POLITY

5. Fundamental Rights guaranteed

2019 (II)
2019 (I) under which one of the following
Articles of the Constitution of
1. Article-46 of the Constitution of India is available only to the
India refers to the promotion of 3. An Election Commissioner can
be removed from office on the citizens of India?
educational and economic (a) Article-19 (b) Article-20
interests of recommendation of
(c) Article-21 (d) Article-22
(a) religious minorities (a) the Chief Justice of India
(b) Scheduled Castes, Scheduled (b) the Chief Election Commissioner _ (a) Under Article-19 of the Constitution
(c) the President of India of India, Fundamental Rights are
Tribes and other weaker sections
(d) the Parliament guaranteed only to the citizens of India.
(c) displaced persons from large
There are five fundamental articles which
irrigation projects _ (b) An Election Commissioner can be are only to Indian citizens i.e. Articles-15,
(d) the economically deprived removed from office on the 16, 19, 29, 30. This article guarantees the
recommendation of the Chief Election
_ (b) Article 46 in part IV of the Constitution Commissioner (CEC) by President of
six rights. These are
of India is related to the promotion of 1. Right to freedom of speech and
educational and economic interests of the India.
expression
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Article-324 (5) of the Constitution 2. Right to assemble peacefully and
other weaker sections. Article 46 also safeguards the CEC from arbitrary without arms.
provides that the state shall protect the removal. CEC can be removed only by
3. Right to form associations or unions
weaker sections of the society from social the President, just like Judge of the
or co-operations.
in justice and all forms of exploitation. Supreme Court.
4. Right to move freely throughout the
2. The provisions of the Fifth 4. Which one of the following territory of India.
Schedule of the Constitution of statements regarding the Rajya 5. Right to reside and settle in any part
Sabha is not correct? of the territory of India.
India shall not apply to the
6. Right to practice any profession or to
administration and control of (a) Its members are elected by the
carry on any occupation, trade or
the Scheduled Areas and elected members of the Legislative
business.
Scheduled Tribes in Assembly of a State.
(b) The election follows the system of While Article 20 deals with the
1. Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand and proportional representation by
protection of certain rights incase of
Odisha conviction for offences. Article 21 deals
means of a single transferable vote.
with the protection of life and personal
2. Assam and Tripura (c) 1/3rd of its members retire after
liberty, and Article 22 grants protection
3. Meghalaya and Mizoram every two years.
to persons who are arrested or
(d) It is a permanent body, but can be detained.
Select the correct answer using the dissolved earlier by the President.
codes given below. 6. Consider the following
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 _ (d) Option (d) is incorrect because Rajya
Sabha (Article-80) is a permanent body description of the Samadhi of a
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
and not the subject to dissolution. Its former Prime Minister of India.
_ (c) The provisions of the Fifth Schedule maximum strength is 250. Its members
of the Constitution of India apply to the are elected by the elected member of the Central Samadhi Platform
administration and control of the Legislative Assembly of the State. comprises nine square black
Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes The election of Rajya Sabha members polished granite solid stone
in 10 states namely: Andhra Pradesh, follows the system of proportional blocks, capped with a ‘Diya’ in
Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal representation by means of a single the centre. The number nine
Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, transferable vote. One-third (1/3rd) of
Maharashtra, Odisha, Rajasthan and
holds significance and represents
its members retire after every two
Telangana. Hence, statement (2) and (3) years. the Navarasas, Navaratras and
are correct. Navagrahas. Then placement of
 the Nine-Square Samadhi is in a 8. Every Judge of the Supreme (a) 41st Amendment Act
circular lotus shaped pattern. Court of India is appointed by (b) 42nd Amendment Act
The Nine-Square platform is (a) the Supreme Court Collegium (c) 43rd Amendment Act
(d) 44th Amendment Act
accessed in four cardinal (b) the Cabinet
directions by pathways made in (c) the President of India _ (b) The 42nd Amendment Act amended
white composite tiles so that the (d) the Lok Sabha the Preamble and changed the
description of India from ‘Sovereign
floor does not get heated. _ (c) Every Judge of the Supreme Court democratic republic’ to a ‘Sovereign,
Identify the Samadhi. shall be appointed by the President of
Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic’
India. Article-124 provides for the
(a) Shakti Sthal (b) Shantivan and also changed the words ‘Unity of the
establishment and Constitution of the
(c) Sadaiv Atal (d) Veer Bhumi Nation’ to ‘Unity and Integrity of the Nation’.
Supreme Court of India, which is the
Apex Court of India. The sanctioned The Preamble to the Constitution of
_ (c) The Samadhi, which is mentioned in India is a brief introductory statement
above question, is Sadaiv Atal. It is the strength of the judges is 34, consisting of
the Chief Justice and 33 other judges. that sets out the guiding purpose,
crematorium (Samadhi) of former Prime
Every Judge of Supreme Court shall principles and philosophy of the
Minister of India, Atal Bihari Vajpayee
attend the office till the age of 65 years. Constitution.
(1924-2018). He served three terms as
the Prime Minister of India. He was the 11. Who among the following is the
first Indian Prime Minister who was not a
9. Which one of the following is
not a part of the Directive ex-officio Chairman of the
member of the Indian National Congress
party to have served a full five year term Principles of State Policy as North-Eastern Council?
in office. enshrined in the Constitution of (a) The President of India
Shakti Sthal is a memorial of former India? (b) The Prime Minister of India
Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. (c) The Union Home Minister
(a) Equal justice and free legal aid.
(d) The Union Minister of State
Shantivan is the Samadhi or Cremation (b) Protection of monuments and places
(Independent Charge), Ministry of
spot of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and objects of national importance.
Development of North-Eastern
and the Veer Bhumi is a memorial (c) Protection of personal law.
dedicated to the former Prime Minister Region
(d) Separation of Judiciary from
Rajiv Gandhi. executive. _ (c) The North-Eastern Council is the
nodal agency for the economic and
_ (c) Part-IV of Indian Constitution deals social development of the North-Eastern
2018 (II) with Directive Principles of State Policy
(DPSP). Basic aim of DPSP is to set-up
Region which consists of the eight
states: Arunachal Pradesh, Assam,
social and economic goals before the Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram,
7. Which one among the following law makers. Some of the important Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura.
is not a Fundamental Right DPSPs are
It was constituted in 1971 by an Act of
under the Constitution of India? l Uniform civil code for the citizens.
Parliament. The Union Home Minister
(a) Right to equality l Provide free and compulsory
acts as ex-officio Chairman of
(b) Right to freedom education for children below North-Eastern Council (NEC). The
(c) Right to citizenship 14 years. secretariat (Headquarters) of the council
(d) Right against exploitation l To promote international peace and
is located at Shillong, Meghalaya. The
amity. President of India nominates the
_ (c) Fundamental Rights are the basic l Protection of personal law does not
rights of the common people and Chairman of the Council.
inalienable rights of the people who come under Directive principles of
state policy. 12. Article-352 of the Constitution
enjoy it under the charter of rights
contained in Part III (Article-12 to 35) of l Protection and improvement of of India contains provisions
the Constitution of India. Right to environment and safeguarding of related to
Citizenship is not a Fundamental Right. forests and wildlife. (a) financial emergency.
All the Fundamental Rights have been l Organisation of Village Panchayats (b) failure of constitutional machinery in
classified under the following six and to promote cottage industry. states.
categories l Equal pay for equal work. (c) suspension of the enforcement of
1. Right to be Equality (Articles14-18) l Equal justice and free legal aid.
rights conferred in Part III of the
2. Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22) l Protection of monuments and places
Constitution.
3. Right against Exploitation (Articles (d) general emergency.
and objects of national importance.
23-24) l Separation of judiciary from _ (d) Article 352 of the Constitution of India
4. Right to Freedom of Religion executive. contains provisions related to general or
(Articles 25-28) Hence, option (c) is not a part of national emergency.
5. Cultural and Educational Rights Directive Principles of State Policy. This Article states that if the President is
(Articles 29-30) satisfied that a grave emergency exists
6. Right to Constitutional Remedies 10. The word ‘Socialist’ was whereby the security of India or any part
(Article 32) inserted into the Preamble to of the Territory of India is threatened by
The Right to Property is no longer a the Constitution of India war or external aggression or armed
Fundamental Right. through which one of the rebellion, he may proclaim an general
following Amendment Acts? emergency.
 (c) The Rajya Sabha cannot be Select the correct answer using the
2018 (I) dissolved. codes given below.
(d) Some members of the Rajya Sabha
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
are nominated by the President.
13. Who among the following are (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
the two civil servants who _ (b) Option (b) is not correct because _ (b) The Constitution of India was
Anglo-Indians are the only community
assisted the Constituent that has its own representatives
adopted on 26th November, 1949.
Assembly in framing the Though, it came into force on 26th
nominated to the Lok Sabha (Lower
Constitution of India? January, 1950 with some provisions
House) in India’s Parliament. It is done
related to Citizenship, Elections,
(a) B. N. Rau and K.M. Munshi only if the President of India feels that the
Provisional Parliament etc.
(b) S. N. Mukherjee and Alladi Anglo Indian community has not been
adequately represented in the Lok Sabha. The Constitution of India is the
Krishnaswamy Iyer
Supreme Law of India. The document
(c) B. N. Rau and S. N. Mukherjee
16. Which one of the following lays down the framework demarcating
(d) K. M. Munshi and Alladi
statements with regard to the fundamental political code, structure,
Krishnaswamy Iyer procedures, powers and duties of
Comptroller and Auditor General
_ (c) Sir Benegal Narsing (B.N.) Rau was (CAG) of India is NOT correct?
government institutions. It also sets out
an Indian civil servant, jurist, diplomat the Fundamental Rights, Directive
and statesman known for his key role in (a) He is appointed by the President of Principles and the Duties of Citizens.
drafting the Constitution of India. S.N India.
Mukherjee was another civil servant who (b) He can be removed from office in the
assisted in the framing of the same way as the judge of the 2017 (II)
Constitution of India. The Constitution of Supreme Court of India.
India was framed between December, (c) The CAG is eligible for further office
1946 and December, 1949. The under the Government of India after 19. The creation of the institution
Constitution of India came into effect on he has ceased to hold his office. of Lokpal was first
26th January, 1950. (d) The salary of the CAG is charged recommended by
K.M. Munshi and Alladi Krishnaswamy upon the Consolidated Fund of (a) Law Commission
lyer were the members of Drafting India. (b) Santhanam Committee
Committee. (c) Shah Commission
_ (c) Option (c) is not correct because the
CAG is not eligible for further office either (d) Administrative Reforms Commission
14. Which member of the
under the Government of India or under
Constituent Assembly proposed _ (d) The Administrative Reforms
the Government of any State after he has Commission (ARC), sets up in 1966
the resolution that the National ceased to hold his office. The CAG is an recommended the Constitution of a
Flag of India be a ‘‘horizontal authority established by Article 148 of the two-tier machinery of a Lokpal at the
tricolour of saffron, white and Constitution of India. It was founded in Centre and Lokayukts in the states.
dark green in equal proportion’’, 1858. Hence, option (c) is incorrect, while While Law Commission of India is an
with a wheel in navy blue at the options (a), (b) and (d) are correct. executive body established by an order
centre? 17. The superintendence, direction of the Government of India. Santhanam
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru Committee was formed to guide Central
and control of elections in India Government agencies in the field of
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
is vested in vigilance. Shah Commission was
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(a) the Supreme Court of India appointed by the Government of India to
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) the Parliament of India inquire into all the excesses committed
_ (c) In 1947, when India gained freedom (c) the Election Commission of India in the Indian Emergency.
from the British, a committee headed by (d) the Chief Election Commissioner
Dr. Rajendra Prasad, decided to adopt 20. Who among the following is the
the flag of the Congress as the National _ (c) According to Article 324 of the Chairman of interdisciplinary
Flag of India with a few modifications. Constitution of India, the committee constituted recently
With this in mind, the flag of 1931 was superintendence, direction and control of
the preparation of the electoral rolls for,
by the Government of India to
adopted as the National Flag of India, examine framework for virtual
but the Charkha in the middle was and the conduct of all elections shall be
replaced with the Ashoka Chakra. In vested in the Election Commission of currencies?
National Flag the saffron colour on top India. Therefore, it is the sole authority in (a) Secretary, Department of Financial
represents sacrifice, white represents India that takes charge of elections in Services
peace and purity and green signifies the India. (b) Special Secretary, Department of
Law of Dharma (righteousness). Revenue
18. Which of the following
(c) Special Secretary, Department of
15. Which one of the following provision(s) of the Constitution Economic Affairs
about the Parliament of India is of India became effective from (d) Deputy Governor, Reserve Bank of
NOT correct? 26th November, 1949? India
(a) The Parliament consists of the 1. Elections
President, the Lok Sabha and the
_ (c) Special Secretary of Department of
2. Citizenship Economic Affairs is the Chairman of
Rajya Sabha. interdisciplinary committee constituted
(b) There are no nominated members in 3. Emergency provisions
to examine framework for virtual
the Lok Sabha. 4. Appointment of the Judges currencies.
21. Which one of the following is lA party gets recognition as a state
not a subject that has been 2017 (I) party in four states.
l It is not mandatory to have its
devolved to the Panchayati Raj
24. Which one among the following headquarters in New Delhi.
Institutions by the 11th So, only statements (1) and (2) are
Schedule of the Constitution of states of India has recently
correct.
proposed to frame the first
India? 26. Match List I with List II.
Internal Security Act to deal
(a) Non-conventional energy resources
with the challenges of terrorism, List I List II
(b) Roads
(c) Higher education
insurgency, communalism and (Amendments (Subjects)
caste violence? to the Constitution
(d) Libraries
(a) Maharashtra (b) Gujarat of India)
_ (c) 11th Schedule of the Constitution of (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh A. 52nd 1. Reduction of
India doesn’t include higher education. Amendment voting age from
This schedule includes 29 subjects _ (a) Maharashtra is the first state in the Act, 1985 21 to 18
including non-conventional energy country to draft its own Internal Security
B. 73rd Amendment 2. Right to
resources, roads, libraries, etc. Act. It has proposed setting up of Special
Act, 1992 Education
Security Zones (SSZs), where the
22. Who among the following can movement of arms, explosives and C. 61st Amendment 3. Panchayati Raj
attend the meetings of both inflows of unaccounted funds will be Act, 1988
Houses of Parliament while not prohibited. D. 86th Amendment 4. Disqualification
Act, 2006 on grounds of
being a member of either 25. By fulfilling which of the defection
House? following conditions can a
Codes
(a) The Solicitor General of India political party claim the status A B C D A B C D
(b) The Vice-President of India of a national party? (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) The Comptroller and Auditor General
of India
1. It secures at least six per cent (c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
(6%) of the valid votes polled
(d) The Attorney General of India _ (b) The correct matching is A-4, B-3,
in any four or more States, at C-1, D-2.
_ (d) The AGI (Attorney General of India) is a general election to the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 provided
the only person under the Indian system
who can take part in the proceedings of House of the People or to the provisions related to anti-defection in
State Legislative Assembly. India. It laid down the process by which
the Parliament or any parliamentary
legislators may be disqualified on the
committee, but cannot vote. 2. It wins at least four seats in
grounds of defection.
He has the right to speak and to take the House of the People from The 73rd Amendment Act, 1992
part in the proceedings of both the any State or States or wins at introduce the system of local self
Houses of Parliament or their joint least two per cent (2%) seats government or Pachayati Raj in India.
sittings and in any committee of
in the House of the People The 61st Amendment Act, 1988
the Parliament of which he may be
named a member, but without the right (i.e. 11 seats in the existing reduce the age of voting from 21 to 18.
to vote. House having 543 members), The 86th Constitutional Amendment
and these members are provided Right to Education for all
23. The Cabinet Mission Plan for elected from atleast three children upto age of 14 years.
India envisaged a different states. 27. Which one of the following is
(a) Federation 3. The party in question has got
(b) Confederation
not an objective of the National
recognition as a State party Civil Aviation Policy, 2016?
(c) Unitary form of government
(d) Union of States
in atleast two states. (a) To establish an integrated ecosystem
4. It must have its headquarters which will lead to significant growth
_ (d) The Cabinet Mission Plan for India in New Delhi. of civil aviation sector.
envisaged a Union of States. The (b) To promote tourism, increase
mission spent some three weeks to Select the correct answer using the
employment and lead to a balanced
discuss with the leaders of various codes given below.
regional growth.
political parties, but could not arrive at (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) To ensure safety, security and
any agreed solution. So, finally it (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
sustain ability of all sectors through
announced its own recommendations on
16th May, 1946. _ (c) A registered political party is the use of technology.
recognised as a national party only if it (d) To enhance regional connectivity
The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 fulfills any one of the following three through fiscal support and
proposed that there shall be a Union of conditions. infrastructure development.
India which was to be empowered to l The party at a general election to Lok
deal with the defense, foreign affairs _ (c) The most striking feature of National
Sabha should poll 6% of votes in any Civil Aviation is its Regional Connectivity
and communications. four or more states won at least four Scheme (RCS) which seeks to
The Cabinet Mission recommended an seats in a Lok Sabha general election encourages airlines to fly on regional
undivided India and turned down the from any state or states. routes. The new policy focuses upon
Muslim League’s demand for a separate l A party should win 2% of seats in the competition, consumers, connectivity
Pakistan. The Cabinet Mission restricted Lok Sabha from at least three and investment. Hence, option (c) is not
the Communal representation. different states. correct.
 l According to the Constitution of India, l The Prime Minister takes decisions
2016 (II) the total number of ministers in the
Council of Ministers must not exceed
with regard to assignment of various
ministries to individual ministers. He
15% of the total number of members may transfer a Minister from one
28. Consider the following of Lok Sabha. department to another.
statement(s) about the l The rank of different ministers in the l The Prime Minister stands between
Constitution of India. Union Council of Ministers is the President and the Cabinet.
1. A Member of Parliament determined by the Prime Minister. Communications relating to policy
enjoys freedom of speech in l Ministers are appointed by legislature. are made only through the Prime
Minister.
the Parliament as a 30. Which one of the following Hence, option (a) is correct.
Parliamentary privilege statements about Money Bill is
protected by the Constitution correct?
of India.
(a) A Bill shall be deemed to be a Money 2016 (I)
2. The Constitution has vested Bill only if it provides for imposition of
the power to amend the fines or penalties.
32. Which of the following
Constitution in the (b) A Money Bill shall be introduced in
the Rajya Sabha. statements relating to the
Parliament.
(c) The Rajya Sabha can reject the Comptroller and Auditor
Which of the statement(s) given Money Bill. General (CAG) of India is/are
above is/are correct? (d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha finally correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 decides if it is a Money Bill, should 1. The CAG can attend the
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 any dispute about it arise. sittings of the Committee on
_ (c) Indian Constitution provides _ (d) Under Article 110 (1) of the Public Accounts.
parliamentary privileges to the members Constitution, a bill is deemed to be a 2. The CAG can attend the sittings
of the Parliament. These are special Money Bill if it contains provisions dealing of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
rights, immunities, exceptions enjoyed with following matters namely 3. The jurisdiction of CAG is
by the members of the two houses of l Imposing, abolishing and regulating a
Parliament e.g. A member of Parliament co-extensive with powers of the
tax Union Government.
enjoys freedom of speech in the
l Regulating government borrowings
Parliament and no member is liable to Select the correct answer using the
l The consolidated and contingency
any proceedings in any given court for codes given below.
anything said by him in Parliament. funds of India etc.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
Article 368 of the Indian Constitution Money Bills can be introduced only in
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
gives power to the Parliament to amend Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha cannot make
the Constitution. amendments in it. Money Bill passed by _ (a) The CAG is an authority established
Hence, both Statements are correct. Lok Sabha and transmitted to it. Speaker by Constitution of India under Article-148
of the Lok Sabha finally decides if it is a to audit all receipts and expenditure of
29. Which one of the following Money Bill, should any disputes about it Central and State Governments. CAG
statements about the Union arise. assists the Public Account Committee
Executive in India is correct? Hence option (a), (b), (c) are incorrect during the examination of audit report of
(a) According to the Constitution of and (d) is correct. CAG.
lndia, the total number of members Further, CAG cannot attend the sittings
is the Council of Ministers cannot 31. Which one of the following of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The
exceed 20% of the total number of powers of the Prime Minister of jurisdiction of CAG is not co-extensive
Members of the House of the India is codified in the with powers of the Union Government.
People. Constitution of India itself? Hence, only statement (1) is correct.
(b) The rank of the different Ministers is (a) The power of advising the President 33. Which of the following
determined by the President. as regards the appointment of other statements relating to election
(c) The Ministers are appointed by the Ministers. as the President of India is/are
President on the advice of the (b) The power to allocate business
Prime Minister. correct?
amongst the Ministers.
(d) Only a member of either House of (c) The power to summon the meeting of 1. A person above the age of
Parliament can be appointed as a the Cabinet. thirty-five years is eligible for
Minister. (d) The power to transfer a Minister from election as the President of
one department to another. India.
_ (c) Union executive consists of the
President, the Vice-President and the 2. The President of India is
_ (a) Powers of Prime Minister are as follow eligible for re-election for more
Council of Ministers with the Prime l He has the power of selecting other
Minister as the head to aid and advice Ministers and also of advising the
than one term.
the President. The Ministers (included President to dismiss anyone of them 3. A person is not eligible for
Council of Minister) are appointed by individually or require anyone of them election as the President of
the President on the advice of the Prime to resign. Virtually, the Ministers hold India if the person holds an
Minister. Hence, option (c) is correct. office at the pleasure of the Prime office of profit.
The correct form of statement (a), (b) Minister.
and (d) are –
 Select the correct answer using the 36. Which one of the following 38. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
codes given below. pairs of the Schedule in the may resign his office by writing,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2 Constitution of India and its addressed to the
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 3 content is not correctly (a) President of India
_ (c) A person to be eligible for election as matched? (b) Prime Minister of India
President should be a citizen of India, (c) Vice-President of India
Schedules Content
must have completed the age of 35 years (d) Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(a) Eighth Languages
and should not hold any office of profit.
Schedule _ (d) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may
The President of India is eligible for resign from office by writing under his hand
re-election for more than one term. The (b) Second The forms of oaths and
Schedule affirmations to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
manner of election of President is provided The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the
by 55th Article of the Constitution. (c) Fourth Allocation of seats in
Schedule the Council of States presiding officer of the Lok Sabha, the
Therefore, all the statements are true. lower house of the Parliament of India.
Hence, option (c) is correct. (d) Tenth Provisions as to
Schedule disqualification of the 39. The Election Commission
34. The citizens of India do not ground of defection recognises a political party as a
have which of the following
national party if
Fundamental Rights? _ (b) Option (b) is not matched correctly
because the Second Schedule of the 1. it secures at least 6% of the total
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part
Indian Constitution deals with valid votes polled in four or more
of India.
(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose emoluments of President, Governors, states in a general election to
property. Judges of High Court and Supreme the Lok Sabha or to the State
(c) Right to practice any profession. Court and Comptroller and Attorney Legislative Assemblies.
(d) Right to form cooperative societies. General of India. All other pairs are 2. it wins at least four seats in a
correctly matched. general election to the Lok Sabha
_ (b) Article-300A in Part-XII deals with Right from any State or States.
to property and deems it to be a legal right 37. Consider the following
rather than Fundamental Right. statements. Select the correct answer using the
Originally, the Right to property was one 1. The Constitution of India codes given below.
of the seven Fundamental Rights and empowers the Parliament to (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
dealt by Articles-19(1)(f) and Article-31. form new states and to alter (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Article-19(1)(f) guaranteed to every the areas, boundaries or
citizen the right to acquire, hold and _ (c) Both statements are true. A political
names of existing states by party is recognised as a national party if it
dispose property. The 44th Amendment
Act abolished this right as Fundamental
passing a resolution in simple secures at least 6% of valid votes polled in
majority. any four or more states. Further, it wins at
Right.
2. Jammu and Kashmir has least 4 seats in the house of people from
35. Which one among the following any State or States or wins atleast 2%
been given special status
Acts for first time allowed seats in house of the people.
under Article-370 of the
Indians, at theoretically, entry to Constitution of India. 40. Consider the following
higher posts in British Indian statements.
administration? Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are correct? 1. The Amendment procedure has
(a) Charter Act, 1813 been provided in Article-368 of
(b) Charter Act, 1833 (a) Only 1
(b) Only 2 the Constitution of India.
(c) Charles Wood’s Education Desp,
(c) Both 1 and 2 2. The consent of the States is
1854
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 mandatory for all Amendments
(d) Indian Councils Act, 1861
to the Constitution of India.
_ (b) Charter Act, 1833 for first time allowed _ (c) Both the statements are true. The
Indians, at theoretically, entry to higher Constitution of India empowers the Which of the statement(s) given above
posts in British Indian Administration. Parliament to form new states and to is/are correct?
alter the areas, boundaries or names (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
The Charter Act of 1833 was the first
of existing states by passing a (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
act which made provision to freely admit
the natives of India to share resolution in simple majority. Hence,
statement (1) is correct. _ (a) Article-368 of the Indian Constitution
administration in the country. This act lays down the procedure for Amendment
also provided that Haileybury College of Article 370 along with Article 35A of of the Constitution. This article provides for
London should make quota to admit the Indian Constitution gave special two types of amendments.
future civil servants. states to Jammu and Kashmir, the (i) By a special majority of Parliament.
Charter Act of 1813 compelled the East Government of India abrogated the (ii) Through ratification of half of the states
India Company to accept responsibility Article 370 in August, 2019, has by a simple majority.
for the education of the Indian people. making all the provisions of the Indian Besides, some other articles also provide
Charles Wood’s Education Despatch, Constitution applicable to Jammu for Constitutional Amendment by simple
1854 promoted the use of vernacular and Kashmir was bifurcated and majority of Parliament and no consent of
languages in the primary schools. reorganised into Union Territory of states are required.
Indian Charter Act, 1861 was passed Jammu and Kashmir and Union Hence, statement (1) is correct and (2) is
by British Parliament for executive and Territory of Ladakh. Hence, statement incorrect.
legislative purposes. (2) is correct.
41. Which one of the following 44. An emergency under Article-352 47. The Panchayati Raj system under
nations adopted first of the Constitution of India can Part-IX of the Constitution of
democratic Constitution in be declared only during India does not apply to the states
September 2015? (a) war, external aggression or internal of
(a) Bhutan (b) Myanmar disturbance. (a) Asom, Mizoram and Nagaland
(c) Nepal (d) Singapore (b) war, external aggression or armed (b) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Tripura
rebellion. (c) Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram
_ (c) On 20th September, 2015, (c) failure of Constitutional machinery in (d) Sikkim, Tripura and Meghalaya
Nepal adopted its first democratic
the State.
Constitution replacing the interim _ (c) The Panchayati Raj system under
(d) financial instability in the country.
Constitution of 2007. This new Part-IX does not apply to the states of
Constitution has restructured the nation _ (b) Under Article 352, the President can Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and
into a federal republic. Nepal also declare a national emergency when the certain other areas. These areas include
adopted bi-cameral parliamentary security of India or a part of it is hill area of Manipur for which a district
system. threatened by war or external aggression council exists, Darjeeling district of West
or armed rebellion. Bengal and scheduled and tribal areas in
2015 (II) A national emergency under this article various states.
can be declared even before the actual
occurrence of war or external
42. The word ‘Secular’ was inserted
into the Constitution of India
aggression or armed rebellion, if the 2015 (I)
President is satisfied that there is an
by imminent danger. 48. Which of the following is/are not
(a) 44th Amendment Act Fundamental Right(s) under the
(b) 52nd Amendment Act 45. The 4th Schedule to the
Constitution of India deals with Constitution of India?
(c) 42nd Amendment Act
(d) 34th Amendment Act (a) provisions related to the 1. Right to Education
administration of tribal areas. 2. Right to Work
_ (c) The word ‘Secular’ was inserted into (b) allocation of seats in the Council of 3. Right to Form Associations
the Preamble of the Constitution by the
42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Besides States. 4. Right to Practise any Profession
adding the word ‘Secular’, this (c) the Union List, the State List and the
Concurrent List.
Select the correct answer using the
Amendment Act also added two other codes given below.
words ‘Socialist and Integrity’, Hence, (d) recognised languages of the Union
of India. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
option (c) is correct.
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3
44th Amendment Act was enacted to _ (b) The 4th Schedule to the Constitution
nullify some of the amendments made of India deals with allocation of seats in _ (c) Right to work is not a Fundamental
by 42nd Amendment Act. the Rajya Sabha to the states and the Right. It is a legal right and also a directive
union territories. under Directive Principles of State Policy
43. The two provisions of the (DPSP). Article-41 direct the state to
The provisions related to administration
Constitution of India that most of tribal areas is dealt in 6th schedule, secure the Right to work, to education
clearly express the power of and to public assistance in cases of
while 7th schedule has provisions for
judicial review are unemployment, old age, sickness and
division of powers between union
disablement.
(a) Article-21 and Article-446 territories and states. 8th schedule deals
with recognised languages of the union Right to Education (Article-21A), Right to
(b) Article-32 and Article-226
of India. form association (Article-19(1)(c) and
(c) Article-44 and Article-152
Right to practice any profession
(d) Article-17 and Article-143 46. The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ (Article-19(1)(g) are Fundamental Rights
_ (b) Though the phrase ‘Judicial Review’ was enunciated by the Supreme covered under Part-III of the Constitution.
has nowhere been mentioned in the Court during the Hence, option (c) is not correct.
Indian Constitution, but Article-32 and
(a) Golak Nath case 49. The 7th Schedule of the
Article-226 explicitly confers the power
(b) Maneka Gandhi case Constitution of India contains
of judicial review on the Supreme Court
(c) Keshavananda Bharati case
and High Court, respectively. Under (a) provisions regarding the
Article 32, the Supreme Court has (d) SR Bommai case administration of tribal areas.
power to issue directions or writs for the _ (c) The ‘Basic Structure Doctrine’ is a (b) the Union List, the State List and the
enforcement of any of the Fundamental judiciary-made doctrine enunciated by Concurrent List.
Rights. the Supreme Court on 24th April, 1973 in (c) a list of recognised languages.
Under Article-226, the Constitutional Keshavananda Bharati case to put (d) provisions about the disqualification
validity of a Legislative enactment or limitation on the amending powers of the of Members of Legislatures on
an executive order can be challenge in Parliament. The doctrine was grounds of defection.
a High Court on the grounds that it propounded so that the ‘basic structure _ (b) The 7th Schedule comes under
infringes the Fundamental Rights or it of the basic law of the land’ cannot be Article-246 of the Constitution. It gives
is outside the competence of the amended in exercise of its ‘constituent allocation of powers and functions
authority which framed it. power’ under the Constitution. between Union Territories and States. It
contains 3 lists–
 1. Union list (for Central Government)-97 53. Which of the following are the _ (d) The presiding officer of Rajya Sabha
subjects (now 100 subjects). basic features of 73rd is known as the Chairman. The
2. State list (powers of State Vice-President of India is the Ex-officio
Government) - 66 subjects ( now 61
Amendment Act of the
Chairman of the Upper House. He is not
subjects). Constitution? elected to chairman of the House and
3. Concurrent list (Both Union and State) 1. Provides for a three-tier can only be removed from his office if he
- 47 subjects (now 52 subjects) structure of Panchayats in the is removed from the office of the
Hence, option (b) is correct. village, intermediary and Vice-President. Therefore, only option (d)
50. Article-368 of the Constitution district levels. is correct.
of India deals with 2. Reservation of seats for 55. Who among the following was
Scheduled Castes and
(a) the powers of the Parliament of India not a member of the Drafting
to amend the Constitution. Scheduled Tribes and women in
Committee of the Constitution
(b) financial emergency. all the tiers of Panchayats.
of India?
(c) reservation of seats for Scheduled 3. Election to Panchayats under
Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the the supervision of the State (a) BR Ambedkar (b) KM Munshi
Lok Sabha. Election Commissions. (c) Krishnaswamy lyer (d) MK Gandhi
(d) official language of the Union of
India.
4. Introduction of the 11th _ (d) MK Gandhi was not a member of the
Schedule to the Constitution. Drafting Committee of the constitution of
_ (a) Article 368 in part XX of Indian India. The Drafting Committee for
Constitution deals with the powers of the Select the correct answer using the framing the Constitution was appointed
Parliament of India to amend the codes given below. on 29th August, 1947. The Committee
Constitution. It states that the Parliament (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 comprised of a Chairman and 6 other
may in exercise of its constituent power, (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 members.
add/remove an article, repeal any The members of the Committee were
provisions of the Constitution. However, _ (c) 73rd Amendment Act, 1992 went into l Dr. BR Ambedkar ® Chairman
parliament has no power to amend the effect on 24th April, 1993. The salient
l KM Munshi
basic part of the Constitution. features of the Act are
1. To provide 3-tier system of l Alladi Krishnaswamy lyer

51. Which among the following is Panchayati Raj for all states having l N. Gopalaswami Ayengar

not a basic feature of the population of over 20 lakh. l B.L. Mitter

Constitution of India? 2. To hold Panchayat elections regularly l MD Saadullah

(a) Fundamental Rights every 5 years under the supervision

l DP Khaitan
(b) Independence of Judiciary of state election commission.
3. To provide reservation of seats for The Drafting Committee was entrusted
(c) Federalism
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes with the responsibility to prepare the
(d) The unquestioned right of the
and women (not less than 33%). Draft Constitution.
Parliament to amend any part of the
Constitution. 4. To appoint State Finance
56. Which of the following is/are
Commission to make
_ (d) The unquestioned right of the recommendations as regards the not related to Fundamental
Parliament to amend any part of the financial powers of the Panchayats. Duties?
Constitution is not a basic feature of the
Constitution of India. Fundamental
5. The 11th Schedule of India 1. To cherish and follow the
Constitution was added which noble ideals which inspired
Rights, Independence of Judiciary and
contains 29 subjects. This schedule our national struggle for
Federalism are the basic features of
covers important topics such as
Constitution of India. freedom.
Panchayat’s powers, rural
52. Which one among the following development poverty alleviation, 2. To value and preserve the rich
is not a Fundamental Duty? drinking water etc. heritage of our composite
(a) To abide by the Constitution of India
All the statements are true. Hence, culture.
option (c) is correct.
and respect the National Flag and 3. To promote the educational
National Anthem. and economic interests of the
(b) To safeguard public property.
(c) To protect the sovereignty, unity and
2014 (II) weaker sections of the people,
especially the Scheduled
integrity of India. Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
(d) To render compulsory military service. 54. Which of the following
statements is correct? 4. To protect all monuments of
_ (d) Fundamental Duties are defined as historic interest and national
the moral obligations of all citizens to (a) The presiding officer of the Rajya
help promote a spirit of patriotism and to Sabha is elected every year. importance.
uphold the unity of India. The (b) The presiding officer of the Rajya Select the correct answer using the
Fundamental Duties of citizens were Sabha is elected for a term of 5 codes given below.
added to the Constitution by the 42nd years.
Amendment in 1976, (Article-51 A, part IV (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) The presiding officer of the Rajya
A) upon the recommendations of the Sabha is elected for a term of 6 (c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
Swaran Singh Committee. They were years. _ (c) First two statements/duties are
originally ten in number. To render (d) The Vice-President of India is the among the Fundamental Duties
compulsory military service is not a ex-officio presiding officer of the mentioned in the Article 51A.
Fundamental Duty. Rajya Sabha.
 To promote the educational and _ (c) A federal system of government
economic interests of the weaker 2014 (I) deals with governance at two levels i.e.
sections of the people, especially the centre and state. It has nothing to do with
SCs and STs is a part of Directive 59. Which of the following separation of power between Legislative
Principles of State Policy under
Article 46.
statements are true for the and Executive branches of government.
Fundamental Right to Life and 61. Which of the following is/are
Further, Article 49 under the DPSP
direct the state to protect all Personal Liberty as guaranteed true relating to the Lokpal Bill,
monuments of historic interest and under Article-21 of the 2013, which was assented to by
national importance. Therefore, last Constitution of India? the President on 1st January,
two statements 3 and 4 are parts of 1. The Right is available to
Directive Principles of State Policy
2014?
citizens as well as aliens. 1. It provides for creation of
and not Fundamental Duties.
2. It covers protection against antigraft ombudsman to
57. Joint sittings of the two arbitrary executive and investigate corruption
Houses of Indian Parliament legislative action. charges against public
are held to 3. It includes the right to live with functionaries including the
(a) elect the President of India.
human dignity. Prime Minister, Ministers
(b) elect the Vice-President of India.
(c) adopt a Constitution Amendment 4. It can be taken away according and Members of the
Bill. to the procedure established by Parliament.
(d) consider and pass a Bill on which law. 2. The Bill makes it incumbent
the two Houses disagree. Select the correct answer using the upon states to make within a
_ (d) Under the Article-108 of the codes given below. year their own law for setting
Constitution of India, a joint sitting of (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 up Lokayuktas on the lines of
both the Houses can be called if a Bill (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 the Lokpal Bill.
has been passed by one House and
3. States are free not to set-up
rejected by the other, if the two _ (c) Article 21, under Part III of the
Houses have finally disagreed on the Constitution deals with Fundamental Right Lokayuktas, if they do not so
amendments to be made in the Bill or to protection of life and personal liberty. desire.
if more than six months have elapsed This article declares that no person shall be Select the correct answer using the
after a Bill is passed by one House but deprived of his life or personal liberty
except according to procedure established
codes given below.
not passed by the other.
by law. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
Till so far, the joint session of Indian
The right is available to both citizens and (c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Parliament has been called for only
3-bills i.e. the Dowry Prohibition Act, aliens. The Supreme Court in Menaka _ (a) The Lokpal Bill, was introduced in the
1960, the Banking Service Gandhi Case (1978) has given a wide Lok Sabha on 22nd December, 2011
Commission Repeal Bill, 1977 and interpretation to this Fundamental Right and passed on 27th December, 2011 as
the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002. and affirmed that protection under Article the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Bill, 2011.
Hence, option (d) is correct. 21 should be available not only against It received assent from President on
arbitrary executive action, but also against 1st January, 2014 and came into force
58. The President of India can arbitrary legislative action. from 10th January. It is an
issue proclamation of The court also held that right to life is not Anti-Corruption Act of Indian Parliament
Emergency merely confined to animal existence but it which seek to provide for the
(a) on the advice of the Prime include within its sphere the Right to live establishment of the institution of Lokpal
Minister. with human dignity. to inquire into allegations of corruption
(b) on the advice of the Council of So, all the statements are true. Hence, against certain public functionaries
Ministers. option (c) is correct. including Prime Minister, ministers and
(c) in his own discretion. member of parliament and for matters
60. Which one among the following is connecting them. The bill also makes it
(d) when the decision of the Union
Cabinet for the issue of such
not a characteristic of a federal incumbent upon states to make within a
proclamation has been system? year their own law for setting up of
(a) There are two distinct levels of Lokayuktas on th lines of the Lokpal Bill.
communicated to him in writing.
government. Hence, option (a) is correct.
_ (d) Article-352 of the Indian (b) The responsibilities and powers of
Constitution talks about the national each level of government are clearly
62. The Constitution of India
emergency. National emergency is defined in a written Constitution. guarantees the Fundamental
imposed whereby there is a grave (c) There is no separation of powers Right to Freedom of Religion to
threat to the security of India or any of between the legislative and Executive all its citizens. Which among
its territory due to war, external branches of government.
aggression or armed rebellion. Such
the following is not true of this
(d) A Supreme Court is entrusted with the
emergency shall be imposed by the Right?
responsibility of interpreting these
President on the basis of written provisions and arbitrating in matters of (a) It gives freedom of conscience and
request by the Council of Ministers dispute. freedom to profess, practise and
headed by the Prime Minister. propogate any religion.
 (b) It gives freedom to establish and _ (a) The Scheduled Castes and 65. The Financial Sector Legislative
maintain institution for religious and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Reforms Commission Report
charitable purposes. Atrocities) Act, 1989 may be seen as submitted recently, among others,
(c) The Right is subject to public order, giving effect to Equality before Law,
Right against Discrimination and
contained which of the following
morality and health.
(d) The state cannot make any law Abolition of Untouchability. Right to proposals?
which abrogates this Right for Freedom of Religion is not covered as 1. All regulators will have an
citizens. this act deals with intra-religious empowered board, the role of
domain. each of the members has been
_ (d) The Constitution of India does
guarantee Fundamental Right to 64. Under which of the following defined.
Freedom of Religion to all its citizens, but Acts is the National Population 2. The Commission envisages an
the state can make laws which abrogate Register being created? important process of judicial
the right in case there is a threat to public
order, morality and health. The provision (a) The Citizenship Act of India, 1995 review of the regulations.
for Right to Freedom of Religion is as amended in 2004. 3. The draft code does not
mentioned in Articles 25-28 of the (b) The Census Act, 1948 mention about executive
Constitution. Hence, option (d) is not (c) The UID Act, 2010
powers.
correct. (d) None of the above
Select the correct answer using the
63. The Scheduled Castes and _ (a) The National Population Register codes given below.
(NPR) is a Register of usual residents
Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of of the country. It is being prepared at (a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
Atrocities) Act, 1989 may be the local (village/sub-town), (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
seen as giving effect to which of sub-District, District, State and
_ (a) The Financial Sector Legislative
the following Fundamental National level under provisions of the Reforms Commission (FSLRC) was
Citizenship Act, 1955 and the constituted with a view to rewrite and
Rights? Citizenship (Registration of Citizens clean up the financial sector laws to bring
1. Equality before the Law and issue of National Identity Cards) them in tune with the current
2. Right against Discrimination Rules, 2003. requirements. FSLRC was set-up on 24th
It is mandatory for every usual resident March, 2011 by the Government of India,
3. Abolition of Untouchability
of India to register in the NPR. Ministry of Finance. In its report, the
4. Right to Freedom of Religion A usual resident is defined for the commission recommended that regulators
Select the correct answer using the purposes of NPR as a person who has will have an empowered board with a
codes given below. resided in a local area for the past precise selection-cum-search process
6 months or more or a person who appointed of members. It further
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 ,
intends to reside in that area for the recommended judicial review of
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
next 6 months or more. regulations. Hence, option (a) is correct.