added the Ninth statements are correct regarding the
group of 16-18 years as adults. Nodal Schedule, which protected certain laws Supreme Court judgement on validity of
Ministry - Ministry of Women and Child from being challenged in the courts. 9th 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
Development. Amendment @ebookstore01
(1960) - Facilitate the A. The Supreme Court of India's

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 Pinnacle Polity
Constitutional Bench for this case incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli as Bangladesh.
consisted of 5 judges. the seventh Union territory of India, by
B. The Constitutional Bench upholds the amending the First Schedule to the Q.202. The Government of National
10% of EWS reservation with 3-2 majority Constitution. The Twelfth Amendment Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment)
C. As per the Supreme Court judgement, (1962) incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu Bill, 2021, which was passed in March
the 103rd Constitutional Amendment is as the eighth Union territory of India. The 2021 amended the Government of
valid although it is violating the Basic Fourteenth Amendment (1962) National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, ___
Structure of the Indian Constitution. incorporated Pondicherry as the ninth SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Morning)
SSC CGL Tier II (07/03/2023) Union territory of India. The Nineteenth (a) 1998 (b) 1994 (c) 1996 (d) 1991
(a) A, B and C (b) A and C only Amendment (1966) abolished Election Sol.202.(d) 1991. Delhi became the
(c) B and C only (d) A and B only Tribunals in India and enabled trial of capital of India on 12 December 1911.
election petitions by High Courts.
Sol.196.(d) A and B only. 103rd Q.203. Which of the following
Constitutional Amendment Act - Q.200. Which of the following Amendments of the Constitution of India
introduced 10% reservation for Amendments of the Constitution of India gave the status of state to Goa?
Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of declared that the Parliament has the SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon)
India, inserted Article 15 (6) and Article power to abridge or take away any of the (a) 52nd Amendment
16 (6). Article 368 - empowers Fundamental Rights under Article 368 (b) 56th Amendment
Parliament to amend any part of the and such an Act, will NOT be a law under (c) 59th Amendment
Constitution but without affecting the the meaning of Article 13? (d) 48th Amendment
'basic structure'. SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Morning)
(a) Twenty-third Amendment Sol.203.(b) 56th Amendment. The 59th
Q.197. Under which Amendment to the
(b) Twentieth Amendment Amendment Act, 1988- It empowered the
Constitution Act was the reservation for
(c) Twenty-fourth Amendment Central Government to impose
OBCs in educational institutions made?
(d) Twenty-eighth Amendment Emergency in Punjab when deemed
Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4)
necessary. Under the amendment, the
(a) 95th Amendment (b) 94th Amendment Sol.200.(c) Twenty-fourth Amendment President's rule can be extended up to
(c) 93rd Amendment (d) 96th Amendment (1971) - Enables Parliament to dilute three years. 48th Amendment Act
Fundamental Rights through passed in 1984 with respect to the State
Sol.197.(c) 93rd Amendment 2005. 95th
Amendments of the Constitution, and of Punjab, Parliament may pass any
(2009): Extended the reservation of seats
empowers it to amend any provision of resolution with respect to the
for the SCs and STs and special
the Constitution. The Twenty-third continuance in force of the Proclamation
representation for the Anglo-Indians in
Amendment, 1969, discontinued for a period up to two years.
the Lok Sabha and the state legislative
reservation of seats for the Scheduled
assemblies for a further period of ten
Tribes in Nagaland, both in the Lok Q.204. An amendment to the Hindu
years i.e., up to 2020 (Article 334). 96th
Sabha and the State Legislative Succession Act, 1956 was passed in the
(2011): Substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”.
Assembly and stipulated that not more year ______.
Consequently, the “Oriya” language in the
than one Anglo-Indian could be SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Eighth Schedule shall be pronounced as
nominated by the Governor to any State (a) 2012 (b) 2005 (c) 2010 (d) 2008
“Odia”. 94th (2006), made provisions for
Legislative Assembly. The Twentieth
the appointment of a Minister in charge Sol.204.(b) 2005. The Hindu Succession
Amendment, 1966, inserted a new Article
of tribal welfare in the states of Act, 1956 is an Act of the Parliament of
233A inter alia validating the
Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand. India enacted to amend and codify the
appointments, postings, promotions, and
Q.198. Which Amendment to the transfers of and judgements, delivered law relating to intestate or unwilled
Constitution Act led to establishment of before the commencement of the succession, among Hindus, Buddhists,
National Judicial Appointments present Act, by district judges . Jains, and Sikhs.
Commission in India ? Q.205. The 60th Amendment to the
Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 (Shift - 3) Q.201. Who among the following
Constitution of India increased the
(a) 95th Amendment (b) 99th Amendment presidents of India gave assent to the
ceiling of profession tax from ₹ 250 p.a.
(c) 96th Amendment (d) 97th Amendment 100th Amendment of the Constitution of
to ______ p.a.
India ?
Sol.198.(b) 99th Amendment 2014. SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Afternoon)
SSC CGL 12/04/2022(Morning)
97th amendment 2011- It gave special (a) ₹7,000 (b) ₹5,000 (c) ₹1,000 (d) ₹2,500
(a) Pranab Mukherjee
constitutional status and protection to all (b) Ram Nath Kovind Sol.205.(d) ₹2,500 . The Sixtieth
the cooperative societies (Part IX-B) (c) APJ Abdul Kalam Amendment of the Constitution of India
prevailing in India. (d) Pratibha Devisingh Patil Act, 1988, amended Article 276 of the
Q.199. Which of the following Constitution relating to taxes on
Sol.201.(a) Pranab Mukherjee. The
Constitutional Amendments incorporated professions, trades, callings and
100th amendment in the Indian
Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the Union of employments.
Constitution provides for the acquisition
India as a Union Territory ? of territories by India and transfer of Q.206. The 40th Amendment Act of 1976
SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Afternoon) certain territories to Bangladesh. was applied to which Article of the
(a) 19th (b) 14th (c) 12th (d) 10th Constitution (100th Amendment) Act Constitution of India?
2015 ratified the land boundary
@ebookstore01 SSC CGL 18/04/2022 (Evening)
Sol.199.(d) 10th Amendment (1961)
agreement between India and
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 Pinnacle Polity
(a) 297 (b) 248 (c) 245 (d) 226 Constitution of India added a new subject which has been in existence for not less
in the Union List called 'taxes on services’ than ______ years'.
Sol.206.(a) 40th amendment was SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening) SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Morning)
proposed to amend Article 297 of the (a) 56th (b) 62nd (c) 78th (d) 88th (a) 125 (b) 150 (c) 50 (d) 75
Constitution so as to provide that all
lands, minerals, and other things of value Sol.210.(d) 88th constitutional Sol.213.(d) 75 years. This Act is enacted
underlying the ocean within the exclusive amendment 2003. 62nd Amendment to regulate the export trade in antiquities
economic zone of India and all other Act, 1989 - Extend reservation for SCs and art treasures, to prevent smuggling
resources of the exclusive economic and STs and nomination of Anglo Indian of and fraudulent dealings in antiquities.
zone of India shall also vest in the Union. members in Parliament and State
Assemblies for another ten years i.e. up Q.214. Which amendment of the
Q.207. The ______ Amendment Act of the to 2000. 78th Amendment Act, 1995 - Constitution of India incorporated Goa,
Constitution of India introduced the Place land reform acts and amendments Daman and Diu as the eighth union
Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India. to these acts under Schedule 9 of the territory of India, by amending the First
SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Evening) constitution. Schedule to the Constitution?
(a) 104th (b) 92nd (c) 101st (d) 98th SSC CHSL 12/08/2021 (Morning)
Q.211. Which of the following (a) 13th (b) 10th (c) 12th (d) 18th
Sol.207.(c) 101st. The 104th amendment Amendments of the Constitution of India
of the Indian Constitution extended the amended Article 19 and inserted Sol.214.(c) 12th. India acquired control
deadline for the cessation of seats for provisions fully securing the of Goa, Daman and Diu from Portugal in
SCs and STs in the Lok Sabha and states constitutional validity of zamindari December 1961.
assemblies for ten years. abolition laws in general and certain
Q.208. Which of the following specified State Acts in particular? Fundamental Rights and Duties
Amendment Acts of the Constitution of SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Evening)
(a) Fourth Amendment Q.215. Which Committee had suggested
India abolished the privy purses and
(b) First Amendment a penalty or punishment for the
privileges of former rulers of princely
(c) Third Amendment non-performance of Fundamental
states?
(d) Second Amendment Duties?
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning)
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
(a) 25th Amendment Act 1971 Sol.211.(b) First Amendment (1951)- (a) Indira Gandhi Committee
(b) 26th Amendment Act 1971 Added special provision for the (b) Morarji Desai Committee
(c) 28th Amendment Act 1972 advancement of any socially and (c) Verma Committee
(d) 27th Amendment Act 1971 educationally backward classes or for (d) Swaran Singh Committee
the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled
Sol.208.(b) 26th Amendment Act 1971.
Tribes (SCs and STs). The Ninth Sol.215.(d) Swaran Singh Committee.
25th Amendment Act 1971- Restrict
Schedule was added. To fully secure the The Swaran Singh Committee
property rights and compensation in
constitutional validity of zamindari recommended that the duty to pay taxes
case the state takes over private
abolition laws and to place reasonable to be included in the fundamental duties.
property. 28th Amendment Act 1972,
restrictions on freedom of speech. Three The committee also recommended that
abolished the special privileges of ICS
more grounds of restrictions on Article the legislatures should prescribe a law
officers and empowered the Parliament
19 (1) [Freedom of speech and for imposing a penalty for violation of the
to determine their service conditions.
expression] were added: Public order, duties. But these recommendations were
27th Amendment Act 1971-
Friendly relations with foreign states, and not included in Article 51A.
Reorganisation of Mizoram into a Union
Incitement to an offence. Introduced the
Territory with a legislature and council of Q.216. How many fundamental rights
validity of the state’s move to nationalise
ministers. were provided originally by the Indian
any business or trade and the same to
not be invalid on the grounds of violation Constitution in 1950 ?
Q.209. An amendment to the Rights to
of the right to trade and business. SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning)
information Act 2005 proposing that the
(a) Seven (b) Nine (c) Five (d) Six
Chief Information commissioner and Q.212. In which year did the Government
information commissioners appointed for of India pass the Disabilities Act? Sol.216.(a) Seven. Fundamental Rights
such term as may be prescribed by the SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Morning) (Part III, Articles 12 - 35). Originally the
government was passed in the year_____ (a) 1995 (b)1993 (c)1997 (d)1992 constitution also included Right to
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Afternoon) property (Article 31) as a fundamental
(a) 2017 (b) 2014 (c) 2016 (d) 2019 Sol.212.(a) In 1995 the Government of right. However, it was deleted from the
India passed the Disabilities Act. This list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th
Sol.209.(d) 2019. RTI empowers Indian law states that persons with disabilities Amendment Act, 1978 but now it is a
citizens to seek any accessible have equal rights and that the legal Right under Article 300A in Part XII
information from a Public Authority and government should make possible their of the Constitution.
makes the Government and its full participation in society.
functionaries more accountable and Q.217. Which Article of the Constitution
responsible. RTI is a fundamental right Q.213. As per Section 2 of the Antiquities clarifies that policies like 'reservation' is
and is an aspect of Article 19 (1)(a) of and Art Treasures Act, 1972, ‘Antiquities’ not a violation of the right to equality?
the Indian Constitution. include 'any manuscript, record or other SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening)
document which is of scientific,
@ebookstore01 (a) Article 16 (4) (b) Article 15 (2)
Q.210. Which amendment to the historical, literary or aesthetic value and
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 Pinnacle Polity
(c) Article 14 (1) (d) Article 21 (a) Preamble Constitution?
(b) Fundamental rights SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Sol.217.(a) Article 16 (4). Article 15 (2) - (c) Directive Principles of State Policy (a) Protecting public property.
No citizen shall, on grounds only of (d) Fundamental duties (b) To maintain and protect the
religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, sovereignty of the country.
be subject to any disability, liability, Sol.221.(b) Fundamental Rights (Part III, (c) To promote harmony and spirit of
restriction or condition with regard to. Articles 12-35). The six fundamental brotherhood.
Article 21 - Protection of life and rights include Right to Equality (Articles (d) Protecting monuments.
personal liberty. 14-18), Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22),
Right against Exploitation (Articles Sol.224.(d) Article 49 of the Indian
Q.218. Which of the following rights 23-24), Right to Freedom of Religion Constitution falls under the Directive
forbids employment of children below (Articles 25-28), Cultural and Educational Principles of State Policy, It Specifically
the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs? Rights (Articles 29-30) and Right to deals with the protection of monuments
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) Constitutional Remedies (Article 32-35). and places and objects of national
(a) Right to Constitutional Remedies importance.
(b) Right against Exploitation Q.222. Which of the following
(c) Right to Freedom statements is FALSE about the right to Q.225. The celebration of Christmas, Eid
(d) Right to Equality freedom of religion mentioned in the and Holi in school is an example of
Indian Constitution ? making children learn fundamental
Sol.218.(b) Right against Exploitation SSC CHSL 04/08/2023 (1st shift) duties as well. Which of the following
(Articles 23 and 24). Article 23 - (a) It provides freedom to manage fundamental duties advocates about this
Prohibition of traffic in human beings and religious affairs. type of ideals ?
forced labour. Article 24 - No child below (b) It provides freedom of worship. SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (1st shift)
the age of fourteen years shall be (c) It is mentioned in Articles 25 to 28. (a) To defend the country and render
employed to work in any hazardous (d) It mentions that the state has its own national service
employment. religion. (b) To develop the scientific temper
Q.219. The 11th Fundamental Duty (c) To safeguard public property and to
Sol.222.(d) The Right to Freedom of abjure violence
provides opportunities for education for Religion (Fundamental Right under Part
the ______ age group of children. (d) To promote harmony and spirit of
III) - Article 25 - Freedom of conscience common brotherhood
SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (2nd Shift) and free profession, practice and
(a) 6-14 (b) 5-15 (c) 2-11 (d) 6-18 propagation of religion. Article 26 - Sol.225.(d) Fundamental Duties: Part
Sol.219.(a) 6-14. Fundamental duties : Freedom to manage religious affairs. IV-A of the Indian constitution in Article
The idea of Fundamental Duties is Article 27 - Freedom as to payment of 51A. Article 51A(e) refers to the duty of
inspired from the Constitution of the taxes for promotion of any particular every citizen to promote harmony and
former Soviet Union (Russia). Initially (10 religion. Article 28 - Freedom as to the spirit of common brotherhood
Duties) were incorporated in Part IV-A of attendance at religious instruction or amongst all the people of India. '
the Constitution by the 42nd religious worship in certain educational
institutions. Q.226. What is the aim of fundamental
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 on rights mentioned in the Indian
the recommendations of Swaran Singh Q.223. Which statement is FALSE Constitution ?
Committee. 11th duty was added regarding fundamental rights mentioned SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift)
through the 86th Constitutional in the Indian Constitution ? (a) To establish a welfare state
Amendment Act, 2002. All the eleven SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift) (b) To have an absolute independence
duties are listed in Article 51-A. (a) Only Article 20 and 21 can be (c) To promote economic justice
suspended during emergency (d) To establish political democracy
Q.220. What is the purpose of the
(b) They are justiciable
Cultural and Educational Rights? Sol.226.(d) To establish political
(c) Some fundamental rights are
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift) democracy. The fundamental rights are
negative in nature
(a) To promote a particular religion taken from the United States of America.
(d) Can be suspended during emergency
(b) To protect the language, culture, and
religion of the minority communities Sol.223.(a) 44th Amendment Act, 1978 Q.227. Which of the following is NOT a
(c) To protect the majority community limits the scope of Article 359 fundamental duty mentioned in the
(d) To prevent exploitation (suspension of the enforcement of the Indian Constitution ?
rights conferred by Part III during SSC CHSL 14/08/2023 (2nd shift)
Sol.220.(b) Cultural and Educational (a) To bring reform
emergencies). All fundamental rights
Right (Article 29 - 30) : Article 29 - (b) To develop humanism
except articles 20 and 21 can be
Guarantees the Protection of Interests of (c) To develop the spirit of inquiry
suspended only on the basis of National
Minorities. Article 30 - Guarantees the (d) To develop the spirit of harmony
Emergency (Article 352). Fundamental
right of minorities to establish and
rights: Article 12 - 35. Article 32: Sol.227.(a) To bring reform.
administer educational institutions of
Remedies for enforcement of rights Fundamental duties - Borrowed from
their choice.
conferred by Part III. USSR .
Q.221. Which of the following is
Q.224. Which of the following is not a Q.228. Which of the following is NOT a
enforceable by the Indian Constitution?
fundamental@ebookstore01
duty in the Indian Fundamental Right mentioned in the
SSC CHSL 02/08/2023 (3rd shift)
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 Pinnacle Polity
Indian Constitution? Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 1) of his property save by authority of law.
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift) (a) Article 46 B (b) Article 51 A
(a) Right to vote (c) Article 67 A (d) Article 81 C Q.237. Data Protection Bill 2021 ensures
(b) Right to equality which fundamental right?
(c) Right to freedom of religion Sol.232.(b) Article 51 A. Under Article 67 SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon)
(d) Right to freedom A : A Vice-President may, by writing under (a) Right to Education
his hand addressed to the President, (b) Right to Information Technology
Sol.228.(a) Right to vote. Right to vote is a resign his office. (c) Right to Freedom of Speech
constitutional right. (d) Right to Privacy
Q.233. Which clause of Article 51A of the
Q.229. Which of the following does NOT Constitution of India requires to value Sol.237.(d) Right to Privacy -
come under the Fundamental Duties in and preserve the rich heritage of our Fundamental Right under Article 21.
the Constitution of India? composite culture? Right to Education - 86th Amendment
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (1st shift) Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 4) Act 2002 inserted Article 21A (The
(a) Safeguard public property and to (a) Clause d (b) Clause c State shall provide free and compulsory
abjure violence (c) Clause a (d) Clause f education to all children of 6 to 14 years)
(b) Cherish and follow the noble ideals in the Indian Constitution. Right to
that inspired the national struggle for Sol.233.(d) Clause f. The Fundamental Freedom of Speech is guaranteed by
freedom Duties were included in Part IV-A of our Article 19(1)(a). Right to Information Act
(c) Exercise adult franchise Constitution by the 42nd Act 1976. Its 2005 mandates timely response to
(d) Uphold and protect the sovereignty, concept was taken from the USSR. citizen requests for government
unity and integrity of India Clause a - to abide by the Constitution information.
and respect its ideals and institutions,
Sol.229.(c) Exercise Adult Franchise. the national Flag and the National Q.238. In which of the following Articles,
Article 326 of the Indian Constitution - Anthem. Clause c - to uphold and protect "Laws inconsistent with or in derogation
Elections to the House of the People and the sovereignty, unity and integrity of of the fundamental rights” is mentioned?
to the Legislative Assemblies of States India. Clause d - to defend the country SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening)
to be on the basis of adult suffrage. and render national service when called (a) Article 13 (b) Article 14
upon to do so. (c) Article 12 (d) Article 15
Q.230. Which was the first country to
incorporate Fundamental Duties in its Q.234. Which of the following is a Sol.238.(a) Article 13. Article 12 - the
Constitution ? fundamental duty stated under the Indian Central Government, the Parliament,
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift) constitution? State Government, and State
(a) Albania (b) USSR (c) India (d) Poland SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon) Legislatures come within the definition of
(a) To safeguard private property “state”.
Sol.230.(b) USSR. The Soviet Union
(b) To protect dignity
adopted the first constitution on 31st Q.239. Which of the following Articles
(c) To defend the country
January 1924. Russia adopted its deals with "protection from arrest and
(d) To manage religious affairs
constitution in 1993.The United States of detention"?
America - First country to make and Sol.234.(c) To defend the country. SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon)
adopt a constitution. Fundamental Duties (Part IV-A, Article (a) Article 24 (b) Article 22
51A) - It shall be the duty to follow every (c) Article 20 (d) Article 18
Q.231. Fundamental duties are ______
citizen of India. It was borrowed from the
and not enforceable by law but are taken Sol.239.(b) Article 22. Article 24 - Deals
Constitution of the Soviet Union.
into account by the courts while with prohibition of employment of
adjudicating any matter. Q.235. In which of the following Articles, children (under 14 years) in factories and
SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift) "Freedom of conscience and free mines.
(a) regulatory (b) non - statutory profession, practice and propagation of
(c) statutory (d) common religion" is mentioned. Q.240. Which of the following Articles of
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening) the Indian Constitution mentions the
Sol.231.(c) Statutory. Fundamental Duties fundamental duty "sovereignty, unity and
(a) Article 26 (b) Article 27
(Part IVA, Article 51A):- Adopted from the integrity of India" is mentioned?
(c) Article 25 (d) Article 28
Constitution of Russia (erstwhile Soviet SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Morning)
Union). In 1976, the 42nd amendment Sol.235.(c) Article 25. (a) Article 51A (b) (b) Article 51A (e)
inserted a list of Fundamental Duties of (c) Article 51A (c) (d) Article 51A (d)
Citizens (Swaran Singh Committee). Q.236. In which of the following Articles,
"Right of minorities to establish and Sol.240.(c) Article 51A(c). The 42nd
Originally 10 in number, one more duty
administer educational institutions" is Amendment Act of 1976 added 10
was added through the 86th
mentioned? Fundamental Duties to the Indian
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Afternoon) Constitution and created Part IVA.
Fundamental duties - Non-justiciable in
(a) Article 29 (b) Article 31 Important Fundamental duties. Article
nature.
(c) Article 30 (d) Article 28 51A (b) - To follow ideals inspired from
Q.232. Which of the following Articles of our national struggle for freedom. Article
the Constitution of India defines that the Sol.236.(c) Article 30. It comes under 51A (e) - To promote harmony and the
Fundamental Duties are only meant for Educational and Cultural Rights. Article spirit of common brotherhood. Article
the Indian Citizens and not for foreigners 29 – Protection of Interests of Minorities.
@ebookstore01 51A (d) - To defend the country and
Article 31 - No person shall be deprived
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 Pinnacle Polity
national service when required. reside (Article 19(1)(e), and Right to opportunities for education to his child
practise any profession (Article 19 (1)(g). or, as the case may be, ward between the
Q.241. Which of the following Articles of age of six and fourteen years. Article
the Indian Constitution mentions the Q.245. The Constitution forbids 51A(i) to safeguard public property and
fundamental duty “to safeguard public employment of children below the age of to abjure violence. Article 51A(j) to strive
property and to abjure violence"? years in dangerous jobs like towards excellence in all spheres of
SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon) factories and mines. individual and collective activity so that
(a) Article 51A (i) (b) Article 51A (g) SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (1st Shift) the nation constantly rises to higher
(c) Article 51A (a) (d) Article 51A (d) (a) 15 (b) 14 (c) 16 (d) 18 levels of endeavour and achievement .
Sol.241.(a) Article 51A (i). Article 51A Sol.245.(b) 14. Article 24 strictly Article 51A (h) to develop the scientific
(g) - to protect and improve the natural prohibits the employment of children in temper, humanism and the spirit of
environment including forests, lakes, any hazardous industry or factories or inquiry and reform.
rivers and wildlife, and to have mines, without exception. Q.250. Which of the following is NOT
compassion for living creatures. Article true about Right to Religion in India?
51A (a) - to abide by the Constitution and Q.246. Which minorities are mentioned
in Article 30 of the Indian Constitution? SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
respect its ideals and institutions, the (a) A person may choose any religion or
National Flag and the National Anthem. SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift)
(a) Linguistic and religious may choose not to follow any religion.
(b) Religious, cultural and linguistic (b) Everyone is free to choose a religion
Q.242. Respect for the National Flag and and practise that religion.
National Anthem is a ________ of every (c) Cultural and linguistic
(d) Religious and cultural (c) Freedom to profess, follow and
Indian citizen. propagate any religion.
SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Morning) Sol.246.(a) Linguistic and religious. (d) Freedom for forcible conversions.
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy National Commission for Minorities
(b) Fundamental Right formed in 1993. Six religious Sol.250.(d) Freedom for forcible
(c) Fundamental Duty communities, viz; Muslims, Christians, conversions.
(d) Legal Right Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians and Jains Q.251. Which of the following has
Sol.242.(c) Fundamental duty (Article have been notified. Article 29 (Protection similarity to Article 29(1) of the Universal
51A, Part IV-A ) was added in the of interests of minorities). Article 30 Declaration of Human Rights which
Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act on (Right of minorities to establish and states “everyone has duties to the
the recommendation of the Swaran administer educational institutions). community in which alone the free and
Singh Committee. Q.247. How many rights are mentioned full development of his personality is
under “Right to Equality”? possible”?
Q.243. Which among the following is not SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Evening)
a type of Right to freedom in the Indian SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 5 (d) 4 (a) Directive Principles
constitution? (b) Fundamental Rights
SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (1st Shift) Sol.247.(c) 5. The Right to Equality (c) Cooperative Societies
(a) Protection of certain rights regarding (Article 14-18) is one of the Fundamental (d) Fundamental Duties
freedom of speech, etc. Rights (Part III).
(b) Protection of life and personal liberty. Sol.251.(d) Fundamental Duties. Given
(c) offences for armed assembly Under part IV-A of the Constitution.
Q.248. According to Article 51 A (a) of
(d) Protection in respect of conviction for
the Constitution of India, it shall be the Q.252. Fundamental Duties have______
Offences.
duty of every Indian citizen to abide by social and economic significance.
Sol.243.(c) Offences for armed the_____ and respect its ideals and SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
assembly. institutions. (a) ethical (b) historical
SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) (c) religious (d) political
Q.244.The foremost right among rights (a) constitution (b) secularism
to freedom is________ Sol.252.(a) Ethical. Fundamental Duties
(c) socialism (d) democracy
SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift) {Article 51(A), Part IV-A} - adopted in
(a) Right to life and personal liberty Sol.248.(a) Constitution. Article 51A(a) 1976 42nd Amendment. They are also
(b) Preventive detention states that it shall be the duty of every nonjusticiable.
(c) Freedom to assemble citizen to abide by the Constitution and
Q.253. Who was the Prime Minister when
(d) Right to freedom of speech and respect its ideals and institutions, the
Right to Property was scrapped as a
expression National Flag, and the National Anthem.
Fundamental Right?
Q.249. Which of the following SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning)
Sol.244.(a) Right to life and personal
Fundamental Duty provisions is similar to (a) Charan Singh (b) Indira Gandhi
liberty (Article 21 of Part III). Preventive
Article 21A? (c) Morarji desai (d) Jawaharlal Nehru
detention (Article 22) means the
detention of a person without trial and SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
Sol.253.(c) Morarji Desai. Right to
conviction by a court. Right to Freedom: (a) Article 51A (i) (b) Article 51A (k)
property was removed by 44th
Speech and expression (Article 19(1)(a), (c) Article 51A (h) (d) Article 51A (j)
Amendment Act, 1978 from the list of
Right to assemble (Article 19(1)(b), Right Sol.249.(b) Article 51A (k) who is a Fundamental Rights and converted into
to form associations (Article 19(1)(c)), parent or @ebookstore01
guardian to provide legal right under Article 300 A.
Right to move (Article 19(1)(d)), Right to
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 Pinnacle Polity
Committee Reports appointment of Governor should be constituted in 1921. The Speaker is
non-partisan” ? empowered to appoint the Chairman of
Q.254. Which report is NOT associated SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (2nd Shift) the Committee from amongst its
with Fundamental Rights? (a) Fazal Ali Commission Members.
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (b) Rajmannar commission
(c) Sarkaria commission Q.261. Which of the following persons
(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru Report
(d) Mandal commission was NOT a part of the Committee of
(b) Motilal Nehru Report
Administrators (CoA) appointed by the
(c) Sarkaria Commission Report
Sol.257.(c) Sarkaria commission (1983). Supreme Court of India in 2017, to
(d) JB Kripalani Report
The States Reorganisation Commission oversee the implementation of the Lodha
Sol.254.(c) Sarkaria Commission Report (Fazal Ali Commission, 1953). Rajmannar reforms in the Board of Control for
- This Commission is to examine and commission set up by the then DMK Cricket in India (BCCI)?
review the working of the existing Government of Tamil Nadu in 1969 under SSC MTS 06/10/2021(Morning)
arrangements between the Union and the Chairmanship of Dr P.V. Rajamanar. (a) Vinod Rai (b) Mahim Verma
States as per the Constitution of India. (c) Vikram Limaye (d) Ramachandra Guha
Q.258. Constitution Review Commission
Tej Bahadur Sapru Report (1945) - It
chaired by______recommended some Sol.261.(b) Mahim Verma. The Supreme
related to political and civil rights of the
initiatives to be taken by the government Court of India had appointed 4 eminent
minorities.
for successful implementation of personalities - former CAG Vinod Rai,
Q.255.The committee to 'Operationalise Fundamental Duties. historian Ramachandra Guha, former
the Suggestions to Teach Fundamental SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) India women's captain Diana Edulji and
Duties to the Citizens of the Country' is (a) PK Joshi (b) MN Venkatachaliah Vikram Limaye, managing director and
popularly known as the_________. (c) UC Banerjee (d) Michael G Aguinaldo CEO of IDFC (Infrastructure Development
SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (2nd shift) Finance Corporation).
Sol.258.(b) MN Venkatachaliah
(a) L P Singh committee
Commission was set up by Government Q.262. Which Commission recommended
(b) Abhijit Sen committee
resolution in 2000 to Review the Working 27% reservation for OBC candidates in all
(c) Paul Appleby committee
of the Constitution. He got Padma levels of government services?
(d) JS Verma Committee
Vibhushan In 2004. Justice U.C.Banerjee SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Morning)
Sol.255.(d) J S Verma committee headed the Commission report on (a) Sarkaria Commission
(appointed in 1999). It identified some Godhra incident. (b) Mandal Commission
legal provisions for enforcement of (c) Balwant Commission
Q.259. How many members are there in (d) Kothari Commission
Fundamental Duties : Prevention of
the Committee on Public Undertakings in
insults to National Honor, laws which
India? Sol.262.(b) The Mandal Commission
penalise for promoting enmity, protection
Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4) (Second Backward Class Commission)
of civil rights act, wildlife (protection) act
(a) 22 (b) 15 (c) 35 (d) 30 recommended that members of OBCs be
of 1972 etc.
given 27 percent reservations for jobs
Sol.259.(a) 22. Financial Committees:- under the Central government and public
Q.256. Rangarajan Committee is
Public Accounts Committee - 1921, sector undertakings. This commission
associated with _______.
Members (22) (15 from Lok Sabha and 7 was established in India in 1979 by the
SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
from Rajya Sabha), Term of Office (One Janata Party government under Prime
(a) Election reforms
year), Function - to examine the annual Minister Morarji Desai. It was headed by
(b) Educational reform
audit reports of the Comptroller and BP Mandal.
(c) Environmental protection
Auditor General of India (CAG).
(d) Estimation of poverty
Estimates Committee (Post Q.263. In 1990, the Dinesh Goswami
Sol.256.(d) Estimation of poverty. Independence) - 1950, Members (30) All Committee was formed to make
Rangarajan Committee - To Review the from Lok Sabha , Term of Office (One recommendations on:
Methodology for Measurement of Year), Function - to examine the SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Morning)
Poverty in the country constituted by the estimates included in the budget. (a) centre-state relations
Planning Commission in June 2012 has Committee on Public Undertakings – (b) police reforms
submitted its report on 30th June 2014. 1964, Members-22 (15 from Lok Sabha (c) electoral reforms
As per the report submitted by C and 7 from Rajya Sabha), Term of Office (d) fundamental duties
Rangarajan Committee: Persons (One Year), Function – to examine the
reports and accounts of the Public Sol.263.(c) Electoral reforms. Dinesh
spending below Rs. 47 a day in cities
Sector Undertakings. Goswami Committee important
should be considered poor. Committee
recommendation - Elimination of misuse
related to poverty: Planning Commission
Q.260. Members of Public Accounts of official machinery, Public funding of
Expert Group (1962), VM Dandekar and N
Committee are elected for a period of: elections, Strengthening of the Election
Rath committee (1971), Y.K. Alagh
SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Morning) Commission and securing its
Committee (1979), Lakdawala
(a) one year (b) two years independence.
Committee (1993), Suresh Tendulkar
(c) five years (d) three years
Committee (2005). Q.264. Who among the following is NOT
Q.257. Which of the following Sol.260.(a) one year. The Committee on a part of the committee, which is
commissions recommended that “the Public Accounts is
@ebookstore01 the oldest constructed to provide suggestions to
Parliamentary Committee and was first the Prime Minister regarding the
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 Pinnacle Polity
appointment of a chief commissioner of (a) 60 days (b) 30 days enormous workload of the cabinet. It is
the Central Information Commission? (c) 50 days (d) 20 days an extra-constitutional body. List of
SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Evening) Cabinet Committees: Cabinet Committee
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Sol.267.(a) 60 days. Disqualifications of on Accommodation, Cabinet Committee
(b) A Union Cabinet Minister appointed Members of parliament : Article 101 - on Economic Affairs, Cabinet Committee
by the Prime Minister. Vacation of seats. Article 102 - on Parliamentary Affairs, Cabinet
(c) Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha Disqualifications for membership. Article Committee on Security, Cabinet
(d) Prime Minister . 103 - Decision on questions as to Committee on Employment and Skill
disqualifications of members. Article 104 Development. All committees except
Sol.264.(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha. A - Penalty for sitting and voting before Cabinet Committee on Accommodation
chief commissioner of the Central making oath or affirmation under article and Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary
Information Commission is appointed by 99 or when not qualified or when Affairs are headed by the Prime Minister.
the President on the recommendation of disqualified.
a committee consisting of the Prime Q.271. What is the maximum time gap
Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of Q.268. What is the bicameral legislature between two sessions of the State
Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union of the Indian Constitution? Legislature ?
Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Evening) SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
Minister. (a) It is a legislative body with four (a) Three months (b) Two months
houses. (c) Six months (d) One year
(b) It is a legislative body with two
Parliament houses. Sol.271.(c) Six months. Article 174 (1) -
(c) It is a legislative body with one house. The Governor shall from time to time
Q.265. The First hour of a sitting of the (d) It is a legislative body with three summon the House or each House of the
House allotted for asking and answering houses. State Legislature to meet at such time
of questions is called as __________ . and place as he thinks fit. Article 85 (1)
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) Sol.268.(b) Bicameralism was first of the Constitution empowers the
(a) Censure motion (b) Zero hour introduced in India by The Government of President to summon and prorogue
(c) Privilege motion (d) Question hour India Act of 1919. Article 80 of the either house of Parliament or to dissolve
Constitution lays down the maximum the Lok Sabha. Three types of Sessions
Sol.265.(d) Question hour. Censure strength of Rajya Sabha (Upper House) in the Parliament of India: Budget
motion - A motion to express as 250, out of which 12 members are session (February - May), Monsoon
disapproval of the conduct of the nominated by the President and 238 are session (July - September) and Winter
government or a minister. Zero hour - The representatives of the States and of the session (November - December) are held
first hour of a sitting of the House, when three Union Territories. in a calendar year.
MPs can raise matters of urgent public
importance without notice. Privilege Q.269. What is the most powerful Q.272. Who was the first speaker of the
motion - A motion to protect the weapon that enables the Parliament to Lok Sabha?
privileges of the House or its members. ensure executive accountability? SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift) (a) NS Reddy
Q.266. A money bill under Article 111 of (a) Approval or refusal of laws (b) GV Mavalankar
the Constitution of India, presented to (b) The no-confidence motion (c) Ananthasayanam Ayyangar
the President for assent, has to be (c) Confirmation of treaties (d) Mira Kumar
endorsed by a Certificate of the (d) Deliberation and discussion
________signed by him/her that it is a Sol.272.(b) Ganesh Vasudev
money bill. Sol.269.(b) The no-confidence motion. It Mavalankar. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy - He
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) moved in the Lok Sabha (and not in the served as the sixth president of India
(a) Secretary General of the Lok Sabha Rajya Sabha) to test the confidence of (1977-82). Ananthasayanam Ayyangar -
(b) Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha the government. It needs the support of First deputy speaker of Lok Sabha. Lok
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 50 members to be admitted. Other ways Sabha- Maximum strength : Fixed at 550
(d) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha to ensure executive accountability: out of which 530 are to represent states
Question-hour, zero hour, calling attention and 20 to Union territories (UTs). Current
Sol.266.(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha. motion, adjournment motion, censure strength of Lok sabha - 543. First female
Articles related to Money Bill: Article 107 motion, and other discussions. Lok sabha speaker :- Meira Kumar (15th
- Provisions as to introduction and
Lok Sabha).
passing of Bills. Article 108 - Joint sitting Q.270. Which of the following is not a
of both Houses in certain cases. Article cabinet committee? Q.273. When was the first general
109 - Special procedure in respect of SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (2nd Shift) election for Lok Sabha held in India ?
Money Bills. Article 110 - Definition of (a) Appointment Committee of the SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
“Money Bills”. Article 197 - Restriction on Cabinet (a) 1950-51 (b) 1949-50
powers of Legislative Council as to Bills (b) Committee on Political Affairs (c) 1948-49 (d) 1951-52
other than Money Bills. (c) Committee on Investment and Growth
(d) Committee on Conflicts among Sol.273.(d) 1951-52. First Lok Sabha:
Q.267. After how many days of absence Ministers Jawaharlal Nehru (Indian National
from Parliament without permission will Congress) became India’s first
a Member of Parliament be disqualified? Sol.270.(d) @ebookstore01
Cabinet Committees are democratically elected Prime Minister.
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) organisational devices to lessen the
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 Pinnacle Polity
17th Lok Sabha Election (2019): (b) Law Commission of India for the qualification of a member of the
Narendra Modi (Bharatiya Janata Party) (c) Minister of Law & Justice Parliament. Accordingly, He must be a
became Prime Minister. Lok Sabha Seat: (d) Parliament of India citizen of India. Minimum 25 years of age
543 Parliamentary Constituencies (At for Lok Sabha. Minimum age for the
present). First Panchayati Raj Election in Sol.276.(d) Parliament of India. Ancillary President and vice president is 35 years.
India was held on 2nd of Oct 1959 in the powers of the Supreme Court (Article There is no minimum age prescribed in
Nagaur district of Rajasthan. 140): The Parliament, through legislation, the constitution for the judge of supreme
can grant the Supreme Court additional court.
Q.274. How long can a person remain a powers that are in line with the
minister without being a member of Constitution's provisions. These extra Q.280. The Legislative Council of a state
either House of the State Legislature? powers should help the Court better fulfill comprises not more than ______ of the
SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (1st Shift) its constitutional jurisdiction. President total number of members in the
(a) 15 days (b) 6 months of India : Articles 52 - 62 (Part V), Legislative Assembly of the state.
(c) 1 year (d) 2 months Parliament of India : Articles 79-122 (Part SSC MTS 09/05/2023 (Evening)
V), Supreme Court : Articles 124-147 (a) two - third (b) three - fourth
Sol.274.(b) 6 months. Articles 163-164 (Part V). (c) one - third (d) one - fifth
deals with the Council of Ministers (CoM)
in states. The articles 75 (5) and 164 (4) Q.277. In India, during a meeting of the Sol.280.(c) one-third. State Legislative
state that a minister who for any period Legislative Assembly or Council, if there Council size cannot be less than 40
of six consecutive months is not a is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the members. Composition - A total of 5/6 of
member of either house of Parliament or ________ to adjourn the House or suspend the total number of members of a
state legislature respectively shall cease the meeting. Legislative Council are indirectly elected
to be such minister at the expiration of Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (1/12 are elected by graduates of three
that period. (a) Chairman/Governor years standing and residing within the
(b) Speaker/Chairman state, 1/12 are elected by teachers of
Q.275. Which of the following pairs (c) Governor/Chief Minister three years standing in the state, 1/3 are
is/are correctly matched regarding the (d) Speaker/Chief Minister elected by the members of the legislative
terminology used in the Parliament? assembly of the state from amongst
A. Appropriation Bill - A Money Bill Sol.277.(b) Speaker/Chairman. Article persons who are not members of the
passed for providing for the withdrawal 100 - Voting in Houses, power of Houses assembly, and 1/3 are elected by the
or appropriation from and out of the to act notwithstanding vacancies and members of local bodies) and the 1/6
Consolidated Fund of India quorum. Quorum - It refers to the number are nominated by the Governor. The
B. Demand for Grants - Earmarking of of members that must be present for a Chairman and Deputy Chairman are
budgetary allocation for meeting only house meeting to take place. Article 189 elected by the members of the
planned expenditure of a (3) - The quorum to constitute a meeting Legislative Council among themselves.
Ministry/Department of the state legislature shall be ten Article 171 - Composition of the
C. Short Duration Discussion - For raising members or one-tenth of the total Legislative Councils.
a discussion on a matter of urgent public number of members of the house
importance for which a notice has to be whichever is greater. Q.281. A maximum of_________members
given by a Member and supported by 50 can be nominated by the President of
Members. Q.278. Which of the following Articles of India to become a member of the Rajya
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (4th shift) the Constitution of India lays down the Sabha.
(a) A, B and C (b) B and C only maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha as SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Morning)
(c) A only (d) A and C only 250 ? (a) 12 (b) 25 (c) 18 (d) 10
Matric Level 30/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
Sol.275.(c) A only. Demand for Grants is (a) Article 85 (b) Article 80 Sol.281.(a) 12 Members Nominated by
the form in which estimates of (c) Article 83 (d) Article 81 the President who has 'special
expenditure from the Consolidated Fund knowledge or practical experience in
(included in the annual financial Sol.278.(b) Article 80. Rajya Sabha literature, science, art and social service'.
statement and required to be voted upon consists of 238 members representing Rajya Sabha (The Council of States):
in the Lok Sabha) are submitted in the States and Union Territories, and 12 Upper House. maximum strength - 250.
pursuance of Article 113 of the members nominated by the President. Current strength - 245. Article 80 –
Constitution. Short Duration Discussion Article 85 - Sessions of Parliament, Composition of the Council of States
is a procedural device to enable prorogation and dissolution. Article 81 - (Rajya Sabha). Article 84 - Qualification
members to raise discussion on matters Composition of the House of the People. for membership of Parliament. Schedule
of urgent public importance without a Article 83 - Duration of Houses of IV - allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha
formal motion on a matter of urgent Parliament. to the states and UTs.
public importance. The Speaker can allot Q.279. At least how old must be an
two days in a week for such discussions. Q.282. A Money Bill should be returned
Indian citizen to be a member of Rajya
to the Lok Sabha within ___ days by Rajya
Sabha?
Q.276. Which of the following can make Sabha, either with recommendations or
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon)
provisions for Ancillary powers of the without recommendations.
(a) 30 years (b) 25 years
Supreme Court? SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Evening)
(c) 35 years (d) 20 years
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (1st shift) (a) 8 (b) 21 (c) 14 (d) 10
@ebookstore01
(a) President of India Sol.279.(a) 30 years. Article 84 provides
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.282.(c) 14. Money Bill (Article 110) - retire after every two years). Article 80 - State Legislative Assemblies for the:
It is involved with tax collection, public Composition of the Council of States. SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning)
expense bills, and other significant costs Rajya Sabha - constituted on 3 April (a) scheduled tribes
associated with running the government. 1952. Chairman (ex officio) - Vice (b) other backward classes
Money Bill Types - Financial Bill and President of India. Seats at present - 245 (c) differently abled
Appropriation Bill. The Speaker has the (233 Elected + 12 Nominated). Voting (d) women
authority to determine whether or not a system - 238 members are elected by
specific bill is a money bill. single transferable vote by state Sol.290.(a) Scheduled tribes. Article
legislatures, 12 members are nominated 366(25) of the Constitution deals with
Q.283. Archana wishes to contest for by the President. Maximum Rajya Sabha Scheduled Tribes. There are over 705
Lok Sabha elections in India. What is the seats - Uttar Pradesh (31). tribes which have been notified. The
maximum limit of constituencies that largest number of tribal communities are
can she contest? Q.287. The term 'Parliament' refers to found in Odisha. Related Committees to
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Morning) the_________ Schedule tribes : Xaxa Committee
(a) One (b) Four (c) Three (d) Two SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift) (2013), Bhuria Commission (2002-2004),
(a) Rajya Sabha (b) Lok Sabha Lokur Committee (1965). The Fifth
Sol.283.(d) Two. Candidates were (c) State legislature (d) National legislature Schedule of the Constitution deals with
allowed to contest more than Two seats Administration and Control of Scheduled
until 1996. As per, Section 33 (7) of the Sol.287.(d) National legislature. The Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states
RPA (Representation of the People Act) Indian Parliament comprises the other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura
1951, one candidate can contest from a President and the two Houses - Rajya and Mizoram. The Sixth Schedule deals
maximum of two constituencies. Section Sabha (Council of States) and Lok with the administration of the tribal areas
70 bars candidates from representing Sabha. The State Legislature is the in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
two constituencies in the Lok legislative body of the state in India. It Mizoram.
Sabha/state, which means candidates comprises the Legislative Assembly, the
have to vacate one seat in case of Legislative Council (in some cases), and Q.291. Which of the following is NOT a
winning both the seats. the State Governor. kind of question related to Indian
Parliamentary Proceedings?
Q.284. What is the term of the State Q.288. Which of the following can alter SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon)
legislative assembly in India as per the boundary of a state or change its (a) Starred Question
Indian constitution ? name? (b) Unstarred Question
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Afternoon) SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (2nd Shift) (c) Short Notice Question
(a) 3 years (b) 5 years (a) State government (b) Parliament (d) Long Notice Question
(c) 4 years (d) 7 years (c) Supreme Court (d) High Court
Sol.291.(d) Long Notice Question.
Sol.284.(b) 5 years. State Legislature Sol.288.(b) Parliament. Article 3 states Starred Questions are those for which an
(Article 168 - 212) comprises Legislative that the Parliament may by law form a oral answer is expected. Non-starred
Assembly and Legislative Council. Article new State by separation of a territory questions are those for which a written
170 - Composition of the Legislative from any State or by uniting two or more reply is expected. Short notice questions
Assemblies. Article 171 - Composition of States completely or in parts or by are those which are asked on matters of
the Legislative Councils.Legislative uniting any territory to a part of any urgent public importance and can be
Council members are elected for a term State. asked on a shorter notice, less than 10
of 6 years. days.
Q.289. Who runs the government at the
Q.285. The Lok Sabha (House of the national level under the parliamentary Q.292. Which of the following is called
People) was duly constituted for the first system? 'the temple of the country's democracy'?
time on _______ . SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
SSC MTS 14/06/2023 (Evening) (a) The President and Council of (a) Raj Ghat (b) Supreme Court
(a) 26 April 1950 (b) 17 April 1952 Ministers (c) Ashok Pillar (d) Parliament
(c) 18 January 1950 (d) 20 April 1951 (b) The Prime Minister and Council of
Ministers Sol.292.(d) Parliament (Article 79)
Sol.285.(b) 17 April 1952. The First Lok (c) The Prime Minister consists of the President (Article 52),
Sabha lasted for a full five years tenure (d) The President Council of States (Article 80 - Rajya
and was dissolved on 4 April 1957. Sabha) and House of the People (Article
Article 79 of the Constitution deals with Sol.289.(b) The Prime Minister and the 81 - Lok Sabha).
the Parliament consisting of the Council of Ministers run the
President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha. Parliamentary system (cabinet system or Q.293. To whom is the Council of
First Lok Sabha Speaker - GV Mavlankar. the Responsible government, Prime Ministers collectively responsible?
Minister Model) at the National level. SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Evening)
Q.286. What is the tenure of a Rajya Articles 74 and 75 (Part V) provide the (a) Lok Sabha
Sabha member? parliamentary system for the centre. (b) Parliament
SSC MTS 15/06/2023 (Evening) Article 163 and 164 (Part VI) provides the (c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(a) Five years (b) Three years parliamentary system for the states. (d) President of India
(c) Six years (d) Two years
Q.290. The Constitution
@ebookstore01provides for Sol.293.(a) Lok Sabha. Article 74 (deals
Sol.286.(c) Six years (one third members reservation of seats in the Lok Sabha and with the status of the council of
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 Pinnacle Polity
ministers), Article 79 (There shall be a of the Supreme Court, High Court, Q.302. An alliance formed by political
Parliament), Article 80 (Rajya Sabha), District Court or Subordinate Court. parties after elections when no party has
Article 81 (Lok Sabha). Important Article been able to get adequate seats to form
- Impeachment of President (Article 61), Q.298. _____________ is a motion moved a clear majority is called_____.
Disqualifications for membership (Article by a member to cut short the debate on a SSC MTS 20/07/2022 (Evening)
102), Right of President to address and matter before the House. (a) coalition (b) appropriation
send messages to Houses (Article 86). SSC MTS 13/07/2022 (Morning) (c) allegiance (d) prorogation
(a) Closure (b) No-Confidence
Q.294. Which of the following states has (c) Privilege (d) Censure Sol.302.(a) A coalition government is a
two houses in its state legislature? form of government in which political
SSC MTS 05/07/2022 (Morning) Sol.298.(a) ‘Closure Motion’ . No parties cooperate to form a government.
(a) Gujarat (b) Maharashtra Confidence Motion’ also called as Motion Appropriation is when money is set aside
(c) Rajasthan (d) Jharkhand of No Confidence: A Vote of No for a specific and particular purpose or
Confidence is a formal proposal in Lok purposes. Prorogation means the
Sol.294.(b) Maharashtra. 6 out of 28 Sabha to evoke a decision of the house. termination of a session of the House by
states have bicameral legislatures: an order made by the President under
Andhra Pradesh (Seats- 58) , Bihar (75), Q.299. According to the Indian
Constitution, what is the tenure of the Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution.
Karnataka (75), Maharashtra (78), Allegiance, the tie that binds an individual
Telangana (40), and Uttar Pradesh (100). members of the State Legislative Council
in India? to another individual or institution.
Q.295. The state legislative assembly SSC MTS 14/07/2022 (Afternoon) Q.303. The period between prorogation
has a strength of ____, with exceptions (a) 10 years (b) 3 years of Parliament and re-assembly in a new
for smaller states. (c) 4 years (d) 6 years session is called______.
SSC MTS 06/07/2022 (Morning) SSC MTS 21/07/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) 600 to 1000 (b) 60 to 500 Sol.299.(d) 6 years. It is a permanent
body and is not subject to dissolution. (a) adjournment (b) recess
(c) 50 to 400 (d) 10 to 100 (c) dissolution (d) cut motion
The tenure of a Member of the
Sol.295.(b) 60 and 500 members . Legislative Council (MLC) is six years, Sol.303.(b) Recess. An adjournment
However an exception may be granted in with one-third of the members retiring suspends the work in a sitting for a
the states of Goa, Sikkim, Mizoram, and every two years. specified time, which may be hours, days
the union territory of Puducherry which or weeks. A dissolution ends the very life
have fewer than 60 members. Maximum Q.300. Who has the power to abolish or
create a legislative council in the state? of the existing House, and a new House
seats (Uttar Pradesh; 403) and least is constituted after general elections are
number of seats (Puducherry; 30). SSC MTS 18/07/2022 (Morning)
(a) Parliament held. Cut motion is a power given to the
Q.296. According to the Indian (b) High court of the concerned State members of the Lok Sabha that enables
Constitution, the House of People shall (c) President its members to oppose any demand in a
consist of not more than ______ members (d) Chief minister of the concerned state Finance Bill proposed by a government
to represent the Union territories. Q.304. In the absence of the Speaker and
SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening) Sol.300.(a) Parliament. According to the
Article 169 of the Constitution of India, the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, who
(a) thirty (b) twenty presides over the joint sitting of the two
(c) fifteen (d) Thirty-five the Parliament of India can create or
abolish the State Legislative Council of a houses of Parliament?
Sol.296.(b) Twenty. The Lok Sabha is state if that state's legislature passes a SSC CHSL 24/05/2022 (Afternoon)
composed of representatives of people resolution for that with a special majority. (a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
chosen by direct election on the basis of (b) Any senior member of Rajya Sabha
adult suffrage. The maximum strength of Q.301. Which of the following is NOT a (c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
the House envisaged by the Constitution feature of parliamentary government in (d) Any senior member of Lok Sabha
is now 550 (530 members to represent India?
SSC MTS 19/07/2022 (Evening) Sol.304.(c) Deputy Chairman of Rajya
States, 20 to represent Union Territories)
(a) Membership of the ministers in the Sabha. Article 93 - The Speaker and
Q.297. How many organs of government legislature, Deputy Speaker of the House of the
are there according to the Indian (b) Undissolvable lower house People . Article 95 - Power of the Deputy
Constitution? (c) Presence of nominal and real Speaker or other person to perform the
SSC MTS 12/07/2022 (Evening) executives duties of the office of, or to act as,
(a) Two (b) Four (c) One (d) Three (d) Collective responsibility of the Speaker. Article 96 - The Speaker or the
executive to the legislature Deputy Speaker not to preside while a
Sol.297.(d) Three Organs: the resolution for his removal from office is
Legislature consists of the President and Sol.301.(b) Undissolvable lower house. under consideration.
two Houses, known as Council of States Features of Parliamentary Government :
(Rajya Sabha) and House of the People Nominal and Real Executives, Double Q.305. How many seats of Rajya Sabha
(Lok Sabha), the Executive consists of Membership, Collective Responsibility, are present in the state of Maharashtra?
the President, the Vice-President, and the Secrecy of procedure, Prime Ministerial SSC CHSL 30/05/2022 (Afternoon)
Council of Ministers with the Prime Leadership, Majority Party Rule, (a) 19 (b) 10 (c) 31 (d) 25
Minister as the head to aid and advise Bicameral Legislature, Political
the President. and the Judiciary consists @ebookstore01 Sol.305.(a) 19 seats elected in
Homogeneity, No fixed term. Maharashtra and they are indirectly
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 Pinnacle Polity
elected by the state legislators of speaker appointed for a limited period of a finance commission for every 5 years
Maharashtra. The fourth Schedule time to conduct the works in the Lower to review the financial situation of
contains the provisions in relation to the House of Parliament after the General municipalities and panchayats. Article
allocation of seats for States and Union elections. 112 - Annual financial statement. Article
Territories in the Rajya Sabha. Article 80: 200 - Assent to Bills.
Composition of the Council of States. Q.310. The process of impeachment of
the President of India can be initiated in: Q.313. Who among the following has
Q.306. The salary and allowances of SSC CHSL 18/03/2020 (Afternoon) given extraordinary powers during an
leaders of opposition in parliament are (a) Rajya Sabha but not in Lok Sabha emergency?
governed by the Act passed for the first (b) Either house of the parliament SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning)
time by the parliament in the year ______. (c) Lok Sabha but not in Rajya Sabha (a) Prime Minister (b) The President
SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Afternoon) (d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha or any state (c) The Chief Justice (d) The Governor
(a) 1972 (b) 1982 (c) 1977 (d) 1979 legislative assembly
Sol.313.(b) The President. The President
Sol.306.(c) 1977. Second Schedule of Sol.310.(b) Either house of the of India is empowered to proclaim three
the Indian Constitution deals with the Parliament. Under Article 61: The types of emergencies to handle
provisions in relation to allowances, President can be removed from office by extraordinary situations in the country.
privileges, emoluments of : The President a process of impeachment for ‘violation National Emergency (Article 352), State
of India, Governors of Indian States, of the Constitution’. These charges Emergency or President rule (Article
Speaker of Lok Sabha & Deputy Speaker should be signed by one-fourth of 356), Financial Emergency (Article 360).
of Lok Sabha etc. The leader of the members of the House (that framed the The President can proclaim National
largest Opposition party having not less charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be Emergency only after receiving a written
than one-tenth of the seats of the total given to the President. No President has recommendation from the cabinet.
strength of the House is recognized as so far been impeached.
the leader of the Opposition in that Q.314. A Governor shall, notwithstanding
the expiration of his term, continue to
House opposition cabinet. President, Vice President and
hold office until ______________.
Q.307. The Speaker of the House of the Prime Minister SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
People may submit his resignation to the: (a) the President’s consent
Q.311. Who was the second
SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Afternoon) (b) the Legislative Secretary takes charge
vice-President of India?
(a) Deputy Speaker of the House of the (c) he/she has aid and advice of the
SSC CGL Tier II 26/10/2023
People Chief Minister
(a) VV Giri
(b) President (d) his/her successor enters his/her
(b) Krishna Kant
(c) Prime Minister office
(c) Dr Zakir Hussain
(d) Vice-President
(d) Dr S Radhakrishnan Sol.314.(d) Governor - He is the
Sol.307.(a) Deputy Speaker. As per constitutional head of the state, bound
Sol.311.(c) Dr Zakir Hussain (1962 by the advice of the council of ministers.
Article 93 of the Indian Constitution, the
-1967) - He was the third President of He functions as a vital link between the
Lok Sabha has a Speaker and a Deputy
India from 1967-1969, and the first Indian Union Government and the State
Speaker.
President to die in office in 1969. He was Government. Article 156 - It deals with
Q.308. In the Lok Sabha, discussion awarded Bharat Ratna in 1963. First five the term of office of a governor. A
under which rule of the Constitution of vice presidents of India : First - Dr. governor must: Be a citizen of India, Be
India does not involve a formal motion Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan (1952-1962). at least 35 years of age, Not be a
before the House? Third - Sh. V.V. Giri (1967-1969). Fourth - member of either the house of the
SSC MTS 26/10/2021 (Morning) Sh. Gopal Swarup Pathak (1969-1974). parliament or the house of the state
(a) Rule 123 (b) Rule 193 Fifth - Sh. B.D.Jatti (1974-1979). legislature, Not hold any office of profit.
(c) Rule 146 (d) Rule 157
Q.312. Who will cause every year, annual Q.315. Which of the following Articles of
Sol.308.(b) Rule 193- Notice for raising financial statements to be laid before the the Indian Constitution deals with the
discussion. Rule 123- Consideration of Legislative Assembly of the State? relationship between the Prime Minister
amendments made by Council . Rule SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Afternoon) and the President?
146- Procedure on motion for (a) President SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
consideration being carried . Rule 157- (b) Governor (a) Article 35 (b) Article 25
Voting on motions . (c) Deputy Chief Minister (c) Article 75 (d) Article 45
(d) Chief Minister
Q.309. Who among the following Sol.315.(c) Article 75. Article 35 - It lays
appoints the Speaker 'Pro tem' of the Lok Sol.312.(b) Governor: Financial Powers - down that the power to make laws, to
Sabha? Money bill can only be introduced in the give effect to certain specified
SSC CGL 23/08/2021(Evening) state legislature on his prior fundamental rights, shall vest only in the
(a) Prime Minister recommendation. No demand for grant Parliament and not in the state
(b) Chief Justice of Supreme Court can be made except on his legislatures. Article 25 - It guarantees the
(c) President recommendation. Money from the freedom of conscience, the freedom to
(d) Chief Election Commissioner contingency fund can be withdrawn after profess, practice, and propagate religion
his recommendation for meeting the
@ebookstore01 to all citizens.
Sol.309.(c) President. He is a temporary unforeseen expenditures. He constitutes
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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.316. When the President of India the Council of States. Article 62 - Time of (b) Indira Gandhi
keeps a bill (except money bill and holding election to fill vacancy in the (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
constitutional amendment bill) pending office of President and the term of office (d) Gulzarilal Nanda
for an indefinite period, it is called______. of person elected to fill casual vacancy.
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) Sol.322.(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru. First in
Q.319. Under which Article of the Indian India : Deputy Prime Minister - Vallabh
(a) absolute veto of the President
Constitution shall the executive power of Bhai Patel, Women Prime Minister - Indira
(b) amendatory veto of the President
the Union be vested in the President ? Gandhi, Women President - Pratibha
(c) pocket veto of the President
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Morning) Patil, Women Chief Minister - Sucheta
(d) suspensive veto of the President
(a) Article 55 (b) Article 56 Kripalani (Uttar Pradesh), Women Lok
Sol.316.(c) Pocket veto of the President. (c) Article 53 (d) Article 58 Sabha Speaker - Meira Kumar (15th Lok
Veto Power of the President of India is Sabha).
Sol.319.(c) Article 53. Other Articles:
guided by Article 111. Three types of
Article 55 - Manner of election of Q.323. What is the tenure of the
Veto Power: Absolute veto, Suspensive
President. Article 56 - Term of office of Vice-President of India?
veto and Pocket veto. Absolute Veto: It
President (5 years). Article 58 - SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
refers to the power of the President to
Qualifications for election as President. (a) Until the age of 65
withhold his assent to a bill passed by
Article 57 - Eligibility for re-election. (b) Until he wants to hold the office
the Parliament. The bill then ends and
Article 59 - Conditions of the President's (c) 6 years
does not become an act. Suspensive
office. Article 60 - Oath or affirmation by (d) 5 years
Veto: The President uses a suspensive
the President. Article 61 - Procedure for
veto when he returns the bill to the Indian Sol.323.(d) 5 years. Vice president is the
impeachment of the President.
Parliament for its reconsideration. second highest constitutional office in
Q.320. Whose prior recommendation is India. Article 63 - Vice President of India.
Q.317. The President of India decides on
required to introduce money bills in state The Vice-President of India is elected
the question as to the disqualification of
legislature? indirectly by members (elected as well as
Members of Parliament in consultation
SSC MTS 05/09/2023 (1st Shift) nominated) of Lok Sabha and Rajya
with the ____________.
(a) Speaker of the House Sabha. Article 89 - The Vice President
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Afternoon)
(b) Chief Minister presides over the meetings of the council
(a) Vice President
(c) Governor of states.
(b) Supreme Court of India
(d) Advocate General
(c) Parliament Q.324. Who was the Prime Minister of
(d) Election Commission of India Sol.320.(c) Governor: Appointed by the India when the Fundamental Duties were
President. Article 153 - Governors of first incorporated in the Constitution of
Sol.317.(d) Election Commission of States. A governor must be at least 35
India. Article 103 - It deals with the India?
years of age. Articles related to Money SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
decisions of disqualifications of Bill: Article 110 - Concerned with
members of Parliament. It provides that (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
financial matters like taxation, public (b) Indira Gandhi
the president shall obtain the opinion of expenditure, etc. Article 198 - It shall be
the Election Commission and act (c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
introduced only in a Legislative (d) Rajiv Gandhi
according to such opinion. Article 102 - It Assembly, not in Legislative council.
provides for Disqualification for Sol.324.(b) Indira Gandhi : 3rd Prime
membership of Parliament If he holds Q.321. Who nominates members to the
Minister of India and first and, to date,
any office of profit, unsound mind, Rajya Sabha based on their excellence in
only female prime minister of India.
undischarged insolvent, Not a citizen of literature, science, art and social service
India. Other provisions: Anti-Defections ? Q.325. Who holds the authority of
(10th Schedule), Section 8 of SSC MTS 06/09/2023 (3rd Shift) transferring judges from one High court
Representation of People Act 1951, and (a) The Chief Justice of India to another High Court?
Section 499 and 500 of Indian Penal (b) The President SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (2nd shift)
Code. (c) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (a) The senior most judge of Supreme
(d) The Prime Minister Court
Q.318. Which Article of the Indian
(b) The chief justice of india
Constitution lays the condition that the Sol.321.(b) The President. He is the
(c) The president of india
President, once elected, shall NOT be a nominal executive authority of India.The
(d) The law minister of india
member of either the House of Rajya Sabha shall have 250 members out
Parliament or state legislature? of which 238 represents the state and Sol.325.(c) The President of India
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Evening) union territories, and 12 members shall (Article 52). Article 222 - Transfer of a
(a) Article 79 (b) Article 80 be nominated by the President who have Judge from one High Court to another.
(c) Article 62 (d) Article 59 special knowledge of Art, Science, Article 217 -Appointment and conditions
Literature and Social Sciences. Fourth of the office of a Judge of a High Court.
Sol.318.(d) Article 59. Article 79 - There Schedule - Allocation of seats in the Article 124 - Establishment and
shall be a Parliament for the Union Council of States (Rajya Sabha). constitution of the Supreme Court.
which shall consist of the President and
Article 218 - Application of certain
two Houses to be known respectively as Q.322. Who was our first Prime Minister?
provisions relating to the Supreme Court
the Council of States and the House of SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
to High Courts. Article 214 - High Courts
the People. Article 80 - Composition of (a) Rajendra @ebookstore01
Prasad
for States.
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 Pinnacle Polity
Q.326. Which of the following Article 153 - Governors of a state, Article of the Ministers.
statements are correct regarding 154 - Executive power of the state, Article (c) Appointment of the Speaker of the
removal of the President of India? 155 - Appointment of governor, Article Legislative Assembly.
A. The impeachment process can be 156 - Terms of office of governor, Article (d) Appointment of Advocate General of
initiated in either House of Parliament. 159 - Oath or affirmation by the governor, the state in consultation with Attorney
B. The impeachment charges must be Article 163 - Council of ministers to aid general.
signed by the one-third members of the and advise governor, Article 165 -
House in which the process is initiated. Advocate general for the state, Article Sol.331.(a) Article 167 imposes on the
C. In the impeachment process, a 30 166 - Conduct of business of the Chief Minister the responsibility of
days' notice should be given to the government of a state , Article 170 - keeping the Governor informed of all
President. Composition of the legislative decisions made by the Council of
D. The impeachment resolution is passed assemblies Ministers concerning administration and
by a majority of two-thirds of the total legislation. Article 178 - It deals with the
membership of that House. Q.329. Who, being the Commander - in - corresponding position for Speaker and
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift) Chief of the Indian Armed Forces, takes Deputy Speaker of the Legislative
(a) B and C only (b) A, B and C only the salute of different regiments of the Assembly of a state. Article 165 - Related
(c) A, B, C and D (d) A and D only armed forces during the march-past on to the office of the Advocate General for
Republic Day? the States who is the highest law officer
Sol.326.(d) A and D only. Article 61: SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (2nd shift) in the State.
Procedure for impeachment of the (a) The Defence Minister of India
President. The impeachment charges (b) The Prime Minister of India Q.332. Who among the following served
must be signed by not less than (c) The Home Minister of India the shortest tenure as the Prime Minister
one-fourth members of the house in (d) The President of India of India ?
which the process is initiated. A fourteen SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (1st shift)
day notice should be given to the Sol.329.(d) President of India:- The head (a) HD Deva Gowda (b) VP Singh
president. Impeachment of the President of the state and he is the first citizen of (c) Chandra Shekhar (d) IK Gujral
was taken from the US Constitution. India. Powers of President: He appoints
attorney general of India (Article 76), Sol.332.(c) Chandra Shekhar. Shri
Q.327. Who administers oath of office to Comptroller and Auditor General of India Gulzari Lal Nanda (11 January 1966 - 24
the Vice President of India? (Article 148), He deals with 3 types of January 1966 and 27 May 1964 - 9 June
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (4th shift) emergencies in Part XVIII National 1964) served the shortest tenure as PM.
(a) The Prime Minister of India Emergency (Article 352), President’s Rule H D Deva Gowda (June 1, 1996 - April 21,
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha (Article 356 & 365), Financial Emergency 1997) - 11th Prime Minister of India. V. P.
(c) The President of India (Article 360). Article 123 - Power of the Singh (December 2, 1989 - November 10,
(d) The Chief Justice of India President to promulgate Ordinances 1990) - 7th Prime Minister of India.
during recess of Parliament. Chandra Shekhar (10 November 1990
Sol.327.(c) The President of India.
and 21 June 1991) - 8th Prime Minister
Article 69 - Oath or affirmation by the
Q.330. The Governor of an Indian state of India. The longest-serving prime
Vice-President. He is the ex-officio
before entering upon his office takes an minister was Jawaharlal Nehru, (16 years
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Some
oath or affirmation before ____________. and 286 days).
other Oaths administered by the
SSC CGL 25/07/2023 (4th shift)
President: Prime Minister, Council of Q.333. There shall be a ___________ with
(a) the Chief Justice of the High Court
Ministers, Chief Justice of India. the Prime Minister at the head to aid and
exercising jurisdiction in relation to
the State advise the President of India.
Q.328. Which of the following
(b) the President of India Higher Secondary 30/06/2023 (Shift - 2)
statements are correct regarding the
(c) the Chief Minister of the concerned (a) Council of States
State Executive ?
state (b) Council of Ministers
A. Article 152 of the Indian Constitution
(d) the Prime Minister of India (c) Advocate General
states 'Unless the context otherwise
(d) Attorney General for India
requires, the expression 'State' does not
Sol.330.(a) Article 159 - Oath or
include Jammu and Kashmir'. Sol.333.(b) Council of Ministers. Article
affirmation to the Governor by the Chief
B. The 7th Constitutional Amendment 74 - Council of Ministers. The advice
Justice of the High Court and in his
Act has provided for the appointment of tendered by Ministers to the President
Absence, senior most Judge of that
the same person as Governor for two or shall not be inquired into in any court.
Court available. Article 155 - The
more states. Total number of ministers in the COM -
Governor of a State shall be appointed by
C. The Supreme Court clearly mentioned 15% of the Lok Sabha (Mandated by 91st
the President. Article 153 - Governors of
that the office of the Governor is under Amendment Act of 2003).
States.
the control of the Central Government.
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (4th shift) Q.334. The President of India shall be
Q.331. What is the duty of the Chief
(a) B and C only (b) A and C only elected by the members of an electoral
Minister, as mentioned under Article 167
(c) A, B and C (d) A and B only college consisting of:
of the Indian Constitution?
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning)
SSC CGL 26/07/2023 (4th shift)
Sol.328.(d) A and B only. Part VI of I. The elected members of both Houses
(a) Communication of all decisions of the
Constitution (functioning of state of Parliament.
Council of Ministers to the Governor.
government). Articles under Part VI : @ebookstore01 II.The elected members of the Legislative
(b) Appointment and removal of Council

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 Pinnacle Polity
Assemblies of the States. Sol.337.(b) President. Article 124 (2) - Sol.340.(d) A, B and C. The President
(a) Both I and II (b) Only I Vests power on the President to appoint {Article (52-62)} of India is the head of
(c) Neither I nor II (d) Only II every Judge of the Supreme Court state of the Republic of India. First
including the Chief Justice of India. President - Rajendra Prasad (held office
Sol.334.(a) Both I and II. The President
Article 124 - States the establishment of for two terms, longest serving president
(Articles 52-62) : Article 52 - The
the Supreme Court. Article 124 (3) - of India). Article 54 - Election of
President of India. Article 53 - The
Qualification of Supreme court Judge. President, Article 60- Oath or affirmation
executive power of the Union. Article 54 -
by the President. Article 61- Procedure
Election of President. Article 55 -Manner Q.338. What is the minimum age (in for impeachment of the President.
of election of President. Article 56 - Term years) a person should be if he/she is
of office of President. Article 58 - willing to be appointed as the Governor Q.341. Who among the following
Qualifications for election as President. of a state in India ? Presidents of India was also the deputy
Article 60 - Oath or affirmation by the SSC MTS 19/05/2023 (Afternoon) chairman of the Planning Commission?
President. Article 61 - Procedure for (a) 28 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 40 SSC CGL 01/12/2022 (1st Shift)
impeachment of the President. (a) VV Giri
Sol.338.(c) 35 years. Article 157 - (b) KR Narayanan
Q.335. The Inter-State Council consists Qualifications for appointment as
of ______ ministers of Cabinet rank in the (c) Ramaswamy Venkataraman
Governor (must be a citizen of India and (d) Pranab Mukherjee
Union Council of Ministers nominated by must have completed 35 years of age).
the Prime Minister of India. Article 153 - Governors of States. Article Sol.341.(d) Dr. Pranab Mukherjee (13th
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening) 154 - Executive power of State. Article president). Other positions he hold were
(a) six (b) two (c) ten (d) four 155 - Appointment of Governor. Article Minister of Finance (2009 - 2012),
Sol.335.(a) Six. Inter-State Council - A 58 - The presidential candidate must Minister of Defence (2004 - 2006),
constitutional body established by the complete the age of 35 years. Article 84 Minister of External Affairs (2006 - 2009),
President of India. Article 263 (b) - the minimum age for Lok Sabha 15th Leader of the Lok Sabha (2004 –
contemplates the establishment of an election shall be 25 years. 2012), Deputy Chairman of the Planning
inter-state council to effect coordination Commission (1991 - 1996), 14th Leader
Q.339. Who administers the Union of the Rajya Sabha (1980 – 1984),
between the states and between centre
Territories of India? Member of Parliament, Lok Sabha (2004
and states. Established by the President
SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Morning) - 2012), and Member of Parliament, Rajya
of India. Composition of the council - PM
(a) President Sabha (1969 - 1981). V.V Giri (4th
as chairman, CM of all the states and
(b) Prime Minister President), K.R Narayan (10th president).
UTS having legislative assemblies,
(c) Chief Minister Ramaswamy Venkataraman (8th
Administrators of UTs not having
(d) Member of Legislative Assembly president).
legislative assemblies, Governors of
states under President’s rule, Five Sol.339.(a) President. The administrator Q.342. Which of the following
ministers of the cabinet rank are appointed by the President runs the statements about the Vice President of
permanent invitees of the council. administration on the behalf of the India is INCORRECT?
President. Part - VIII (Union Territories), SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
Q.336. Which Article of the Indian
Article 239 (Administration of Union (a) Members of State legislatures do not
constitution talks about Oath or
territories). Article 239A (Creation of take part in his elections.
affirmation by the President?
local legislatures or council of ministers (b) He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Morning)
or both for certain Union territories. the Rajya Sabha.
(a) Article 72 (b) Article 60
Example (Pondicherry). Article 239AA (c) The Vice President is elected for five
(c) Article 45 (d) Article 56
(Special provisions with respect to Delhi). years.
Sol.336.(b) Article 60. It states that the (d) He can be removed from his office by
Q.340. Which of the following
oath of office to the President is the President approved through a
statements are correct regarding the
administered by the Chief Justice of resolution passed by the Lok Sabha
benefits of the retired President of India?
India. Article 72 - It empowers the and Rajya Sabha.
A. The former President of India will also
President to grant pardons to persons.
be entitled to a monthly pension of ₹2.5
Article 45 - The State shall endeavour to Sol.342.(d) Vice president of India: The
lakh.
provide early childhood care and vice president is elected for five years.
B. He/She is entitled to a secretarial staff
education to children below the age of Minimum age: 35. He acts as the
comprising a private secretary, a
six years. Article 56 - The President shall ex-officio chairman of the Rajya sabha. In
personal assistant, an additional private
hold office for a term of five years from the electoral college for Vice President,
secretary, two peons, and office
the date he takes up his post. both elected and nominated members of
expenses up to ₹1 lakh per annum.
both the Houses of Parliament take part.
Q.337.Who appoints the Chief Justice of C. He/She is also entitled to free
Members of the State Legislature do not
India? highest-class travel anywhere in India,
participate in the election of the Vice
SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Afternoon) accompanied by one person, by rail, air,
President.
(a) Vice - President or steamer.
(b) President SSC CGL Tier II (02/03/2023) Q.343. The system based on individual
(c) Supreme Court Judge (a) A and B only (b) B and C only leadership is a __________ system.
(d) Prime Minister (c) A and C only (d) A, B and C SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
@ebookstore01
(a) semi-parliamentary (b) parliamentary

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 Pinnacle Polity
(c) presidential (d)semi-presidential ministers. thirty-five years, and be qualified for
(b) He presides over the meetings of the election as a member of the Council of
Sol.343.(c) Presidential. A presidential Council of Ministers. States.
system is one in which the head of state (c) When he resigns or dies, it has no
is also the head of government, and the effect in the functioning of the council Q.350. Who among the following was the
executive branch is independent of the of ministers. third Vice - President of India?
legislative branch. Parliamentary system (d) The Governor appoints ministers on SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Morning)
is a form of government where His recommendations. (a) BD Jatti (b) Zakir Hussain
executives hold the power with the (c) Gopal Swarup Pathak (d) V. V. Giri
majority support of the legislature. A Sol.346.(c) The Governor appoints the
semi-presidential system is a republican Chief Minister and other Ministers Sol.350.(d) V. V. Giri. Vice Presidents of
system of governance that combines (Article 164). The Chief Minister is the India - 1st Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, 2nd-
elements of presidential democracy with head of the State Council of Ministers Zakir Hussain, 4th Gopal Swarup Pathak,
parliamentary democracy. and the real executive head of state 5th B D Jatti. 14th- Jagdeep Dhankhan.
government. Article 167 (Chief Minister Q.351. The election of the next
Q.344. Which is NOT correct about the acts as a link between Governor and
President of India? Vice-President is to be held within _____
state council of ministers). of the expiry of the term of office of the
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning)
(a) The President holds office for a Q.347. Who among the following is NOT outgoing Vice-President.
period of five years. appointed by the President of India? SSC CHSL 02/06/2022 (Afternoon)
(b) He is a part of the Parliament. Graduate Level 05/08/2022 (Shift - 3) (a) 90 days (b) 60 days
(c) Every bill passed by the Parliament (a) Ambassadors and High Commissioners (c) 120 days (d) 75 days
goes to the President for his assent (b) Comptroller and Auditor General of Sol.351.(b) 60 days. Article 66 of the
before it becomes a law. India Constitution of India states the manner
(d) He has veto power by which he can (c) Attorney General of India of election of the vice president.
withhold or refuse to give assent to (d) Solicitor General of India
Bills including Money Bill passed by the Q.352. Who among the following is the
Parliament. Sol.347.(d) Solicitor General of India 'Visitor' to all central universities of India?
(the second - highest law officer of the SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Evening)
Sol.344.(d) The President of India country) is appointed by the (a) President of India
(Articles 52-62) is the first citizen of Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (b) Chairman, University Grants
India. He is the head of state of the (ACC). Attorney Generals of India (Article Commission
Republic of India. He is the formal head 76). Comptroller and Auditor General of (c) Union Minister of Human Resources
of the executive, legislature and judiciary India (Article 148). Development
of India and is also the commander -in
Q.348. According to the Constitution of (d) Vice - President of India
-chief of the Indian Armed Forces.
Rajendra Prasad, the first president of India, the executive power of the state Sol.352.(a) President of India is the
India, is the only person to have held shall be vested in the______. 'Visitor' to all central universities of India.
office for two terms. SSC MTS 25/07/2022 (Afternoon) According to Article 52 of the
(a) President of India Constitution of India, the President is the
Q.345. The emoluments and allowances
(b) Governor of the state head of state of the Republic of India.
of the President and other expenditure
(c) Chief Minister of the state
relating to his office is charged on the Q.353. Who among the following
(d) Advocate-General of the state
______ of India. replaced Morarji Desai as the Prime
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) Sol.348.(b) Governor of the state. Minister of India in 1979?
(a) contingency fund According to Article 154 of the Indian SSC CGL 13/08/2021 (Morning)
(b) estimates fund Constitution, the executive power of the (a) Chandrasekhar (b) Devi Lal
(c) consolidated fund State shall be vested in the Governor and (c) Jagjivan Ram (d) Charan Singh
(d) public accounts fund shall be exercised by him either directly
or through officers subordinate to him. Sol.353.(d) Charan Singh replaced
Sol.345.(c) Consolidated Funds - Article
Similarly According to Article 53, the Morarji Desai as the Prime Minister of
266(1). Three types of funds of the
executive power of the Union shall be India in 1979. Morarji Desai was the 4th
Central Government – Consolidated Fund
vested in the President. Prime Minister of India and served
of India - Revenues received by the
between 1977 and 1979. He was India's
government and expenses made by it, Q.349. A candidate seeking election as first non-Congress PM Charan Singh was
excluding the exceptional items. Vice-President is required to make a further replaced by Indira Gandhi.
Contingency Fund of India (Article 267) - security deposit of _____.
the emergency fund for the nation and SSC CHSL 31/05/2022 (Morning) Q.354. Which Indian president used the
Public Accounts of India (Article 266(2) - (a) ₹25,000 (b) ₹20,000 pocket veto for the Indian Post Office
those funds that are received on behalf (c) ₹30,000 (d) ₹15,000 (Amendment) Bill, 1986?
of the Government of India. SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Evening)
Sol.349.(d) ₹15,000. The post of (a) APJ Abdul Kalam
Q.346. Which is NOT correct about the Vice-President (Article 63 to Article 71; (b) KR Narayanan
powers of the Chief Minister? Part V) is the ex-officio chairman of the (c) Giani Zail Singh
Graduate Level 04/08/2022 (Shift - 2) Rajya Sabha.@ebookstore01
He should be a citizen of (d) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(a) He allocates portfolios among India, have completed the age of
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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.354.(c) Giani Zail Singh used the delivered on 24 April 1973. The case was Act (1861) established High Courts of
pocket veto for the Indian Post Office filed by Sri Kesavananda Bharati (head of Calcutta, Madras and Bombay. The first
(Amendment) Bill, 1986. In Pocket veto, a Hindu religious mutt in Kerala), high court of India was established in
the bill is kept pending by the President challenging the constitutional validity of Kolkata and formally it was called the
for an indefinite period. He neither rejects the 24th, 25th and 29th Amendments to High Court of Judicature at Fort William.
the bill nor returns the bill for the Indian Constitution. Romesh Thappar India has 25 High Courts (now). Article
reconsideration. vs State of Madras: Freedom of speech 214 - High Court for each State. Article
and expression includes Freedom of 226 - Power of high court to issue certain
Judiciary press. AK Gopalan vs State of Madras - writs. Article 216 - Constitution of High
Deals with the constitutionality of Court.
Q.355. Disputes between two or more preventive detention. Sajjan Singh vs
State of Rajasthan - Involved a challenge Q.361. Which of the following
states come under the _______ of the
to the validity of the Constitution (26th statements are true regarding the Family
Supreme Court.
Amendment) Act. Courts (Amendment) Bill, 2022?
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Morning)
Graduate Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 4)
(a) original jurisdiction
Q.358. The State of Kerala Vs Leesamma 1. The Family Courts (Amendment) Bill
(b) advisory jurisdiction
Joseph case deals with __________. was introduced in Lok Sabha on 18
(c) Appellate Jurisdiction
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (2nd shift) July 2022.
(d) writ jurisdiction
(a) dowry 2. The Bill amends the Family Courts Act,
Sol.355.(a) Original jurisdiction - The (b) the economic weaker section 1984.
power to hear and determine a dispute in (c) education 3. The Act allows state governments to
the first instance. It is provided under (d) persons with disabilities establish Family Courts.
Article 131 of the Indian Constitution. 4. The Act is not applicable in Punjab and
Sol.358.(d) persons with disabilities.
Article 143 of the Indian Constitution Tamil Nadu.
This case was related to Article 16 (equal
confers upon the Supreme Court (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
opportunity in the workplace). The SC
advisory jurisdiction. Article 133 - (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
held that persons with physical
Appellate jurisdiction of Supreme Court
disabilities have the right to reservation Sol.361.(a) 1, 2 and 3. Family Courts
in appeals from High Courts in regard to
in promotions. Other Important Cases - (Amendment) Bill 2022 seeks to amend
civil matters.
Kesavananda Bharati case: The Supreme the Family Courts Act, 1984 to establish
Q.356. By which of the following writs Court gave the doctrine of the ‘Basic family courts in Himachal Pradesh and
the Supreme Court and the High Courts Structure’ of the constitution. Shayara Nagaland. Family Court Act, 1984 -
may call for the record of a case from a Bano vs Union of India: The Supreme Enacted for the establishment of Family
lower court on an allegation of an excess Court struck down the practice of triple Courts with a view to promote
of jurisdiction ? talaq and declared it unconstitutional. conciliation, and secure speedy
SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Afternoon) settlement of disputes relating to
Q.359. The Supreme Court of India came
(a) Certiorari (b) Prohibition marriage and family affairs and for
into existence on ___________ .
(c) Mandamus (d) Habeas Corpus related matters. Appointment of Judges -
SSC CGL 24/07/2023 (2nd shift)
The State Government may, with the
Sol.356.(a) Certiorari. Writs in India: (a) 30 January 1935 (b) 26 January 1950
concurrence of the High Court, appoint
Habeas Corpus - To produce a person (c) 15 August 1947 (d) 2 October 1952
one or more persons to be the Judge or
before the court to determine whether Judges of a Family Court.
Sol.359.(b) 26 January 1950. 50th Chief
their detention is lawful. Mandamus - To
Justice of India: Dhananjaya Y.
direct a public official or authority to Q.362. The High court of Delhi was
Chandrachud. On January 28, 1950, two
perform a public duty. Prohibition - To established in _______.
days after India became a Sovereign
prohibit a public official or authority from SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Evening)
Democratic Republic, the Supreme Court
doing something that they are not (a) 1962 (b) 1947 (c) 1951 (d) 1966
was inaugurated in the Chamber of
allowed to do. Quo Warranto - To
Princes in the Parliament building. The Sol.362.(d) 1966. The High Court of
challenge the right of a person to hold a
foundation stone of the Supreme Court's Delhi was established with four Judges.
public office.
building was laid on 29 October 1954 by They were Chief Justice K.S.Hegde,
Q.357. In which of the following cases Rajendra Prasad, the first President of Justice I.D. Dua, Justice H.R.Khanna and
the Supreme Court, while laying out the India. The proceedings of the Supreme Justice S.K.Kapur. Presently, the
'basic structure' of the Constitution held Court are conducted in English language sanctioned strength of Judges of the
that the democratic character of the only. A person who has been a Judge of High Court of Delhi is 45 permanent
polity was an essential component of the the Supreme Court is debarred from Judges and 15 Additional Judges. Chief
'basic structure" ? practising in any court of law or before Justice of Delhi High court (As of June
SSC CPO 04/10/2023 (Morning) any other authority in India. 2023) - Satish Chandra Sharma. Before
(a) Romesh Thappar vs State of Madras Q.360. Till which year did the High Court 1966 under the States Reorganisation
(b) AK Gopalan vs State of Madras of Delhi continue to exercise jurisdiction Act, 1956 Delhi was under the jurisdiction
(c) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of over Himachal Pradesh? of the Punjab High Court.
Kerala SSC CGL 27/07/2023 (2nd shift) Q.363. In the Indian Judicial system, PIL
(d) Sajjan Singh vs State of Rajasthan (a) 1969 (b) 1967 (c) 1971 (d) 1968 stands for ___________.
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Sol.357.(c) This judgement was Sol.360.(c) 1971. The Indian High Courts SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Evening)

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 Pinnacle Polity
(a) Public Interest Litigation (Article 32) and HIgh Court (226). of contempt of court.
(b) Periodic Individual Litigation (b) The judges are financially dependent
(c) Private Interest Licence Q.367. A judge of the Supreme Court can on both the executive and legislature
(d) Periodic Interest Litigation be removed only on the grounds of ______ for their salaries and allowances.
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (1st Shift) (c) The Constitution prescribes a very
Sol.363.(a) Public Interest Litigation. It (a) disrespect of the Constitution difficult procedure for removal of
refers to litigation undertaken to secure (b) proven misbehaviour or incapacity judges.
public interest and demonstrates the (c) murder charges (d) The legislature is not involved in the
availability of justice to socially - (d) lack of knowledge process of appointment of judges.
disadvantaged parties and was
introduced by Justice P. N. Bhagwati. It is Sol.367.(b) Proven misbehaviour or Sol.370.(b) Judges salaries and
a relaxation of the traditional rule of incapacity. Article 124 - There shall be a allowances are fixed and not subject to
locus standi. Supreme Court of India. Article 143 - legislative approval. Supreme Court
Power of the President to consult the Judges {The Salaries, Pension and
Q.364. The first High Court in India was Supreme Court. Allowances are charged upon the
established in ______________ . Consolidated Fund of India (Article 266
SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Morning) Q.368. Which of the following
jurisdictions of the Supreme Court allows (1)}, High Court Judges {Salaries and
(a) 1860 (b) 1862 (c) 1867 (d) 1857 Allowances are charged upon the
it to settle disputes between the centre
Sol.364.(b) 1862. Calcutta High Court: It and state and amongst states? Consolidated Fund of the States and the
was brought into existence under the SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (4th Shift) Pension is charged on the Consolidated
High Court's Act (1861). Location - (a) Appellate (b) Advisory Fund of India} .
Esplanade Row West (Kolkata). (c) Writ (d) Original Q.371. The Indian judicial system is
Jurisdiction - West Bengal and the based on:
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Bombay Sol.368.(d) Original. The Supreme Court
(Articles 124 to 147, Part V) has Original SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
High Court {(14 August 1862) (Indian (a) both integrated and dual system
High Courts Act 1861)}, Madras High (Article 131), Appellate (Article 133-136),
and Advisory (Article 143) jurisdiction. (b) dual court system
Court {(15 August 1862, Indian High (c) multiple court system
Courts Act 1861}. Under Original Jurisdiction, SC can hear
the following cases: Any dispute (d) single integrated system
Q.365. In which of the following cases between the Indian Government and one Sol.371.(d) single integrated system.
did the Supreme Court of India or more States, Any dispute between the The judiciary is the watchdog of
pronounce the theory of the ‘Basic Indian Government and one or more democracy, and also the guardian of the
Structure’ of the Constitution? States on one side and one or more Constitution. Structure of Indian
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (4th Shift) States on the other side, Any dispute Judiciary {Supreme Court at the top, High
(a) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973 between two or more States. Courts are below the SC, and below them
(b) Golaknath Case, 1967
Q.369. A Supreme Court or High Court are the district and subordinate courts}.
(c) Minerva Mills Case, 1980
judge can be removed by the Parliament Supreme Court {Articles (124 - 147),
(d) Swarn Singh Case, 1989
by: Chapter IV, Part V}, High Courts {Articles
Sol.365.(a) Kesavananda Bharati Case, SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Afternoon) (214 - 231), Chapter V, part VI},
1973 - Parliament can not amend or alter (a) simple majority Subordinate courts {Articles (233 - 237),
the ‘Basic Structure’ of the constitution. (b) both simple and two third majority Chapter VI, Part VI}.
Golaknath Case, 1967 - Parliament (c) special majority Q.372. Who among the following is NOT
cannot take away or abridge any of the (d) two third majority a part of the Union Executive?
Fundamental Rights. Minerva Mills Case,
Sol.369.(c) Special majority. Special SSC CHSL 25/05/2022 (Afternoon)
1980 - Parliament can amend any part of
majority as per Article 249 requires a (a) The Prime Minister of India
the Constitution but it cannot change the
majority of 2/3rd members present and (b) The President of India
“Basic Structure” of the Constitution.
voting. For example, if out of the 245 (c) The Supreme Court of India
Swarn Singh Case, 1998 - In this case,
members in Rajya Sabha, only 150 are (d) The council of ministers
the SC held the UP Governor's pardon of
a convict unconstitutional. present and voting, then the special Sol.372.(c) Supreme Court of India is the
majority required as per Article 249 highest constitutional court, and has the
Q.366. What is the structure of the Indian would be 101. Simple majority refers to a power of judicial review. It was
judiciary? majority of more than 50% of the established on 26 January 1950.
SSC CGL 08/12/2022 (4th Shift) members present and voting in the H.J.Kania was the first chief justice of
(a) One-tier (b) Two-tier House. Majorities in the Constitution can the Supreme Court. Article 124:
(c) Three-tier (d) Five-tier be categorised into four Types : Establishment and Constitution of
Absolute, Effective, Simple and Special. Supreme Court.
Sol.366.(c) Three-tier. The structure of
the judiciary - Supreme Court (Article Q.370. Which is NOT correct about the
124) at the top, High Courts (Article 214) independence of the judiciary in our Government Bodies
below them and session’s courts at the country?
lowest level. Article 141 (Law declared by SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon) Q.373. What is the maximum age for a
Supreme Court to be binding on all (a) The judiciary has the power to member of a joint public service
@ebookstore01
courts). Writs issued by Supreme Court penalise those who are found guilty commission to hold his/her office as per
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 Pinnacle Polity
the Constitution of India ? Q.376. Which of the following is established in 1950. Part XV Election
SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Evening) responsible for attending to disputes Commission (324 - 329): Article 326 -
(a) 62 years (b) 66 years concerning recruitment and conditions of Elections to the House of the People and
(c) 65 years (d) 60 years service of public personnel at the Centre? to the Legislative Assemblies of States
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) to be on the basis of adult suffrage.
Sol.373.(a) 62 years. Joint State Public (a) Central Administrative Tribunal
Service Commission (JSPSC) - It can be (b) The Settlement and Appellate Q.380. Which of the following is NOT a
created by an act of Parliament at the Tribunal constitutional body?
request of the state legislatures (c) The Competition Appellate Tribunal SSC MTS 14/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
concerned. It is a statutory body. Its (d) Joint Administrative Tribunal (a) Election Commission
chairman is appointed by the President. (b) Finance Commission
A member of a Public Service Sol.376.(a) Central Administrative (c) Union Public Service Commission
Commission shall hold office for a term Tribunal (CAT) - It is a Statutory body, (d) NITI Aayog
of six years. In the case of the Union established under Administrative
Commission, his or her minimum age is Tribunals Act, 1985. It comes under the Sol.380.(d) NITI Aayog (National
65 years to attain the office. purview of Article 323-A (Added by 42nd Institution for Transforming India) is a
amendment act 1976). Its chairman and Premier policy ‘Think tank’ of the
Q.374. Who was the first chairman of members are appointed by the President Government of India. It was established
Finance Commission of India? after consulting the Chief justice of India. on January 1, 2015, to replace the
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) Planning Commission. Aims - Promote
(a) K Santhanam Q.377. Which of the following is a duty of cooperative federalism by facilitating
(b) KC Neogy the Attorney General of India? collaboration and constructive
(c) Ashok Kumar Chanda SSC MTS 01/09/2023 (3rd Shift) engagement between the central
(d) PV Rajamannar (a) To give advice to the Government of government and state governments.
India on legal matters Finance Commission - Established (22
Sol.374.(b) KC Neogy. The Finance (b) To act as a judge in the Supreme November 1951). Union Public Service
Commission of India is an independent Court Commission (UPSC) - Established (1
constitutional body that is set up by the (c) To advise the State Government October 1926). Election Commission -
President of India after every five years (d) To represent India in international Established (25 January 1950).
or earlier to make recommendations on bodies
the distribution of financial resources Q.381. In India, which Ministry issues the
between the Union and the states. The Sol.377.(a) Attorney General (AG) of coins of all denominations?
recommendations of FCs are advisory in India (Article-76) - He is a part of the SSC CHSL 11/08/2023 (1st shift)
nature and not binding on the Union Union Executive and the highest law (a) Ministry of External Affairs
government. Article 280 - Finance officer of the country. Appointed by the (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
Commission. Chairman of 16th Finance President on the advice of the (c) Ministry of Mines
Commission of India - Arvind Panagariya. government. Term of Office - Not fixed by (d) Ministry Of Finance
the constitution. They can take part in
Q.375. Under which of the following Acts the proceedings of both houses of Sol.381.(d) Ministry of Finance. The
was the National Commission for parliament without voting rights. Government of India has the sole right to
Women established? mint coins. The responsibility for coinage
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Morning) Q.378. Who appoints the State Election vests with the Government of India in
(a) The National Commission for Women Commissioner ? accordance with the Coinage Act, 1906
Act, 1988 SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (1st Shift) as amended from time to time. The
(b) The National Commission for Women (a) Governor (b) Speaker designing and minting of coins in various
Act, 1990 (c) Chief Minister (d) Advocate General denominations is also the responsibility
(c) The National Commission for Women of the Government of India. Coins are
Act, 1989 Sol.378.(a) Governor. The State Election minted at the four Indian Government
(d) The National Commission for Women Commissioner (SEC) is appointed by the Mints at Mumbai, Alipore(Kolkata),
Act, 1987 Governor on the recommendation of a Saifabad (Hyderabad), Cherlapally
collegium, comprising the Chief Minister, (Hyderabad) and Noida (UP). It is issued
Sol.375.(b) The National Commission for the Speaker of the State Legislative for circulation only through the Reserve
Women is a statutory body set up in Assembly and the Leader of Opposition Bank in terms of the RBI Act.
January 1992 under the National in the Legislative Assembly. Power of
Commission for Women Act, 1990 to SEC - To conduct free, fair and impartial Q.382. Who is the Administrative Head of
review the constitutional and legal elections to the local bodies in the state. the Indian Audit and Accounts
safeguards for women; recommend Department ?
remedial legislative measures; facilitate Q.379. Who conducts elections for both SSC CGL 14/07/2023 (1st shift)
redressal of grievances and advise the the houses of Parliament in India? (a) Accountant General
Government on all policy matters SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (b) Principal Accountant General
affecting women. The First Commission (a) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs (c) Director General
was constituted on 31st January 1992 (b) Election Commission (d) The Comptroller and Auditor General
with Mrs. Jayanti Patnaik as the (c) President
(d) Prime Minister Sol.382.(d) The Comptroller and Auditor
Chairperson.
@ebookstore01 General (CAG). Article 148 - There shall
Sol.379.(b) Election Commission -
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 Pinnacle Polity
be a Comptroller and Auditor General of the SPSC shall hold office for a term of (adopted on 1 January 1990) turned the
India who shall be appointed by the six years or till the age of 62 years, commission into a 3-member
President and shall only be removed whichever is earlier. Commission. The ECI body administers
from office in like manner and on like elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha,
grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Q.385. Which of the following State Legislative Assemblies, State
Court. CAG audits all receipts and statements is/are correct regarding the Legislative Councils and the offices of
expenditure of the Government of India Finance Commission of India? the President and the Vice President of
and the State Governments, including A. The Finance Commission consists of the country.
those of autonomous bodies and a Chairman and four other members.
corporations substantially financed by B. The recommendations made by the Q.388. The Gram Sabha is a meeting of
the Government. Term - 6 years or up to Finance Commission are binding on the all adults who live in the area covered by
65 years of age (whichever is earlier). government and government needs to a___________.
grant funds according to the advice of SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon)
Q.383. Which of the following the Commission. (a) district (b) city
statements are correct regarding the C. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution (c) state (d) panchayat
Union Public Service Commission? talks about the recommendations of the
Sol.388.(d) Panchayat. The term Gram
A. The Parliament has the power to make Finance Commission.
Sabha is defined in the Constitution of
regulations as to conditions of service of SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (4th shift)
India under Article 243(b). Gram Sabha is
the Chairman, members and staff of the (a) A and B only (b) A, B and C
the primary body of the Panchayati Raj
commission. (c) A only (d) B and C only
system and by far the largest. It is a
B. The Government of India Act, 1935,
Sol.385.(c) A only. Finance Commission permanent body. The power to annul a
envisaged a Public Service Commission
(FC) is a constitutional body under decision of the Gram Sabha rests with
for the Federation and a Provincial Public
Article 280. It is set up after every five the Gram Sabha only. Related Articles -
Service Commission for each Province or
years or earlier to make 243A - Constitution of Gram Sabha.
group of Provinces.
C. The Federal Public Service recommendations on the distribution of
Q.389. The Bureau of Indian Standard is
Commission came to be known as the financial resources between the Union
a statutory body working under the aegis
Union Public Service Commission by and the states. The recommendations of
of which union ministry?
virtue of Clause (1) of Article 378 of the FCs are advisory in nature and not
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (4th Shift)
Constitution in 1950. binding on the Union government. The
(a) Ministry of Commerce and Industry
SSC CGL 18/07/2023 (1st shift) Union government notifies the
(b) Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium
(a) A and B only (b) A, B and C acceptance of the recommendations
Enterprises
(c) B and C only (d) A and C only through a Presidential Order, which also
(c) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
specifies the period for which they are
(d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food
Sol.383.(c) B and C only. The President valid (usually five years) and also tables
and Public Distribution
has the power to make regulations as to an explanatory memorandum in
conditions of service of the Chairman, Parliament. Sol.389.(d) The Ministry of Consumer
members and staff of the commission. Affairs, Food and Public Distribution. It
Union public service commission (UPSC) Q.386. Which of the following is NOT a operates various schemes like Product
: Established on - 1 October 1926. Constitutional Body in India? Certification (ISI mark), Management
Articles 315 to 323 (Part XIV) - Provides Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2) Systems Certification, Hallmarking of
for the establishment of a Public Service (a) Election Commission of India Gold and Silver Jewellery/Artefacts and
Commission for the Union and a Public (b) State Human Rights Commission Laboratory Services. Bureau of Indian
Service Commission for each State. (c) State Public Service Commission Standards (BIS), earlier known as the
Work - Recruiting civil servants. The first (d) Union Public Service Commission of Indian Standards Institution (ISI), was
chairman of UPSC in independent India India founded in 1947. The BIS Act 2016,
was H. K. Kripalani. Sol.386.(b) State Human Rights established the BIS as the National
Commission - It is a Statutory body, Standards Body of India. BIS recently
Q.384. The Chairman of a State Public celebrated its 75th anniversary.
Service Commission can be removed by established under protection of human
the order of the __________ . right act 1993. The Chairman and the Q.390. Which of the following is NOT one
SSC CGL 20/07/2023 (3rd shift) members of the State Commission are of the objectives of the NITI Aayog?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President appointed by the Governor. Tenure - SSC CHSL 13/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(c) Governor (d) Chief Minister Three years or till they reach the age of (a) To develop mechanisms to formulate
70 years. credible plans at the village level
Sol.384.(b) President. Provisions Q.387. In which year did the Election (b) To design and print new currency
regarding the composition of SPSC Commission of India for the first time in notes and to bring them in circulation
provided in Part XIV of the Article 315 - its history become a multi member body? (c) To pay special attention to the
323. Article 317: Removal and Matric Level 28/06/2023 (Shift - 4) sections of our society that may be at
suspension of a member of both the (a) 2004 (b) 2014 (c) 1995 (d) 1989 risk of not benefiting adequately from
UPSC or SPSC. Article 316 (Appointment economic progress.
and terms of office of Members) : The Sol.387.(d) 1989. The Election
Commission of India (ECI) is a (d) To evolve a shared vision of national
Chairman and other members of the development priorities
SPSC are appointed by the Governor of constitutional body. The Election
@ebookstore01
the State. Term of Office: A member of Commissioner Amendment Act, 1989 Sol.390.(b) NITI Aayog: National
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 Pinnacle Polity
Institution for Transforming India, Commission for Protection of Child (a) 1979 (b) 1980 (c) 1978 (d) 1989
Established: 1 January 2015, Chairman: Rights (NCPCR) is an Indian statutory
Prime Minister of India, First Chairman: body established by an Act of Sol.398.(c) 1978. The origin of BAMCEF
Narendra Modi, First CEO (Chief Parliament, the Commission for lies in the organisation for employees of
Executive Officer): Sindhushree Khullar, Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, oppressed communities that was
First Vice - Chairperson: Arvind 2005. The Commission works under the established in 1971 by Kanshi Ram, D. K.
Panagariya. aegis of Ministry of Women and Child Khaparde and Dinabhai.
Development, GoI. Q.399. The election to constitute a
Q.391. The Comptroller and Auditor
General Q.395. What is the tenure of the Panchayat should be completed before
SSC CGL 02/12/2022 (1st Shift) Chairperson of National Human Rights the expiration of a period of ______ from
(a) two - member body Commission? the date of its dissolution.
(b) three - member body Graduate Level 03/08/2022 (Shift - 3) SSC CHSL 14/10/2020 (Evening)
(c) single - member body (a) Three Years (b) Five Years (a) eight months (b) one year
(d) six - member body (c) Six Years (d) Four Years (c) six months (d) two months

Sol.391.(c) single-member body. Article Sol.395.(a) Three years (or until they Sol.399.(c) six months. According to
148 broadly deals with the CAG attain the age of 70 years). National Article 243E (3), the election to
appointment, oath and conditions of Human Rights Commission: Statutory constitute a Panchayat should be
service. He is the head of the Indian audit body, Founded: 12 October, 1993, completed before the expiration of a
& account department and chief Composition: chairperson, five full-time period of six months from the date of its
Guardian of Public purse. He is not a Members and seven deemed Members, dissolution.
member of the parliament. Appointed by the President, Five
Specialized Divisions: Law Division, Polity of neighbouring
Q.392. The elections to the Panchayati Investigation Division, Policy Research & countries
Raj institutions are conducted by the Programmes Division, Training Division
________. and Administration Division.
Q.400. What is the official language of
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (3rd Shift)
Q.396. In which year was the National Bangladesh, a neighbouring country of
(a) Central election commission
Commission for Women established in India ?
(b) State government
India ? SSC MTS 12/05/2023 (Evening)
(c) State election commission
Higher Secondary 02/08/2022 (Shift - 2) (a) Bengali (b) Urdu
(d) Central government
(a) 1992 (b) 1994 (c) 1993 (d) 1991 (c) Dzongkha (d) Hindi
Sol.392.(c) State election commission
Sol.396.(a) 1992. Other Commissions - Sol.400.(a) Bengali. Bangladesh: Capital
functions - Conducting elections to the
The National Commission for Scheduled - Dhaka. Currency - Bangladeshi Taka
Panchayati Raj institutions, Preparation
Castes (2004). National Commission for Other Nation’s Official Languages: Urdu
of Electoral Rolls, Appointment of Dates
Scheduled Tribes (2004), National (Pakistan), Dzongkha (Bhutan), Hindi
for Nominations, Fixing Time for Poll,
Commission for Minorities (1993), (India), Tamil (Sri Lanka), Mandarin
Counting of Votes, etc.
National Commission for Backward (China), Burmese (Myanmar), Dari and
Q.393. The State Finance Commission is Classes (1993). Pashto (Afghanistan), Nepali (Nepal) and
appointed every_____ years by the_______ Dhivehi (Maldives).
SSC CGL 09/12/2022 (4th Shift) Q.397. What is the tenure of the Election
Commissioner of India? Q.401. Sri Lanka got independence in the
(a) 5, state government
Higher Secondary 05/08/2022 (Shift - 2) year:
(b) 5, central government
(a) Five Years (b) Four Years Higher Secondary 04/08/2022 ( Shift - 3 )
(c) 2.5, state government
(c) Six Years (d) Three Years (a) 1948 (b) 1950 (c) 1947 (d) 1949
(d) 2.5, central government

Sol.397.(c) Six Years. Article 324 - The Sol.401.(a) 1948. Sri Lanka got
Sol.393.(a) 5, state government.
Election Commission shall consist of a independence on February 4, 1948.
According to Article 243 (I), the Governor
Chief election commissioner and other National animal of Sri Lanka - Elephant,
of a State shall establish a State Finance
two election commissioners. The tenure National flower - Blue Water Lily, The
Commission (constitutional body) every
of the Election Commissioner is six years national sport - Volleyball. Myanmar (4
5 years (73rd Amendment Act 1992). It
or up to the age of 65 years whichever is January, 1948). Bangladesh (26 March
distributes state resources to Panchayati
earlier. The Constitution does not 1971).
Raj institutions at all three levels in the
form of taxes, duties, and levies to be prescribe terms for members of the
Q.402. To which neighbouring country
collected by the state and local election commission. It cannot be
was the Indian Peace Keeping Force
governments. removed from his office except in the like
(IPKF) sent in the year 1987?
manner and grounds as a judge of the
SSC CGL 17/08/2021 (Evening)
Q.394. In which year was the National supreme court.
(a) Nepal (b) Sri Lanka
Commission for Protection of Child
Q.398. When was the Backward and (c) Bhutan (d) Burma
Rights established?
SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) Minority Communities Employees
Sol.402.(b) Sri Lanka. It was formed
(a) 2014 (b) 2007 (c) 2005 (d) 2010 Federation (BAMCEF) established in
under the mandate of the 1987 Indo-Sri
India ?
Sol.394.(b) 2007. The National @ebookstore01 Lankan Accord that aimed to end the Sri
SSC CHSL 13/10/2020 (Afternoon)
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 Pinnacle Polity
Lankan Civil War between Sri Lankan 2) The Supreme Court can give special Q.408. Certain provisions of the Benami
Tamil militant groups such as the orders in the form of writs. Transactions (Prohibition) Act were
Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam (LTTE) 3) Article 129 of the Indian Constitution struck off by the Supreme Court. In
and the Sri Lankan military. mentions the appointment of acting which year was this law originally
Chief Justice of India. enacted?
Q.403. In which year was a new 4) Every Judge of the Supreme Court of SSC Stenographer 12/10/2023 (Evening)
Constitution adopted in Sri Lanka India shall be appointed by the Prime (a) 1998 (b) 1980 (c) 1999 (d) 1988
creating the 'Democratic The Socialist Minister of India.
Republic of Sri Lanka'? SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 Sol.408.(d) 1988. Benami Transactions
SSC CHSL 15/04/2021 (Evening) (a) 3 and 2 (b) 2 and 1 (Prohibition) Act (Name changed to
(a) 1978 (b) 1965 (c) 1982 (d) 1980 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 Prohibition of Benami Property
Transactions Act, 1988 by Section 3 of
Sol.403.(a) 1978. The Constitution of the Sol.406.(c) 3 and 4. Article 131 : Original the 2016 amendment) - It is an Act to
Democratic Socialist Republic of Sri jurisdiction of the Supreme Court - Deals prohibit benami transactions and the
Lanka has been the constitution of the with any dispute between Centre and right to recover property held benami and
island nation of Sri Lanka since its states, and between two or more States. for matters connected therewith or
original promulgation by the National Article 32 - Writ Jurisdiction of the incidental.
State Assembly on 7 September 1978. Supreme Court. Article 129 - The
Supreme Court shall be a court of record Q.409. Which of the following was
Q.404. In which year did Nepal adopt its enacted in 1860 in British India?
first democratic constitution? and shall have all the powers of such a
court including the power to punish for SSC Stenographer 13/10/2023 (Morning)
SSC CHSL 11/8/2021 (Evening) (a) The Permanent Settlement of Bengal
(a) 2010 (b) 2015 (c) 2013 (d) 2017 contempt of itself. Article 124 (2) - Every
Judge of the Supreme Court shall be (b) Hindu Widow’s Remarriage Act
Sol.404. (b) 2015. Nepal's first appointed by the President by warrant (c) Indian Penal Code
democratic constitution came into effect under his hand and seal. After (d) Indian Evidence Act
on Sept 20, 2015. The constitution of three-judge cases, a Collegium system Sol.409.(c) Indian Penal Code - The
Nepal is divided into 35 parts, 308 established consisting of the Chief official criminal code of India. It is a
Articles, and 9 Schedules. Justice of India and the four senior-most comprehensive code intended to cover
judges of the Supreme Court, decides on all substantive aspects of criminal law.
Miscellaneous appointments, elevations, and transfers The Permanent Settlement of Bengal
of Judges. was introduced by Governor-General Lord
Q.405. Which is NOT a Directive Principle Cornwallis in 1793. It was between the
Q.407. The ‘Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya
to be followed by the State for British East India Company and
Yojana’ (‘PM-JAY’) scheme of the
policy-making? Landlords of Bengal to fix the land
government is associated with which of
SSC CHSL Tier II 10/01/2024 revenue. Indian Evidence Act - This act
the following Directive Principles of State
(a) Tender age of children is not abused was passed by the British Parliament in
Policy ?
(b) Equal pay for equal work 1872. Hindu widow remarriage act - The
SSC CHSL Tier II 02/11/2023
(c) The operation of economic system act was passed by Lord Canning in 1856.
(a) Participation of workers in the
results for concentration of wealth
management of industries Q.410. Which of the following has been
(d) The ownership of material resources
(b) Promotion of co-operative societies INCORRECTLY listed as a condition for
of the community are for common
(c) Equal justice and free legal aid becoming a citizen of India?
good
(d) Duty of State to raise the level of SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon)
Sol.405.(c) The Directive Principle of nutrition and the improvement of (a) Citizenship by naturalisation
State Policy is mentioned in Part IV public health (b) Citizenship by descent
(Article 36-51) of the Constitution. It is (c) Citizenship through acquisition of
Sol.407.(d) Article 47 - Duty of the State
Borrowed from the Irish Constitution. property
to raise the level of nutrition and the
Article 39(c) - The operation of the (d) Citizenship by birth
improvement of public health. Part IV -
economic system does not result in the
Directive Principles of State Policy Sol.410.(c) There are five ways in which
concentration of wealth and means of
(Article 36 to 51): Article 38 - State to Indian citizenship can be acquired: birth,
production to the common detriment.
secure a social order for the promotion descent, registration and naturalisation,
Article 39(d) - Equal pay for equal work
of welfare of the people. Pradhan Mantri Incorporation of Territory. Fundamental
for both men and women. Article 39(b) -
Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)/Ayushman rights available only to the citizens:-
The ownership and control of the
Bharat: Largest health assurance Article 15, Article 16, Article 19, Article
material resources of the community are
scheme in the world which aims at 29, and Article 30. The Fundamental
so distributed as best to sub serve the
providing a health cover of Rs. 5 lakhs Rights guaranteed by Articles 14, 20, 21,
common good. Article 39 (e) - The tender
per family per year for secondary and 21A, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27 and 28 are
age of children are not abused.
tertiary care hospitalisation to over 12 available to all persons whether citizens
Q.406. Which of the following crores poor and vulnerable families. The or foreigners.
statements are INCORRECT? scheme was launched by the Prime
1) The Original Jurisdiction establishes Minister of India Shri Narendra Modi on Q.411. Who among the following
the Supreme Court as an umpire in all September 23, 2018 in Ranchi, founded an expatriate Communist Party
disputes regarding federal matters. Jharkhand. @ebookstore01 of India at Tashkent in 1920?

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 Pinnacle Polity
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Afternoon) (a) Liberal (b) Socialistic (c) Austin (d) AK Sen
(a) Jolly Kaul (b) M.N. Roy (c) Gandhian (d) Authoritative
(c) P.C. Joshi (d) Shripad Amrut Dange Sol.417.(a) AV Dicey. Rule of Law - It
Sol.414.(d) Authoritative. Part IV Article means all laws apply equally to all
Sol.411.(b) M.N. Roy (Father of Indian 36 - 51 Deals with Directive Principles of citizens of the country and no one can be
Communism). He was the first person to State Policy (DPSP). DPSP borrowed above the law. Three principles of Rule of
give the idea of a Constituent Assembly from the Constitution of Ireland. Article Law given by A.V. Dicey : Supremacy of
for India and the creator of the Mexican 44 - Uniform civil code for the citizens. law, Equality before law, Individual rights.
Communist Party. Communist Party of Article 40 - Organisation of village Chander Kishan Daphtary - First solicitor
India (CPI) - It is the oldest communist panchayats. Article 51 - Promotion of general of India (1950-63).
party in India. Founded - in modern-day international peace and security.
Kanpur on 26 December 1925. First Q.418. In which of the following years
Q.415. Consider the following statement was the Child Marriage Restraint Act
General Secretary - S.V. Ghate .
about the Government of India Act, 1935. passed?
Headquarters - Ajoy Bhavan (New Delhi).
1. This act was enacted by the British SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift)
Q.412. Which of the following Acts Parliament. (a) 1856 (b) 1947 (c) 1878 (d) 1929
prevents disrespect to the National Flag 2. This Act was divided into two separate
and National Anthem? acts for the India and Burma Sol.418.(d) 1929. Child Marriage (The
SSC CPO 03/10/2023 (Evening) Government. marriage of a girl or a boy before the age
(a) Prevention of insults to National 3. This act commenced from 1 April of 18 years). Prohibtion of Child
Honour Act, 1971 1935. Marriage Act (PCMA), 2006 :- It replaced
(b) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, Select the correct statement(s) using the the Child Marriage Restraints Act, 1929.
2006 code given below. The marriageable age to be 18 and 21 for
(c) Protection of National Honour Act, SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (3rd Shift) girls and boys respectively Other laws to
1996 (a) Both 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 protect the child :- Juvenile Justice (Care
(d) Civil Liberties Act, 2001 (c) Both 2 and 3 (d) Both 1 and 3 and Protection of Children) Act, 2015,
Domestic Violence Act, 2005 and the
Sol.412.(a) Prevention of Insults to Sol.415.(a) Both 1 and 2. The Protection of Children from Sexual
National Honour Act, 1971: Insults to Government of India Act 1935 Offences Act, 2012.
Indian National Flag and Constitution of (Commenced in 1937): It provided for the
India - Whoever in any public place or in establishment of an All India Federation Q.419. The National Social Assistance
any other place within public view burns, consisting of provinces and princely Programme (NSAP) is a welfare
mutilates, defaces, disfigures, destroys, states as units. It divided the powers programme being administered by which
tramples upon or into contempt the between the Centre and units in terms of Ministry of Government of India?
Indian National Flag or the Constitution three lists, Federal List, Provincial List SSC MTS 12/09/2023 (3rd Shift)
of India or any part thereof, shall be and Concurrent List. (a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
punished with imprisonment for a term (b) Ministry of Home Affairs
Q.416. Which of the following is NOT a (c) Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers
which may extend to three years, or with
Directive Principle based on the ideals of Welfare
fine, or with both.
Mahatma Gandhi ? (d) Ministry of Rural Development
Q.413. In the Interim Government formed SSC MTS 08/09/2023 (1st Shift)
on 2 September 1946, Liaquat Ali Khan (a) To promote industrialisation in urban Sol.419.(d) Ministry of Rural
was given the charge of: areas Development. NSAP represents a
SSC CPO 05/10/2023 (Afternoon) (b) To organise village Panchayats significant step towards the fulfilment of
(a) the External Affairs Ministry (c) To prohibit intoxicating drinks and the Directive Principles of State Policy in
(b) the Finance Ministry drugs that are injurious to health Article 41 of the Constitution. Program
(c) the Defence Ministry (d) To promote cottage industries in rural and schemes by Ministry of Rural
(d) the Home Ministry Areas Development:- Roshni: Skill Development
Scheme for Tribals (launched on 7 June
Sol.413.(b) The Finance Ministry. Interim Sol.416.(a) Directive Principles based on 2013), Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojna
Government (1946): Headed by Jawahar Gandhi's ideals are: Article 40 - (launched on 11 October 2014),
Lal Nehru. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel held Organization of village Panchayats. "Mahatma Gandhi National Rural
the Home Affairs, Information, and Article 43 - Fair wages and a decent Employment Guarantee Act" or
Broadcasting. Rajendra Prasad held the standard of life. Article 43B - Promotion MGNREGA (launched in 2006).
portfolio of Agriculture and Food. C of cooperatives. Article 46 - Promotion of
Rajagopalachari was the Education and educational and economic interests of Q.420. In which year was the Jammu and
Arts Minister. Jagjivan Ram held the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Kashmir Reorganisation Act passed?
Labour Ministry. Jogendra Nath Mandal other weaker sections. Article 47 - SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (1st Shift)
was the Law Minister. Nutrition, Standard of living and public (a) 2019 (b) 2009 (c) 2015 (d) 2017
health.
Q.414. The directive principles are largely Sol.420.(a) 2019. After coming into force
classified into three broad categories. Q.417. Who propounded the concept of the erstwhile State of Jammu and
Which of the following is NOT the part of 'Rule of Law'? Kashmir has been reorganised into Union
this classification? SSC MTS 11/09/2023 (2nd Shift) territory of Jammu and Kashmir and
SSC MTS 04/09/2023 (2nd Shift) (a) AV Dicey @ebookstore01
(b) CK Daphtary Union Territory of Ladakh on w.e.f 31st
October 2019. As per section 96 of the
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 Pinnacle Polity
Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, Union Constitution Committee - 1860 by James Wilson. R.K.
2019, the Central Government has Jawaharlal Nehru. Drafting committee - Shanmukham Chetty - The first Finance
powers to make adaptations and Dr. B R Ambedkar. Provincial Constitution Minister of independent India. The word
modifications of the laws. Article 370 - Committee - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. 'Budget' is not mentioned in the
Temporary provisions with respect to the Constitution.
State of Jammu and Kashmir. Q.424. As per the responsibilities defined
in National Food Security Act, 2013, Q.427. Which of the following
Q.421. Which of the following is NOT a which of the following is a responsibility statements are correct about Directive
feature of the Indian political party of the state/UT government? Principles of State Policy of the Indian
system? SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (4th shift) Constitution ?
SSC MTS 13/09/2023 (3rd Shift) (a) Transportation of foodgrains up to SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (4th shift)
(a) Lack of effective opposition designated depots in each state/UT A) They are negative in nature.
(b) Single party system (b) Allocation of required foodgrains to B) They have moral and political
(c) Multi-party system states/UTS sanctions.
(d) Factions and defections (c) Delivery of foodgrains from C) They promote the welfare of the rich.
designated FCI godowns D) They are positive in nature.
Sol.421.(b) Single party system : Form (d) Identification of eligible households (a) C and D (b) A and B
of government where the country is ruled (c) A and C (d) B and D
by a single political party, meaning only Sol.424.(d) Identification of eligible
one political party exists and the forming households. The National Food Security Sol.427.(d) B and D. Directive Principles
of other political parties is forbidden. Act (2013) - 75% of Rural and 50% of of State Policy (DPSP) : Under Article
Examples - North Korea, China, Eritrea, Urban population is entitled to receive 36-51 (Part IV). Borrowed from - Irish
and Cuba. Multi-party system - Many highly subsidised foodgrains under two Constitution. It is not enforceable by the
parties functioning in the political sphere. categories of beneficiaries – Antodaya law and non-justiciable.
Factions - An organised group of people Anna Yojana (AAY) households and
within a larger group, which opposes Priority Households (PHH). Public Q.428. Match list I with list II and choose
some of the ideas of the larger group. Distribution System (PDS) is governed by your answer from the code below.
Defections - Voluntarily giving up the provisions of the National Food Security List-I List-II
membership of a political party or Act, 2013 (NFSA). (a) Habeas Corpus (i) Enquiring into
disobeying the party leadership on a vote legality of claim
in the legislature. Q.425. As per the newly released (b) Mandamus (ii) To command
Surrogacy Rules 2022, surrogacy couples (c) Quo Warranto (iii) To have a body
Q.422. Who described the Indian federal must purchase health insurance of
system as a bargaining federalism? coverage for the surrogate mother for a (d) Certiorari (iv) To be certified
SSC CHSL 07/08/2023 (4th shift) period of______.
SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (3rd shift)
(a) KC Wheare (b) Ivor Jennings SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (1st shift)
(a) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (b) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
(c) Granville Austin (d) Morris Jones (a) three years (b) four years
(c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv (d) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(c) one year (d) six years
Sol.422.(d) Morris Jones. Federalism - A
Sol.428.(c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv. Writ - A
system of government in which powers Sol.425.(a) Three years (36 months).
command given by the court to a person
are divided between two or more levels Surrogacy (Regulation) Rules, 2022: The
or an authority or both to act or not to act
of government, such as the centre and number of attempts of any surrogacy
in a particular way. The Supreme court
the state or provinces. Described - “Quasi procedure on the surrogate mother shall
and High court to enforce fundamental
federalism” (KC Wheare). “Cooperative not be more than three times. Surrogacy
rights of the people in case of violation
federalism” (Granville Austin). (Regulation) Amendment Rules 2023 -
can issue writs under article 32 and
'Federalism with Centralising tendency' Andrologists involved in surrogacy
Article 226 respectively. 5 Types of Writs
(Ivor Jenning). Federalism concept procedures should have a minimum of 2
issued by the Supreme court - Habeas
borrowed from ‘Canada’. years of experience in a range of surgical
Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition,
sperm retrieval procedures. Surrogacy -
Q.423. ‘The Constitution of free India Certiorari, Quo-Warranto.
An arrangement in which a woman (the
must be framed, without outside
surrogate) agrees to carry and give birth Q.429. Which of the following will be
interference by a constituent assembly
to a child on behalf of an individual or considered as normal residents of India?
elected on the basis of adult franchise’.
couple (the intended parent/s). SSC CHSL 17/08/2023 (4th shift)
Who made this statement?
A) Indians working in foreign embassies
SSC CHSL 08/08/2023 (2nd shift) Q.426. In the central budget 2023-24, the in India
(a) MN Roy (b) Jawaharlal Nehru term 'Amrit Peedhi' refers to: B) Ambassador for India in rest of the
(c) Sardar Patel (d) Mahatma Gandhi SSC CHSL 10/08/2023 (3rd shift) world
Sol.423.(b) Jawaharlal Nehru - Made (a) youth power (a) Only A (b) Only B
this statement on behalf of the Indian (b) senior citizens (c) Both A and B (d) Neither A nor B
National Congress (INC) in 1938. The (c) super senior citizens
(d) children as the future of India Sol.429.(c) Both A and B. Normal
idea of Constituent Assembly for India
residents of India include Citizens (and
was first given by M.N.Roy in 1934.
Sol.426.(a) Youth power. Article - 112: institutions) of India, Citizens of other
Constituent Assembly : Formed in 1946.
Deals with Annual Financial Statements. countries (i.e. non-citizens) who normally
Role - Elected to write the Constitution of
First Union @ebookstore01
Budget of Colonial India - reside in India for more than a year and
India. Committees with their chairman :
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 Pinnacle Polity
whose centre of economic interest lies in Sol.432.(b) Citizenship : Part 2 (Articles {Assembly Seats (70), Lok Sabha seats
India, Citizens of India working in foreign 5 to 11) - Citizens are full members of the (7)}. The Assembly has all the powers
bodies like banks, enterprises operating State and owe allegiance to it and enjoy under the State and Concurrent Lists
in India. Not included in the category of all civil and political rights. Principles for with the exception of public order, police,
normal residents of India: Foreign granting citizenship: ‘Jus soli’ and land.
tourists and visitors, Foreign staff of (Citizenship on the basis of place of
Q.436. Offences for which the police can
Embassies, officials, diplomats and birth) and ‘Jus sanguinis’ (Recognition of
arrest a person without an order from the
members of the armed forces of a blood ties). India allows Single
court are called _________.
country. citizenship.
SSC MTS 02/05/2023 (Morning)
Q.430. The pensions payable to or in Q.433. The Taxation Laws (Amendment) (a) Cognizable offences
respect of the officers and servants of Act, 2021, amends the Income Tax Act of (b) Detention offences
the Supreme Court are charged ________. (c) Non Cognizable offences
upon_____ Higher Secondary 27/06/2023 (Shift - 3) (d) Cross offences
SSC CGL 17/07/2023 (1st shift) (a) 1961 (b) 1974 (c) 1995 (d) 1988
Sol.436.(a) Cognizable offenses - It
(a) Consolidated Fund of India
Sol.433.(a) 1961. Taxation Law includes murder, rape, theft, kidnapping,
(b) Reserve Bank of India
Amendment Act, 2021 - It aims to counterfeiting, etc. Detention - The act of
(c) Public Account of India
withdraw tax demands made using a temporarily holding individuals in
(d) Finance Commission of India
2012 retrospective legislation to tax the custody or confinement, typically by a
Sol.430.(a) Consolidated Fund of India. indirect transfer of Indian assets. Income government or governing authority by
Article 266: Provides for the consolidated Tax Act (1961) - It provides an elaborate removing their freedom or liberty at that
fund of India. Article 267: provides for mechanism for the levying of taxes, their time. Non-Cognizable offences - An
the contingency fund of India. Expenses administration, collection & recovery. It offence for which a Police officer has no
Charged on Consolidated Fund - Non - has 298 sections & 14 schedules. authority to arrest without warrant. These
Votable charges means there is no voting include offences like cheating, assault,
Q.434. The Constitution (One Hundred defamation etc.
with regards to withdrawal of these
and Twenty Seventh Amendment) Bill,
expenditures.
2021, was introduced in the Lok Sabha Q.437. “Mission Karmayogi" program is
Q.431. Justice Indu Malhotra penned a by the ______ in August 2021. for _____.
dissenting opinion in which of the Higher Secondary 28/06/2023 (Shift - 2) SSC MTS 03/05/2023 (Evening)
following landmark judgements? (a) Minister of Social Justice and (a) Doctors
SSC CGL 19/07/2023 (3rd shift) Empowerment (b) Women Entrepreneur
(a) Basic structure doctrine (b) Minister of Minority Affairs (c) Civil servants
(b) Preamble part of the Constitution (c) Minister of Tribal Affairs (d) Construction workers
(c) Entry of women to Sabarimala (d) Minister of Rural Development
Sol.437.(c) Civil servants. Mission
(d) Land reforms in India
Sol.434.(a) Minister of Social Justice Karmayogi: Launched by the Union
Sol.431.(c) Entry of women to and Empowerment - By Dr. Virendra Cabinet. Aims - To establish the new
Sabarimala. Justice Indu Malhotra opined Kumar. 102 Amendment Act, 2018: national architecture for civil services
that religious practices cannot be solely Constitutional status was provided to the capacity building.The programme aims
tested on the basis of Article 14. The right National Commission for Backward at building a future-ready civil service
to equality under Article 14 does not Classes under Article 338B. Articles 338 with the right attitude, skills and
override the fundamental right to religion and 338A - The National Commission for knowledge, aligned to the vision of New
under Article 25.The notions of rationality Scheduled Castes (SC) and National India. The idea behind the Mission
cannot be invoked in matters of religion. Commission for Scheduled Tribes (ST), Karmayogi is to strengthen the backbone
The Supreme Court struck down respectively. 103rd Amendment Act, of the Indian administration.
provisions of the Kerala Hindu Places of 2019:- Reservations for the Economic
Q.438. Who has the power to interpret
Public Worship (Authorisation of Entry) Weaker Section and amendment in
the constitution of India?
Rules, 1965, and allowed women, Articles 15(6) and 16(6), provide 10%
SSC MTS 08/05/2023 (Afternoon)
irrespective of their age, to enter reservation in public employment.
(a) Supreme court only
Sabarimala temple and worship the deity.
Q.435. When were the general elections (b) High courts only
Q.432. What do you understand by ‘dual to the Legislative Assembly of the (c) Both Supreme court and High courts
citizenship’ as in the case of the US? National Capital Territory held for the first (d) President of India
SSC CGL 25/07/2023( 3rd shift) time? Sol.438.(c) Both Supreme court and
(a) Citizenship of two states Matric Level 27/06/2023 (Shift - 2) High courts. Article 13 - Any law
simultaneously with two countries (a) 1990 (b) 1993 (c) 1992 (d) 1991 inconsistent with the provision of
(b) Citizenship of a country along with fundamental right shall be declared null
Sol.435.(b) 1993. The 69th amendment
that of a constituent State, where one and void. Under Article 32 and 226
act, 1991 inserted Article 239AA, which
resides/born supreme court and high court
declared the Union Territory of Delhi to
(c) Citizenship of two states along with respectively enjoy writ jurisdiction.
be administered by a Lieutenant
two countries Article 147 provides for interpretation of
Governor who works on aid and advice of
(d) Citizenship of two countries the constitution by the supreme court.
the @ebookstore01
elected legislative assembly
simultaneously

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Q.439. What does Section 377 of the SSC MTS 13/06/2023 (Afternoon) estimated receipts and expenditure of
Indian Penal Code signifies? (a) All citizens and non-citizens the Government in a Financial Year
SSC MTS 15/05/2023 (Evening) (b) All taxpayers (which begins on 1st April of the current
(a) Triple talaq (c) All male citizens year and ends on 31st March of the
(b) Surrogacy (d) All adult citizens following year). The Budget Division of
(c) Criminalize unnatural offences the Department of Economic Affairs in
(d) Women temple entry Sol.442.(d) All adult citizens. Part XV: the Ministry of Finance is the nodal body
Elections (Article 324-329). Hence, Right responsible for preparing the Budget.
Sol.439.(c) Criminalise unnatural to vote is a constitutional right, not a The first Budget of Independent India
offences. Section 377 of the Indian Penal fundamental right.
was presented in 1947.
Code 1860, states that “whoever
voluntarily has carnal intercourse against Q.443. The Union Finance Ministry
Q.446. In which year was the Dowry
the order of nature with any man, woman issued a notification amending the
Prohibition Act passed in India?
or animal shall be punished. Provision of Electoral Bonds Scheme to allow the sale
SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (2nd Shift)
the act was against fundamental rights of electoral bonds for extra _______ days
(a) 1973 (b) 1982 (c) 1961 (d) 1954
(Article 14 and 21) of lesbian, gay, in the year of general elections to the
bisexual, transgender, intersex, Legislative Assembly of States and UTs Sol.446.(c) 1961. Dowry Prohibition Act:
questoning (LGBTIQ) Community. The with legislature. It extends to the whole of India except
Supreme court in ‘Navtej Singh Johar vs. SSC MTS 16/06/2023 (Afternoon) the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
Union Of India’ case (2018) (a) 45 (b) 35 (c) 15 (d) 25 Important Acts in India - Hindu Widow
decriminalised the offences. Remarriage Act 1856, Child Marriage
Sol.443.(c) 15. Electoral Bonds Scheme:
Restraint Act 1929, Muslim Women
Q.440. The percentage of eligible voters Launched - 2018 . Bonds are issued only
Protection of Rights on Marriage Act
who cast their votes in an election is to those political parties that are
2019 (Triple Talaq Act), Rights of
termed as _______. registered under section 29A of the
Persons with Disabilities Act 2016,
SSC MTS 16/05/2023 (Afternoon) Representation of the People Act, 1951.
National Security Act 1980.
(a) Quorum (b) Turnout Electoral Bonds: These are money
(c) Veto (d) Constituency instruments like promissory notes, which Q.447. In which year was the Arms Act
can be bought by companies and passed in India?
Sol.440.(b) Turnout. People’s individuals in India from the State Bank SSC CHSL 10/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
participation in the election is measured of India and donated to a political party. (a) 1951 (b) 1955 (c) 1959 (d) 1964
by voter turnout figures. Quorum refers to
the minimum number of members Q.444. What is the upper age limit for Sol.447.(c) The Indian Arms Act of
required to be present at a meeting in appointment as a judge of the High court 1959: As per the preamble, this Act aims
order to make the proceedings of the as of October 2022? to consolidate and amend the law
meeting valid. Veto is the power or right SSC MTS 19/06/2023 (Evening) relating to arms and ammunition. The
of an individual or body to reject or (a) 62 years (b) 57 years main objective of this Act is to regulate
prohibit a decision or proposal made by (c) 55 years (d) 60 years and restrict the circulation of arms and
others. Constituency is a defined ammunition, which were illegal. It was
Sol.444.(a) 62 Years. Article 217 - Judge
geographical area that is represented by enacted by the Indian government after
of a High Court shall be appointed by the
an elected official, such as a member of independence, recognizing that certain
President in consultation with the Chief
parliament or a legislator. law-abiding citizens must own and use
Justice of India, the Governor of the
firearms for sports, crop protection, and
Q.441. Which act has been amended by concerned state and Chief Justice of the
self-defence.
the Supreme Court of India to provide concerned High court. The Supreme
equal rights to daughters in their court judge's upper age limit is 65 years. Q.448. Which of the following states has
ancestral property? The Supreme court judges are appointed Maharshi Valmiki Scheduled Tribes
SSC MTS 17/05/2023 (Morning) by the President of India in consultation Development Corporation Limited?
(a) The Contempt of Courts Act with the Chief Justice of India and other SSC CHSL 14/03/2023 (3rd Shift)
(b) Hindu Succession Act Judges of the Supreme court as he (a) Punjab (b) Karnataka
(c) Hindu Marriage Act deems necessary. (c) Delhi (d) Haryana
(d) Sharda Act Q.445. Who presents the annual budget Sol.448.(b) Karnataka. National
Sol.441.(b) Hindu Succession Act before the Lok Sabha? Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(1956) - It governs the inheritance of SSC MTS 20/06/2023 (Afternoon) (NCST), setup - In 2004 by 89th
property by Hindus, Buddhists, Jains, and (a) Union Finance Minister constitutional amendment act, Article -
Sikhs. Contempt of Courts Act (1971) - It (b) Defence Minister 338A. First Chairman - Kunwar singh
defines the power to punish for contempt (c) Comptroller and Auditor General of Tekam.
of court and regulates their procedure. India
(d) Home Affairs Minister Q.449. In which year was the Special
Hindu Marriage Act (1955) - It defines
Marriage Act passed in India?
the minimum age of 18 years for the Sol.445.(a) Union Finance Minister. SSC CHSL 16/03/2023 (4th Shift)
bride and 21 years for the groom. According to Article 112 of the Indian (a) 1958 (b) 1954 (c) 1962 (d) 1950
Q.442. The Constitution of India ______ Constitution, the Union Budget of a year
is referred to as the Annual Financial Sol.449.(b) 1954. Special Marriage Act
gives the right to vote. @ebookstore01
Statement (AFS). It is a statement of the (SMA) is an Indian law that provides a
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 Pinnacle Polity
legal framework for the marriage of body formed in the year 1949 in Sol.457.(b) Prime Minister. Formed: 1
people belonging to different religions or pursuance of a motion adopted by the January 2015. 2 hubs (of NITI Aayog) -
castes. The applicability of the Act Constituent Assembly (Legislative) on Team India Hub and Knowledge and
extends to the people of all faiths, 16th August 1948. Speaker of Lok Sabha Innovation Hub. It organized the fifth
including Hindus, Muslims, Sikhs, is its ex-officio President. edition of the Women Transforming India
Christians, Jains, and Buddhists, across (WTI) Awards on 21 March 2022 to
India. The minimum age to get married Q.454. Every law enacted by the celebrate 75 years of India’s
under the SMA is 21 years for males and government has to be in conformity with independence. Index release: Composite
18 years for females. the______ Water Management Index, India
SSC CGL 07/12/2022 (4th Shift) Innovation Index, School Education
Q.450. In which year was the Citizenship (a) Fundamental Right Quality Index, Sustainable Development
Act passed in India? (b) Directive Principles goal India Index.
SSC CHSL 17/03/2023 (3rd Shift) (c) Constitution
(a) 1951 (b) 1955 (c) 1959 (d) 1964 (d) Preamble Q.458. Which freedom is considered as
the ‘Hallmark of Democracy’?
Sol.450.(b) 1955. The Constitution of Sol.454.(c) Constitution. Under the SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (2nd Shift)
India along with the Indian Citizenship power of Judicial review, The Supreme (a) Right against exploitation
Act 1955 governs the citizenship status Court can declare a law 'ultra vires' or (b) Right to freedom of religion
of a person. Commenced on 30 null and void if it is against the letter and (c) Freedom of assembly
December 1955. Citizenship can be spirit of the Constitution or contravenes (d) Freedom of speech and expression
defined as a relationship between a any provision of the Constitution.
nation and an individual of that specific Sol.458.(b) The Right to freedom of
nation. The concept of single citizenship Q.455. A booklet released by the Lok Religion (Article 25-28) is considered the
was adopted from England. Sabha Secretariat has listed out words Hallmark of Democracy. Fundamental
and expressions that would be rights are mentioned in Part III (Article
Q.451. In India, according to the Insolvency considered unparliamentary in both the 12-35) of the Constitution.
and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, the process of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Which of
insolvency resolution for companies the following words is NOT declared Q.459. In which year was the Jammu and
should be completed in how many days? unparliamentary? Kashmir Legislative Council abolished?
SSC CGL Tier II (06/03/2023) SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (2nd Shift) SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
(a) 180 (b) 150 (c) 170 (d) 120 (a) Shakuni (b) Nautanki (a) 2019 (b) 2020 (c) 2022 (d) 2021
(c) Chakkar (d) Girgit
Sol.451 (a) 180. The Insolvency and Sol.459.(a) In 2019, the Jammu &
Bankruptcy Code, 2016 (IBC) - A Sol.455.(c) Chakkar. The Lok Sabha Kashmir Legislative Council was
time-bound process for resolving secretariat released a booklet of more abolished through the J&K
insolvency in companies and among than 50 pages of words considered unfit Reorganisation Bill (2019), which divided
individuals. Objective - To consolidate for being used in Parliament. The latest the State of J&K to the Union Territories
and amend all existing insolvency laws, list of unparliamentary words - of J&K and Ladakh.
to simplify and expedite the Insolvency Jumlajeevi, Baal buddhi, Covid spreader,
and Bankruptcy Proceedings, to promote abused, ashamed, betrayal, chamchagiri, Q.460. The detention of a person cannot
entrepreneurship. cheated, shakuni, nautanki, girgit, etc. 1st exceed ________ unless an advisory board
Speaker of Lok Sabha - Ganesh Vasudev consisting of judges of a High Court
Q.452. What are the two most essential Mavalankar (1952 to 1956). reports sufficient cause for extended
rights of a democracy? detention.
SSC CGL 03/12/2022 (2nd Shift) Q.456. If the State government dissolves SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Evening)
(a) Exploitation, preventive detention the Panchayati Raj Institutions before the (a) one month (b) three months
(b) Equality, Freedom end of their five-year term, fresh elections (c) six months (d) two months
(c) Freedom, preventive detention should ordinarily be held within _____.
(d) Equality, Exploitation SSC CGL 12/12/2022 (3rd Shift) Sol.460.(b) three months. Article 22
(a) one month (b) six months (Part III) grants protection to persons
Sol.452.(b) Equality, Freedom. Democracy (c) one year (d) three months who are arrested or detained (available
is a form of government in which rulers are to both citizens and foreigners).
elected by the people in a free and fair Sol.456.(b) Six months. Under Article Preventive detention means the
elections, on universal adult franchise and 243 E - An election to constitute a detention of a person without trial and
governed on the basis of certain Panchayat shall be completed - Before conviction by a court.
fundamental rules like a constitution. the expiry of its duration specified in
Types of Democracy: Direct democracy clause (1) or before the expiration of a Q.461. When was the National
and Representative democracy. period of six months from the date of its Emergency declared for the first time
dissolution. under Article 352?
Q.453. In which year was the Indian SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Afternoon)
Parliamentary Group established? Q.457. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of (a) 1963 - 69 (b) 1961 - 65
SSC CGL 05/12/2022 (4th Shift) NITI Aayog? (c) 1961 - 67 (d) 1962 - 68
(a) 1950 (b) 1949 (c) 1948 (d) 1951 SSC CGL 13/12/2022 (1st Shift)
(a) President (b) Prime Minister Sol.461.(d) 1962-68. The National
Sol.453.(b) In 1949, The Indian (c) Home Minister (d) Finance Minister Emergency has been declared 3 times in
@ebookstore01
Parliamentary Group was an autonomous India : 1962 to 1968 {During the

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India-China war, when “the security of an ordinary Bill. Youth Policy launched by the
India” was declared as being “threatened (d) He adjourns the Assembly or Government of India ?
by external aggression”, President suspends the meeting in the absence Higher Secondary 05/08/2022 (Shift - 2)
(Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan)}. 1971 of a quorum. (a) 2015 (b) 2014 (c) 2016 (d) 2017
{During the Indo - Pakistan war, President
(V.V.Giri), Prime Minister (Indira Gandhi)}. Sol.464.(c) Article 178 {The Speaker and Sol.468.(b) 2014. It seeks to define the
1975 to 1977 {The emergency was Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Vision of the Government of India for the
declared on the basis of “internal Assembly}. A speaker is responsible for Youth of the Country. The first youth
disturbance”, President (Fakhruddin Ali presiding assembly debates and policy was released in 1988. National
Ahmed), Prime Minister (Indira Gandhi)}. maintains order and discipline of the Youth Day is held every year on 12th
house during legislative sessions. January to observe the birth anniversary
Q.462. Which is NOT correct about Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar was the of Swami Vivekananda.
India's Prime Minister? first Speaker of Lok Sabha (15 May 1952
SSC CPO 11/11/2022 (Morning) – 27 February 1956). Q.469. Which freedom fighter abolished
(a) He is the head of the government. the Zamindari System in Uttar Pradesh
(b) He is the leader of the majority party Q.465. Which of the following is NOT a and was elected as the Home Minister in
in Lok Sabha. part of the All India Services? 1955?
(c) He can be removed if a no SSC CPO 09/11/2022 (Morning) SSC MTS 26/07/2022 (Morning)
confidence motion is passed by both (a) Indian Forest Service (a) Lala Hardayal
the Houses of Parliament with 2/3rd (b) Indian Engineering Service (b) Govind Ballabh Pant
majority. (c) Indian Administrative Service (c) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(d) He is appointed by the President of (d) Indian Police Service (d) Jyotiba Phule
India.
Sol.465.(b) Indian Engineering Services Sol.469.(b) Govind Ballabh Pant
Sol.462.(c) A Prime Minister can be (IES) are the civil services that meet the successfully abolished the exploitative
removed if a simple majority of its technical and managerial functions of Zamindari system and revolutionised
members no longer have confidence in the Government of India. All India laws pertaining to women’s inheritance
him/her, this is called a vote - of - no - Services (Article 312). Lord Cornwallis is and marriage. He was appointed Minister
confidence. Three prime ministers, I. K. known as the “Father of Indian Civil of Home Affairs in the Union Cabinet on
Gujral, H. D. Deve Gowda and Atal Bihari Service”. Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel is 10 January 1955 in New Delhi by Nehru.
Vajpayee have been voted out from office called the ‘Father of the All India He started a weekly paper called ‘Shakti’.
this way. Services’. In 1957, he was awarded the Bharat
Ratna.
Q.463. Which of the following is NOT a Q.466. The first Republic Day parade
national political party? was held in which of the following years? Q.470. The Chairman of the Legislative
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Afternoon) Higher Secondary 03/08/2022 (Shift - 4) Council is:
(a) Bahujan Samaj Party (a) 1952 (b) 1951 (c) 1949 (d) 1950 SSC CHSL 01/06/2022 (Afternoon)
(b) National Conference (a) elected by the Chief Minister and
(c) Bharatiya Janata Party Sol.466.(d) 1950. Republic Day marks their Cabinet
(d) Nationalist Congress Party and celebrates the date on which the (b) appointed by the Chief Minister of
Constitution of India came into effect on that state
Sol.463.(b) National Conference. 26 January 1950. On the eve of Republic (c) elected by the members of the
National party is recognised only if it Day, the President of India distributes Legislative Council
fulfils any one of the three conditions: (a) Padma Awards to the civilians of India (d) appointed by the Governor of that
The party wins 2% of seats in the Lok every year. These are the second highest state
Sabha from at least three different civilian awards in India after Bharat
states, (b) at a general election to Lok Ratna. These awards are given in three Sol.470.(c) Article 169: Abolition or
Sabha or Legislative Assembly, the party categories, viz. Padma Vibhushan, creation of Legislative Councils in States.
polls 6% of votes in any 4 or more states Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri, in Article 171: Composition of the
and in addition it wins 4 Lok Sabha seats, decreasing order of importance. Legislative Councils. The tenure of a
(c) party gets recognition as a state party Member of the Legislative Council (MLC)
in four states. Total number of national Q.467. How many religious communities is six years, with one-third of the
parties 6 (6th - Aam Aadmi Party). are notified as minorities by the members retiring every two years.
Government of India?
Q.464. Which of the following is NOT Graduate Level 01/08/2022 (Shift - 4) Q.471. As per the coding convention of
correct about the power of the Speaker (a) Three (b) Five (c) Six (d) Four India Census, how many digit code is
of the state Legislative Assembly? used for showing state code?
SSC CPO 10/11/2022 (Morning) Sol.467.(c) Six {Muslims, Christians, SSC CHSL 03/06/2022 (Afternoon)
(a) He maintains order and decorum of Sikhs, Buddhists, Parsis, and Jains (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
the House. (added in 2014), National Commission
(b) He decides whether a Bill is a Money on Minorities Act 1992}. According to the Sol.471.(c) 2. The coding convention
Bill or not. 2011 Census {Hindu (79.8%), Muslim used: State code (2 digits); District code
(c) He calls for a joint session of the (14.2%), Christian (2.3%), Sikh (1.7%), (3 digits); Sub-district code (5 digits);
Assembly and Council to resolve the Buddhist (0.7%), Jain (0.4%). Village code (6 digits).
deadlock between the two Houses over @ebookstore01
Q.468. In which year was the National Q.472. The first linguistic state in India

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 Pinnacle Polity
got established in: Reorganisation Act, 1956 was a major complete and binding.
SSC CHSL 08/06/2022 (Afternoon) reform of the boundaries of India's states SSC CGL 21/04/2022 (Morning)
(a) 1957 (b) 1951 (c) 1952 (d) 1953 and territories, organising them along (a) Indian Christian Marriage Act, 1862
linguistic lines. The Government divided (b) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
Sol.472.(d) 1953. The first state to be the country into 14 states and 6 union (c) Muslim Personal Law(shariyat)
created on a linguistic basis was Andhra territories under the State Reorganisation application act, 1937
Pradesh in 1953, created out of the Act. (d) Parsi Marriage and Divorce Act, 1936
Telugu-speaking northern parts of
Madras State. Committees related to Q.477. The Contempt of Courts Act was Sol.481.(b) Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
State establishment: Dhar Commission passed to define and limit the powers of The main purpose of the act was to
(Chairmanship - S.K. Dhar; 1948), JVP certain courts in punishing contempt of amend and codify the law relating to
Committee (1948), Fazl Ali Commission courts and to regulate their procedure in marriage among Hindus and
(1953). relation thereto. In which of the following others.
years was the Act passed?
Q.473. On which day was the National SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Evening) Q.482. The monthly maintenance the
Emblem of India adopted? (a) 1971 (b) 1975 (c) 1969 (d) 1982 amount of ₹ _____ payable by children to
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Morning) parents, set by the Maintenance and
(a) 15th August 1952 Sol.477.(a) The Contempt of Courts Act Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens
(b) 26th January 1950 was passed on 24 December 1971. The Bill, 2007, was removed by the
(c) 15th August 1947 high court and Supreme Court have been Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and
(d) 26th January 1959 given the power to punish someone for Senior Citizens (Amendment) Bill, 2019.
contempt of court. SSC MTS 05/10/2021 (Morning)
Sol.473.(b) 26th January 1950. The (a) 10,000 (b) 5,000 (c) 12,000 (d) 8,000
state emblem is an adaptation from the Q.478. Which of the following Indian
Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka. Motto- Acts was passed in the year 2005? Sol.482.(a) ₹ 10,000 .
Satyameva Jayate ("Truth Alone SSC CGL 13/04/2022 (Morning)
Triumphs") is taken from the "Mundaka (a) The Biological Diversity Act Q.483. As per the Constitution of India,
Upanishad", a part of Upanishads. (b) The Prevention of Money-Laundering what is the maximum number of states
Act for which the same person can be
Q.474. As per the Hindu Succession Act (c) The Competition Act appointed as Governor?
1956, who amongst the following has the (d) The Protection of Women from SSC MTS 07/10/21 (Afternoon)
first right over the property of a Hindu Domestic Violence Act (a) There is no limit (b) One state
woman who dies intestate? (c) Two states (d) Three states
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Afternoon) Sol.478.(d) The Biological Diversity Act
(a) Her parents 2002 was passed in 2003, The Sol.483.(a) There is no limit.
(b) The legal heirs of her father Prevention of Money-Laundering Act Q.484. Which of the following was NOT
(c) The legal heirs of her husband 2002 passed in 2003, The Competition included in the definition of 'children' by
(d) Her husband Act was passed in 2002. the Maintenance and Welfare of Parents
Sol.474.(d) Her husband. The Hindu Q.479. In India, the Protection of Children and Senior Citizens Act, 2007?
Succession Act, 1956 is an Act of the from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act, SSC MTS 07/10/2021 (Evening)
Parliament of India enacted to amend ______ is a comprehensive law to provide (a) Adult son (b) Adult daughter
and codify the law relating to intestate or for the protection of children from the (c) Minor son (d) Adult grandson
unwilled succession, among Hindus, offences of sexual assault, sexual Sol.484.(c) Minor son. According to this
Buddhists, Jains, and Sikhs. harassment and pornography, while act, it is a legal obligation for children
safeguarding the interests of the child. and heirs to provide maintenance to
Q.475. The Right of Children to Free and SSC CGL 19/04/2022 (Afternoon)
Compulsory Education Act 2009 is an Act senior citizens and parents, by monthly
(a) 2012 (b) 2006 (c) 2010 (d) 2008 allowance. Children include son,
of Parliament which came into force in:
SSC CGL 11/04/2022 (Evening) Sol.479.(a) 2012. It deals with sexual daughter, grandson, grand daughter but
(a) 2012 (b) 2011 (c) 2009 (d) 2010 offences against persons below 18 years does not include a minor.
of age, who are deemed as children. Q.485. Which Prime Minister among the
Sol.475.(d) 2010. The Act makes Q.480. In which of the following years following had signed the Assam Accord
education a fundamental right of every did the Indian army free Goa from the with the All Assam Gana Sangram
child between the ages of 6 and 14 and Portuguese? Parishad in 1985?
specifies minimum norms in elementary SSC CGL 20/04/2022 (Morning) SSC MTS 08/10/2021 (Morning)
schools. (a) 1956 (b) 1959 (c) 1961 (d) 1967 (a) PV Narasimha Rao (b) Rajiv Gandhi
Q.476. In which of the following years (c) IK Gujral (d) VP Singh
Sol.480.(c) 1961. The “armed action”
was an Act enacted to provide for the was code-named Operation Vijay by the Sol.485.(b) Rajiv Gandhi. According to
reorganisation of the states of India and Indian Armed Forces. On 30 May 1987 the Assam Accord, the government has
for matters connected therewith? Goa attained 25th statehood by 56th to protect, preserve and promote the
SSC CGL 12/04/2022 (Afternoon) Amendment Act 1987. cultural, social, linguistic identity and
(a) 1947 (b) 1956 (c) 1959 (d) 1962 heritage of the Assamese people.
Q.481. On completion Saptapadi Ritual
Sol.476.(b) 1956. The States @ebookstore01
_________ considers the marriage to be Q.486. According to the Motor Vehicles

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 Pinnacle Polity
Act, 1988, no person under the age of meeting. Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and
______ years shall be granted a learner’s SSC MTS 18/10/2021 (Afternoon) the State Vidhan Sabhas.
licence to drive a motorcycle without (a) 14 years (b) 11 years
gear except with the consent in writing of (c) 5 years (d) 9 years Q.496. In which of the following years
the person having the care of the person did the Congress Party led by Indira
desiring the learner’s licence. Sol.491.(c) 5 years. Article 243E- A Gandhi give the slogan of ‘Garibi Hatao’
SSC MTS 11/10/2021(Afternoon) Panchayat continues for five years from (‘Remove poverty’) in the Lok Sabha
(a) twenty (b) eighteen the date appointed for its first meeting. elections?
(c) seventeen (d) twenty-one The 73rd Amendment 1992 added a new SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Morning)
Part IX to the constitution titled “The (a) 1957 (b) 1962 (c) 1977 (d) 1971
Sol.486.(b) eighteen years . Panchayats” covering provisions from
Article 243 to 243(O); and a new Eleventh Sol.496.(d) 1971.
Q.487. Which of the following Acts was Schedule covering 29 subjects within the
passed by the Government of India to Q.497. Which of the following is a
functions of the Panchayats. consumer right?
inquire into allegations of corruption
against certain public functionaries? Q.492. Which of the following union SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Afternoon)
SSC MTS 11/10/2021 (Afternoon) territories has representation in the (a) Right to Move or Settle
(a) Delimitation Act Council of States? (b) Right to Manufacture Goods
(b) Prevention of Money Laundering Act SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Afternoon) (c) Right to Seek Redressal
(c) Central Vigilance Commission Act (a) Chandigarh (d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) The Lokpal and Lokayukta Act (b) Lakshadweep Sol.497.(c) Consumer Rights- Right To
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands Redressal, Right To Safety, Right To
Sol.487.(d) The Lokpal and Lokayukta (d) Puducherry
Act was passed by the Government of Information, Right To Choose, Right To
India to inquire into allegations of Sol.492.(d) Puducherry and Delhi have Be Heard, Right To Consumer Education.
corruption against certain public representation in the Council of States. Q.498. Which country has veto power in
functionaries. Seat in the council of states is mentioned the United Nations?
in the fourth schedule of the Indian SSC MTS 27/10/2021 (Afternoon)
Q.488. As per the Consumer Protection Constitution.
Act, 1986 a complaint can be filed in the (a) India (b) Bhutan
District Consumer Disputes Redressal Q.493. An official enumeration of (c) China (d) Bangladesh
Forum if the value of the claim is up to: population done periodically is known as: Sol.498.(c) China. The United Nations
SSC MTS 12/10/2021 (Evening) SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Evening) Security Council "veto power" refers to
(a) ₹5 lakh (b) ₹15 lakh (a) national register of citizens the power of the five permanent
(c) ₹20 lakh (d) ₹10 lakh (b) demographic count members of the UN Security Council
(c) census (China, France, Russia, the United
Sol.488.(c) ₹20 lakh. (d) national population register Kingdom, and the United States) to veto
Q.489. Which of the following states has Sol.493.(c) Census. In the British Empire, any "substantive" resolution.
the highest number of Legislative the '1872 Indian Census' was India's first Q.499. As per the Constitution of India,
Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) Constituencies census under British Viceroy Lord Mayo. every person who is arrested and
SSC MTS 13/10/2021 (Afternoon) The first complete census was taken in detained in custody shall be produced
(a) Rajasthan (b) Maharashtra 1881. before the nearest magistrate within a
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Madhya Pradesh
Q.494. Electoral roll is commonly known period of ______ hours of such arrest
Sol.489.(c) Uttar Pradesh has the as: excluding the time necessary for the
highest number of Legislative Assembly SSC MTS 20/10/2021 (Evening) journey from the place of arrest to the
(Vidhan Sabha) Constituencies. Uttar (a) election count (b) voter's list court of the magistrate.
Pradesh has 403 members in its (c) election list (d) serial list SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Afternoon)
Assembly. (a) six (b) thirty-six
Sol.494.(b) voter's list. An electoral roll is (c) twenty-four (d) twelve
Q.490. The ______ states that no woman a compilation that lists persons who are
entitled to vote for particular elections in Sol.499.(c) Twenty four hours . other
shall be arrested after sunset and before
a particular jurisdiction. guidelines: -The arrested person has the
sunrise. except under exceptional
right that his/her relative/friend is
circumstances. Q.495. The National Commission for informed about the arrest. The
SSC MTS 14/10/2021 (Morning) Scheduled Tribes came into existence as information of the arrest should also be
(a) Probation of Offenders Act a separate commission in which of the sent through the district legal aid
(b) Indian Penal Code following year? committee.
(c) Police Act SSC MTS 22/10/2021 (Morning)
(d) Code of Criminal Procedure (a) 2000 (b) 2006 (c) 2004 (d) 2002 Q.500. In which of the following sections
of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966
Sol.490.(d) The Code of Criminal Sol.495.(c) 2004. Preceding commission is Chandigarh defined as a Union
Procedure. It was enacted in 1973 and - National Commission for Scheduled Territory?
came into force on 1 April 1974. Castes and Scheduled Tribes 1978. SSC MTS 02/11/2021 (Evening)
Q.491. A Panchayat continues for ______ Article 334 provides for the reservation (a) Section 3 (b) Section 6
@ebookstore01
from the date appointed for its first of seats for Scheduled Castes and (c) Section 4 (d) Section 1

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 Pinnacle Polity
Sol.500.(c) Section 4 . Sol.505.(a) Repealed. The meaning of (a) four (b) one (c) three (d) two
Repeal is to rescind or annul by
Q.501. In which of the following years authoritative act; especially : to revoke or Sol.509.(d) two years. Vidhan Parishad
was the origin and enactment of the abrogate by legislative enactment. or Legislative Council is a permanent
Indian Age of Consent Act passed? body, which can be formed or abolished
SSC CGL 16/08/2021(Afternoon) Q.506. The Indian Forest Act 1927 was when the Legislative Assembly passes a
(a) 1834 (b) 1901 (c) 1891 (d) 1889 enacted after repealing which of the special resolution.
following Indian forest acts?
Sol.501.(c) 1891. Through this act, the Q.510. Which was the first part of India
SSC CGL 23/08/2021 (Morning)
age limit of girls for marriage was raised to hold an election based on universal
(a) Indian Forest Act, 1882
from 10 to 12. Hence, the marriage of adult franchise?
(b) Indian Forest Act, 1922
girls under the age of 12 was prohibited SSC CHSL 09/08/2021 (Morning)
(c) Indian Forest Act, 1865
by law. (a) Assam (b) Tripura
(d) Indian Forest Act, 1878
(c) Manipur (d) Bihar
Q.502. Who is the ex-officio President of
Sol.506.(d) Indian Forest Act, 1878. The
the Indian Parliamentary Group (IPG), set Sol.510.(c) Manipur (June 1948).
Indian Forest Act of 1878 divided Indian
up in 1949, which functions as the Maharaja of Manipur Bodhchandra Singh
forests into reserved forests (completely
national group of the Inter-Parliamentary signed the instrument of accession with
government-controlled), protected
Union (IPU) and the main branch of the the Indian government on the assurance
forests (partially government-controlled)
Commonwealth Parliamentary that the internal autonomy of Manipur
and village forests (controlled by
Association (CPA) in India? would be maintained.
abutting villages).
SSC CGL 16/08/2021(Afternoon)
(a) Prime Minister Q.507. ______ is a set of norms and Q.511. Bangladesh was a part of
(b) Vice President guidelines to be followed by the political Pakistan from ______ to ______.
(c) President parties and contesting candidates during SSC CPO 24/11/2020 (Morning)
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha election time. (a) 1947; 1962 (b) 1947; 1971
SSC CHSL 19/04/2021 (Afternoon) (c) 1947; 1958 (d) 1947; 1989
Sol.502.(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha .
(a) Constitutional Norms Sol.511.(b) 1947 to 1971. After
Q.503. In 1977, who became then (b) Constitutional Rules separation from India in 1947 Pakistan
President of the Janata Party, which (c) Code of Conduct was formed so Bangladesh also became
formed a coalition government at the (d) Rigging a part of Pakistan after the separation. In
centre with Morarji Desai as the Prime
Sol.507.(c) Code of Conduct is a set of 1971 Bangladesh was finally separated
Minister?
rules outlining the norms, rules, and from Pakistan into an autonomous
SSC CGL 18/08/2021 (Afternoon)
responsibilities or proper practices of an country. India also helped Bangladesh to
(a) Charan Singh
individual party or an organisation. The become an autonomous state.
(b) George Fernandes
(c) Chandra Shekhar Model Code of Conduct comes into force Q.512. On the night of ______ 1975, Indira
(d) Madhu Dandavate immediately on the announcement of the Gandhi recommended the imposition of
election schedule by the commission for Emergency to president Fakhruddin Ali
Sol.503.(c) Chandra Shekhar. He was the need of ensuring free and fair Ahmed.
President of the Janata Party from 1977 elections . Its main purpose is to ensure SSC CPO 23/11/2020 (Evening)
to 1988. Chandra Shekhar was sworn in that ruling parties, at the Centre and in (a) 1st June (b) 22nd May
as the ninth Prime Minister of India on the States, do not misuse their position (c) 25th June (d) 1st July
November 10, 1991 and remained in of advantage to gain an unfair edge.
office until June 21, 1991, for a period Sol.512.(c) 25th June. The third
spanning 223 days. Q.508. In which year did the Central emergency of India started at the mid
Government of India appoint the States night of 25th june 1975 and was extended
Q.504. In which of the following states Reorganisation Commission? till 23 march 1977. Main reason for this
does the Governor have special SSC CHSL 05/08/2021 (Morning) emergency was “internal disturbances”.
responsibility under Article 371H of the (a) 1958 (b) 1953 (c) 1950 (d) 1951 First emergency of India was started on
Constitution with respect to law and
Sol.508.(b) 1953. The States 26 October 1962 (India-China war).
order and in discharge of his functions in
Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was Second emergency was during the
relation thereto?
constituted by the Central Government of India-Pakistan war from 3-17 December
SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Morning)
India in December 1953 to recommend 1971.
(a) Nagaland (b) Sikkim
(c) Mizoram (d) Arunachal Pradesh the reorganisation of state boundaries.
States Reorganisation Commission
Sol.504.(d) Arunachal Pradesh. consisted of Fazal Ali, K. M. Panikkar and
H. N. Kunzru. Its main recommendations
Q.505. Which of the following is the
were to organise states on a language
expanded form of the abbreviation 'Rep.'
basis as well as the boundaries of state
used in the text of the Constitution of
could reflect the linguistic aspects also.
India?
SSC CGL 20/08/2021 (Evening) Q.509. One-third of the members of the
(a) Repealed (b) Republic Vidhan Parishad retire every ______ years.
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(c) Report (d) Representative SSC CHSL 06/08/2021 (Morning)
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