Biology questions on Unit 4 ( Reproduction ) for Grade 9 th

Asexual reproduction
1. What is the primary purpose of reproduction in living organisms?a) To create genetic mutations
b) To ensure the continuity of life across generations c) To increase an organism's lifespan
d) To produce non-identical offspring
2. Which of the following is NOT a type of asexual reproduction?
a) Fission b) Fragmentation c) Fertilization d) Budding
3. What is a key difference between asexual and sexual reproduction?
a) Asexual reproduction involves two parents, while sexual reproduction involves one.
b) Asexual reproduction produces genetically identical offspring, while sexual produces variation.
c) Sexual reproduction occurs only in plants, while asexual reproduction occurs in animals.
d) Asexual reproduction requires specialized reproductive cells, while sexual reproduction does not.
4. What is the primary characteristic of asexual reproduction? a) Involvement of two parents
b) Production of genetically identical offspring c) Requirement of gametes d) Increased genetic variation
5. Which of the following is not a form of asexual reproduction?
a) Binary fission b) Fertilization c) Budding d) Fragmentation
6. Asexual reproduction is common in: a) Vertebrates b) Bacteria,and plants c) Mammals d) Birds
7. What is a key disadvantage of asexual reproduction? a) Requires a mate
b) Limited genetic diversity c) Slow population growth d) High energy cost
8. Binary fission is observed in:
a) Humans b) Bacteria and protozoa c) Flowering plants d) Earthworms
9. In binary fission, the parent cell divides into: a) Two unequal parts
b) Multiple spores c) Two genetically identical daughter cells d) Gametes
10. Which organism reproduces by binary fission? a) Hydra b) Amoeba c) Honeybee d) Mushroom
11. Before binary fission, what must be replicated in bacteria?
a) Cell wall b) Nucleus (DNA) c) Mitochondria d) Ribosomes
12. Fragmentation involves: a) Fusion of gametes b) Formation of buds
c) Breaking of a parent into parts that grow into new organisms d) Production of spores
13. Which organism reproduces by fragmentation?
a) Spirogyra (algae) b) Dog c) Rose plant d) Eagle
14. What is required for fragmentation to succeed?
a) Pollination b) Regeneration of lost parts c) Fertilization d) Meiosis
15. Fragmentation is common in: a) Vertebrates b) Worms and algae c) Birds d) Mammals
16. In budding, the offspring arises from:
a) A spore b) A small outgrowth of the parent c) A fertilized egg d) A seed
17. Which organism reproduces by budding? a) Yeast b) Oak tree c) Frog d) Earthworm
18. How does the nucleus divide during budding in yeast?
a) Meiosis b) Mitosis c) Binary fission d) Fragmentation
19. Budding results in: a) Genetically identical offspring b) Two equal-sized cells c) Gametes d) Seed
20. Vegetative propagation involves:
a) Seeds b) Reproductive flowers c) Stem, roots, or leaves d) Fertilization
21. Which plant part is used in natural vegetative propagation through rhizomes?
a) Leaves b) Underground stems c) Flowers d) Seeds
22. Potatoes reproduce asexually through: a) Bulbs b) Tubers c) Stolons d) Corms
23. What is a stolon? a) A modified root b) A horizontal stem above ground (e.g., strawberry runner)
c) A spore-producing structure d) A type of gamete
24. Grafting combines:
a) Two gametes b) A scion and a stock c) Roots of two plants d) Pollen and ovule
25. Which method involves placing a stem cutting in moist soil?
a) Layering b) Micropropagation c) Cutting d) Grafting
26. What is the purpose of artificial vegetative propagation? a) To increase genetic diversity
b) To clone desirable plant traits c) To produce seeds d) To encourage pollination
27. In layering, the stem is: a) Removed and planted separately b) Grafted onto another plant
c) Bent and buried in soil while attached to the parent d) Treated with hormones
28. Parthenogenesis is: a) Fusion of sperm and egg b) Fragmentation in animals
c) Development of an unfertilized egg into an adult d) A type of binary fission
29. Which organism exhibits parthenogenesis? a) Honeybee (drones) b) Human c) Oak tree d) Salmon
30. Offspring from parthenogenesis are:
a) Genetically diverse b) Clones of the mother c) Sterile d) Always female
31. Sporulation is common in: a) Animals b) Fungi (e.g., Penicillium) c) Fish d) Mammals
32. Spores are primarily dispersed by: a) Water b) Air currents c) Animals d) Roots
33. What structure produces spores in fungi? a) Hyphae b) Sporangium c) Rhizome d) Tuber
34. Spores are advantageous because they: a) Require fertilization b) Enable colonization of new habitat
c) Are genetically diverse d) Only form in water
35. Which process involves unequal division of the parent?
a) Binary fission b) Budding c) Fragmentation d) Sporulation
36. Which is not a natural vegetative structure? a) Tuber b) Graft c) Bulb d) Rhizome
37. Asexual reproduction is faster than sexual reproduction because it: a) Requires meiosis
b) Bypasses gamete formation and fertilization c) Produces fewer offspring d) Depends on pollinator
38. Which statement is true about asexual reproduction? a) It increases genetic variation.
b) It is common in vertebrates. c) It produces clones of the parent. d) It requires two parents.
39. If a fungus reproduces via spores, what ensures its spread to new areas?
a) Roots b) Wind dispersal c) Animal mating d) Water fusion
40. Why might a farmer prefer vegetative propagation for crops? a) To ensure genetic uniformity
b) To encourage mutations c) To reduce yield d) To attract pollinators
Sexual reproduction in human
41. What is the primary purpose of sexual reproduction? a) To produce identical offspring
b) To create genetic diversity c) To avoid the need for gametes d) To speed up reproduction
42. Which process produces gametes? a) Mitosis b) Meiosis c) Binary fission d) Budding
43. Where does fertilization typically occur in humans? a) Ovary b) Uterus c) Oviduct d) Vagina
44. What is formed immediately after fertilization? a) Embryo b) Zygote c) Fetus d) Sperm
45. How do female gametes differ from male gametes? a) They are smaller and mobile.
b) They are larger and non-mobile. c) They are produced in greater numbers.
d) They contain no genetic material.
46. Which of the following is a primary sexual characteristic in males?
a) Deepening voice b) Testes c) Facial hair d) Broad shoulders
47. What triggers the development of secondary sexual characteristics?
a) Diet b) Hormones c) Environmental factors d) Physical exercise
48. Which hormone is primarily responsible for male secondary sexual traits?
a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) FSH
49. In females, which hormone stimulates follicle development in the ovaries?
a) LH b) Estrogen c) FSH d) Progesterone
50. What is a common psychological challenge during puberty? a) Increased height only
b) Rapid body changes affecting self-esteem c) Complete lack of hormonal changes
d) No social adjustments needed
51. Where are sperm produced?
a) Epididymis b) Vas deferens c) Seminiferous tubules d) Prostate gland
52. What is the function of the scrotum? a) To produce testosterone b) To store urine
c) To maintain a cooler temperature for sperm production d) To secrete seminal fluid
53. Which gland secretes an alkaline fluid to neutralize vaginal acidity?
a) Seminal vesicles b) Bulbourethral glands c) Prostate gland d) Epididymis
54. What is the role of the epididymis? a) Sperm production b) Sperm maturation and storage
c) Testosterone secretion d) Urine transport
55. Which structure carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra?
a) Seminiferous tubules b) Vas deferens c) Oviduct d) Cervix
56. What is the function of the ovaries? a) Produce eggs and secrete estrogen
b) Transport eggs to the uterus c) Store sperm d) Secrete progesterone only
57. Where does fertilization usually occur? a) Uterus b) Oviduct c) Cervix d) Vagina
58. What is the lining of the uterus called?
a) Endometrium b) Myometrium c) Perimetrium d) Placenta
59. Which structure is the birth canal? a) Oviduct b) Uterus c) Vagina d) Cervix
60. What is the role of the clitoris?
a) Egg production b) Tactile stimulation c) Hormone secretion d) Sperm storage
61. What marks the first day of the menstrual cycle?
a) Ovulation b) Menstruation c) Fertilization d) Implantation
62. Which hormone stimulates follicle maturation? a) LH b) FSH c) Estrogen d) Progesterone
63. What triggers ovulation?
a) A surge in LH b) A drop in FSH c) High progesterone levels d) Low estrogen levels
64. During which phase does the corpus luteum form?
a) Follicular phase b) Luteal phase c) Menstrual phase d) Ovulation phase
65. What happens during menopause? a) Increased egg production b) Cessation of menstrual cycles
c) Higher estrogen levels d) More frequent ovulation
66. How long can sperm survive in the female reproductive tract?
a) 24 hours b) 2-3 days c) 1 week d) 1 month
67. What is the result of fertilization? a) Zygote b) Embryo c) Fetus d) Sperm
68. Identical twins result from: a) Two eggs fertilized by two sperm
b) One egg fertilized by one sperm, then splitting c) Two eggs fertilized by one sperm d) None
69. Where does implantation occur? a) Oviduct b) Uterus c) Cervix d) Vagina
70. What structure connects the embryo to the placenta? a) Amnion b) Umbilical cord c) Oviduct d) Cervix
71. Why should menstrual products be changed regularly? a) To prevent bacterial growth
b) To increase blood flow c) To reduce hormone levels d) To delay menstruation
72. What is a benefit of tracking menstrual cycles? a) Predicting menopause
b) Detecting health irregularities c) Increasing fertility d) Preventing pregnancy
73. Which practice helps maintain vaginal health? a) Using scented products
b) Washing with water only c) Douching frequently d) Wearing tight clothing
74. What is the function of the amniotic fluid? a) Provide nutrients
b) Protect the fetus from shocks c) Produce hormones d) Transport sperm
75. How does the placenta support the fetus? a) By mixing maternal and fetal blood
 b) By exchanging nutrients and oxygen c) By producing sperm d) By secreting estrogen
76. When is the developing organism called a fetus? a) At fertilization
b) After 8 weeks c) At implantation d) After birth
77. Which organ forms first in the embryo? a) Brain b) Heart c) Lungs d) Liver
78. What prevents blood mixing between mother and fetus?
a) Amniotic fluid b) Placental barrier c) Umbilical cord d) Cervix
79. What is the role of progesterone in pregnancy? a) Thickening the uterine lining
b) Triggering ovulation c) Stimulating sperm production d) Reducing estrogen levels
80. Which hormone is responsible for maintaining pregnancy?
a) FSH b) LH c) Progesterone d) Testosterone
81. What is ovulation? a) The process of fertilization b) The release of a mature egg from the ovary
c ) The development of a follicle d) The breakdown of the corpus luteum
82. Approximately how many eggs is a girl born with? a) 200,000 b) 2 million c) 20 million d) 200 million
83. What happens to the ruptured follicle after ovulation? a) It develops into a new egg.
b) It breaks down immediately. c) It forms the corpus luteum. d) It moves into the uterus.
84. If pregnancy does not occur, what happens to the corpus luteum? a) It continues to produce hormones.
b) It breaks down. c) It releases another egg. d) It becomes a follicle.
Method of Birth control
85. What is the primary advantage of abstinence as a birth control method?
A. It is 100% effective against pregnancy and STIs. B. It requires medical supervision.
C. It allows for spontaneous intercourse. D. It is the most cost-effective hormonal method.
86. Which method is the most effective for preventing pregnancy and STIs?
a) Fertility awareness b) Abstinence c) Withdrawal d) Cervical mucus method
87. What is the effectiveness of the withdrawal method with perfect use? a) 70% b) 82% c) 96% d) 50%
88. Which natural method involves tracking body temperature changes? a) Calendar rhythm method
b) Symptothermal method c) Standard days method d) Ovulation method
89. What is a disadvantage of fertility awareness methods? a) High cost
b) Requires full partner cooperation c) Causes hormonal side effects d) Protects against STIs
90. Which natural method has no side effects and is accepted by most religions? a) Withdrawal
b) Fertility awareness c) Spermicides d) Condoms
91. Which material in male condoms does NOT protect against STIs?
a) Latex b) Polyurethane c) Lambskin d) Silicone
92. What is the effectiveness of female condoms with typical use? a) 95% b) 80% c) 98% d) 70%
93. Which method requires initial fitting by a doctor?
a) Male condom b) Diaphragm c) Spermicides d) Female condom
94. What is a disadvantage of spermicides? a) They cause hormonal imbalances
b) They are ineffective alone c) They prevent STIs d) They are expensive
95. Which barrier method also reduces the risk of cervical cancer? a) Male condom
b) Diaphragm c) IUD d) Spermicides
96. What is the primary hormone released by the contraceptive implant?
a) Estrogen b) Progesterone c) Testosterone d) FSH
97. Which method lasts up to 5 years? a) Contraceptive injection b) IUD c) IUS d) Contraceptive pill
98. What is a risk associated with long-term use of contraceptive pills? a) Increased STI risk
b) Breast cancer risk c) Infertility d) Ectopic pregnancy
99. How does the contraceptive injection work? a) Prevents ovulation
b) Thickens cervical mucus c) Kills sperm d) Both a and b
100. Which method is over 99% effective and lasts 3 years?
a) IUD b) Contraceptive implant c) Female sterilization d) Spermicides
101. What is the failure rate of female sterilization per 100 woman-years?
a) 0.05 b) 2.5 c) 5.0 d) 10.0
102. Which statement about vasectomy is true? a) It reduces testosterone levels
b) It is easily reversible c) It does not affect ejaculation d) It prevents STIs
103. What is a disadvantage of female sterilization? a) Requires daily use
b) Not easily reversible c) Causes hormonal changes d) Increases STI risk
104. Which method provides dual protection (pregnancy and STIs)?
a) IUD b) Contraceptive pill c) Male condom d) Spermicides
105. What is a benefit of family planning? a) Increases population growth
b) Reduces infant mortality c) Guarantees no STIs d) Eliminates need for medical care
Sexually transmitted infections
106. What organism causes trichomoniasis?
a) Neisseria gonorrhoeae b) Trichomonas vaginalis c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) Treponema pallidum
107. Which symptom is commonly observed in women with trichomoniasis?
a) Bloody urine b) Yellowish vaginal discharge c) Severe joint pain d) Blurred vision
108. How is trichomoniasis treated? a) Antiviral medication
b) A single dose of antiprotozoal drug c) Surgery d) No treatment available
109. Chlamydia is caused by: a) A virus b) Chlamydia trachomatis c) A fungus d) A parasite
110. What is a possible complication of untreated chlamydia in women? a) Improved fertility
b) Scarring of the reproductive tract c) Enhanced immune response d) Weight gain
111. How can chlamydia be transmitted to a newborn? a) Through breast milk b) During childbirth
c) Through contaminated food d) By airborne droplets
112. Gonorrhea is caused by:
a) Trichomonas vaginalis b) Neisseria gonorrhoeae c) Treponema pallidum d) HIV
113. Which group is more likely to have no early symptoms of gonorrhea?
a) Men b) Women c) Children d) Elderly
114. A major concern regarding gonorrhea treatment is: a) It requires surgery
b) Antibiotic-resistant strains are increasing c) It cannot be cured d) It only affects the skin
115. Syphilis is caused by:
a) A virus b) Treponema pallidum c) Chlamydia trachomatis d) A parasite
116. What is a characteristic sign of primary syphilis?
a) Skin chancres b) Hair loss c) Blindness d) Coughing blood
117. How is syphilis treated?
a) Antifungal cream b) Antibiotics c) No treatment available d) Radiation therapy
118. HIV primarily attacks: a) Red blood cells b) Immune cells c) Nerve cells d) Liver cells
119. Which is NOT a method of HIV transmission? a) Sharing contaminated needles
b) Mosquito bites c) Mother-to-child during birth d) Unprotected sexual contact
120. Early symptoms of AIDS may include: a) Swollen lymph nodes and fatigue
b) Increased appetite c) Improved vision d) Hair growth
121. What is the most effective way to prevent HIV transmission through drug use? a) Sharing needles
b) Not sharing needles c) Drinking alcohol d) Taking vitamins
122. The best way to avoid STIs is: a) Abstinence or mutual monogamy
b) Drinking herbal tea c) Avoiding handshakes d) Wearing gloves
123. Which barrier method helps reduce STI transmission?
a) Birth control pills b) Condoms c) Antibiotics d) Face masks
124. Why is early STI treatment important? a) To prevent complications like infertility
b) To increase antibiotic resistance c) To avoid weight loss d) To improve eyesight
125. Which STI cannot be treated with antibiotics? a) Gonorrhea b) Syphilis c) HIV d) Chlamydia