BB Notes
BB Notes
PRELIMS
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BLOOD BANKING & TRANSFUSION MEDICINE transformed into red blood corpuscles”
- Two instances of successful transfusion, both
● Blood Banking: encompasses activities, procedures administered during leg amputation are
and tests done to ensure blood for transfusion is properly documented from the Civil War
collected, preserved, stored and dispensed for later use ● Karl Landsteiner, 1901: discovered the ABO blood
in blood transfusion group system
● Transfusion Medicine: is a multidisciplinary branch of ○ From ABC blood group, naging ABO/ABH blood
medicine that is concerned with the transfusion of blood group
and blood components, including proper selection and ○ O = null or absence of A and B Ag; having the
utilization of blood components as well as removal of most H Ag
blood or blood components in the treatment or ● Von Descatello and Sturli, 1902: discovered the fourth
prevention of disease blood group (Type AB)
● Food and Drug Administration: governing body for ● Karl Landsteiner & Alex Wiener, 1940: discovered Rh
blood bank inspections, inspects blood banks every year. blood group
Blood is regulated both as biologic and as a drug. ● Edward Lindemann, 1913: used vein-to-vein
● Blood transfusion: parang drugs using blood transfusion by using multiple syringes and a special
cannula
HISTORY ● Lester Unger, 1913: designed syringe-valve apparatus;
unassisted transfusion
● CHINA, 1000 BC: the soul was contained in the blood ● Dr. Charles Drew, 1941: director of first American Red
● EGYPTIANS bathed in blood for their health Cross blood bank
● ROMANS drinking the blood of fallen gladiators to gain ● Loutit and Mollison, 1943: introduced the ACD
strength and vitality to cure epilepsy preservative
● Ancient Greeks believed that blood was formed in the ○ WWII = need to preserve
heart, then consumed as it flowed out to the body in ○ Nagkaroon ng research about blood
veins, while air was passed from the lungs to the body in preservatives
arteries ○ ACD preservatives
● Pope Innocent VII, 1492: recipient of first blood ● Robin Coombs, Arthur Mourant & Rob Race, 1945:
transfusion in history describe the use of AHG
● Andreas Libavius, 1615: first person to advocate ● Carl Walter & William Murphy, 1950: introduced the
transfusion, though he is not known to have attempted to use of flexible sealed plastic bag for blood transfusion
perform a transfusion ● Gibson, 1957: introduced citrate phosphate dextrose
● Richard Lower, 1665: is credited with performing the preservative (less acidic)
first successful blood transfusion (animal to animal) ● Herb Cullis, 1972: invented apheresis machine
● Jean Baptiste Denis & Emmerez, 1667: performed ● George Kohler & Cesar Milstein, 1975: discovered
transfusion of lamb blood into the carotid artery of a monoclonal antibodies thru hybridoma technology
young woman ● Dr. Yves Lapierre, 1985: developed gel test in Lyon,
● James Blundell, 1840: performed the first successful France
blood transfusion to patient
○ Clotting was a major problem BLOOD DONATION PROCESS
● Braxton Hicks, 1869: recommend sodium phosphate as
blood preservative ● 500 mL ± 10% of blood (525/110 pound)
● Albert Hustin, 1914: uses sodium citrate as an ● HCT 38%
anticoagulant solution for transfusion ● Anticoagulant Preservative: 63-70 mL
○ Too much citrate = citrate toxicity note:
○ If ↑ citrate = ↓ calcium ● The donor’s RBCs are replaced within 1-2 months after
○ tetani/cardiac arrhythmia donation.
● Richard Lewisohn, 1915: determined the minimum ● A volunteer donor can donate whole blood every 8
amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and weeks.
demonstrated its nontoxicity in small amounts ● Merong 10-12 pints of blood sa tao; up to 4 pints
● Rous and Turner, 1916: introduced the citrate dextrose ● 16-65 years old pwede magdonate ng blood; if 16,
preservative parent’s consent; if 65, physician’s consent
● Replenish fluid loss within 1-2 mos. (in PH, 3 mos)
Lewisohn’s Method of Transfusion
● 19th Century:
- Saline infusion was observed to be safer than,
and frequently as effective as blood transfusion
- Milk was advocated as potentially effective
infusion because it was thought that the “white
corpuscles of milk were capable of being
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RBCs 3. RBC Metabolism
Note:
To increase the amount of RBCs after trauma or Maintain RBC membrane, Hgb structure, and RBC metabolism
surgery or to treat severe anemia.
Storage Period: 42d in the refrigerator or 10y in the RBC MEMBRANE
freezer
● Serves as the cytoskeleton; maintain structure
● Biconcave shape increases surface:volume ratio
FRESH FROZEN PLASMA (FFP) ● Semipermeable, consist of lipid bilayer
● Phospholipid: main lipid component of the membrane
To correct a deficiency in coagulation factors or to treat ● Integral Membrane Proteins: proteins that extend from
shock due to plasma loss from burns or massive the outer surface and span the entire membrane to the
bleeding. inner cytoplasmic side of the RBC
Storage Period: 1y in the freezer ○ AKA Transmembrane protein
○ Integrated sa RBC membrane
○ Expression of blood group Ag
PLATELETS
○ Glycophorin A, B, C
● Peripheral Proteins: proteins beneath the lipid bilayer;
To treat or prevent bleeding due to low platelet levels.
located and limited to the cytoplasmic surface of the
To correct functional platelet problems.
membrane forming the RBC cytoskeleton
Storage Period: 5d at RT
○ AKA cytoskeletal proteins76
○ Spectrin, Ankyrin, Actin
1. Educational Materials
2. Donor Health History Questionnaire
3. Abbreviated Physical Examination
● Syphilis (1950s)
● HBsAg (1971)
● Anti-HBc (1986)
● Anti-HCV (1990)
● Anti-HIV-1/2 (1992)
● Anti-HTLV-I/II (1997)
● HCV NAT (1999)
● West Nile Virus NAT (2004)
● Trypanosoma cruzi antibody (2007)
● HBV NAT (2009)
● Babesia microti antibody and NAT (2012)
● Zika virus NAT (2016) RBC CHARACTERISTICS:
1. Deformability
HIV = AIDS 2. Permeability
Syphilis = T. pallidum Note:
Western blot - confirmatory test for syphilis sa bata Permeability - ability to pass through
Neurosyphilis - tertiary syphilis; confirmatory test is CSF-VDRL - Permeable substances; water, anions
To monitor HIV therapy - test viral load Freely permeable - readily pass through
Physical examination: RBC is impermeable sa cation
● Blood pressure (systolic, not > 180 mmHg; diastolic, Anion - Cl
not >100 mmHg) Cation - Ca, Na, K
● Temperature, not > 35.5C Na-K pump - ion balance/homeostasis
● Hb, 12.5 g/dL for M, 14-18 g/dL for F Calcium - pump sa interior RBC
● Pulse 50-100 or 60-100 Calmodulin - regulates calcium
- If ↓ ATP = ↑ Ca, Na, kasi hindi gumagana si Calmodulin
RBC BIOLOGY - Nagkakaroon ng rigid cell, not capable of deformability,
and can’t pass through
1. RBC Membrane Deformability - ability of RBC to stretch
2. Hemoglobin Structure and Function - If no ATP, ↓ phosphorylation of spectrin
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METABOLIC PATHWAYS
RBC PRESERVATION
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synthesis
3. Glucose: serves as food for the cells
a. Energy source
b. Substrate of ATP (magbind sakanya
yung enzyme to release energy)
c. Glycolysis = ↑ pH
4. Phosphate: source of 2,3-DPG
+ Citric acid: to prevent caramelization of anticoagulant during
autoclaving
PLATELET PRESERVATION
HEPARIN: used for by-pass surgery; 2 days shelf-life
CPD – nadedeplete by 2nd week yung 2,3-DPG
CPDA-1 – most common anticoagulant preservative for neonatal PLATELET COMPONENTS:
transfusion - used to treat bleeding associated with thrombocytopenia
CPDA-2 – 42 days; limit (kahit lumagpas pa sa CPDA-2, limit na - transfused prophylactically to increase the circulating
ang 42 days) platelet count in hematology-oncology thrombocytopenic
by-pass surgery – on-going yung surgery tapos binabalik yung patients to prevent bleeding secondary to drug and
blood radiation therapy
● Additive Solutions: support red cell survival up to 42 - Platelets are stored at 20C to 24C with maintaining
days continuous gentle agitation throughout the storage
○ must be added to RBCs within the first 72h of period of 5 days (FDA standards define expiration time
storage as midnight of day 5)
○ added after removal of plasma with/without - Whole blood at room temp kapag hindi pa
platelet gagamitin
○ 100 mL additive solution is used for a 450 mL - Platelets can be stored at 1-6C for 48 hours (but NOT a
blood bag routine practice)
○ Final HCT: 55-65%; (HCT without additive: - Pwede ref temp pero ↓ life span (2 days instead
65%-80%) of 5)
○ Content: saline, adenine, glucose, mannitol or - Expire at midnight of the 5th day (room temp)
saline, adenine, glucose, citrate - pH 6.2; if ↓ pH 6.2 = platelet activation = shape change
● Rejuvenation Solutions: (from discoid to spherical)
○ used to restore levels of ATP and 2,3-DPG - Loss of membrane integrity and function
levels in RBCs stored in CPD, CPDA-1, AS-1
○ Solution can be used up to 3 days after
expiration of red cells (rejuvenation for 1-4 h at
37C)
○ Rejuvesol: only FDA-approved rejuvenation
solution in US; used primarily to salvage
liquid-stored RBCs that have reached out date
○ Content:
Phosphate-Inosine-Glucose-Pyruvate-Adenine; - Platelet concentrate can be prepared from whole-blood
Phosphate-Inosine-Pyruvate-Adenine thru centrifugation or from plateletpheresis.
○ Wash rejuvenated RBCs to remove inosine
○ Freeze rejuvenated RBCs: shelf-life of 10 years RANDOM DONOR PLATELET (RDP)
using CPD and CPDA-1; shelf-life of 3 years
using AS-1 ● Whole blood to be used for preparation of RDP must be
processed within 6-8 hours AFTER COLLECTION (6
● Red Cell Freezing: used for autologous units and hours if ACD; 8 hours for CPD, CP2D, CPDA1).
storage of rare blood types ● Whole blood to be used for RDP preparation must be
○ Storage: 10 years maintained at 20-24C.
■ Frozen RBcs = Thaw at 1-6C = ● Unit should contain at least 5.5x10^10 platelets
remove glycerol = deglycerolization ● Unit must contain sufficient plasma to maintain a pH of
○ Requirement: addition of cryoprotective agent greater than or equal to 6.2 (pH 6.2)
(glycerol) to RBCs that are less than 6 days old ● Platelet units from individual whole blood can be pooled
■ 40% sa autologous units in batches of 6-8 units prior to transfusion.
○ Deglycerolization: done prior to transfusion to ● One RPD unit can increase the blood platelet count by
avoid infusing the hypertonic glycerol 5,000 to 10,000 per uL in a typical 70-g human.
■ Expose to Sodium chloride with
decreasing concentration STEPS:
Red cell washing with decreasing concentration of saline: 12% → 1. Centrifuge whole blood using LIGHT SPIN (3,200 x g for
1.6% → 0.85% (NSS) + 0.2% dextrose 2-3 minutes) to separate the RBCs from the platelet-rich
plasma.
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2. Centrifuge the platelet-rich plasma using a HEAVY SPIN ● Purpose: to assess the effectiveness of the transfusion
(3,600 RPM for 5 minutes) to separate the platelets from of platelets
plasma. The plasma separated can be used to prepare
FFP or PF24. SAMPLE PROBLEM:
3. Approximately 50 mL of platelets should be left after the A patient with 10,000/uL platelet count has a body surface area
removal of the platelet poor plasma. (BSA) of 1.3m2. Six units of platelets are given. The one-hour
4. Allow the platelet concentrate to remain undisturbed for post transfusion platelet count is 50,000. What is the patient’s
1-2 hours at 20-24C. corrected increment count? Is platelet transfusion effective?
5. Platelets are stored at 20-24C for 5 days in constant
agitation. Platelet rotators used are either:
- 1 rpm elliptical rotator, or
- 2-6 rpm circular rotators
STORAGE WITH ADDITIVE SOLUTIONS ● Preservatives - added to whole blood to extend shelf life
● Additives - added to RBC with no plasma
ADVANTAGES: ○ If 500 mL blood bag = 110 mL additive
1. Reduces plasma-associated transfusion side effects ○ RBC with no plasma = ↑ Hct
2. Improves platelet storage conditions ○ Reduce HCT from 65%-80%
3. Saves plasma for other purposes (eg, transfusion or ○ Added to RBC to reduce viscosity kasi ↑ Hct =
fractionation) dehydrated
4. Increases the efficiency of procedures for the ○ Saline reduces viscosity para mabilis ang
decontamination of viruses and bacteria transfusion rate
○ Preserves blood for up to 42 days
STORAGE LESION ○ Registered additive in the US:
■ Adsol (AS-1) 42 days
■ Nutricel (AS-3) 42 days
Increased: lactate, degranulation, platelet activation
■ Optisol (AS-5) 42 days
Decreased: pH, ATP, morphology (from discoid to spherical) –
■ Solex
loss of swirling effect, platelet aggregation
● Rejuvenation solution - restore ATP, 2,3-DPG
○ Salvage (save) rare units
FROZEN PLATELETS ○ Extend shelf life of RBC up to 3 days
○ Rejuvesol - FDA approved
● There has been limited use of procedures that freeze ○ 50 mL rejuvenation solution = 1 RBC unit
platelets for clinical use (5% to 6% dimethyl sulfoxide & ○ If exposed ang blood sa open system, dapat
-80C mechanical freezers) ma-transfuse within 24 hours
● One clinical use has been the freezing of autologous ○ Oxygen = ↑ bacterial growth = ↓ shelf life
platelets for subsequent utilization ○ Freeze RBC = 10 years, depende sa
● 2 years shelf life preservative/additive
● Transfusion associated sepsis
○ Platelet concentration is the most common
PLATELET TRANSFUSION blood component associated
○ Most common isolate sa RBC units = Y.
CALCULATING CORRECTED COUNT INCREMENT & enterocolitica
PERCENT RECOVERY
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○ 2nd most common isolate sa RBC units =
Pseudomonas spp.
○ Most common contaminant sa RBC units =
Propionibacterium acne
○ Most common isolate sa platelet = B. cereus,
S. epidermidis
○ Blood in general = S. aureus, S. epidermidis
■ S. aureus - most common cause
■ ↑ deaths due to blood product
contamination
● Blood substitutes in case of blood component shortage:
○ Hgb-based oxygen carriers (HBOCs)
○ Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
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GENETICS dividing but are engaged in metabolic activities→ protein
synthesis, DNA and RNA synthesis, DNA replication
● Study of heredity (inheritance→ traits are passed from 2. G0 (Quiescence): not actively in the cell cycle
one generation to another, or from parents to offspring) 3. G1 (Gap 1): RNA and protein synthesis = 10h
● Concerned with population studies and epidemiology 4. G1/S checkpoint: prepare for DNA replication and enter
● Basis for the understanding of the inheritance of blood S phase (is all DNA intact?)
group antigens and the testing for diagnostic markers at 5. S phase: DNA synthesis, DNA replication = 8h
molecular level 6. G2 (Gap 2): tetraploid DNA is checked for proper
● Information about inherited differences affecting red cell replication and damage (in preparation of mitotic
antigens among individuals forms the foundation of safe division) = 4h
blood transfusion 7. G2/M checkpoint: enter mitosis (is DNA completely
● Many areas of transfusion medicine rely on: replicated?)
○ Understanding of blood group genetics a. Prophase: “pull” → each chromosome has two
○ Accurate and sensitive methods of pathogen chromatids (from duplication of DNA) and
testing to maintain the safety of the blood chromatids are linked via the centromere, and
supply are then pulled towards the equatorial plate
● Most of the antigens in the various blood group systems b. Metaphase: “middle” → chromosomes move
generally follow straightforward inheritance patterns: toward the equator of the cell and are held in
○ codominant nature place by microtubules attached at the mitotic
● Modern genetic techniques: plays a role in analyzing the spindle apparatus
antigen profile of blood donors and recipients (previously i. Metaphase/anaphase checkpoint:
performed only by serologic testing) begin chromatid separation and
● Three Different Levels: prepare for cytokinesis (are all
1. Population genetics (concerning genetic traits in chromosomes attached to the mitotic
large number of individuals) spindle?)
2. Cellular genetics (pertains to the cellular c. Anaphase: “away” → two sister chromatids
organization of genetic material) separate; each one migrates to opposite poles
3. Molecular genetics (based on the biochemistry of the cell and the diameter of cell decreases at
of genes and the structures that support them) equator
d. Telophase: “two” → chromosomes are at the
BLOOD GROUP GENETICS poles of the cell and the cell membrane divides
between the two nuclei; the cell divides and
● Blood Group System: group of antigens on the red cell each cell contains a pair of chromosomes
membrane that share related serologic properties and identical to the parent cell
genetic patterns of inheritance
● Study of blood group systems requires an understanding Cleavage furrow formation (cytokinesis)
of certain genetic principles and genetic patterns of ● Meiosis: cell division in gametes that results in half the
inheritance number of chromosomes present in somatic cells
● The characteristics that make each blood group system (occurs only in cells that will form sperm & egg cells)
unique are the structure and location of the antigens - Four haploid cells (Mitosis: two diploid cells)
present on the red cells, the antibodies they elicit and the
genetic control of antigen expression PHENOTYPE VS. GENOTYPE
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- A disease-carrying gene can be passed from
generation to generation with many individuals
GENES, ALLELES AND POLYMORPHISM not affected
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alleles from each parent (MN) has a “single dose” of that father should have transmitted to all of his offspring
antigen on the red cells (one M, one N)
● The agglutination reaction may demonstrate a weaker MOLECULAR GENETICS
antigenic expression, or lower antigen density, on the red
cell ● Applications of molecular technology in the field of blood
● When the same allele is inherited from both parents, a banking and transplantation include HLA typing, red cell
stronger red cell antigen is apparent because of a typing, viral marker testing and determination of
“double dose” of the M or N antigen is present on the red engraftment in hematopoietic progenitor cell
cells transplantation
● The variation in antigen expression because of the - HSC: type of stem cell committed to a blood cell
number of alleles present is called the dosage effect (not lineage collected from marrow, peripheral
observed with all blood group antigens or with all blood, and cord blood and used to treat certain
antibodies of a given specificity) malignant diseases and congenital immune
- The concept of dosage will be important when deficiencies
we are identifying red cell antibodies in antibody ● Applications of Molecular Testing in BB:
identification procedures
Transplantation HLA antigen-level and allele-level typing for HPC and
organ transplants
GENETIC INTERACTION
Engraftment studies for HPC transplants
● Sometimes genes can interact with each other,
depending on whether they are inherited on the same Transfusion Red cell typing in multiply transfused patients
chromosome (cis) or on the opposite chromosome
(trans) Determine the blood type when the DAT is positive
● This interaction may weaken the expression of one of
the antigens encoded by the genes Complex Rh genotypes, weak D expression
● In some blood group systems, antigens are encoded by Donor antigen screening for prevention of
two or more genes close together on the same alloimmunization
chromosome and are inherited from each parent as a
unit HDFN Determine parental RhD zygosity
● Genes that are so close together on a chromosome that
Type fetal blood
they are inherited as a unit are linked
- Independent assortment does not occur when
Donor Testing Detect virus in donors that may be below detectable
genes are linked (haplotypes) levels by antibody detection methods
- Haplotypes occur in the population at a different
frequency than would be expected if the genes Relationship Testing Establish paternity and legal relationships for
were not linked immigration
● Linkage Disequilibrium: refers to the phenomenon of
antigens occurring at a different frequency in the ● NAT: a general term used for molecular-based methods
population, depending on whether they were inherited by of screening for infectious agents
linked or unlinked genes - This methodology further reduces the “window
- Also occurs in the HLA system because these period” in viral testing when antibodies may be
genetic loci are very close below detectable levels
- The MHC genes that encode HLA antigens are
inherited as haplotypes
PCR
POPULATION GENETICS
●
The genes encoding many of the red cell and HLA
antigens are sequenced and cloned, providing “maps”
● Statistical application of genetic principles to determine for the specific nucleotide differences that define each
genotype and phenotype occurrence, which is allele
dependent on the gene frequency ● PCR: an in vitro technique used to amplify specific DNA
sequences of interest thru cycles of denaturation,
RELATIONSHIP TESTING annealing of primers that select the area of the DNA for
amplification and replication that result in a millionfold
● The high degree of polymorphism of the HLA and blood copies of a specific area of DNA
group systems has made them valuable tools in cases of Components of PCR:
disputed paternity a. Target DNA: DNA that contains the region of the DNA
● Direct Exclusion: exclusion of paternity when a child has fragment to be amplified
a trait that neither parent shows→ the child has inherited b. Taq polymerase: thermostable enzyme that catalyzes the
a genetic marker that is not found in the mother or replication of template DNA into copies
alleged father c. Primers: short pieces of a single-stranded DNA that are
● Obligatory Gene: gene that is passed by the father to complementary to the opposite strands that flank the
establish probability of paternity (to prove paternity) target DNA
● Indirect Exclusion: failure to find an expected marker in a i. Primers mark the sequence to be amplified and
child when the alleged father is apparently homozygous provide the initiation site on each DNA
for the gene→ the child lacks a genetic marker that the d. Nucleotides: deoxynucleotide triphosphates (dNTPs),
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which are the building blocks for the newly synthesized hypervariable) regions and is specific for each antibody
DNA molecule
e. & Buffer: allows proper pH and divalent cations for the
enzyme to function
IMMUNOLOGY
Primary Roles:
A. Direct lysis of cells, bacteria and enveloped viruses
B. Assist with opsonization to facilitate phagocytosis
C. Produce peptide fragment split products, which are
capable of mediating inflammatory and immune
responses such as increased vascular permeability,
smooth muscle contraction, chemotaxis, migration, and
adherence
BLOOD GROUP ALLOANTIBODIES & AUTOANTIBODIES
1. Classical Pathway
● Alloantibody: reacts with a foreign antigen not present on ● Initiate classical pathways- antigen antibody complex,
the patient’s own erythrocytes IgM and IgG
● Autoantibody: reacts with an antigen on the patient’s ○ It starts with C1qrs and up to C4 and C2 to form
own cells C4b which is C3 convertase use it as natural
substrate to make C5 convertase, then C5 is
IMMUNOGLOBULINS SIGNIFICANT FOR BLOOD BANKING used to make a MAC, which will end to cell lysis
● IgG, IgM & IgA: have the most significance for the blood 2. Alternative Pathway
bank ● Initiate alternate pathway- bacterial cell wall, viral, fungi
● Most clinically significant antibodies react at body ○ Start with C3 (unstable so the water hydrolyzes
temperature (37C), are IgG isotype, and are capable of the bond in C3. Once activated, C3b will bind to
destroying transfused antigen positive RBCs and factor B acted on factor B meron ka ng cleaved
causing anemia and transfusion reactions of various product na B
severities 3. Lectin Pathway
● IgM antibodies are most commonly encountered as ● Initiate lectin-maltose, fibrin mismo
naturally occurring antibodies in the ABO system and are ○ Importance of complement system kapag
produced in response to commonly occurring antigens nagkaroon ng distraction duon sa activation it
can result to the damage which is the RBC
IMMUNOGLOBULIN VARIATION damage either intravascular or extravascular
● Isotype: or class variation; refers to variants present in all
members of a species, including the different heavy and
light chains and the different subclasses
● Allotype: present primarily in the constant region; not all
variants occur in all members of a species
● Idiotype: determines the antigen-binding specificity (or
complementary determining regions) of antibodies and
T-cell receptors; found only in the variable (and
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○ Reverse typing specimen serum or plasma,
used to counter check forward typing. Sa bata
hindi na ginagawan ng reverse typing kasi wala
pa silang antibodies; 3-6 months development
of antibodies
○ Forward specimen is red cell
○ Pattern of inheritance of blood group system
autosomal codominant
○ Type O is autosomal recessive
○ Type A and B autosomal codominant
○ Possible genotype of Type A is O, pwedeng
hetero or homo
○ Universal donor - O
○ Universal plasma donor - AB
○ Universal blood recipient - AB
○ Universal plasma recipient - O
INTRAVASCULAR HEMOLYSIS
● usually caused by antibodies directed against the ABO
antigens
● rarely, other IgM blood group antibodies, as well as
some complement-fixing IgG antibodies can induce
intravascular hemolysis RH BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM
● ISBT 004
EXTRAVASCULAR HEMOLYSIS ● the most complex red cell antigen system in humans,
● IgG antibodies cause the majority of extravascular encompassing some 50 antigens, many phenotypic
hemolysis via the RE system, which removes variants and complex serologic relationships
complement-coated RBCs ● D Antigen: most immunogenic of all the Rh antigens
● Rh antibodies do not fix complement (RBCs are almost
ERYTHROCYTE ANTIGENS & ANTIBODIES always cleared through extravascular destruction)
○ Rh because first study in rhesus monkeys
ANTIGEN-ANTIBODY REACTIONS
CHARACTERISTICS
ANTIBODY PROPERTIES
● Affinity: strength of a single antigen-antibody bond
produced by the summation of attractive and repulsive
forces
● Avidity: a measure of functional affinity of an antiserum
for the whole antigen (combination of affinities); used to
express the binding strength of a multivalent antigen with
antisera produced in an immunized individual
○ Measure the overall stability of antigen antibody
complex
○ If wala kang DAF antigen, you’re prone to
malaria
HOST FACTORS
ABO BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM ● are important in the host’s overall immune response as
● ISBT 001 well as various specific immune reactions
● single most important blood group for the selection and
transfusion of blood
● two antigens (A and B) and four phenotypes (A, B, AB Properties of the host that influence immune response
and O)
● ABO antigens are detectable at 5-6 weeks in utero ● Nutritional status ● Race
● ABO antibodies are weak or absent in the sera of ● Hormones ● Exercise level
newborns until 3-6 months of age ● Genetics ● Disease
○ Diba in blood typing meron tayong forward and ● Age ● Injury
reverse
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TOLERANCE
● lack of an immune response or an active
immunosuppressive response
• Centrifugation • Temperature
- induces agglutination - IgM room temp or
reactions, one of the lower, IgG body MONOCLONAL VS POLYCLONAL REAGENTS
important in blood temp 37C
bank • Ig Type
● Monoclonal: are directed against specific epitopes and
• Antigen-Antibody Ratio - ABO (IgM), RH (IgG)
therefore are a potential solution
- zone of equivalence, • Enhancement Media
● Polyclonal: directed against multiple epitopes found on
if there is antigen - Ficin- fig plant
the original antigen used to stimulate antibody
excess - pro-zone, - Papain- papaya
production and can have multiple activities
antibody excess - - Trypsin- pig stomach
pre-zone, inhibition - Bromelain
that causes false -pineapple NEW AND NONTRADITIONAL LABORATORY METHODS
decrease • Chemical Reduction of IgG
• Effect of pH & IgM Molecules FLOW CYTOMETRY
- it should be similar to ● makes use of antibodies that are tagged with a
the serum sample na fluorescent dye
6.5-7.5 ● Fluorescence: occurs when the compound absorbs light
energy of one wavelength and emits light of a different
wavelength
○ Cells that are coated with fluorescent-labeled
antibody emit a brightly fluorescent color of a
specific wavelength
● the principle of flow cytometry is based on the scattering
of light as cells are bathed in a fluid stream thru which a
laser beam enters
GEL TEST
● uses a type of gel matrix instead of saline to separate
positive and negative reactions
● may be used for cell antigen detection and identification,
serum antibody detection and identification, and
crossmatching and is applicable to automated blood
bank methods
● Immunodeficiency
● Hypersensitivity or allergy
● Monoclonal and polyclonal gammopathies
● HDN
○ erythroblastosis fetalis
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○ Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive fetus 1946, Coombs use of AHG to detect in-vivo sensitization of the RBCs of
○ the mother is exposed to fetal RBCs as a result & coworkers babies suffering from HDN
of fetomaternal transfer of cells during
pregnancy or childbirth 1947, Coombs demonstrated that the antibody activity that detected Rh
& Mourant antibodies was associated with the anti-gamma globulin
fraction in the reagent
1952, Dacie observed that different reaction patterns were obtained when
dilutions of AHG were used to test cells sensitized with warm
(IgG, 37C) as compared with cold antibodies (IgM, <22C)
1957, Dacie & showed that reactivity of AHG to cells sensitized with warm
coworkers antibodies resulted from anti-gamma globulin activity, whereas
anti non-gamma globulin activity by cold antibody
2 major types:
IgM - it binds to corresponding antigen and directly agglutinates
RBC suspended in saline because of its large pentameric
structure
- Pinaka efficient sa agglutination reactions kasi malaki
yung structure niya
IgG - non agglutinating or incomplete antibody due to its single
monomer structure
- It’s too small to directly agglutinate the sensitized RBCs
- AHG test - to detect IgG antibodies and in addition to
IgG, the complement proteins which attached to the red
cells did not produce visible agglutination (?)
AHG TEST
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molecules - human IgG and complement b. Anti-IgG: contain antibodies specific for the Fc
proteins fragment of the gamma heavy chain of the IgG
○ Th injected human IgG and proteins are molecule
recognized as foreign - so the rabbit’s body will c. Anti-Complement: are reactive against the
produce antibodies against the human IgG and designated complement components only and
complement proteins contain no activity against human
○ Yung naproduce na antibodies ng rabbit yung immunoglobulins
gagamitin na AHG reagent d. Either IgG, or C3b or C3d
● Sa test system, we add the reagent that is specific to IgG e. Ginagamit sa further investigation or testing ng
antibody and C3b or C3d antibodies, and it will react (+) DAT result to identify if IgG or complement
● It is essential to wash the red cell with saline to remove yung cause ng reaction - DIFFERENTIAL DAT
any unbound molecules before the addition of AHG
reagent
○ If the red cells are inadequately washed, the
unbound antibodies or complement present in
the test will bind to the AHG reagent that will
inhibit the reaction of the antibody or
complement attached to the red cells -
NEUTRALIZATION
○ Na-bblock ang antibody binding sites
○ Causes false-negative results since walang
agglutination na mangyayari
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● Used in the following situations:
○ Detection of incomplete (non agglutinating)
antibodies to potential donor RBCs
(compatibility testing) or to screening cells
(antibody screen) in serum
○ Determination of RBC phenotype using known
antisera
○ Titration of incomplete antibodies
METHODS
Application of IAT in the immunohematology laboratory
DIRECT ANTIGLOBULIN TEST (DAT)
● One-stage procedure (patient sample + reagent)
Procedure Purpose
● Ordered to detect IgG or complement proteins bound to
patient cells, which is a consequence of certain clinical Antibody Detects antibodies with specificity to red cell antigens
events, including AIHA, HDFN, drug-related mechanism, screening
or an antibody reaction to transfused red cells
● A positive DAT (agglutination) is an important indicator of Antibody Identifies specificity to red cell antibodies
potential immune-mediated red cell destruction in the identification
body; (-) DAT no agglutination
Crossmatch Determines compatibility between donor and patient before
● Specimen: collected in EDTA transfusion
● DIFFERENTIAL DAT: test that uses monospecific
anti-IgG and monospecific anti-C3d/anti-C3b reagents to Antigen typing Identifies a specific red cell antigen in a patient or donor
determine the cause of a positive DAT with polyspecific
antiglobulin reagents
Comparison of DAT and IAT procedures
DAT IAT
IgG attachment to red cells has IgG attachment to red cells has
occurred within the patient’s body occurred during the incubation step
Clinical examples causing a positive direct antiglobulin test Patient’s red cells are tested with Test requires an incubation step before
antiglobulin reagent without an the addition of antiglobulin reagent
incubation step
Clinical condition Caused by Source of IgG
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cannot be dispersed
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AHG METHODOLOGIES
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ABO BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM ● Associated with immediate, intravascular hemolysis in
HTR (Hemolytic transfusion reaction) - role of
complement in erythrocyte destruction, intravascular,
and extravascular hemolysis is applied. ABO antibodies
can cause rapid intravascular hemolysis if the wrong
ABO group is transfused to the patient. ABO antibodies
are naturally occurring, that is they are of IgM class, well,
predominantly they are IgM, but there may be small
quantities of IgG. Therefore, they react preferentially at
room temp or below and efficiently activate complement
at 37°C
● Discovered by Karl Landsteiner: Landsteiner rule
○ Von Decastello and Sturli - added group AB
○ Landsteiner noted the presence of agglutinating
antibodies in the serum of individuals who lack
the corresponding antigen.
○ Let's say Group A is agglutinated with the
serum from Group B individuals. Group B, it
agglutinated with serum from Group A
individuals, Landsteiner rule or law. He is the
one who discovered and studied this concept.
○ Remember, we possess ABO antibodies sa
antigens na wala sa red cells natin. Hindi tayo
gagawa ng antibodies sa sarili nating antigens.
Unless in cases of autoimmune diseases. So, if
may A antigen ako, meaning to say, in other
words na wala akong B antigen therefore
meron akong anti B antibodies sa plasma. If
may B antigen ako, wala akong A antigen and I
have anti A antibodies. We possess ABO
antibodies SA antigens na wala tayo.
A, B AB
Autosomal O - autosomal
codominant recessive
antigen
● Ang – ABO
● Mens- MNS
● Po ni – P1PK ABO FORWARD TYPING (FRONT OR DIRECT TYPING)
● Rhea - Rh
● Lumabas - Lutheran ●Specimen: patient RBC
● Kaya - Kell ●Reagent: uses commercial antisera, anti-A (blue color),
● Lang - Lewis anti- B (yellow), clear anti sera which is for anti D (RH
● Di - Duffy type)
● Kita ni - Kid ● Use: detection of ABO antigens
● Diego - Diego ○ these are required for to be performed on all
donors and patients
ABO BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM (ISBT 001) ○ most frequently performed test in the blood
bank
● The ABO blood group system was discovered in the ○ ABO forward typing or front or direct typing, ang
1900s by Karl Landsteiner which marked the beginning dinedetect natin here are ABO antigens.
of modern blood pumping and transfusion medicine. Therefore, if antigens ang dinedetect, specimen
● Most important blood group for the selection and for patient is RBC or red blood cells.
transfusion of blood. ○ forward typing we perform for either slide (no
● Most common cause of HTR and HDN - most common grading method) or tube method (applicable
cause ABO incompatibility but most severe cause is RH grading).
incompatibility We usually perform the Tube method for initial testing, pwede
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slide then confirm through the tube method.
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- We determine the reactions based on the reading of
agglutination test
O - universal donor of whole blood or packed RBC
- no antigen present in RBCs that can cause reaction to
the recipient
AB - universal acceptor/recipient of whole blood or packed RBC
- has both A and B antigens
AB - universal donor of plasma products because no antibodies
present
O - universal acceptor/ recipient of plasma products
- they possessed both A and B antibodies
O gene
- it's considered an amorph kasi walang detectable na
antigen ang naproproduce in response to its inheritance
serving.
- group O is recessive in expression. Then we need 2
alleles to express
- most common blood group types- group O&A
- rarest blood type = group AB
● A1 and A2
○ These are additional phenotypes for Group A
NOTE:
Inversely - relationship between forward and reverse typing
20 seconds - centrifugation time – hemagglutination
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GRADING OF AGGLUTINATION
MIXED-FIELD AGGLUTINATION
● may look like small to large agglutinates with non
agglutinated cells
● may also appear as a “halo” or “puff of smoke” of non
agglutinated RBCs as the RBC button is dislodged from
the test tube bottom
● Causes – receiving non-ABO- type specific RBCs, ABO
subgroups (A3) and bone marrow or HSC
transplantation
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FORMATION OF THE ABO BLOOD GROUP ANTIGEN FORMATION OF H ANTIGEN
MUST STUDY
● Immunodominant sugar
○ Sugars that occupy the terminal positions of this
precursor chain and confer blood group
specificity
○ Therefore, L fucose dito siya ang responsible
for each specificity that is blood group O
○ L fucose it must be formed for the other sugars
to be attached in response to an inherited A
and/or B gene
● H antigen= precursor structure on which the A&B
antigens are made
NOTES
● Genes do not actually code for the production of
antigens but rather produce specific glycosyltransferase
● The H antigen is actually the precursor structure on
which A and B antigens are made
● The H and Se genes are not part of the ABO system;
however, their inheritance does influence A and B
antigen expression
● Without fucose, no other immunodominant sugar will be
attached
● Amount of H (from greatest to least):
O>A2>B>A2B>A1>A1B
● Frequencies: O>A>B>AB
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A SUBGROUPS
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PARA-BOMBAY (Hh genotype)
● The para-Bombay phenotypes are those rare phenotypes in
ABH ANTIGENS ON RBC ABH ANTIGEN which the RBCs either completely lack H antigens or have small
SECRETION amounts of H antigen present
RBC antigens can be Secreted substances are ● The genetic basis for the para-Bombay phenotype is either a
glycolipids. glycoproteins or glycoproteins mutated FUT1 (H
glycosphingolipids ● gene) with or without an active FUT2 gene (Se gene) or a
RBC antigens are Secreted substances are silenced FUT1 gene with an active FUT2 gene
synthesized only on type 2 primarily synthesized on ● Ah, Bh, ABh have been reported mainly in individuals of
precursor chains type I precursor chains European origin
Type 2 chain refers to a Type 1 chain refers to a ● No H, A, or B antigen is present in the saliva, yet anti-H is
beta 1 to 4 linkage in which beta 1 to 3 linkage in which present in the serum
the number one carbon of the number one carbon of ● Genotype: Hh
the galactose is attached to the galactose is attached to
● Presence of A, B or AB antigens in RBC and anti-H in serum
the number four carbon of the number three carbon of
the N-acetylglucosamine the N-acetylglucosamine
Acquired antigens or extra antigens
sugar of the precursor sugar of the precursor
Reported in persons of type O or B in
substance substance
association with severe infections caused by
-Type 4 - Type 3
Proteus mirabilis
-B(A) phenotype – group b individuals naka
ABO GROUP ABH SUBSTANCES IN acquire ng A antigens
SECRETORS SALIVA Acquired A Ex. Testing results
A A and H Antigen
Anti- Anti b A B
B Band H A cells cells
AB A,B,H 1+ 4+ 4+ 0
0 H
Non secretor -
Associated with conditions:
BOMBAY INDIVIDUAL (oh) hh genotype ✔ E. coli infection
● 5th phenotype ✔ P. vulgaris infection
● Bombay kasi first expressed in Bombay india ✔ Intestinal obstruction
● Do not inherit H gene ✔ Carcinoma of colon
● Inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. The underlying Acquired B - Occurs only on group A individual, and
molecular defect is most often a mutation in the gene FUT1 (H Antigen maybe mistyped as group AB in forward
gene), producing a silenced gene incapable of coding for the (common) grouping
enzyme a-2-L-fucosyltransferase (H transferase) Anti- Anti b A B
● H null or hh genotype A cells cells
● Lacks A, B, H antigen Group
+ + - -
● If Bombay hh genotype it will not produce L-fucosyltransferase Ab
will not transfer immunodominat sugar to acceptor Group
+ Wk+ - +
oligosaccharide chain to form h antigen. Which is H antigen is A
precursor building block of B antigens.
● Compatible if serum for other bombay individual
● Presence of anti A, anti B, anti H
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Group I: Weakly Reacting or Missing Antibodies ● Chimerism - This one is pwedeng group 1 or group 2
discrepancy but usually associated with group 2
● Most common discrepancy and these are associated with
unexpected reactions in reverse grouping due to weakly
reacting or missing antibodies.
● A reason for weak or missing antibodies, pwedeng depressed
yung antibody production ng patient or hindi nakaka produce ng
antibodies
COMMON POPULATION
Example ABO grouping in chimera twins.
● Newborns - antibodies of newborns not detectable until 3-6
months. That's why hindi tinitest sa reverse or indirect typing When you say chimera, dual population yung RBC antigens
because they don’t have antibodies yet. ng patient, like what is shown here. 70% B and 30% O and then the
other one is 30% B and 70% type O, we can observe dual
● Elderly patients- growing up as we get older slowed or
population of RBC antigens
depressing antibody production.
Remedy For Group I And Group Ii Discrepancy
● Patients with leukemia/ lymphoma - that shows
hypogammaglobulinemia, low antibody levels therefore possible ● 2 to 5% RCS or red cell suspension and then we incubate
na hindi siya madetect during blood grouping sample and reagent at room temp (20 to 24°C) for 15-30
minutes
● Patients taking or using immunosuppressive drugs that
yield hypogammaglobulinemia- kapag kasi under treatment ● If still negative reaction, incubate at ref temp (4°C)
yung patient and taking immunosuppressive drugs, suppressed
● Enzyme treated RBCs
ang immune system meaning to say hindi siya active production
of antibodies Group III: Protein or Plasma Abnormalities
● Patients with congenital agammaglobulinemia or ● These are between forward and reverse grouping caused by
immunodeficiency diseases – same with case of protein or plasma abnormalities resulting in rouleaux formation
hypogammaglobulinemia low antibody production or pseudo agglutination.
● Patients with bone marrow transplantations- because CAUSES
patients also develop hypogammaglobulinemia from therapy.
● Wharton’s Jelly- in cord blood samples
● Patients whose existing antibody ABO antibodies may have ● High level of globulin- such as multiple myeloma, Waldenstrom
been diluted by plasma transfusion or exchange macroglobulinemia, and plasma cell dyscrasia
● High level of fibrinogen
● ABO subgroups
● Plasma expanders- such as dextran and polyvinyl pyrrolidone
● Rouleaux
● Acquired B phenomenon - group A individuals na may na ● In the case of Wharton's Jelly- wash 6 to 8 times.
acquire na B Group IV: Miscellaneous Problems
● Antibody to low incidence antigens ● These discrepancies between forward and reverse groupings
are due to miscellaneous problems
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CAUSES:
● Polyagglutination
● Cold reactive autoantibodies
● Unexpected ABO isoagglutinin
● Unexpected non-ABO alloantibodies
● Circulating RBCS of more than 1 ABO group due to RBC
transfusion or marrow or stem cell transplant
● RBCS with cis AB phenotype.
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MIDTERMS
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RH BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM (ISBT 004) (small letter), if you have both of the
antigens, it will be equally expressed
HISTORY in the red cells
○ The product of RH genes are non glycosylated
● The first and most clinically important characterization of proteins - no carbohydrates are attached to the
the Rh system antigens came when Lansteiner and protein
Wiener (1940) published studies of animal experiments ■ Unlike in ABO, there are
involving the immunization of guinea pigs and rabbits immunodominant sugars for the
with rhesus monkey RBCs. expressions of such blood group
○ After Landsteiner discovered ABO, he tried to ○ Rh antigens reside on transmembrane
find other blood group systems that are due to proteins and are integral part of the RBC
transfusion reactions occurring during membrane
transfusion. Aside from ABO, there are other ● The Rh blood group system antigens were encoded by
antigens present in the red cells capable of two closely linked genes – RHD and RHCE – on
causing transfusion reactions chromosome 1
○ Landsteiner, together with Wiener, discovered ● RHD: determines the D antigen expression on the
Rh surface of red cells
○ They collected blood from rhesus monkeys, ● RHCE: determines the C and c, E and e antigen
injected the red cells from the rhesus monkeys specificities
to the guinea pigs and rabbits ● RHAG: (ISBT 030) resides an chromosome 6; important
○ With exposure to antigens, we create for the expression of the Rh antigens
antibodies against foreign antigens; the guinea ○ RHAG is a precursor of Rh (precursor – Rh
pigs and rabbits made antibodies against the needs RHAG to be expressed)
red cells of rhesus monkeys
○ When they tried to combine the antibodies with Commonly encountered antigens
human RBCs, it agglutinated 85% of human
RBCs and that concluded that humans had Rh
antigens
○ These anti-Rh was later reported to have the
same specificity as antibodies studied earlier by
Levine and Stetson
○ (Henry’s) these antibodies were responsible for
HDFN; (other sources) these antibodies were
responsible for HTR which was the first noted
Rh HTR case
● Levine and Stetson described a hemolytic transfusion
reaction in an obstetrical patient, and this was the first
noted Rh HTR case published studies of animal
experiments involving the immunization of guinea pigs
and rabbits with rhesus macaque monkey RBCs.
● The resulting antiserum agglutinated 85% of human
RBCs, and the antigen defied was called the Rh (rhesus)
factor
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RH TERMINOLOGIES Rosenfield: Numeric Terminology
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SAMPLE PROBLEM 2 ○ The (+) and (-) after the ABO type is the Rh
○ In blood typing, the colorless reagent is the
Convert Dce/DCe into Wiener terminology: anti-D reagent
A. R1/R2 = DCe/DcE
B. R0/R1 = Dce/DCe D ANTIGEN (Weak D)
C. R2/R2 = DcE/DcE
D. R1/R1 = DCe/DCe ● Weak form of the D antigen that requires the indirect
antiglobulin test for its detection
SAMPLE PROBLEM 3 ○ IAT is performed to detect in-vitro sensitization
of red cells
Which donor unit is selected for a recipient with anti-c? (can be ○ Weak D does not become (+) in Rh typing
due to recent transfusion. Rh antibodies are immune antibodies; ○ If anti-D reagent is added in blood, there will be
they are only formed upon exposure with foreign antigens, unlike agglutination for Rh (+); if there is no
ABO antibodies that are present or naturally occurring in the agglutination, it is Rh (-)
body) – convert to Fisher-Race ■ If Rh (+) = there is D antigen, however
Note: if the patient recipient has anti-c, we will select a unit with during Rh typing, if the patient has
no c antigen weak D antigen, it will not become (+)
A. r'r = dCe/dce ○ If weak D, it requires to be tested with IAT using
B. R0R1 = Dce/DCe Coomb’s reagent or AHG reagent for it to be
C. R2r’ = DcE/dCe detected
D. r'ry = dCe/dCE ○ D antigen has a strong reactivity with AHG
reagent that’s why the red cells become (+) with
SAMPLE PROBLEM 4 IAT, and it is referred to as the weak D
● Weak D Test: requires a control because the test uses
A patient developed a combination of Rh antibodies: anti-C, an antiglobulin phase (add AHG reagent then it will
anti-E, and anti-D. Can compatible blood be found for this agglutinate red cells coated with antibody, usually IgG)
patient? ○ Red cells with a positive direct antiglobulin test
A. It is almost impossible to find blood lacking the C, E, and D (DAT) will agglutinate in the IAT.
antigens – it is NOT IMPOSSIBLE to find blood lacking these ○ A control for the routine D phenotype is present
antigens if negative reactions with anti-A and anti-B are
B. rr blood could be used without causing a problem – rr = observed
dce/dce ○ These reagents all have similar diluents.
C. R0R0 may be used because it lacks all three antigens – R0R0 ○ We need to use a control when testing for
= Dce/Dce Weak D to ensure that the results are true
D.Although rare, ryr blood may be obtained from close relatives of agglutination
the patient – ryr = dCE/dce
SAMPLE PROBLEM 5
D d
D DD Dd
d Dd dd
D – presence of D antigen; Rh (+)
d – absence of D antigen; Rh (-)
A. Rh + only
B. Rh - only
C. Both Rh + and Rh -
D. Rh null
D ANTIGEN
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● Trans – antigens are located in different locus
● Cis – antigens are located in the same locus
Partial D (D mosaic/D variant)
● One or more parts of the D antigen is missing or altered;
○ One or more of the D epitopes within the anti-D
protein is either missing and/or is altered
● Individual with partial D may produce anti-D to the
missing part
● Patient: Rh (+) with anti-D to the missing part
● Once anti-D is identified, Rh (-) blood should be used for
transfusion
● Control should be negative ● Among the three variations of weak D, only the partial D
● In tube 3, both anti-D and control are positive, hence it is can produce/create antibodies
invalid; unable to interpret the results ● In genetic weak D, Rh protein is complete, but few in
● Tube 1 is Rh (+) because there is a reaction with anti-D number that’s why it is weakly expressed
● Tube 2 is Rh (-) because there is no reaction with anti-D ● In position effect, Rh protein is complete
● In partial D, there’s anti-D to the missing part that’s why
WEAK D this is the only variation that can create antibodies
against the antigens of the donor with complete D
Genetic (weak D)
● D antigens expressed appear to be complete, but few in ● Weak D Testing: also performed on prenatal evaluations
number and Rh immune globulin (RhIG) workups
Position effect (Gene interaction effect) ○ It is required for donors who initially phenotype
● In individuals showing the gene interaction weak D, the as D-negative
allele carrying D is trans or in the opposite haplotype to ○ In case of blood transfusion or donation, if the
the allele carrying C patient is weak D, their Rh type is reported as
● Ce gene is inherited in trans to the RHD gene (C trans to Rh (-); if the donor is weak D, their Rh type is
D) Rh (+)
● ex. Dce/dCe (trans): DCe/dce (cis) ■ Rh (-) blood can be transfused to both
Rh (-) and Rh (+) recipient; that’s also
why the universal blood donor is O-
■ During emergency transfusion (the
patient is in critical condition and is in
need of transfusion), O- blood doesn’t
react and is the safest blood that can
be transfused
■ If Rh (-) blood is transfused to an Rh
(-) recipient, there will be no reaction
because both the donor and recipient
don’t have D antigen
■ If Rh (-) blood is transfused to an Rh
(+) recipient, it is also acceptable
Why because the donor doesn’t have D
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antigen that could react to the SAMPLE PROBLEM 7
recipient’s anti D
■ Rh (+) blood can only be transfused to A patient tests positive for weak D but also appears to have anti-D
Rh (+) recipient in his serum. What may be the problem?
■ If Rh (+) blood is transfused to an Rh A. Mixup of samples or testing error
(-) recipient, transfusion reaction will B. Most weak D individuals make anti-D
occur because Rh (+) donor has D C. The problem could be due to a disease state
antigen and Rh (-) recipient doesn’t, D. A D mosaic may make antibodies to missing antigen parts = if
therefore, since the recipient is now an individual lacks part of the antigen, they may create antibodies
exposed to the D antigen, the recipient to the missing parts if exposed to the whole D antigen
will then create antibodies against the
donor which results in transfusion RH ANTIBODIES
reaction
■ If the weak D patient or recipient is ● Most are lgG and reacts optimally at 37 C
mistyped as Rh (+), they will be ● They are immune antibodies – they are formed if
assumed to be compatible with Rh (-) exposed to foreign antigens
and Rh (+) blood, however, this is not ● Do not bind complement
safe for transfusion because let’s say ● Causes extravascular hemolysis
the Rh (+) blood is transfused, and ● Causes delayed, extravascular HTR
that weak D patient is partial D, the ● Rh antibodies are usually produced following exposure
risk is the recipient will create of the individual's immune system to foreign RBCs, thru
antibodies to the missing antigens, either transfusion or pregnancy
which then leads to transfusion ● HDFN caused by Rh antibodies is often severe because
reaction; to ensure safe blood the Rh antigens are well developed on fetal cells, and Rh
transfusion, if the Px is weak D, their antibodies are primarily lgG which readily cross the
Rh is typed as Rh (-) so they can also placenta
receive Rh (-) blood
■ If the donor is weak D, their Rh is
typed as Rh (+) because Rh (+) blood
is only compatible with Rh (+) recipient
■ If the weak D donor is mistyped as Rh
(-), the blood could be transfused to
Rh (+) and Rh (-) recipients, which is
not okay because the donor has D
antigen which can cause transfusion
reaction for the Rh (-) recipient
○ In weak D testing, for safe blood transfusion,
the blood of the donor and recipient should be
compatible; weak D donor – Rh (+), weak D
recipient Rh (-)
○ In weak D testing, the results are not reported
UNUSUAL PHENOTYPES
as weak D (+) or Du (+); it’s either Rh (+) or Rh
(-) only
○ Weak D testing is also performed in evaluating D-Deletion Phenotype
the Rh immune globulin (Rhogam)
● RhIG: is purified anti-D prepared from immunized donors ● -D- or D-
and is given to D-negative mothers to prevent the ● Phenotype whose red blood cells possesses an
formation of anti-D extremely low number of D antigen that most reagent
○ Composed of anti-D antibodies and is given to anti-D are unable to detect
D-negative mothers to prevent the formation of ● Due to mutation of RHD gene
anti-D once the fetal RBCs leaked because of a ● Occurs most often in individuals of Southeast Asian
tear in the placenta or during delivery descent, occuring in o. up to 30% of that population
○ Rhogam is tested with weak D to ensure that ● Adsorbing and eluting ant:-D from the individual's RBCs
the mother is Rh (-) is often the only way to detect the D antigen
○ This procedure requires incubating ant:-D with
SAMPLE PROBLEM 6 the RBCs in question at 37 C followed by
eluting the anti-D off the adsorbed RBCs
Positive agglutination in anti-A antisera in forward typing
Positive agglutination in B cells in reverse typing. Rh null Phenotype
A. A+ = could be a possible answer, however, there was no Rh
typing performed ● -/-
B. A ● No Rh antigens; null – lack of Rh antigens
C. B+ ● Cells that type as Rh null have membrane abnormalities
D. B that shorten their survival and cause hemolytic anemia of
varying severity
● The inheritance of the Rh null phenotype can result from
a regulator gene or an amorph gene
● When transfusion of individuals with Rh null syndrome is
necessary, only Rh null blood can be given
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○ In Rh null, it has universal antibody to all Rh produce antibodies against the antigens
antigen ● There are Rh antigens that are not frequent and are not
● Individuals with Rh null syndrome demonstrate a mild strongly expressed in the red cells; you’ll only know that
compensated hemolytic anemia, reticulocytosis, they are present once a reaction occurs
stomatocytosis, a slight-to-moderate decrease in ● Antigen-negative RBCs should be transfused if
hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, an increase in HbF, a antibodies to Rh blood group system antigens identified
decrease in serum haptoglobin, and possibly an elevated or have been previously noted in the patient's history.
bilirubin level ● It is important to check previous records of patients who
○ Stomatocytosis is a characteristic of Rh null may be transfused for a history of red cell antibodies that
phenotype may have developed from previous transfusions or
pregnancies
Rh mod Phenotype
Hemolytic Disease of the Fetus and Newborn
● Individuals of the Rh mod phenotype have a partial
suppression of Rh gene expression and exhibit features ● Due to Rh incompatibility results from Rh (-) mother and
similar to those with Rh null syndrome, however, the Rh (+) fetus or newborn
clinical symptoms are usually less severe and rarely ● Initially observed in infants of D-negative women with
clinically remarkable D-positive mates
○ Compared with Rh null, Rh mod phenotype is ● First pregnancies were usually unaffected. Infants from
less severe subsequent pregnancies were often stillborn or severely
● Red cells lack most of their Rh antigen expression anemic and jaundiced
because of the inheritance of a modified RHAG gene ○ First pregnancies were usually unaffected
○ Unlike Rh null, Rh mod does not completely because there is no sufficient time for the
lack Rh and LW (Landsteiner-Wiener) antigens mother to produce enough anti-Rh antibodies to
● Hemolytic anemia is also a characteristic of this harm the fetus
phenotype ○ Once the mother has produced enough anti-Rh
antibodies, the fetus’ RBCs will be destroyed
CLINICAL CONSIDERATIONS ● The initial pregnancy stimulated the mother to produce
anti-D from the exposure to D-positive cells that occurred
Transfusion Reactions during birth when the infant's and mother's circulations
mixed
● Rh antigens are highly immunogenic; D antigen is the ● Because maternal anti-D antibodies can cross the
most immunogenic outside ABO system placenta, fetal red cells in subsequent pregnancies were
● Exposure to the antigen when the antibody has formed destroyed by the mother's antibody
produces a rapid secondary immune response ● RhoGAM (Rh immune globulin) – used to prevent HDN
● Rh mediated HTR usually results in extravascular ○ Contains antibodies against Rh antigens and
destruction of immunoglobulin-coated RBCs – delayed can be injected or given to the mother during
extravascular HTR pregnancy, before delivery, or immediately after
○ The transfusion recipient may have an delivery, miscarriage, or abortion
unexplained fever, mild bilirubin elevation, and ○ These injected antibodies will bind to fetal
a decrease in hemoglobin and haptoglobin RBCs that may have entered the mother’s
○ HTR is detected using DAT (+) blood and inactivate them; injected antibodies
○ When the DAT indicates that the recipient’s will inactivate fetal Rh antigens and prevent
RBCs are coated with IgG, elution studies may sensitization of the mother
be helpful in defining the offending antibody ● If HDN due to ABO incompatibility occurred, it is less
specificity severe compared to Rh HDN, and most commonly
○ Elution – dissociates antigen-antibody caused by type O mother and type A baby;
complexes on red cells; freed IgG antibody is ○ all children with ABO HDN are affected – baby
tested for specificity usually appears jaundiced (elevated bilirubin)
○ In the case of HTR, there is an antigen-antibody ○ Treatment for ABO HDN is phototherapy where
complex because there is a reaction; the they are exposed to light to convert bilirubin to
foreign antigen of the donor binded to the photo bilirubin, then it will be excreted in the
recipient’s antibody which is shown through the bile;
DAT. With elution, it will specify which antibody ○ Exchange transfusion
causes the transfusion reaction, and the
antibody that will be recovered in the elution LW BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM (ISBT 016)
procedure is called the ELUATE
○ If an antibody was recovered either in the ● Originally identified as anti-Rh in early experiments
serum from the DAT or eluate from the elution involving rabbits immunized with rhesus monkey blood
technique, the implicated antigen that caused ○ Identified as Rh because it agglutinated first in
the reaction should not be present in the Rh (+), then in Rh (-) which should not be it
subsequent transfusions ● Anti-LW is different from anti-D
○ ex. CC patient transfused with O- blood, and ● Ant-LW agglutinates Rh+ and Rh- cells except Rh null
the patient is A-, there is no problem because (--/--)
the patient is compatible with the blood type, ○ Anti-D – agglutinates/reacts with Rh (+) only
however, transfusion reaction can still occur if ● Anti-LW more frequently appears as an autoantibody,
the patient lacks the antigen that was which does not present clinical problems
transfused in them because then their body will
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Techniques to distinguish Anti-D and LW:
○ Treat the reagent panel cells with 0.2M DTT
(Dithiothreitol) and test the patient serum
against the treated cells. LW antigens are
denatured with DTT treatment while D antigens
are unaffected
○ Test the patient serum against Rh-positive and
Rh-negative cord blood cells
○ Anti-D will react only with the Rh-positive
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MINOR AND UNCOMMON BLOOD GROUPS
Lewis Antigens
Lewis Antibodies
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Disease Association
● Glycophorin A may serve as the receptor by which
certain pyelonephritogenic strains of E. coli gain entry to
the urinary tract
Disease Association ● The malaria parasite Plasmodium falciparum appears to
● The P system antigens also serve as receptors for use alternative receptors, including GPA and GPB
P-fimbriated uropathogenic E. coli- a cause of urinary
tract infections I BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM (ISBT 027)
● The Pk antigen is a receptor for Shiga toxins, which
cause Shigella dysentery and E. coli-associated HUS
● P is the receptor of human parvovirus B19
● Pk provides some protection against HIV infection of
peripheral blood mononuclear cells
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Disease Association
● Anti-I is associated with CAD and M. pneumoniae, and
anti-i is associated with IM
● Conditions associated with increased i antigen on RBCs
include those with shortened marrow maturation time or
dyserythropoiesis: acute leukemia, hypoplastic anemia,
megaloblastic anemia, sideroblastic anemia,
thalassemia, sickle cell disease, PNH, and chronic
hemolytic anemia
● Chronic dyserythropoietic anemia type II or hereditary
erythroblastic multinuclearity with a positive acidified KIDD BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM (ISBT 009)
serum test (HEMPAS) is associated with much greater i
activity
● In Asians, the i adult phenotype has been associated
with congenital cataracts
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KELL ANTIBODIES
KELL ANTIGENS
● Excluding ABO, K is rated second only to D in terms of
immunogenicity
● The Kell blood group system consists of 36
high-prevalence and low-prevalence antigens; it was the
first blood group system discovered after the introduction
of antiglobulin testing
● Can be detected on fetal RBCs as early as 10 weeks
and is well-developed at birth
● Kell blood group antigens are found only on RBCs. They
have not been found on platelets or on WBCs.
● The Kell glycoprotein is covalently linked with another
protein, called Xk, by a single disulfide bond. Kell antigen
expression is dependent upon the presence of the Xk
protein.
● The absence of Xk results in McLeod syndrome. It is
also associated with CGD.
● The prevalence of K antigen is low, and the chance of LUTHERAN BLOOD GROUP SYSTEM (ISBT 005)
receiving a K+ unit is small.
● Blood bankers seldom deal with the serology of the
Lutheran blood group system. The antigens are either
high prevalence, so only a few people lack the antigen
and can make an alloantibody, or vert low prevalence, so
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that only a few people are ever exposed.
● Antigens have not been detected on platelets,
lymphocytes, monocytes or granulocytes.
● Lutheran glycoproteins is widely distributed in tissue:
brain, lung, pancreas, skeletal muscle and hepatocytes
Lu(a+b-) 0.15
Lu(a+b+) 7.5
Lu(a-b+) 92.35
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COMPATIBILITY TESTING: Donor Screening & Component
Preparation
COLLECTION PROCEDURE
DONOR SCREENING
REGISTRATION
● Blood collection facilities must confirm donor identity and
link the donor to existing donor records.
● Most facilities require photographic identification such as
a driver’s license or school identification card.
● The following is a list of information used by the
collection facility in the registration process and is kept
on record by use of a single donation record form:
○ Name (first, last, MI)
○ Date and time of donation
○ Address
○ Telephone
○ Gender
○ Age or date of birth
○ Consent to donate
PHYSICAL EXAMINATION
General Appearance
● observe donor for presence of excessive anxiety, drug or
alcohol influence, or nervousness
Weight
● maximum of 10.5 mL/kg of donor weight for WB
collection
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● if the donor weighs less than 110 pounds, the amount of of units needed for transfusion.
blood collected must be proportionately reduced as well ● The last blood collection should occur no sooner than 72
as that of the anticoagulant hours before the scheduled surgery to allow for volume
● Amount of blood to be drawn: repletion.
● require the order of the donor-patient physician; a min
hemoglobin/hematocrit of 11 g/dL and 33%, respectively;
and a deferral of the donor-patient when there is a risk of
● Amount of anticoagulant needed: bacteremia
● Low-Volume Unit: contains between 300 to 405 mL of
blood
● If a low-volume unit is collected, it is important the unit
● Amount of anticoagulant to remove: be labeled as “low-volume unit” and that plasma is not
transfused
● Units collected with a volume of less than 300 mL
Temperature require approval by the medical director
● less than or equal to 37.5C or 99.5F ● Label: include patient’s full name, medical record
● donors are asked not to drink coffee or hot beverages number or ID number, expiration date of the unit, and the
while waiting to donate as this may affect the name of the facility where the donor-patient will be
temperature on occasion transfused
● Note: Oral temperatures that are lower than normal are
not cause for deferral.
Pulse
● should be between 50-100 bpm often, a donor who is
athletic will have a pulse <50 bpm
● The pulse should be counted for at least 15 seconds;
any irregularities should be evaluated by a blood bank
physician
Blood Pressure
● The label must clearly state “For Autologous Use Only”
● Systolic: not less than 180 mm Hg
● ABO group is determined for each autologous collection
● Diastolic: not less than 100 mm Hg
● Rh type is also determined on all units
Hemoglobin
● If autologous unit is to be transfused outside the
● should be greater than or equal to 12.5 g/dL
collecting facility, the following infectious disease
● HCT: greater than or equal to 38%
markers must be tested: HBsAg, Anti-HBc, Anti-HCV,
Skin Lesions
Anti-HIV-1/2, HIV-1 Ag, Anti-HTLV I/II and syphilis
● donor’s arms should be inspected for skin lesions
● *Testing must be done before the unit is shipped at
30-day intervals
● Autologous units are labeled differently than allogeneic
units and directed units.
INFORMED CONSENT
● The donor must be informed of the risks of the
procedure, and also of the tests that are performed to
reduce the risk of infectious disease transmission to the
recipient.
AUTOLOGOUS DONORS
ACUTE NORMOVOLEMIC HEMODILUTION:
● Autologous Donor: one who donates blood for his or her
● A blood conservation technique that involves removal of
own use (donor-patient)
whole blood from a patient with infusions of crystalloid or
● Safer than allogeneic: no risk of disease transmission,
colloid before surgical blood loss
transfusion reactions, or alloimmunization to white blood
● The blood is collected in standard blood bags containing
cells, RBCs, platelets, or plasma proteins
anticoagulant/preservative and stored at RT
● Four Different Types of Autologous Donation:
● The “shed” blood is normally reinfused to the patient
1. Preoperative collection
within 8h of collection (viability of platelets and
2. Acute normovolemic hemodilution
coagulation factors)
3. Intraoperative collection
● Blood should be properly labeled and must contain the
4. Postoperative collection
patient’s full name, medical record number, date and
time of collection, and the label For Autologous Use Only
PREOPERATIVE COLLECTION:
● Blood units for acute normovolemic hemodilution (ANH)
● indications include patients undergoing orthopedic
are reinfused in the reverse order of collection so that
procedures, vascular surgery, cardiac or thoracic surgery
the last unit reinfused carries the highest hematocrit level
and radical prostatectomy
● The maximal surgical blood order schedule can provide
guidance for surgical procedures to estimate the number
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INTRAOPERATIVE COLLECTION: Height 5’1” 5’5”
● Involves collecting and reinfusing blood lost by a patient
during surgery Hematocrit Minimum of 40% Minimum of 40%
● Most programs use devices that are capable of collecting
the shed blood, washing it with saline, and then
concentrating the RBCs with hematocrits in the range of 5. Stem cell pheresis*
50-60%
● The vacuum setting on the device should be <100 torr to ALLOGENEIC DONOR DEFERRAL
guard against possible hemolysis of recovered blood ● Temporary: prospective donor is unable to donate blood
● Contraindicated when procoagulants are applied to the for a limited period of time
surgical field ● Indefinite: prospective donor is unable to donate blood
● Used in cardiothoracic, major orthopedic and cardiac for an unspecified period of time
surgery and vascular surgeries such as liver ● Permanent: prospective donor will never be eligible to
transplantation donate blood (these donors may be eligible to donate
autologous blood)
POSTOPERATIVE BLOOD COLLECTION:
● Blood is collected from a drainage tube placed at the 1 MONTH ● German measles (rubella) vaccination
surgical site DEFERRAL ● Chicken pox vaccination
● It is reinfused with or without processing via a ● Drug:
● Isotretinoin (Accutane) – acne treatment
microaggregate filter to screen out any debris ● Finasteride (Proscar) – for benign prostate
● This blood is characterized as being dilute, partially hyperplasia
hemolyzed,and defibrinated
1 YEAR ● Rape victim
DIRECTED DONORS DEFERRAL ● After HBIg administration
● Healthcare worker exposed to blood or body fluids
● Directed Donation: directed toward a specific patient ● Tattoo
● Needle stick injury
PHERESIS DONATION ● Ear or body piercing
● Sexual contact with a prostitute, with AIDS,
1. Plateletpheresis hepatitis, with hemophiliacs or with IV drug users
● Donation frequency: every 2d (no more than 2x in 7d; no ● Female who had sexual contact of men who ever
more than 24x in 12 mos) had sex with another men
● Platelet count: at least 150,000/uL or 150x10^9’L ● Travel to endemic areas with malaria (3 years –
immigrants, refugees, citizens who resided on
● Donor should not take medication that interfere with endemic areas and diagnosed/infected with
platelet function: malaria)
○ Aspirin – 48h deferral ● *Philippines:
○ Stayed for less than 6 months: 6 months
○ Feldene – 48h deferral ○ Stayed for more than 6 months/resident: 1
○ Clopidogrel (plavix), ticlopidine (TIclid), year
Ticagrelor (Brilinta), vorapaxar (Zontivity), and ○ Infected: 3 years
prasugrel (Effient) – 14d deferral ● Syphilis/gonorrhea
● Received transfusion of blood components or other
human tissues (organ, tissue, BM transplant, or
2. Plasmapheresis bone/skin graft) known to be possible sources of
● “Occasional”: donor undergoes pheresis not more often bloodborne pathogens
● Rabies vaccination
than once every 4 weeks, and donor selection mimics ● Major operation including dental surgery
that of whole blood collection ● Have been in juvenile detention, lockup, or prison
● “Serial”: donation is more frequent than once every 4 for more than 72h (incarceration in a correctional
weeks, and additional requirements apply institution for 72h)
● Donation Frequency:
PERMANENT/ ● Hemophiliacs
○ Frequent: every 48h (no more than 2x in 7d) INDEFINITE ● IV drug users
○ Infrequent: every 4 weeks (no more than 13x a DEFERRAL ● (+) AIDS
year) ● (+) HBsAg
● Serum total protein should be at least 6g/dL ● (+) HTLV
● Malignant solid tumors
● If the donor weighs 50-80 kg – not more than 500 mL ● Drugs: Etretinate (Tegison) – treatment for psoriasis
WB should be removed at one time ● History of Babesiosis
● If the donor weighs more than 80 kg – not more than 600 ● History of Chagas disease
● Chronic cardiopulmonary
mL WB should be removed at one time ● Renal disease
● Liver disease
3. Leukopheresis ● Recipient of cornea and dura mater transplant
● Special agents required for collection of granulocytes ● Recipient of human pituitary derived GH
● Bovine insulin
from leukopheresis donor: ● Leukemia, lymphoma and myeloproliferative
○ HES disorder
○ Corticosteroids
○ GFs (eg, G-CSF) OTHER ● Tooth extraction: 3 days
DEFERRAL ● MMR vaccination: 8 weeks (NBVSP); 4 weeks
● Childbirth: 6 weeks after delivery (AABB); 9 months
4. Double RBC pheresis after delivery (Ph)
● Donation Frequency: every 16 weeks ● Typhoid, Oral polio, Mumps, Measles (rubeola),
● Specifications: Yellow fever: 2 weeks
● Aspirin or Piroxicam: 48h
MALE FEMALE ● Plavix (Clopidogrel) or Ticlid (Ticlopidine): 14 days
● Individuals with a history of dengue or chikungunya
virus: 6 months following full recovery from
Weight At least 130 pounds At least 150 pounds
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infection)
WHOLE BLOOD COLLECTION
● Individuals with TB: 2 years
● Smallpox vaccination: 14-21 days or until scab has DONOR IDENTIFICATION
fallen off
● A numeric or alphanumeric system is used to link the
donor to the donor record, pilot tubes, blood container
NO DEFERRAL ● Toxoids or killed/synthetic viral, bacterial or
rickettsial vaccines such as diphtheria, hepatitis A, and all components made from the original collection.
hepatitis B, influenza, Lyme disease, pneumococcal ASEPTIC TECHNIQUE
polysaccharide, polio injection (Salk), anthrax, ● Iodine compound (such as PVP-iodine or polymeriodine
pertussis, plague, parathyroid, rabies, Rocky
mountain spotted fever, tetanus, or typhoid injection
complex)
if the donor is symptom-free and afebrile ● Area is scrubbed at least 4 cm in all directions from the
site for a minimum of 30 seconds
OTHER ● GH from human pituitary glands – for children with
MEDICATIONS delayed or impaired growth: permanent COLLECTION PROCEDURE
● Insulin from cows (bovine, or beef, insulin) – to treat
diabetes: indefinite
● Feldene – for mild to moderate arthritis pain: 48h or 1. Confirm donor identity, and make the donor as comfortable as possible.
2d
● Aspirin – blood thinner and prevent blood clots;
inhibits platelet function: 48h or 2d 2. Using a tourniquet or blood pressure cuff, select a large, firm vein in the
● Plavix (Clopidogrel) & Ticlid (Ticlopidine) – inhibits antecubital space that is free of any skin lesions or scarring. Inspect both arms.
platelet function used to reduce the chance for
heart attack and stroke: 14d 3. Prepare the site using an FDA-approved cleansing method. When finished,
● Experimental medication or unlicensed cover the site with sterile gauze.
(experimental) vaccine – associated with a research
protocol and the effect in blood donation is
4. Inspect the blood bags for any defects or discoloration.
unknown: 1 year unless indicated by medical
director
● Ticagrelor (Brilinta) & Prasugrel (Effient) – both 5. Ensure the balance system is adjusted to the volume being drawn; ensure
used to prevent blood clots and inhibits platelet counterbalance is level. Place hemostats on the tubing to prevent air from
function; Ticagrelor is used for prevention of stroke, entering the line.
heart attack and other events in people with acute
coronary syndrome, meaning problems with blood 6. Reapply tourniquet or blood pressure cuff (40 to 60 mm Hg) to increase
supply in the coronary arteries: 14d distention of the vein.
7. Uncover the sterile gauze, and perform the venipuncture immediately. Check
MEDICATIONS THAT CAUSE BIRTH DEFECTS the position of the needle, and tape the tubing to the donor’s arm to hold the
needle in place. Cover with a sterile gauze.
DRUG PURPOSE DEFERRAL
8. Release the hemostat, and ask the donor to open and close the hand every 10
to 12 seconds during the collection procedure.
Proscar (Finasteride) For prostate gland 1 month
enlargement
9. Reduce the pressure on the cuff to approximately 40 mmHg.
Propecia (Finasteride) For baldness 1 month
10. Continue to monitor the patient throughout the entire collection process. The
donor should never be left unattended. Mix blood and anticoagulant periodically
Accutane (Amnesteem, Given for severe acne 1 month
during the procedure (e.g., every 45 seconds).
Sotret
Claravis, Isotretinoin)
11. When the primary bag has tripped the scale, the donor can stop squeezing
and tubing can be clamped. A unit containing a volume of 405 to 550 mL should
Avodart (Dutasteride) For prostate 6 months
weigh between 429 to 583 g, plus the weight of the container and anticoagulant.
enlargement
The conversion 1.06 g/mL is used to convert grams to milliliters. If the volume
collected is in the low volume range (300 to 404 mL in a 450-mL collection or 333
Soriatane (Acitretin) For severe psoriasis 3 years to 449 mL in a 500-mL collection), the unit must be labeled as a “low volume
unit,” and fresh frozen plasma (FFP) cannot be made from this unit, as it would
Tegison (Etretinate) For severe psoriasis Permanent not contain adequate levels of coagulation factors.
12. Before the needle is removed from the donor’s arm, pilot tubes are filled. The
pressure is reduced to 20 mm Hg or less and, depending on the tubing of the
bag, the tubes are filled:
SAMPLE PROBLEM 1 ● In-line needle. A hemostat or metal clip is used to seal tubing distal to
the needle. The connector is opened, the needle is inserted into the
The donor weighs 42 kg. Identify the allowable blood to be pilot tube, the hemostat is removed, and tubes are filled. The donor
needle can now be removed.
collected, amount of anticoagulant needed, and amount of ● Straight-tubing assembly. Place hemostats approximately four
anticoagulant to be removed segments from the needle. Tighten the loose knot made previously in
the tubing; release the hemostats, and strip a segment of tubing
between knot and needle. Secure hemostat and cut tubing in a
stripped area of segment. Fill required tubes by releasing hemostats.
This is an open system, and appropriate biohazard precautions
should be followed. Reapply hemostats and remove needle from
donor’s arm.
SAMPLE PROBLEM 2
13. Once the needle has been removed from the donor’s arm, apply pressure
over gauze, and ask the donor to raise his or her arm, continuing to exert
The donor weighs 37 kg. Identify the allowable blood to be pressure over the site. When the bleeding has stopped, the donor can lower his
collected, amount of anticoagulant needed, and amount of or her arm, and an appropriate bandage can be applied.
anticoagulant to be removed.
14. The needle assembly should be discarded into an appropriate biohazard
receptacle. The tubing should be stripped to allow proper mixing of
anticoagulant/preservative with blood.
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15. Heat seal the filled tubing into segments, and apply an appropriate
○ Special transfusion requirements
identification label to one segment and detach from the blood bag for storage. ● Test recipient’s serum or plasma to detect
Place blood at the appropriate temperature. Units in which platelets will be made clinically significant antibodies.
must be maintained at room temperature (20°C to 24°C) until the platelet ○ Method must include 37 C incubation
concentrate has been prepared; all others can be stored at 1°C to 6°C.
with conversion to antihuman globulin
using reagent red cells that are not
pooled
Pretransfusion Testing
4. Donor Testing
● Is an entire quality process composed of many ● Confirm ABO and Rh types on donor red cell
procedures designed to provide the safest blood product units as required
possible for the recipient of a transfusion ○ Confirmation testing for ABO group
● Often considered synonymous with crossmatching required on all units (serum testing not
● Clerical error resulting in incorrect ABO groupings: major required)
cause of transfusion-associated fatalities; greatest threat ○ Confirmation of Rh type required only
to safe transfusion therapy on those units labeled as Rh-negative
● Include: (weak D testing is not required)
○ Recipient identification
■ Misidentification of recipient: most 5. Crossmatch
common cause of error ● Select ABO- and Rh-compatible red cell
○ Sample collection and handling components for transfusion
○ Pretransfusion testing ● Perform serologic or electronic crossmatch of
red cell components
STEPS IN PRETRANSFUSION COMPATIBILITY TESTING ○ Full antiglobulin crossmatch required if
current antibody screen is positive or
1. Physician (or other authorized health professional) order the patient has a known history of
● Written (paper or electronic) order for type & clinically significant antibodies
screen test
○ Type and screen 6. Labeling
○ Crossmatch RBCs ● Label all red cell products or other components
○ Special requests such as irradiation, with the recipient’s identifying information
CMV-negative, etc. ○ Label must contain at least two
○ Oral orders may be accepted if independent patient identifiers, donor
followed by the written request unit number, and compatibility test
results, if performed
2. Phlebotomy/Recipient Identification
● Phlebotomist must positively identify the SPECIMEN REQUIREMENTS
recipient and the recipient’s blood sample
○ Transfusion request and labeled RECIPIENT SAMPLE IDENTIFICATION
patient blood sample must contain at
least two pieces of independent ● A physician order is required before blood is drawn for a
identifying info for that patient type and screen
○ Mechanism to identify the date of ○ Order may be verbal (followed by a written
sample and the phlebotomist (paper or order) or may be given on paper or
electronic) electronically
○ Transfusion service will ensure that ● Recipient blood specimens must be labeled by the
identifying information on the phlebotomist at the bedside directly from the information
requisition and sample label is in on the patient’s wristband
agreement ○ If the patient’s wristband is not attached for any
● Two Independent Identifiers: reason, signed confirmation of the patient’s
● Patient’s first & last name identity by nursing staff should be obtained
● Unique ID number (birth date, driver’s before blood is drawn.
license, photographic ID) ○ Label: patient’s FULL name, hospital
● If px does not have a wristband or if px ID is identification number, spx collection date
unknown = temporary ID with a tie tag or
wristband or ankle band - should not be TYPE OF SAMPLE
removed until proper ID has been attached to
the px (confirmed verification of identity) ● Serum: traditionally been preferred for compatibility
testing
3. Recipient Testing ○ Collected in siliconized plain tubes without
● Perform ABO and Rh typing on recipient’s serum separator gel
blood specimen- red cell and serum or plasma ● Plasma: increasingly used owing to newer testing
testing are required. technologies (e.g., gel test)
● Review previous records for comparison with ● Appearance: reject grossly hemolyzed recipient blood
current typing results. samples as unacceptable for pretransfusion testing
○ Clinically significant antibodies (unless there is no other choice)
○ Significant adverse events to ● *grossly hemolyzed or lipemic samples = false positive
transfusion readings with an automated gel tech instrument
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AGE OF SAMPLE ○ Patients who fail to agglutinate after direct
agglutination are typed as Rh negative.
● Pretransfusion specimen for testing and red cell ● Indirect testing for weak D (Coombs’ test) in recipients is
transfusion is valid for 72h NOT necessary.
● Patient samples and a segment from the donor unit used
for crossmatching must be stored for at least 7 days after CROSSMATCH TESTING
transfusion in the event that a transfusion reaction
investigation is necessary. ● Crossmatch: “crossway” mixing of donor and recipient
● In elective surgery patients, some facilities will extend blood components
the age of preoperative sample up to 1 month provided ● It involves mixing of serum or plasma from the recipient
that the patient: with red cells from the donor.
○ Has a negative antibody screen ● Purpose: final check of ABO incompatibility and
○ Has no history of clinically significant antibodies detection of unidentified antibodies
○ Is not pregnant ● Compatible: no agglutination or no hemolysis present in
○ Has not been transfused within the preceding 3 testing
months ● Incompatible: agglutination or hemolysis is present in
● Date of draw is day 0 testing
● After 72h, a new sample must be drawn – to ensure that ● Final step of pretransfusion compatibility testing
sample being tested is fairly representative of the ● designed to detect donor units unlikely to survive
patient’s current immune status. normally once transfused
○ The purpose of this is to ensure that repeat or ● test of survival rate/measurement of successful
additional testing of the donor or patient may be transfusion = posttransfusion hct or hgb (hct = 3%, hgb =
performed later if the patient experiences a 1 g/dL)
delayed HTR or other adverse effect of
transfusion.
ABO GROUPING
● Both cell and serum groupings are required for initial ● Principle: The crossmatch was added to compatibility
ABO testing of all patient samples, and the results of testing to:
RBC and serum testing should agree with each other ○ Prevent life-threatening or uncomfortable
before any results are reported and blood is transfused. transfusion reactions
○ Maximize in vivo survival of transfused red cells
RH GROUPING
CROSSMATCH TESTING: TYPES
RH TYPING OF DONORS
1. Major Crossmatch
● All donor units testing as Rhnegative by direct ● Donor: RBC
agglutination are tested for a weak D phenotype by the ● Patient: Serum
IAT. 2. Minor Crossmatch: to test opposite compatibility
○ If routine D testing or weak D testing is positive, ● Donor: Serum
the unit is labeled Rh Positive ● Patient: RBC
● The transfusion service must reconfirm the D type of all
RBC units labeled Rhnegative by testing red cells from Minor crossmatches are rarely performed, for two main reasons:
an integral attached segment by a direct anti-D 1. Transfused blood is screened for unexpected (non-ABO)
agglutination method. ab, so performing a minor crossmatch to make sure a
○ Repeat testing of donor units by the transfusion non-ABO ab won’t cause a problem doesn’t make a lot
service for weak D is NOT required by the of sense
AABB Standards. 2. Since the volume of transfused plasma is generally small
● IAT: in vitro in comparison to the patient’s blood volume, minor
● DAT: in vivo incompatibilities (even if not detected by the donor ab
● Weak D donor: Rh positive screen) are not of great consequence
● Weak D recipient: Rh negative - For example, a group O red blood cell
transfusion to a group A recipient would have a
RH TYPING OF RECIPIENTS minor crossmatch incompatibility, but is not
contraindicated due to the very small amount of
● Every pretransfusion recipient blood specimen must be incompatible antibody present in the unit of red
tested for the D antigen by direct typing. cells.
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SAMPLE PROBLEM ○ Saline replacement = to resolve rouleaux (true
agglutination will remain)
Predict compatibility for the following situation. Assume that the
patient has a negative antibody screen and autocontrol. INCUBATION PHASE/ LISS PHASE
Patient: B+ ● Done at 37 C
Donor: O+ ● Usage of enhancement media such as LISS
A. Compatible major crossmatch ● Detection of clinically significant antibodies such as IgG
B. Incompatible minor crossmatch
C. Incompatible major crossmatch ANTIGLOBULIN CROSSMATCHING PHASE
● Commercial high-tittered antiserum is required when
CROSSMATCH TESTING: CLASSIFICATION selecting these antigen-negative donor units.
● A reading is required only at the antiglobulin phase
Serologic Crossmatch ● Done at 37 C
● Tests recipient’s serum/plasma with the red cells from ● Several enhancement media may be applied to boost
the donor unit antigen-antibody reactions. They may include albumin,
● Can be performed using two main methods: LISS, PEG and polybrene
hemagglutination (tube and gel testing) and ● Possible reasons for incompatibilities:
solid-phase red cell adherence ○ New alloantibody is present in recipient’s
plasma
Solid-phase red cell adherence ○ Alloantibody to a low-incidence is present on
● Components of antigen-antibody reaction is immobilized the donor unit RBCs
onto a solid medium ○ Warm-reactive autoantibody is present in the
● On centrifugation antigen positive cells spread out while recipient’s plasma
antigen negative cells form a button at the bottom of the ○ Donor unit has a positive DAT
well
● Excess plasma is blotted out and anti-IgG bound CROSSMATCH TESTING: PRINCIPLES & METHODS
indicator red cells are added to give visible reaction
Broad Spectrum Compatibility Test
● Developed to be an all-inclusive test, one which would
detect clinically significant antibodies without sacrificing
speed – so essential in an emergency, or simplicity so
important in prevailing errors.
● Three Phases:
○ Protein Phase
■ Incompatibility in the ABO system will
be detected at this point. Hemolysis
especially may indicate the presence
of an immune anti–A and / or anti–B.
Computer Crossmatch ■ An incompatibility due to cold
● Uses a computer to make the final check of ABO agglutinins.
compatibility in the selection of appropriate units for ■ The prozoning anti–Rh antibodies are
transfusion detected in a serum albumin mixture
on immediate centrifugation.
CROSSMATCH TESTING: PHASES OF CROSS MATCHING ○ Thermo Phase
■ Incompatibility in this phase is usually
due to the presence of a low tittered
IMMEDIATE SPIN/ SALINE OR INITIAL PHASE:
anti –Rh antibody that does not react
● May be used for recipients with no evidence of clinically
on immediate centrifugation.
significant antibody or antibodies in the current sample
■ Certain Rh antibodies (anti–C, anti–E
and in the historical record
and some anti–D) occasionally react
● Recipient serum or plasma and donor red cell
only in an albumin medium and are
suspensions are mixed and observed for agglutination
non–reactive in the antiglobulin test.
● Main purpose: detect ABO incompatibility
○ Antiglobulin Phase
● Done at RT
■ Antibodies are detected here which
● Uses NSS or 22% albumin enhancement media (30
usually react only in this test (anti–Fja,
mins; 30-60 mins*)
anti– Jka, anti–X).
● There should be no delays in the centrifugation step or
■ These antibodies in the Rh system
reading of the reaction. If IS crossmatch is not properly
which react only in the antiglobulin test
performed, false-negative results may occur with failure
(so called “third order” or
to detect ABO incompatibility
“panagglutinoid” antibodies) are noted.
● Possible reasons for incompatible IS crossmatch:
■ Antibodies present in acquired
○ Incorrect ABO grouping of recipient or of donor
hemolytic anemia will be found.
unit selected
○ Cold-reactive allo- or auto-antibody in the
● Abbreviated Crossmatch
plasma not detected in antibody detection tests
○ If a patient has no known history of and / or no
○ Abnormalities in the recipient’s plasma such as
currently demonstrable unexpected antibodies,
rouleaux
ABO and Rh type specific blood is cross
● Remedy: perform saline replacement and repeat IS
matched at the time of need by using an
crossmatch
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immediate spin–saline abbreviated crossmatch. SPECIAL TOPICS
○ Not done in the Ph
○ Combination of type & screen + IS URGENT REQUIREMENT FOR BLOOD & BLOOD
COMPONENTS
Computerized (Electronic) Crossmatch
● Uses a computer to make the final check of ABO If the blood is released before the completion of testing,
compatibility in the selection of appropriate units for the patient’s record must contain the physician’s signed
transfusion statement indicating the clinical situation was urgent and
● Advantages: required release of uncrossmatched blood.
○ Increased time efficiency ● Release signed by physician
○ Reduced volume of sample needed on large ● Tag on donor unit indicating emergency release:
crossmatch orders compatibility or infectious disease testing was not
○ Greater flexibility in staffing completed at the time of issue
○ Better management of blood bank inventory ● Patient name and identifiers
○ Potential for a centralized transfusion service ● Donor unit number(s), ABO and D phenotype, expiration
date
TAGGING, INSPECTING, ISSUING AND TRANSFUSING ● Retain segments from units for crossmatching
BLOOD PRODUCTS ● Name of person issuing units
● O negative blood
● When the appropriate compatibility testing has been ● If the patient DIES as a result of the emergency,
completed and the unit/s are suitable for transfusion, a remaining compatibility testing may be waived
tag is produced and attached to each donor unit. or abbreviated at the discretion of the
● The donor unit tag must clearly state the patient’s full transfusion service physician. Testing should be
name & ID number, name of the product, donor complete enough to show that the death was
number, expiration date, ABO & D phenotype of the unrelated to the transfusion of uncrossmatched
unit, interpretation of cross matching test (if performed), blood.
and identity of the person doing the testing or selection
of unit COMPATIBILITY TESTING FOR TRANSFUSION OF PLASMA
PRODUCTS
REQUIREMENTS FOR THE TAG ON THE CROSSMATCHED
DONOR UNIT ● Compatibility testing procedures are NOT required.
● Intended recipient’s two identification identifiers ● Transfusion of LARGE volumes = crossmatch test
● Unique donor unit number or pool number between the donor plasma and patient RBCs may be
● Interpretation of compatibility tests, if performed performed.
● * If compatibility testing is incomplete or shows ● Primary purpose for testing: detect ABO incompatibility
incompatibility, this information must be indicated in bold between donor and patient (immediate spin crossmatch)
on the tag.
● A physician’s order for blood or a blood product must be INTRAUTERINE TRANSFUSIONS
on file for the transfusion to occur.
● The person requesting the donor unit presents a ● Transfusion of blood into the fetus
transfusion request form to the blood bank staff ● Blood must be compatible with maternal antibodies
indicating the desired product and the intended recipient. capable of crossing the placenta.
● This form is checked carefully and independently by both ● If ABO and Rh groups of the fetus have been determined
persons against the unit tag. The unit tag information is following amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling or
also checked against the unit label. percutaneous umbilical blood sampling, group-specific
● The expiration date is carefully checked to ensure that blood could be given provided that there is no
outdated units are not issued. fetomaternal ABO or Rh incompatibility.
● The unit is visually checked for discoloration, clots or ● If the ABO and Rh groups of the fetus are not known,
other abnormal appearance. group O Rh-negative RBCs should be selected for the
● * These checks are documented with the name of the intrauterine transfusion.
person issuing the unit and the person picking it up. Date ● Crossmatch testing is performed using the mother’s
& time of issuance and unit’s destination are also serum sample.
documented.
NEONATAL TRANSFUSIONS
REQUIREMENTS FOR THE ISSUE OF BLOOD & BLOOD
COMPONENTS
● Blood for an exchange or regular transfusion of a
● Physician’s order
neonate (younger than 4 months of age) should be
● Intended recipient’s two independent identifiers, ABO
compatible with any maternal antibodies that have
group, and D phenotype
entered the infant’s circulation and are reactive at 37 C
● Donation identification number, donor ABO group, and if
or AHG.
required, the Rh type
○ For both intrauterine and infant (younger than 4
● Interpretation of crossmatch tests, if performed
months) transfusions, blood should be as
● Blood product expiration date, and if applicable, time
FRESH as possible and no older than 7d.
● Special transfusion requirements, if applicable
● Antibody detection testing can be performed using
● Date & time of issue
maternal serum or infant’s serum (e.g., cord serum)
and/or eluate prepared from the infant’s RBCs
○ Removed antibodies from the surface of RBCs
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Finalssssssss
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TESTING OF DONOR BLOOD TRANSFUSION TRANSMITTED INFECTION
“The first and most important step in ensuring that transfused TTI: a disease or disease agent
blood will not transmit a pathogenic virus is careful selection of Two Criteria:
donors.” 1) Disease or disease agent that could be fatal or
- Main goal is safe blood transfusion life-threatening and potentially cause permanent damage
- Logbook – to trace Px if positive for infections or of a body function or body structure requiring medical or
diseases surgical intervention.
- Hematology – NKTI 2) Disease or disease agents may pose a risk of
- Confirmatory screening for STI – San Lazaro Hospital transmission by blood or blood components or by a
- Confirmatory screening for syphilis/TTIs – RITM blood byproduct manufactured from blood or blood
- Hepatitis A, E, G – same cases of transfusion reactions components.
- Hepatitis A – 28 days incubation period/window/core
period (period exposed until showing signs and TRANSFUSION-ASSOCIATED HEPATITIS
symptoms Hepatitis: inflammation of the liver
- Hepatitis C – caused by single stranded RNA; others –
DNA Symptoms
- Hepatitis A, E – fecal-oral
Jaundice Anorexia Nausea
- A – picornaviridae; B – hepadnaviridae; C – flaviviridae;
E – caliciviridae Dark urine Malaise Abdominal pain
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HBV is sufficient to avoid hepatitis D transmission.
Markers (SEC – Ag; CES – Ab)
Hepatitis E
HBsAg • First serological marker to appear
(surface) • Early indicator of active infection ● Caliciviridae
• Important marker in screening blood donors ● Transmission: fecal-oral (contaminated drinking water in
• Indicates active HBV infection, acute or chronic developing countries)
• Serum HBsAg usually becomes undetectable by 4-6 months
after the onset of symptoms in patients with acute hepatitis B
○ HEV 1 & 2: fecal-oral
○ HEV 3 & 4: foodborne
HBeAg • Present during periods of active replication of the virus ● Incubation Period: 2-6 weeks
(envelope) • Appears shortly after HBsAg and disappears shortly before ● Major cause of hepatitis globally
HBsAg in recovering patients ● Associated with a high rate of mortality in pregnant
• Indicates a high degree of infectivity when present
women
● No FDA-approved serologic methods
HBcAg (core) • Not detectable in serum because of the viral envelope that
masks it
• Detected only through biopsy of the infected liver Hepatitis G
• NOT included in hepatitis profile ● Transmission: bloodborne (parenteral), fecal-oral and
respiratory route, vertical/perinatal
Anti-HBc IgM • First antibody detected
or • Indicator of current or recent infection
● Not a major cause of liver failure
HBcAb IgM • Useful in detecting infection during “core window” period ● RT-PCR: diagnosis of current, ongoing infection
• Not a marker of immunity
• Persists for the lifetime of the individual Hepatitis Tests
• Serves as a lifelong marker of HBV infection
● To prevent the transmission of hepatitis by transfusion,
Anti-Hbe or • Indicates that the patient is recovering from HBV infection
five tests are currently performed on donor blood:
HBeAb • Marker of convalescence and favorite prognosis ○ HBsAg
○ Total anti-HBc (IgM and IgG antibody)
Anti-HBs or • Appears during the recovery period of acute hepatitis B, ○ Antibody to HCV (anti-HCV)
HBsAb weeks to months after HBsAg disappears ○ NAT to detect HCV RNA and HBV DNA
• Persists for years and provide protective immunity
• Also produced after immunization with the hepatitis B
vaccine, which consists of recombinant HBsAg produced from Hepatitis B Surface Antigen
genetically engineered yeasts or mammalian cells ● Screening Tests: enzyme & chemiluminescent
• Protective titers of the antibody in the serum are considered immunoassays
to be 10 mIU/mL or higher
● Confirmatory: uses the principle of specific antibody
neutralization to confirm presence of HBsAg
● The FDA requires donor screening for HBsAg, ○ If HBsAg is present in the serum, the antibody
anti-HBc, and HBV-DNA binds the antigen
● IgM – recent infection ○ The neutralized HBsAg is blocked from binding
● IgG – chronic infection to the antibody coated solid medium
○ If the neutralization causes the reaction to
Hepatitis C disappear or diminish by at least 50%, the
● Flaviviridae original result is considered positive for HBsAg
● “Non A - Non B”
● Transmission: sexual, parenteral, perinatal/vertical Antibody to Hepatitis B Core
● Incubation Period: 2-26 weeks ● “surrogate marker”
○ Average incubation period: 7-8 weeks, followed ● No specific confirmatory test for anti-HBc
by seroconversion occurring in 8-9 weeks
■ Seroconversion – first exposed to Antibody to Hepatitis C Virus
pathogen until the body produces Ab ● Screening Tests: Third-generation ELISAs and
against pathogen chemiluminescent assays (detectable by approximately
● Most frequent cause of chronic liver infection and the 10 weeks after infection)
leading indicator for liver transplantation ● Confirmatory Test: NAT
● Standard treatment involved a combination of pegylated
IFN-alpha and ribavirin Nucleic Acid Testing to Detect DNA of HBV and RNA HCV
● The current recommended screening for DNA and RNA
Hepatitis D uses a mini pool of 6 to 16 donor samples.
● Delta hepatitis ● Sensitive NAT techniques for HCV RNA even in pooled
● Transmission: sexual donor samples have reduced the window period for HCV
● Only found in patients with HBV infection (requires detection to 7.4 days.
HBsAg in order to synthesize an envelope protein and ● HBV DNA testing has reduced the window period for
replicate) HBV detection to 18.5 to 26.5 days.
● Highest risk: IV drug users
● Detected by testing for IgM or IgG anti-HDV or HDAg HIV TYPES 1 AND 2
and HDV RNA in the serum
● Tests for HDV are not required for blood donations
● Although hepatitis D virus is also transmitted by blood,
HIV-1: HIV-2:
the concurrent presence of HBV is necessary to cause
disease. ● First virus designated as the ● Also causes AIDS
● HDV is a defective virus found only in HBV carriers. causative agent of AIDS ● More common in Africa
○ HDV doesn’t exist without HBV ● The virus infects CD4-positive ● Appears to produce a less
● Blood is NOT screened for HDV because testing for
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including increased rates of microcephaly and fetal brain PRION DISEASE
anomalies during pregnancy and Guillain-Barre
syndrome Creutzfeld-Jakob Disease
● Screening Test: NAT ● One of the transmissible spongiform encephalopathies
○ NAT-reactive donor blood is further tested using (TSEs)
PCR diagnostic test and antibody testing ● Definitive diagnosis can be made only by autopsy
(ELISA, IFAs)
BACTERIAL CONTAMINATION
PARVOVIRUS B19
● “fifth disease” ● Platelets: most frequent source of septic transfusion
○ 1st – measles (rubeolla) reactions because RT promotes bacterial growth
○ 2nd – scarlet fever (S. pyogenes) ○ Associated with the HIGHEST RISK of sepsis
○ 3rd – rubella (german measles) and fatality
○ 4th – duke’s dse ● Before the unit of platelets is issued, the unit should be
○ 6th – exanthem subitum/roseola infantum inspected for discoloration (dark purple or black), which
● Erythema infectiosum strongly indicates contamination .
● slapcheek ● FDA has approved a psoralen/UV irradiation based
● Transmission: respiratory secretions pathogen reduction method for use on apheresis
○ Present in plasma components (through factor platelets within 24 h after collection.
concentrates and antithrombin III concentrates)
● Hydrops fetalis and fetal death can occur when virus is RECIPIENT TRACING (LOOK-BACK)
transmitted during pregnancy
● Screening Test: PCR
● Look-Back: identification of persons who have received
seronegative or untested blood from a donor
HHV 6 & HHV 8
subsequently found to be positive for disease markers
HHV 6
● Look-back activities within the blood collection facility
● Roseola infantum/ exanthem subitum/sixth disease may include the following actions:
● Associated with MS, lymphoproliferative & neoplastic
○ Quarantine of prior collections from that donor
disorders
that remain in inventory
○ Notification of facilities (eg, hospitals, clinics,
HHV 8
that received these products to quarantine prior
● Associated with Kaposi’s sarcoma, primary effusion
collections
lymphoma, multicentric Castleman’s disease ○ Further testing of the donor, if not deceased
○ Destruction or relabeling of potentially infectious
CHIKUNGUNYA VIRUS
prior collections
● Transmission: mosquito borne (Aedes family);
● Responsibilities of the transfusion service in the
transfusionassociated
look-back process are as follows:
○ Process to identify recipients, if appropriate, of
DENGUE VIRUS
blood or components from donors subsequently
● Transmission: mosquito borne (Aedes aegypti & Aedes
found to have, or be at risk for, relevant TTIs
albopictus); transfusion, organ transplantation
○ Notification, if appropriate, of the recipient’s
EBOLA VIRUS
physician or recipient as specified in FDA
● Transmission: contact with a person infected with EBV, regulations and recommendations
sexual contact, blood transfusion
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The donor RBCS, destroyed by the recipient antibodies, shortening
ma-transfuse within 24 hours then new RBC survival by causing new acting HDR. Clinically
○ Oxygen = ↑ bacterial growth = ↓ shelf life significant antibodies are typically IgG class which react at 37°C that
○ Freeze RBC = 10 years, depende sa is body temperature or say AHG phase of indirect anti globulin test
preservative/additive DAT (Direct Antiglobulin Test)
● Transfusion associated sepsis - work up of HTR, HDN, hemolytic anemias in in vivo
○ Platelet concentration is the most common
sensitization in RBCS
blood component associated
○ Most common isolate sa RBC units = Y.
IAT (Indirect antiglobulin test)
enterocolitica
- blood typing, cross matching, antibody screening, antibody
○ 2nd most common isolate sa RBC units =
identification that is in vitro sensitization of RBCS
Pseudomonas spp.
IgG = 37°C or body temp
○ Most common contaminant sa RBC units =
IgM = room temperature or 22°C or lower (M for Malamig)
Propionibacterium acne
Antibody screen
○ Most common isolate sa platelet = B. cereus,
- The process for detection if there’s unexpected antibody.
S. epidermidis
If positive antibody screen, proceed to antibody identification using
○ Blood in general = S. aureus, S. epidermidis
our antibody panel or antigram.
■ S. aureus - most common cause
■ ↑ deaths due to blood product
ANTIBODY SCREEN
contamination
● purpose is to detect any potential clinically significant antibody
● Blood substitutes in case of blood component shortage:
in a donors or recipients sample.
○ Hgb-based oxygen carriers (HBOCs)
● The AABB standard requires the use of an antibody screen to
○ Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
detect clinically significant antibodies as part of pretransfusion
testing on the recipient.
Detection and Identification of Antibodies ● Must include incubation at 37°C and the use of antiglobulin test.
Main goal is to identify the irregular or unexpected antibodies as o 3 phases in detection of antigen antibody complexes
opposed to ABO which are expected antibodies because they are - immediate spin
naturally occurring. - LISS or 37°C
- AHG = final reading
Antibody Detection ● Included (but not on AABB requirement) in standard prenatal
● It's crucial in work up or investigation in hemolytic translation testing for obstetric patients in order to evaluate risk of HDN in
reactions, immune hemolytic anemias and also some monitoring fetus and to evaluate the mother's candidacy for Rh immune
patients or mothers are at risk of delivering infants with HDFN globulin (RhIg)
● Also required in donors of allergenic blood and blood products
Antibodies can either be autoantibody or Alloantibody. and stem or progenitor cells.
Autoantibody ● Antibody screens are performed to detect antibodies in the
- antibodies produce own antigens from the word, auto following people:
meaning self o Patients requiring transfusion
Alloantibody o Women who are pregnant after delivery or after delivery
- antibodies produce following exposures of foreign antigens. o Patients with suspected transfusion reactions
Refereed as self-antigens, came from other individual and o Blood and plasma donors
usually we develop Alloantibodies if we are transfused with ● When antibodies are detected in a blood donor, the resulting
blood components will be labeled with the identity of the antibody (with
the exception of cryoprecipitate and wash or frozen or
ANTIBODIES deglycerolize RBCS)
● Immune Alloantibodies
- These are produced in response to RBC stimulation
through transfusion, transplantation or pregnancy.
Transplantation of cornea - It does not require cross matching
unlike your liver and kidney.
This is an example of antibody screen red cell anti-gram. Nagkaroon
● Naturally occurring alloantibodies ng positive antibodies screen may be due to prior exposure to red
- form as a result of exposure to environmental sources such as cell antigens from pregnancy or transfusions.
pollen, fungus, and bacteria, which have a structure similar to
some RBC antigens. ● Tentative interpretation, example tentative detection of presence
or absence of antibodies.
● Passively acquired antibodies ● The cells here- I, II, III- these are red cell antigens.
- produced in one individual and then transmitted to another ● Per red cell, there are different antigens present. That's why
individual via plasma-containing blood components or para mas mag detect ang presence ng unexpected antibodies,
derivatives such as intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) we do II cell or III cell screen
● PHASES= immediate spin 37°C and then the AHG phase
● Autoantibodies ● Here in check cells, zero that is negative. If 1+, 2+, 3+, and 4+,
- antibodies directed against antigens expressed on one's own positive reaction. Graded based on strength or degree of
RBCS and generally react with all RBCS tested. reactivity.
Antibodies considered significant or termed as clinically significant ● If positive in immediate spin= IgM class
antibodies that causes decrease survival of RBCS possessing the ● If positive at 37°C and positive AHG = IgG class
target antigen. ● Remember: final reading in AHG phase, nandito yung mga
How? clinically significant antibodies
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● If negative result, we add check cells to confirm if true or false ● Steps in performing the tube antibody screen test
negative results
● If there’s check in check cells = true negative result
ULITIN:
● if may reaction or agglutination upon additional check cells =
true negative, no antibody detected
● (-) + check cells = (+) result = true negative
● (+) = no need to add check cells
● Advantages
o Flexibility of the test system
o Availability of required testing equipment
o Relative low cost.
● Disadvantages
3. IgM since there’s reaction in immediate spin. Alloantibody kasi o Instability of the reactions and subjective nature of grading
no reactions in DAT by the technologist
4. IgM and auto antibody, observe the reactions o Amount of hands-on time for the technologist
5. IgG and auto antibody. o Problems related to the failure of the washing phase to
remove all unbound antibody
TUBE METHOD
In antibody screen, we perform methods to detect these TUBE METHOD: RBC reagents
clinically significant antibodies from traditional which is the tube to ● The RBC reagents used in the antibody screen come from
automated methods, gel technology, solid phase and affinity column group O individuals who have been typed for the most common
technology. and the most significant RBC antigens
● Usually obtained from commercial manufacturers
● The traditional tube method of detecting antibodies is an ● Cells are suspended at a concentration between 2-5% in a
indirect antiglobulin test performed in a test tube. preservative diluent, which maintains the antigens and prevents
● It may include immediate spin (IS) phase to detect antibodies hemolysis.
reacting at room temperature (but not required and may lead to ● AABB standards require that antibody detection in recipients
the detection of clinically insignificant cold antibodies), usually of be performed using reagent cells that are NOT pooled.
IgM class Pooled= combined
● Must include 37C incubation phase But antibody screening pooled ang reagent that consists of two
to three group or reagent cells selected from different donors of
known phenotype.
● Sets of alleles are prepared so that all antigens to the most
commonly encountered blood group antibodies are presented
and must include C, c, D, E, e, Fya, Fyb, Jka, Jkb, K, k, Le(a),
Le(b), P1, M, N, S, and s antigens.
● A three-cell screening panel ensures homozygosity for most
antigens against which the corresponding antibodies are likely
to exhibit dosage, but the additional cell adds expense to
pretransfusion testing
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These are added for to increase the speed and sensitivity of the ● The addition of AHG reagent allows for the agglutination of
antibody attachment to the red cell antigen. incomplete antibodies.
● 22% ALBUMIN bridging = AHG reagent serve as bridge sensitized RBCs para
- works by reducing zeta potential, dispersing the charges, magkaroon ng visible agglutination.
thus allowing the RBCs to approach each other, increasing Sensitized meaning IgG and complement proteins bound both
the chances of agglutination to RBC's
● Low Ionic Strength Solution (LISS) ● The AAB standards requires that the reagent contain anti IgG
- contains glycine in an albumin solution; in addition to when used for antibody detection and pre transition compatibility
lowering the zeta potential, it increases the uptake of testing.
antibody onto the RBCs during the sensitization phase ● Any test that is negative following the addition of the AHG or
● Polyethylene Glycol (PeG)- reagent should be controlled by the addition of Coombs control
- PeG in a LISS solution removes water from the test system, cells or check cells.
thereby concentrating any antibodies present (increases ● The addition of Coombs control test proves adequate washing
degree of RBC sensitization) was performed to remove the antibodies before AHG reagent
o Can cause nonspecific aggregation of cells, so was added, that the reagent was added and the reagent was
centrifugation after the 37C incubation is not performed working properly.
● If Combs control cells fail to agglutinate, the antibody
screen must be repeated from the beginning.
● Major Advantage:
standardization
o Less sensitive to clinically insignificant cold antibodies,
eliminating unnecessary antibody workups o Wells coated with red cell.
● Disadvantage: need special instrument or equipment. o We will add enhancement reagent usually LISS
● Centrifugation time: 10 minutes o Then add young patient serum incubate at
● Incubation time: 15 minutes o 37°C and then wash add, indicator cells coated with anti IgG
and then centrifuge.
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o Principle of solid phase
o Positive if bind for patient antibody in red cell antigen that is REAGENTS
coated in well
o The anti IgG indicator cells will adhere at the bottom of well ● An antibody identification panel is a collection of 11 to 20
surface group O reagent RBCs, with various antigen
o Negative if no bound antibody after wash step, the anti-IgG expression
coated indicator cells pellet in the bottom of the well. ● A profile sheet specifying the antigens on each cell and
● wells may be read manually or with an automated reading providing a place to record reactions accompanies
device each panel
● With column agglutination, positive reactions are very stable, so ○ The profile sheet will often indicate the
the plate may be covered, stored at 2-8°C and may read up to presence of rare cells, which are positive for
two days later. low-frequency antigens or negative for
high-frequency antigens
EXCLUSION
PATIENT HISTORY
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ADSORPTION
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COMPONENT PREPARATION & TRANSFUSION THERAPY products, and make more plasma available for other
needs.
BLOOD COLLECTION AND STORAGE ● Research suggests that PAS may reduce allergic
transfusion reactions and enhance plasma recovery.
Primary Goal of Component Preparation:
TO PROVIDE A PRODUCT OF OPTIMAL BENEFIT TO THE Rejuvenation Solution
RECIPIENT “PIGPA”
Blood Collection & Storage: CONTENTS: REJUVESOL: only FDA-approved
● Closed System: collection of blood in a sterile blood ● Phosphate rejuvenation solution in the US
container ● Inosine
● Glucose
● Open System: collection or exposure to air through an ● Pyruvate
open port that would shorten the expiration because of ● Adenine
potential bacterial contamination
● Standard WB Collection Volume:
○ 450 ± 45 mL or ± 10% containing 63 mL of Pathogen Reduction Technology
anticoagulant-preservative solution ● Pathogen Reduction: is a post collection manufacturing
○ 500 ± 50 mL or ± 10% containing 70 mL of process
anticoagulant-preservative solution ● GOAL: to reduce risk of certain transfusion-transmitted
● If the whole blood collection does NOT meet the volume infections (TTIs) in components
requirements of the collection bag and the anticoagulant ● Pathogen Reduction Technology: uses UV irradiation
has not been adjusted, the RBCs prepared from the unit and photosensitizers, which create damage to pathogen
are labeled “Red Blood Cells Low Volume.” Other nucleic acids and prevents their replication and growth
components such as platelets, fresh frozen plasma ○ Reduces infectivity of any residual pathogens in
(FFP), and cryoprecipitated AHF from low-volume units the blood components
should be discarded. ○ Psoralen treatment: a specific pathogen
reduction technology used to prepare
Anticoagulant-Preservative Solutions pathogen-reduced, whole blood-derived pooled
RECALLS: plasma; apheresis plasma; or apheresis
● Braxton Hicks (1869): recommended sodium phosphate platelets
as blood preservative ● Psoralen and UV light treatment inactivates a broad
● Albert Hustin (1914): used sodium citrate as an spectrum of viruses, as well as gram-positive and
anticoagulant solution for transfusion gram-negative bacteria, spirochetes, and parasites
● Richard Lewisohn (1915): determined the minimum
amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and Equipment in Component Manufacturing Laboratory
demonstrated its nontoxicity in small amounts
● Rous & Turner (1916): introduced the citrate dextrose Centrifuge
preservative
● Loutit & Mollison (1943): introduced the ACD AABB-Recommended Centrifuge Conditions
preservative
● Gibson (1957): introduced citrate phosphate dextrose Components Prepared Spin Conditions
preservative; replaced ACD as the standard preservative
used for blood storage RBCs + plasma 5,000 x g, 5 minutes
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either container. ● Increase RBC mass in patients at risk for HLA
● Each piece of tubing is placed in a channel and clamped. alloimmunization to HLA antigens or susceptible to CMV
● When the SCD is used to connect two containers, the ● According to AABB standards, leukocyte-reduced RBCs
expiration of the original/target component is maintained are prepared with a method known to retain at least 85%
of the original RBCs and reduce the leukocyte number in
Plasma Freezer the final component to <5.0x𝟏𝟎𝟔 in each unit
● To freeze plasma, liquid components may be placed in a
standard -18C or colder freezer and allowed to freeze FILTRATION PROCEDURE:
until solid. ● Using inline filters integral to the collection set allows
blood to be filtered before storage. The inline filter is
Storage Device designed to remove leukocytes from WB without
● Blood component storage devices should be carefully removing platelets. This filter provides a mechanism for
selected and validated to ensure that they are capable of manufacturing both red cell and platelet products that
maintaining the FDA regulated storage temperatures. are leukocyte reduced before storage.
● Temperatures must be continuously monitored, recorded ● Red cells that have been separated from the plasma can
at least every 4 hours and the device should alert the also be leukocyte reduced using inline filters. The
user if an unacceptable temperature condition occurs manufacturer’s instructions are followed regarding
timing, priming with additive solutions, and the
BLOOD COMPONENT PREPARATION temperature of filtration.
● Sterile-connecting a leukocyte reduction filter to the
RBCs and filtering before storage. FDA-approved sterile
connecting devices allow for the attachment of tubing
from filters, from transfer pacts, and between units
without creating an “open system.”
● A bedside leukocyte reduction filter can be used when
the unit is transfused. This system is least optimal
because standardization of leukocyte removal is difficult
to attain. In addition, leukocyte fragments and cytokines
that accumulate from storage are not removed, and the
● Light Spin: short time, low RPM, yields PRP process has been associated with hypotensive
● Heavy Spin: longer time, high RPM, concentrates transfusion reactions.
component
Indication Prevent CMV transmission, TRALI,
Whole Blood FNHTR, TA-GVHD
● Provides blood volume expansion and RBC mass in
acute blood loss Storage 1-6C
Indication • Active bleeding
• Massive bleeding (blood loss more Transport 1-6C
than 25% of blood volume)
Shelf-life Depends on the anticoagulant
Storage 1-6C
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Deglycerolized RBCs LEUKOREDUCED PLATELETS
● Frozen RBCs are thawed and the glycerol is removed ● To prevent recurrent febrile nonhemolytic reactions and
HLA alloimmunization for patients requiring long-term
Indication For rare phenotypes
platelet support or eventual transplantation
DEGLYCEROLIZATION PROCESS:
Fresh Frozen Plasma & Plasma Frozen within 24 Hours of
● Frozen RBCs are thawed in a 37C dry warmer or water
Phlebotomy
bath.
● FFP: contains all the coagulation factors, including labile
● Unit is washed in a series of saline solutions of
factors V and VIII, which do not store well at
decreasing osmolarity.
temperatures greater than -18C
● A visual check of the supernatant from the final wash is
● PF24: may have reduced levels of factors V and VIII
performed to ensure sufficient glycerol removal and
compared with FFP
minimal hemolysis
Shelf-life 28 days or end of the expiration date of the unit Shelf-life -18C (1 year)
-65C (7 years)
If pooled 4 hours
Indication • Thrombocytopenia
• DIC
• Bleeding If thawed and pooled 4 hours
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Apheresis Granulocytes In addition to the standard label, specific requirements for other
products are as follows:
Indication Patients with granulocyte
● Irradiated components must have the name of the facility
dysfunction or myeloid performing the irradiation.
hypoplasia who are ● Pooled components must include the final volume,
unresponsive to antibiotics unique number assigned to the pool, and name of the
facility preparing the pooled component.
Storage Room temperature without
agitation
● Autologous units must be labeled “For Autologous Use
Only.”
Shelf-life 24 hrs.
Storage and Transportation
● FDA and AABB guidelines define procedures for the
Factor IX Concentrate calibration and maintenance of equipment designed for
product storage, storage temperature limits, and
Indication Prevent or control bleeding in monitoring parameters.
patients with hemophilia B or ● Specifically, all refrigerators, freezers, and platelet
with specific factor deficiencies incubators used for storing blood components must have
the following:
Storage 1-6C lyophilized
○ Recording devices to monitor the temperature
at least every 4 hours
Shelf-life Varies
○ Audible alarms to ensure a response 24 hours
a day and an alarm set to signal the
Factor VIII Concentrate undesirable temperature before it is reached
○ Alarm checks performed on a regular basis
Indication • Prevent or control bleeding in
○ Emergency procedures for power failure and
patients with hemophilia A alarm activation
• Used for multiple clotting ○ Emergency power backup systems; continuous
factor deficiencies power source for alarms
○ Use of calibrated thermometers checked
Storage 1-6C lyophilized
against referenced thermometers
○ Written procedures for all the preceding
Shelf-life Varies
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until an appropriate time after the transfusion is
completed. Prompt intervention of a transfusion reaction
is important in reducing its severity.
● Only normal saline (0.9% USP) should be administered
with blood components. Hypotonic solutions such as 5%
dextrose cause hemolysis in vitro. Ringer’s lactate,
which contains calcium, can initiate in vitro coagulation
by reversing the action of citrate. The addition of
medications to blood can cause hemolysis and mask
adverse reactions.
● A 170- to 260-µm standard filter must be used with all
cellular and plasma components, even if leukocyte
reduction of the product has been performed during
preparation. The standard filter can be substituted with a
bedside leukocyte reduction filter to prevent febrile
reactions and HLA alloimmunization. They are
specifically designed for platelets or RBCs and cannot
be interchanged.
● Blood transfusion should be started before component
expiration and completed within 4 hours because of the
risk of bacterial growth. If the patient’s condition requires
blood infusion to extend past 4 hours, the unit should be
divided and kept in the blood bank refrigerator until
needed.
● Documentation and record keeping are essential. AABB
Standards requires the following documentation with
regard to a transfusion:
○ Medical order for transfusion
○ Recipient consent
○ Name or type of component
○ Donor unit number or pool number
○ Date and time of transfusion
○ Pretransfusion and posttransfusion vital signs
○ Amount transfused
○ Identification of the transfusionist
○ Any adverse events possibly related to the
transfusion
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ADVERSE EFFECTS OF BLOOD TRANSFUSION ○ Anti-𝐉𝐤𝒂
○ Anti-𝐅𝐲𝒂
Refers to the possible harmful effects or reactions when the ● Most common cause of HTR or IHTR – clerical and
wrong blood component/group is transfused misidentification errors that lead to transfusion of
Transfusion Reactions incompatible RBC unit
● Divided into: ● Mode of RBC destruction, both intravascular and
○ Immune – involved in the response of the body extravascular; mainly extravascular
○ Nonimmune – not involved or related in the ● IHTR is not that common anymore because of cross
response of the body matching
● Categorized according to time of transfusion:
○ Immediate or acute – reaction occurs within 24
hrs
○ Delayed – reaction occurs after 24 hours post
transfusion; can take up to 2 weeks before
symptoms appear on patient
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○ Normally, the clinical significance of the Major DIC, renal failure, shock, Anemia
antibodies would be detected during pre Complications mortality
transfusion testing, but in the case of delayed
HTR, it is possible that detectable levels of Causes • ABO incompatibility • Anamnestic response to
antibodies were too low • Complement activation red cell antigen
• Alloantibody not
● First detectable sign of delayed HTR – inadequate demonstrating or missed
increase of post transmission hemoglobin levels, rapid pretransfusion
decrease back to pre transmission levels, or an
unexplained appearance of spherocytes Clinical • Clerical check and visual • DAT: positive
○ Sudden increase of hemoglobin levels is Laboratory inspection of posttransfusion • Posttransfusion antibody
Tests sample screen: positive
compensatory • DAT: positive or negative • ↓ Hemoglobin & hematocrit
○ If intravascular hemolysis – schistocytes • Repeat ABO testing • Tests for hemolysis:
○ If extravascular hemolysis – spherocytes • Tests for hemolysis: o ↑ Plasma-free hemoglobin
● Clinical signs and symptoms are usually mild; severe o ↑ Plasma-free hemoglobin o ↑ Serum bilirubin
o ↑ Serum bilirubin o ↓ Haptoglobin
DHTR cases and fatalities are uncommon o ↓ Haptoglobin o Hemoglobinuria
○ Most common cause of DHTR – ISBT 009 Hemoglobinuria
(Kidd)
○ Other blood groups associated with DHTR – Management • Treat hypotension and DIC • Identify antibody(ies)
• Maintain renal blood flow • Provide antigen-negative
Rh, Duffy, Kell, MNS
donor units
● Two Different Types of DHTR:
○ Secondary (anamnestic) response to Prevention • Avoid clerical and • Check of patient records
transfused RBCs misidentification errors • Recently transfused or
■ 3-7 days from time of transfusion are • Design systems to pregnant have drawn
decrease chances of within 3 days of transfusion
necessary for enough antibody to be technical error
produced by the patient to cause
clinical signs and symptoms of
extravascular hemolysis
○ Primary alloimmunization IMMEDIATE NONHEMOLYTIC TRANSFUSION REACTION
■ Patient has no past history of
pregnancy, transfusion, or transplant 1. Febrile Nonhemolytic Transfusion Reaction (FNHTR)
■ Patient’s first time to be exposed to the 2. Allergic (Urticarial) Transfusion Reactions
donor’s antigen 3. Anaphylactic and Anaphylactoid Reactions
4. Noncardiogenic Pulmonary Edema Reactions (TRALI)
5. Transfusion-Associated Circulatory Overload
6. Bacterial Contamination Reactions
7. Physically or Chemically Induced Transfusion Reactions
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Clinical Signs & • Hives and itching within • Rapid onset and severe
Allergic (Urticarial) Transfusion Reactions Symptoms 15-20 minutes of wheezing, coughing,
● In the classic type I hypersensitivity response, preformed transfusion dyspnea, bronchospasm,
IgE antibodies in the recipient react with the allergen respiratory distress,
vascular instability
(plasma protein), which activates mast cells.
● Mast cell activation results in degranulation and the
Major None • Shock
release of histamine, proteases, and chemotactic Complications • Loss of consciousness
factors. • Mortality
○ Histamine – primary mediator of allergic
response; released when antigen binds to the Causes • Recipient antibodies to • Associated with genetic
foreign plasma proteins IgA deficiency in recipient
surface of tissue mast cells or other substances such who possesses IgG
SIGNS & SYMPTOMS as drugs or food complement-binding anti-IgA
● Local erythema (redness) consumed by blood donor antibodies
● Pruritus (itching)
● Hives (raised, firm, red welts) Clinical • DAT: negative • DAT: negative
Laboratory • No visible hemolysis • No visible hemolysis
PREVENTION Tests • Perform IgA antigen and
● Medication and premedication with antihistamine anti-IgA testing
● Transfusion of plasma-deficient blood components
Management • Transfusion interrupted • Transfusion terminated
Anaphylactic Response • Antihistamine • Epinephrine and similar
administered drugs administered
● Immediate hypersensitivity type of immune system • Oxygen administered and
response open airways maintained
○ Anaphylactic and allergic responses are of both
immediate hypersensitivity type, but Prevention • Premedication with • Plasma-containing products
anaphylactic is more severe antihistamine, if patient from IgAdeficient donors
history reveals repetitive • Washed red cell and
○ Allergic – single organ reactions platelet products
○ Anaphylactic – involves multi organ • May necessitate washed
● Two significant features distinguish anaphylactic cellular products
response from other types of transfusion reactions:
1. Fever is absent
Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury
2. Clinical signs and symptoms occur after
●
Noncardiogenic pulmonary edema
transfusion of just a few milliliters of plasma or ●
Currently the leading cause of mortality from transfusion
plasma-containing blood components
○ Leading cause of transfusion-associated
● Anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions are the most
fatalities surpassing ABO incompatibility and
fatal and deadly as transfusion reactions
bacterial contamination
● Attributed to IgA deficiency in patients who have ● Caused by anti-leukocyte antibodies; anti-HLA class I;
developed anti-IgA antibodies by sensitization from
anti-neutrophil antigens that are present in plasma of the
transfusion or pregnancy
transfused unit
○ Selective IgA deficiency – most common
● Blood component is leukoreduced or leukopoor
immunodeficiency; rare ● TRALI – involvement of lungs; much more dangerous
○ Either low levels of IgA or no IgA
compared to FNHTR
○ <5 mg/mL – severe
SYMPTOMS:
○ >5 mg/mL – partial deficiency
● Dyspnea
SIGNS & SYMPTOMS: ● Hypoxemia
1. Anaphylactic, in patients deficient in IgA who have
● Tachycardia
class-specific IgA antibodies
● Fever
2. Anaphylactoid, in patients having normal levels of IgA
● Hypotension
but a limited type-specific anti-IgA that reacts with light ● Cyanosis
chain (kappa or lambda) of donor’s IgA
● Lack of
THERAPY & PREVENTION:
abnormal
● Stop the transfusion, and do not restart transfusion of the
breath sounds?
blood component. ● X-ray shows pulmonary edema
● Keep the IV line open with normal saline.
● Give epinephrine (usually about 0.5 mL of 1:1000
solution) immediately. Clinical Signs & • Fever (1-2C increase)
Symptoms • Chills
● For severe reactions, corticosteroids or aminophylline, or • Hypoxia
both, may be indicated. Airway patency must be • Dyspnea (shortness of breath)
maintained, and the vital signs must be stabilized by • Cyanosis (bluish discoloration of skin)
appropriate means. • Nonproductive cough
• New onset bilateral pulmonary edema
• Hypotension
• Acute onset within 6h of blood transfusion
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● Melena SIGNS & SYMPTOMS:
● Vaginal bleeding ● Muscle weakness, weight loss, mild jaundice, fatigue,
THERAPY & PREVENTION: cardiac arrhythmias, mild diabetes, and multi-organ
● Corticosteroids failure
● Exchange transfusions PREVENTION:
● Plasmapheresis ● Use of iron chelators such as deferiprone or
● IV immunoglobulin therapy deferoxamine
● Transfusion of neocytes (young RBCs)
Transfusion-Associated Graft-VersusHost Disease ○ Increase on survival rate
(TA-GVHD)
● Can occur when viable donor T cells proliferate, are not Immunosuppression
recognized by the recipient’s immune system as foreign, ● Is a generalized, nonspecific effect that diminishes the
but recognize and reject the host as foreign activity of the recipient’s immune system soon after
● Most clinical signs and symptoms appear in about 3-30 blood component(s) transfusion
days after transfusion
● PANCYTOPENIA: clinically significant indication of
TA-GVHD
● Other effects include fever, elevated liver enzymes,
copious watery diarrhea, erythematous skin rash
progressing to erythroderma, and desquamation
● Blood Component Gamma Irradiation: best current
technology to reduce the risk of TA-GVHD
○ Usual dosage range: 25 Gray (Gy) to 35 Gy
● Irradiation of the blood component before transfusion
results in inactivation of the lymphocytes in the blood
components, inhibiting lymphocyte blast transformation
and mitotic activity
Iron Overload
● Transfusion-induced hemosiderosis
● Results from the accumulation of excess iron in WORK UP – TRANSFUSION INVESTIGATION
macrophages in various tissues ● Examination of pretransfusion clotted blood specimen,
● Iron intake (250 mg/unit) exceeds the daily iron excretion an EDTA anticoagulated posttransfusion blood specimen
(1 mg/day) with the subsequent deposition of excess iron (perform DAT), and the blood bag
in the liver, heart, kidney ● Perform gram stain on the blood in the bag and culture
● Patients who are transfusion-dependent are at risk of ● Repeat the ABO/Rh typing, antibody screen, and
iron overload (sickle cell anemia); other s at rick are crossmatching
people with hemoglobinopathies and thalassemia ● Examination of posttransfusion urine
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● Measurement of Hct/Hb at frequent interval disease to intrauterine death risk
○ Specimen collected in cordocentesis – fetal
Investigations of transfusion reactions are necessary for: blood
1. Diagnosis
2. Selection of appropriate therapy
3. Transfusion management
4. Prevention of future transfusion reactions
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alloimmunization has been determined experimentally
and is known to be less than that required to saturate all
D antigen sites
● FULL DOSE:
○ Contains 3o ul of anti-D
○ Protects up to 30 mL of D+ whole blood
○ After 12 weeks gestation, a full dose (300ug) is
indicated for abortion or miscarriage in
D-negative women
○ If mother is exposed to ≥ 2.5 mL Rh positive red
cells of the baby
○ If full dose vial is not available, micro dose vials
are not allowed
● MICRO DOSE
○ Contains 50 uL of anti-D
● Of the non-Rh system antibodies, anti-Kell is considered ○ Protects up to 5 mL of D+ whole blood
the most clinically significant in its ability to cause HDFN ○ After 12 weeks gestation, a 50 ug is indication
● Kell antigens are present on immature erythroid cells in for D-negative females for abortion or
the bone marrow, so severe anemia occurs not only by miscarriage, or ectopic pregnancies
destruction of circulating RBCs, but also by precursors ○ If mother is exposed to ≤ 2.5 mL Rh positive red
cells of the baby
RH HDFN ○ If microdose vial is not available, full dose vial
can be administered
● In Rh(D) HDFN, the Rh positive firstborn infant of a Rh ● Massive fetomaternal hemorrhages of more than 30 mL
negative mother usually is unaffected because the of full blood can occur in less than 1% of deliveries and
mother has not yet been immunized these massive hemorrhages can lead to immunization if
● When the D antigen is inherited from the father, these adequate RH immunoglobulin is not administered.
fetal cells immunize the mother and stimulate the ○ How do we know if there is massive
production of anti-D. Once the mother is immunized to D fetomaternal hemorrhage? We collect maternal
antigen, all subsequent offspring who inherit the D sample which is obtained within 1 hour of
antigen will be affected delivery, then we can do screening tests such
○ Can also be stated as Rh positive father and Rh as Rosette technique
negative mother ○ Rosette technique/test detects Rh fetal positive
● As little as 1 mL of fetal RBCs can immunize the mother red cells in maternal circulation
○ If HDN is positive for screening test, we do
RHOGAM or RhIg confirmatory test; we proceed to the
● Rh Immune globulin (RhIg) is as solution of concentrated quantitation of the hemorrhage by
anti-Rho(D) KLEIHAUER-BETKE TEST
● Prepared from pooled human plasma of patients who
have been hyperimmunized and contains predominantly KLEIHAUER-BETKE TEST (ACID ELUTION TEST)
IgG anti-D
● Inactivate fetal Rh antigens to prevent sensitization from ● Developed by Enno Kleihauer and Klaus Betke
the mother ● Or flow cytometry is used to quantitate the number of
● If the mother is sensitized and is injected with Rhogam fetal Rh-positive cells in the mother’s circulation as a
after delivery, it is ineffective because there are anti-Rh result of a fetomaternal hemorrhage
𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑒𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑛𝑎𝑙 ℎ𝑒𝑚𝑜𝑟𝑟ℎ𝑎𝑔𝑒 (𝑚𝐿)
antibodies that are already formed; purpose of Rhogam ● 30
is to prevent sensitization from the mother, but when ○ 30 – amount of fetal blood appropriate to one
sensitization has already occurred, Rhogam is ineffective vial of RhIg
● Rhogam can be administered during pregnancy, before ○ Volume of FMH = % fetal cells x 50
delivery, or immediately after delivery, miscarriage, or ○ Alternative formula for volume of FMH:
abortion # 𝑜𝑓 𝑓𝑒𝑡𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑠 × 𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑏𝑙𝑜𝑜𝑑 𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒
○ Should be administered within 72 hours of 𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑚𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙𝑠
suspected or proven exposure to Rh positive ● A maternal blood smear is treated with acid and then
red cells stained with counterstain (Shepard’s stain)
● RhIg has two primary uses: ● Fetal cells contain hemoglobin, which is resistant to acid
○ Treatment of ITP and will remain pink/red (deeply stained)
○ Prevention of Rh HDN ● The maternal cells will appear as ghost cells
● Principle: active immunization induced by RBC antigen ● After 2,000 cells are counted, the percentage of fetal
can be prevented by the concurrent administration of the cells is determined, and the volume of fetal hemorrhage
corresponding RBC antibody is calculated
MECHANISM OF ACTION
● The administered RhIg attached to the fetal Rh positive
RBCs in the maternal circulation
● The antibody-coated RBCs are removed by the
macrophages in the maternal spleen
● The RBC antigens are thus unavailable for dendritic cells
to present antigen to T helper cells
● The amount of antibody necessary to prevent
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ABO HDFN
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