Final Kick Coaching Institute: Jagati Digital Education
Final Kick Coaching Institute: Jagati Digital Education
Illustration 11
ABC Bank gave loans to a customer – Target Ltd. that carry fixed interest rate @ 10% per annum for a 5 year term and 12% per
annum for a 3 year term. Additionally, the bank charges processing fees @1% of the principal amount borrowed. Target Ltd
borrowed loans as follows:
(a) Rs. 10 lacs for a term of 5 years
(b) Rs. 8 lacs for a term of 3 years.
Compute the fair value upon initial recognition of the loan in books of Target Ltd. and how will loan processing fee be
accounted?
Solution
The loans from ABC Bank carry interest @ 10% and 12% for 5 year term and 3 year term respectively. Additionally, there is a
processing fee payable @ 1% on the principal amount on date of transaction. It is assumed that ABC Bank charges all customers
in a similar manner and hence, this is representative of the market rate of interest.
Amortised cost is computed by discounting all future cash flows at market rate of interest. Further, any transaction fees that are
an integral part of the transaction are adjusted in the effective interest rate and recognised over the term of the instrument.
Hence, loan processing fees shall be reduced from the principal amount to arrive the value on day 1 upon initial recognition.
Fair value on initial recognition = 10,000/ (1+0.07)3 = 8,163. Differential on day 1 = 10,000 – 8,163 = 1,837
Illustration 13: Accounting for transaction costs on initial and subsequent measurement of a financial asset measured at
fair value with changes through other comprehensive income:
An entity acquires a financial asset for CU100 plus a purchase commission of CU2. Initially, the entity recognises the
asset at CU102. The reporting period ends one day later, when the quoted market price of the asset is CU100. If the
- On that date, the entity measures the asset at CU100 (without regard to the possible commission on sale) and recognises a
loss of CU2 in other comprehensive income.
- If the financial asset is measured at fair value through other comprehensive income in accordance with Ind AS 109.4.1.2A,
the transaction costs are amortised to profit or loss using the effective interest method.
Solution
In this case –
Loan notes are repayable only then C earns returns in form of dividends from subsidiaries. Hence, C cannot be forced to obtain
additional external financing or to liquidate its investments to redeem the shareholder loans. Consequently, the loan notes are not
considered payable on demand.
Accordingly –
- Loan notes shall be initially measured at their fair value (plus transaction costs), being the present value of the expected
future cash flows, discounted using a market-related rate. The amount and timing of the expected future cash flows should
be determined on the basis of the expected dividend flow from the subsidiaries. Also, the valuation would need to take into
account possible early repayments of principal and corresponding reductions in interest expense.
- Since the loan notes are interest-free or bear lower-than-market interest, there will be a difference between the
nominal value of the loan notes - i.e. the amount granted - and their fair value on initial recognition. Because the
financing is provided by shareholders, acting in the capacity of shareholders, the resulting credit should be
reflected in equity as a shareholder contribution in C's balance sheet. Conversely, in books of shareholders, the
difference between amount invested and its fair value shall be recorded as ‘investment in C Ltd’ being
representative of the underlying relationship between shareholders and C Ltd.
Illustration 15 : Use of cost v/s fair value determination for equity instruments
Silver Ltd. has made an investment in optionally convertible preference shares (OCPS) of a Company – Bronze Ltd. at Rs. 100
per share (face value Rs. 100 per share). Silver Ltd. has an option to convert these OCPS into equity shares in the ratio of 1:1
and if such option not exercised till end of 9 years, then the shares shall be redeemable at the end of 10 years at a premium of
20%.
Analyse the measurement of this investment in books of Silver Ltd.
Solution
The classification assessment for a financial asset is done based on two characteristics:
i. Whether the contractual cash flows comprise cash flows that are solely payments of principal and interest on the
principal outstanding
ii. Entity’s business model (BM) for managing financial assets – Whether the Company’s BM is to collect cash flows;
or a BM that involves realisation of both contractual cash flows & sale of financial assets;
In all other cases, the financial assets are measured at fair value through profit or loss.
In the above case, the Holder can realise return either through conversion or redemption at the end of 10 years, hence it
does not indicate contractual cash flows that are solely payments of principal and interest. Therefore, such investment
shall be carried at fair value through profit or loss. Accordingly, the investment shall be measured at fair value
periodically with gain/ loss recorded in profit or loss.
A Ltd has made a security deposit whose details are described below. Make necessary journal entries for
accounting of the deposit in the first year and last year. Assume market interest rate for a deposit for similar period to
be 12% per annum.
Particulars Details
Date of Security Deposit (Starting Date) 1-Apr-20X1
Date of Security Deposit (Finishing Date) 31-Mar-20X6
Description Lease
Total Lease Period 5 years
Discount rate 12.00%
Security deposit (A) 10,00,000
Present value factor at the 5th year 0.567427
A Ltd. invested in equity shares of C Ltd. on 15 th March for Rs. 10,000. Transaction costs were Rs. 500 in addition to the basic cost of
Rs. 10,000. On 31 March, the fair value of the equity shares was Rs. 11,200 and market rate of interest is 10% per annum for a 10
year loan. Pass necessary journal entries. Analyse the measurement principle and pass necessary journal entries.
Metallics Ltd. has made an investment in equity instrument of a company – Castor Ltd. for 19% equity stake. Significant influence
not exercised. The investment was made for Rs. 5,00,000 for 10,000 equity shares on 01 April 20X1. On 30 June 20X1 the fair
value per equity share is Rs.45. The Company has taken an irrevocable option to measure such investment at fair value through
other comprehensive income.
Illustration 20
Silver Ltd. has purchased 100 ounces of gold on 10 March 20X1. The transaction provides for a price payable which is equal to
market value of 100 ounces of gold on 10 April 20X1 and shall be settled by issue of such number of equity shares as is
required to settle the aforementioned transaction price at Rs. 10 per share on 10 April 20X1. Whether this is classified as liability
or equity? Own use exemption does not apply.
Solution
In the above scenario, there is a contract for purchase of 100 ounces of gold whose consideration varies in response to changing value
of gold. Analysing this contract as a derivative –
A Ltd has made a borrowing from RBC Bank for Rs. 10,000 at a fixed interest of 12% per annum. Loan processing fees
were additionally paid for Rs. 500 and loan is payable 4 half-yearly installments of Rs. 2,500 each. Details are as
follows:
Particulars Details
Loan amount Rs. 10,000
Date of loan (Starting Date) 1-Apr-20X1
Date of loan (Finishing Date) 31-March-20X3
Description of repayment Repayment of loan starts from 30-Sept-20X1 (To be paid half
yearly)
Installment amount Rs. 2,500
Interest rate 12.00%
Reclassification Question
Illustration 24
Bonds for ₹ 1,00,000 reclassified as FVTPL. Fair value on reclassification is ₹ 90,000. Pass the required journal entry.
Solution
Bonds at FVTPL Dr. 90,000
Loss on reclassification Dr. 10,000
To Bonds at amortised cost 1,00,000
Illustration 25
Bonds for ₹ 1,00,000 reclassified as FVOCI. Fair value on reclassification is ₹ 90,000. Pass the required journal entry.
Solution
Bonds at FVOCI Dr. 90,000
OCI (Loss on reclassification) Dr. 10,000
To Bonds at amortised cost 1,00,000
Illustration 27
Bonds for ₹ 100,000 reclassified as FVOCI. Fair value on reclassification is ₹ 90,000. Pass the required journal entry.
Solution
Bonds at FVOCI Dr. 90,000
Loss on reclassification Dr. 10,000
To Bonds at FVTPL 1,00,000
Illustration 28
Bonds for ₹ 100,000 reclassified as Amortised cost. Fair value on reclassification is
₹ 90,000 and ₹ 10,000 loss was recognised in OCI till date of reclassification. Pass required journal entry.
Solution
Bonds at FVOCI Dr. 10,000
To OCI - Loss on reclassification 10,000
[Being loss recognized in OCI now reversed prior to reclassification]
Bonds (Amortised cost) Dr. 100,000
To Bonds at FVOCI 100,000
[Being bonds reclassified from FVOCI to Amortised cost]
Illustration 29
Bonds for ₹ 100,000 reclassified as FVTPL. Fair value on reclassification is ₹ 90,000. Pass the required journal entry.
Solution
P&L - Loss on reclassification Dr. 10,000
To OCI - Loss on reclassification 10,000
Impairment
Refer Question Bank for illustrations related to Impairment of Financial Assets .
Q. On 30th March 2020 an entity enters into an agreement to purchase afinancial assets for ₹ 1000 which is the fair value
on that date.
On Balance sheet date i.e. 31st March 2020 the fair value is ₹ 1020 and onsettlement date i.e. 02/04/2020 fair value is ₹ 1030
Pass necessary journal entries on trade date and settlement date whenthe asset acquired is measured at
a. Amortised cost
b. FVTPL
c. FVTOCI
i. Interest strip of an interest-bearing financial asset i.e. the part entitles its holder to interest cash flows of a financial asset
ii. Dividend strip of an equity share i.e. the part entitles its holder to only dividends arising from an equity share
iii. Cash flows (principal and asset) upto a certain tenure or first right on a proportion of cash flows of an amortising financial asset.
Say, the part entitles its holder to first 80% of the cash flows or cash flows for first 4of the 6 years’ tenure.
i. Entity Y transfers the rights to the first or the last 90 per cent of cash collections from a financial asset (or a group of financial
assets)
ii. Entity Z transfers the rights to 90 per cent of the cash flows from a group of receivables, but provides a guarantee to
compensate the buyer for any credit losses up to 8 per cent of the principal amount of the receivables.
iii. Repurchase agreement provides the transferee a right to substitute assets that are similar and of equal fair value to the
transferred asset at the repurchase date.
State whether the derecognition principles will be applied or not.
Solution
In each of these scenarios, the transferred financial asset is not derecognised because the transferor retains substantially all the risks
and rewards of ownership.
Let’s look at another scenario:
Repurchase agreement provides the transferor only a right of first refusal to repurchase the transferred asset at fair value if the
transferee subsequently sells it
In this scenario, the transferred financial asset is derecognised because the transferor has transferred substantially all the risks and
rewards ofownership.
Solution
In the first scenario, the transferred asset does not qualify for derecognition because the transferor has retained substantially all the
risks and rewards of ownership. However, in the second scenario, the transferor has transferred substantially all the risks and rewards
of ownership.
iii Call option is neither deeply in the money nor deeply out of the money State whether thederecognition principles will be
applied or not.
Solution
In the first scenario, the transferred asset does not qualify for derecognition because the transferor has retained substantially all the risks
and rewards of ownership. However, in the second scenario, the transferor has transferred substantially all the risks and rewards of
ownership.
In the third scenario, the asset is derecognised. This is because the entity (i) has neither retained nor transferred substantially all the
risks and rewardsof ownership, and (ii) has not retained control.
i. Notional amount of the swap amortises so that it equals the principal amount of the transferred financial asset outstanding at any
point in time.
ii. Amortisation of the notional amount of the swap is not linked to the principal amount outstanding of the transferred asset.
State whether the derecognition principles will be applied or not.
Solution
In the first scenario, the swap would generally result in the entity retaining substantial prepayment risk, in which case the entity either
continues to recognise all of the transferred asset or continues to recognise the transferred asset to the extent of its continuing
involvement.
Such a swap would not result in the entity retaining prepayment risk onthe asset. Hence, it would not preclude derecognition of
the transferredasset provided the payments on the swap are not conditional on interest payments being made on the transferred asset
and the swap does not result in the entity retaining any other significant risks and rewards of ownership on the transferred asset.
Solution
In this situation, ST Ltd. has transferred the rights to contractual cash flows and has also transferred substantially all the risks and
rewards of ownership (credit risk being the most significant risk in this situation).
Accordingly, ST Ltd. derecognises the financial asset and recognises ₹ 1,00,000, the difference between consideration received and
carrying amount, as an expense in the statement of profit or loss.
ii. the fair value of the guarantee (i.e. ₹ 0.5 crores). Comment
Xyz ltd determines that the market interest rates on 1st January 2005 for borrowings on similar terms is 11%.
The repayment schedule for the original debt till the date of renegotiation is as below :
Date/Year ended Op. Bal Int. Accruals Cash Flows Cl. Bal
1 January 20X0 10,00,000 1,00,000 (100,000) 10,00,000
31 December 20X0 10,00,000 1,00,000 (1,00,000) 10,00,000
31 December 20X1 10,00,000 1,00,000 (1,00,000) 10,00,000
31 December 20X2 10,00,000 1,00,000 (1,00,000) 10,00,000
31 December 20X3 10,00,000 1,00,000 (1,00,000) 10,00,000
31 December 20X4 10,00,000 1,00,000 (1,00,000) 10,00,000
1 January 20X0 10,00,000 1,00,000 (100,000) 10,00,000
On 1 January 2000, Xyz ltd issues 10 year bonds for ₹ 10,00,000 bearing interest at 10% (payable annually on 31 st December each
year). The bonds are redeemable on 31 st December 2009 for ₹ 10,00,000. No cost or fees are incurred. The effective interest rate is
therefore 10%. On 1st January 2005(after 5 years)Xyz ltd and the bondholders agree to a modification in accordance with which
:
2. the bonds are redeemed on the original due date (31st December 2009) for ₹16,00,000; and
Illustration 1: Prepaid interest rate swap (fixed rate payment obligationprepaid at inception)
Entity S enters into a ` 100 crores notional amount five-year pay-fixed,receive-variable interest rate swap with Counterparty C.
The interest rate of the variable part of the swap is reset on a quarterlybasis to three- month Mumbai Interbank Offer Rate
(MIBOR).
The interest rate of the fixed part of the swap is 10% p.a.
Entity S prepays its fixed obligation under the swap of ` 50 crores (` 100crores × 10% × 5 years) at inception, discounted
using market interest rates
Entity S retains the right to receive interest payments on the ` 100 croresreset quarterly based on three-month MIBOR over the
life of the swap. Analyse.
Solution
The initial net investment in the interest rate swap is significantly less than the notional amount on which the variable payments
under the variable leg will be calculated. The contract requires an initial net investment that is smaller than would be required for other
types of contracts that would be expected to have a similar response to changes in market factors, such as a variable rate bond.
Therefore, the contract fulfils the condition 'no initial net investment or an initial net investment that is smaller than would be
required for other types of contracts that would be expected to have a similar response to changes in market factors'.
Even though Entity S has no future performance obligation, the ultimate settlement of the contract is at a future date and the value of the
contract changes in response to changes in the LIBOR index. Accordingly, the contract is regarded as a derivative contract.
Solution
In effect, this contract results in an initial net investment of ` 36 crores whichyields a cash inflow of ` 10 crores every year, for five
years. By discharging the obligation to pay variable interest rate payments, Entity S in effect provides a loan to Counterparty C.
Therefore, all else being equal, the initial investment in the contract should equal that of other financial instruments that consist of
fixed annuities. Thus,the initial net investment in the pay-variable, receive-fixed interest rate swap is equal to the investment required
in a non- derivative contract that has a similar response to changes in market conditions.
For this reason, the instrument fails the condition 'no initial net investment or an initial net investment that is smaller than
would be required for other types of contracts that would be expected to have a similar response to changes in market
factors'. Therefore, the contract is not accounted for as a derivative contract.
Solution
Purchase of 1 million shares for current market price is likely to have the same response to changes in market factors as the
contract mentioned above. Accordingly, the prepaid forward contract does not meet the initial net investment criterion of a
derivative instrument.
The response above will not change even if the interest payment and principal repayments are indexed to a commodity index or
similar underlying.
Entity PQR borrows ` 100 crores from CFDH Bank on 1 April 20X1.
Interest is payable at 12% p.a. and there is a bullet repayment of principal atthe end of the term. Term of the loan is 6 years.
The loan includes an option to prepay the loan at 1st April each year with a
• Host is a debt instrument comprising annual interest payment at 12% p.a.and bullet principal repayment at the end of 6
years.
In Crores
Year Cash outflow PV @ 11% p.a. Finance cost Amortised cost
1 12.00 10.81 11.46 103.68
2 12.00 9.74 11.41 103.09
Step 3: Compare the exercise price of the prepayment option with the amortised cost of the host debt instrument
The management of Entity PQR may formulate an appropriate accounting policy to determine what constitutes “approximately
equal”. In this case, if the management determines that a difference of more than 2% will indicate that the option's exercise price is
not approximately equal to the amortised cost of the host debt instrument, it will need to separate the embedded derivative and
account for it as per principles given in the subsequent sub- section.
It may be questioned as to why an option to repay a fixed rate loan early meets the definition of embedded derivative. Let us revisit
an important phrase from the definition of embedded derivative:
“…some or all of the cash flows that otherwise would be required by the contract to be modified…”
• the cash flows of a fixed rate debt do not vary with interest rates. However, in this context, a variation in cash flows
should be interpreted asa possible change in the fair value of expected cash flows. Accordingly,
The functional currency of ABG is Indian Rupees (INR) and of A&A is Dirhams.
The obligation to settle the contract in US Dollars has been evaluated to be an embedded derivative which is not closely related to
the host purchase contract.
Exchange rates:
Six-month forward rate on 1 January 20X1: USD 1 = INR 65Spot rate on 30 June 20X1: USD 1 =
INR 66
Analyse
Illustration 2
Company A is a pharmaceutical company. Since inception, the Company had been conducting in-house research and
development activities through its skilled workforce and recently obtained an intellectual property right (IPR) in the form of
patents over certain drugs. The Company‘s has a production plant that has recently obtained regulatory approvals. However,
the Company has not earned any revenue so far and does not have any customer contracts for sale of goods. Company B
acquires Company A.
Does Company A constitute a business in accordance with Ind AS 103?
Solution
The definition of business requires existence of inputs and processes. In this case, the skilled workforce, manufacturing plant
and IPR, along with strategic and operational processes constitutes the inputs and processes in line with the requirements of
Ind AS 103.
When the said inputs and processes are applied as an integrated set, the Company A will be capable of producing outputs;
the fact that the Company A currently does not have revenue is not relevant to the analysis of the definition of business under
Ind AS 103. Basis this and presuming that Company A would have been able to obtain access to customers that will purchase
the outputs, the present case can be said to constitute a business as per Ind AS 103.
Illustration 3
Modifying the above illustration, if Company A had revenue contracts and a sales force, such that Company B acquires all the
inputs and processes other than the sales force, then whether the definition of the business is met in accordance with Ind AS
103?
Solution
Though the sales force has not been taken over, however, if the missing inputs (i.e., sales force) can be easily replicated
or obtained by the market participant to generate output, it may be concluded that Company A has acquired business. Further, if
Company B is also into similar line of business, then the existing sales force of Company B may also be relevant to mitigate
the missing input. As such, the definition of business is met in accordance with Ind AS 103.
Illustration 5
ABC Ltd. incorporated a company Super Ltd. to acquire 100% sharesof another entity Focus Ltd. (and therefore to obtain
control of the Focus Ltd.). To fund the purchase, Super Ltd. acquired a loan from XYZ Bank at commercial interest rates.
The loan funds are used by Super Ltd. to acquire entire voting shares of Focus Ltd. at fair value in an orderly transaction.
Post the acquisition, Super Ltd. has the ability to elect or appoint or to remove a majority of the members of the governing
body of the Focus Ltd. and also Super Ltd.‘s management is in a power where it will be able to dominate the management of
the Focus Ltd. Can Super Ltd. be identified as the acquirer in this business combination?
Solution
Paragraph 6 of Ind AS 103 states that for each business combination, one of the combining entities shall be identified as the
acquirer.
While paragraph 7 states that the guidance in Ind AS 110 shall be used to identify the acquirer that is the entity that obtains
control of another entity called the acquiree. If a business combination has occurred but applying the guidance in Ind AS 110
does not clearly indicate which of the combining entities is the acquirer, the factors in paragraphs B14–B18 of Ind AS 103
shall be considered in making that determination.
Further, paragraph B15 provides that, in a business combination effected primarily by exchanging equity interests, the
acquirer is usually the entity that issues its equity interests. However, in some business combinations, commonly called ‗reverse
acquisitions‘, the issuing entity is the acquiree. Other pertinent facts and circumstances shall also be considered in identifying
the acquirer in a business combination effected by exchanging equity interests, including:
(a) The relative voting rights in the combined entity after the business combination: The acquirer is usually the
combining entity whose owners as a group retain or receive the largest portion of the voting rights in the
combined entity. In determining which group of owners retains or receives the
largest portion of the voting rights, an entity shall consider the existence of any unusual or special voting
arrangements and options, warrants or convertible securities.
(b) The existence of a large minority voting interest in the combined entity if no other owner or organised
group of owners has a significant voting interest: The acquirer is usually the combining entity whose single owner
or organised group of owners holds the largest minority voting interest in the combined entity.
(c) The composition of the governing body of the combined entity: The acquirer is usually the combining entity
whose owners have the ability to elect or appoint or to remove a majority of the members of the governing body of
the combined entity.
(d) The composition of the senior management of the combined entity: The acquirer is usually the combining entity
whose (former) management dominates the management of the combined entity.
(e) The terms of the exchange of equity interests: The acquirer is usually the combining entity that pays a premium over
the pre- combination fair value of the equity interests of the other combining entity or entities.
The key drivers of the accounting are identifying the party on whose behalf the new entity has been formed and identifying the
business acquired. In this scenario, as Super Ltd. has the ability to elect or appoint or to remove a majority of the members of
the governing body of the Focus Ltd. and has the ability to dominate the management of the Focus Ltd. Accordingly, Super
Ltd. will be identified as the acquirer unless there are conditions to conclude to the contrary.
Illustration 6
Can an acquiring entity account for a business combination based on a signed non-binding letter of intent where the
exchange of consideration and other conditions are expected to be completed with2 months?
Solution;
No. as per the requirement of the standard a non- binding Letter of Intent (LOI) does not effectively transfer control and
hence this cannot be considered as the basis for determining the acquisitiondate.
Illustration 7
On 1st April, X Ltd. agrees to acquire the share of B Ltd. in an all equity deal. As per the binding agreement X Ltd. will get
the effective control on 1st April. However, the consideration will be paid only when the shareholders‘ approval is received.
The shareholders meeting is scheduled to happen on 30 th April. If the shareholders‘ approval is not received for issue of new
shares, then the consideration will be settled in cash. What is the acquisition date?
BY CA PRATIK JAGATI(7002630110,9864047095) 29