VĐ 13-16
VĐ 13-16
ĐỀ VỀ ĐÍCH 13
Read the following blog entry and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
ENTRY #21
Last week, I went with a group of other students from my class to spend (1)_____ days and nights at the Forest
Survival Camp. I didn’t really know what to expect, but I had the most amazing time.
We arrived at the Forest Camp (2)_____ on Friday morning. Our instructor told us that there were no tents, no
food and no equipment - if we needed anything, we would have to make it ourselves. (3)_____ first, we said that it
was impossible, and much too difficult.
But then we (4)_____ wood, build a shelter, found water, caught fish in the lake and learned how to make a fire
by rubbing two sticks together. It was tiring and uncomfortable, (5)_____ it was incredibly good fun - and we all said
that if we were lost in a jungle in the future, we would have a good idea of what to do.
I’m so glad I went - I would have been really disappointed if I (6)_____ it.
(Adapted from Harmonize)
Read the following text and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
‘Expensive repairs for cracked screens and broken tennis rackets could one day become a thing of the past,’
claim researchers at the University of Illinois, who have announced that they have (7)_____ an important
technological breakthrough: plastic that can repair itself. ‘The technology was inspired by the clotting properties of
human blood, (8)_____ can heal the body’s wounds’, explained the researchers. The idea is that the plastic is filled
with tiny channels, like blood vessels, which carry liquid chemicals to the (9)_____ area, which then harden and repair
the cracks.
1
This exciting development is an example of ‘bio-mimicry’, where scientists copy strategies used by living
creatures. (10)_____, researchers admitted that it was in early stages of development and it would be a long time
before the technology would come into use. They also added that the technology was likely to be used on aircraft and
spacecraft, and (11)_____ things that are difficult to repair, like underwater drilling equipment, before it is (12)_____
in the production of consumer products.
(Adapted from Navigate)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to
make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13. a. Grandma: Oh, that’s nice of you. Travelling always makes me so nervous!
b. Paul: Don’t worry, we’ll be in the car and at home soon.
c. Paul: Hello, Grandma, can I carry your case?
(Adapted from Cambridge PET)
A. c - a - b B. c - b - a C. b - a - c D. b - c - a
Question 14. a. Vikkie: That’s a bit boring! Come on, let’s go to a cinema or see that new play at the theatre.
b. Vikkie: Shall we go out somewhere tonight?
c. Steven: Not tonight. Why don’t we rent a video and stay in?
d. Steven: No, I’m tired. I’ve had a really hard day.
e. Vikkie: Well, I suppose that would do. I’ll see to it then.
(Adapted from Cambridge PET)
A. a - d - b - e - c B. b - d - a - c - e C. c - a - d - b - e D. d - a - e - c - b
Question 15. a. Moreover, there are no transport and boarding fees, so the costs are kept low.
b. First of all, home-schooled children is educated according to a personalised curriculum.
c. To conclude, home-schooling is beneficial in that it offer a personalised experience, flexibility and
reduced costs.
d. Secondly, the study schedule is much more flexible than traditional schooling.
e. Home-schooling children can bring about many advantages.
(Adapted from Cambridge PET)
A. e - b - a - d - c B. e - c - b - a - d C. e - b - d - a - c D. b - a - d - e - c
2
Question 16. a. But in the 1990s, Pixar, Dreamworks and other companies started to make films which appealed to
both kids and adults.
b. Another example is the world-famous film Spirited Away, directed by Hayao Miyazaki.
c. His latest film, The Wind Rises, is nominated the Best Animated Feature Film for the Oscars this
year.
d. Animated films used to be clearly aimed at the under tens.
e. Take Toy Story, for example, which became a top-selling film as soon as it was released and has
made $361 million since then.
(Adapted from Navigate)
A. a - e - b - c - d B. b - c - e - a - d C. c - d - a - e - b D. d - a - e - b - c
Question 17. a. The disaster resulted from a reactor explosion during a safety test, releasing massive amounts of
radioactive materials into the atmosphere.
b. Chernobyl is the site of a catastrophic nuclear accident that occurred on April 26, 1986, at the
Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant in Ukraine.
c. Today, Chernobyl remains a haunting reminder of the potential dangers of nuclear energy when
safety protocols fail.
d. The incident also caused significant health issues, including radiation sickness and long-term effects
like cancer, for those exposed.
e. Efforts to contain the radiation included building a massive structure encasing the reactor.
f. The immediate aftermath led to the evacuation of over 100,000 residents from the surrounding areas,
many of whom were never able to return.
A. b - a - f - d - e - c B. b - f - e - a - d - c C. b - c - d - e - a - f D. b - a - d - f - e - c
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
Travel allows us (18)_____. But today many tourists want to have a positive impact on the places they visit.
They believe that it’s important to respect the local people, help the local economy, and avoid harming the
environment.
In Piedra Blanca, Ecuador, for example, you can experience life with a local family, visit a village market, and
help farmers pick crops, such as coffee, cacao, sugar cane, and fruit. With a local guide, you can tour the rain forest,
hike in the jungle, or ride a horse in the countryside. (19)_____. Much of the money that visitors spend on
accommodations, food, and guides goes to a community fund, so the local people benefit.
Punta Laguna on Mexico’s Yucatan peninsula is a village of Mayans (20)_____. The men take turns guiding
visitors through the large wildlife reserve that protects the local monkeys, birds, and other animals. They also take
3
tourists on hikes in the jungle or on canoe trips. Similarly, the women take turns vending their crafts, including
traditional clothing, wall hangings, and jewelry. In this way, (21)_____.
In New Zealand, you should take a two-week bicycle tour that includes visiting glaciers and seeing ocean
wildlife. Bicycling is an ideal way (22)_____. You can also tour a farm where you can watch sheep shearing and help
with tasks such as milking cows.
(Adapted from Strategic Reading)
Question 18. A. into contact with new regions and understand other cultures
B. to explore different places and learn about various cultures
C. visited a number of regions and gained awareness of cultures
D. discovering various places and exposed to different cultures
Question 19. A. However, archaeological sites are closed to the public
B. Moreover, you may not enter archaeological sites
C. You can also pay a visit to archaeological sites
D. Visitors are not allowed into archaeological sites either
Question 20. A. which practices ecotourism B. whose participation in ecotourism
C. where participates in ecotourism D. who participate in ecotourism
Question 21. A. everyone in the community shares in the profits from tourism
B. the earnings from tourism shared between members of the community
C. tourism incomes are from all members within the community
D. the people living in the community avoid touristic activities
Question 22. A. for tourists except damaging the environment
B. explored at the detriment of the environment
C. to tour without harming the environment
D. the environment is protected even with tourists
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
Teenagers nowadays belong to Generation Z and are referred to as “digital natives” because they have grown up
with the Internet, mobile phones, and social media since they were children. In fact, many have never been in contact
with a VCR or a telephone with a dial. Members of Gen-Z are people born between the mid-1990s and the early 2000s.
Their parents allocated a sizeable amount of their teenage years listening to cassette players, watching VHS
tapes, playing early video games, and calling friends on their families’ telephones. Generation Z, however, is
connected to its music, videos, games, and friends online all day, every day. Recent surveys show that young people in
Asia spend an average of 9.5 hours per day online. And marketing companies know this.
4
Every time they open their page on a social networking site, Gen-Z members don’t see only friends’ updates and
photos. They also see ads for products they might want to buy. Marketing companies collaborate with social media sites
to find out where their customers live, what movies, books, and music they like, and who their friends are. The companies
use this information to show their customers the advertisements they want them to see.
Surprisingly, not many seem to be very worried about companies knowing how to sell things to them. Many Gen-
Z members are more concerned about keeping their private information from their parents. Nevertheless, this may not
be the only challenge. Many people are now finding out that posting funny pictures on the Web can be a problem when
they finish school and start looking for a job. In fact, some studies show that more than 70% of companies turn down
people who are looking for jobs because of what they can see about them online. Because they grew up using social
media, maybe Generation Z will be better at protecting their personal information online than the generation before them.
Only time will tell.
(Adapted from Select Readings)
Question 23. According to paragraph 2, members of Generation Z frequently do all of the following EXCEPT _____.
A. chatting with friends B. playing online games C. listening to music D. dialling friends
Question 24. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
A. Their parents rarely spent time listening to cassette players, watching VHS tapes ...
B. It was not common for their parents to use their time for cassette players, VHS tapes ...
C. Only a small amount of their parents’ time is invested in listening to cassette players, watching VHS tapes ...
D. Most of their parents’ time is taken up with listening to cassette players, watching VHS tapes ...
Question 25. The word “collaborate” in paragraph 3 can be best replaced by _____.
A. pay B. work C. train D. speak
Question 26. The word “this” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. the only challenge B. posting funny pictures online
C. keeping things from parents D. receiving a lot of advertisements
Question 27. The phrase “turn down” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. interview B. promote C. ignore D. accept
Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Members of Generation Z are in fact not very different from their parents.
B. Advertisement companies take advantage of time Gen Z spends online.
C. Employers nowadays can but will not check our backgrounds on social media.
D. Our parents belong to a generation that used to grow up with technology.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention examples of things Gen Z may have never seen?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer mention statistics concerning career opportunities?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
5
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Nigerian teenager Happiness Edem had just one aim in life: to put on weight. So, she spent six months in a
‘fattening room’ where her daily routine was to sleep, eat and grow fat. She went in a trim 60 kg, but came out weighing
twice that. In some parts of Africa, being fat is desirable because it symbolizes attractiveness in women and power
and prosperity in men. However, in magazines and in the media, we are bombarded with images of slim, blonde-haired
and sun-tanned women or handsome, blue-eyed and broad-shouldered young men. Where are the short-sighted, middle-
aged models? Is one idea of physical beauty really more attractive than another?
Ideas about physical beauty change over time and different periods of history reveal different views of beauty,
particularly of women. Egyptian paintings often show slender dark-haired women as the norm, while one of the earliest
representations of women in art in Europe is a carving of an overweight female. This is the Venus of Hohle Fels and it is
more than 35,000 years old. In the early 1600s, artists like Peter Paul Rubens also painted plump, pale-skinned women
who were thought to be the most stunning examples of female beauty in Belgium at that time. In Elizabethan England,
pale skin was still fashionable, but in this period, it was because it was a sign of wealth: the make-up to achieve this look
was expensive, so only rich people could afford it.
Within different cultures around the world, there is a huge variation in what is considered beautiful. Traditional
customs, like tattooing, head-shaving, piercing or other kinds of body modification can express status, identity or beliefs.
In Borneo, for instance, tattoos are like a diary because they are a written record of all the important events and places a
man has experienced in his life. For New Zealand’s Maoris they reflect the persons position in society. In western society,
where tattoos used to be considered a sign of rebellion, the culture is changing and they are now a very popular form of
body art.
[I] For Europeans, the tradition of using metal rings to stretch a girl’s neck may be shocking, but the Myanmar
people consider women with long, thin necks more elegant. [II] In Indonesia, the custom of sharpening girls’ teeth to
points might seem strange to other cultures. [III] Body piercing, dieting, cosmetic surgery or the use of fake tan might
be seen as hideous by some cultures, but they are commonplace in many others. [IV]
(Adapted from Insight)
Question 31. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 1?
A. Women and men in Africa might be considered good-looking and influential if they have a large body.
B. Being slightly underweight in men and women is thought to be attractive and powerful across Africa.
C. Not until women and men gain a good amount of weight should they head out to explore Africa.
D. With a huge appearance, African women and men may be described as ugly and useless by foreigners.
Question 32. The word “trim” in paragraph 1 is CLOSEST in meaning to _____.
A. thin B. huge C. slow D. old
Question 33. According to paragraph 2, which best describes the traditional image of Egyptian women in paintings?
A. slightly overweight B. slender dark-haired C. pump pale-skinned D. wealthy and fashionable
6
Question 34. The word “it” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. wealth B. this period C. female beauty D. pale skin
Question 35. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Body modifications are strictly about fashion and in no way is it connected to identity or societal values.
B. Different practices of body modification reflect different ideas of beauty, identity, and status around the
world.
C. Body modifications are unique to Western cultures and have little significance in other parts of the world.
D. The art of body modifications is globally regarded as controversial and lacking in practical applications.
Question 36. The word “hideous” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. unpleasant B. effective C. attractive D. traditional
Question 37. Where in paragraph 4 does the following sentence best fit?
However, it is perfectly acceptable elsewhere to straighten children’s teeth with braces.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 38. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. The people of Myanmar consider long-necked women to be attractive.
B. In New Zealand, tattoos were once representative of rebellious kids.
C. Venus of Hohle Fels is the name of an artwork depicting a woman.
D. Borneo’s people get tattoos to remember important events in their lives.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Body piercing, dieting, cosmetic surgery or the use of fake tan are banned in some countries.
B. People are more likely to come across pictures of women than men in today’s magazines.
C. The ideal beauty in a culture is usually exemplified by its typical imagine of women.
D. What is considered beautiful in a country might be heavily dependent on its economy.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Physical beauty standards have always been somewhat similar across cultures, emphasising slim and fair-
skinned individuals.
B. Historical and cultural beauty standards are irrelevant in modern society, as the vast majority now follow
shared global ideals.
C. Beauty standards are shaped by cultural practices and historical periods, with some universal traits considered
attractive worldwide.
D. Ideas of physical beauty vary greatly across cultures and time periods, with differing practices and standards
reflecting societal values, identity, and status.
7
ĐỀ VỀ ĐÍCH 14
ĐỀ VỀ ĐÍCH 14
Read the following text and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
Attention all tech lovers! We are excited to announce the (1)_____ opening of TechWorld Electronics Store in your
town! Discover the latest gadgets, smartphones, laptops, and home appliances (2)_____ at unbeatable prices. Our
friendly and (3)_____ staff are here to help you (4)_____ exactly what you need. Whether you're a tech expert or a
beginner, we've got something for everyone.
Join us this weekend for our opening celebration! Enjoy special discounts, giveaways, and free workshops on the
(5)_____. Don't miss out on our exclusive opening day offers on top brands like Apple, Samsung, Sony, and more.
Visit us (6)_____ 25 Worrall Road and experience the future of electronics shopping. See you there!
Read the following text and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
Do you want to save money?
Saving money can be challenging, but these simple tips can help you keep more cash in your pocket:
• Create (7)_____ budget to track your income and expenses. By understanding where your money goes, you
can identify areas where you can (8)_____ and save more.
• Avoid (9)_____ purchases by making a shopping list and sticking to it.
8
• Cook meals at home (10)_____ dining out. Preparing your own meals is usually cheaper and healthier than
eating at restaurants or getting takeout.
• Cancel (11)_____ unnecessary subscriptions and memberships that you don't use or need.
• Shop during sales and use coupons to get discounts. Taking (12)_____ of promotions and discounts can help
you save money on everyday purchases.
Question 7. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 8. A. bring down B. make out C. cut back D. take on
Question 9. A. abrupt B. improvised C. sudden D. impulse
Question 10. A. instead of B. while C. as well as D. rather
Question 11. A. any B. many C. every D. much
Question 12. A. benefit B. advantage C. use D. favour
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to
make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13. a. Customer: “Good morning. I’m looking for a pair of earrings for my daughter’s birthday.”
b. Shop assistant: “Does she have any preference in particular?”
c. Shop assistant: “Good morning, madam. How may I help you?”
A. b - a - c B. a - c - b C. c - a - b D. c - b - a
Question 14. a. Zoe: “I’ve thought about that. The thing is, he’s not really into rock music.”
b. Joey: “Are you going to the rock concert this year?”
c. Zoe: “I’m still thinking about it. My favourite band is playing, but I’ve got a date on that day.”
d. Joey: “That’s a pity, but I guess it wouldn’t hurt if you ask him.”
e. Joey: “That’s easy. Why don’t you invite your boyfriend to the concert together?”
A. b - c - e - a - d B. b - d - a - c - e C. a - c - b - d - e D. b - d - a - e - c
Question 15. Dear Ms Jamieson,
a. Please let us know if this is possible and if there are any forms we need to fill out.
b. Our event aims to bring the community together and raise funds for the local school, which is in
need of new playground equipment.
c. I am writing to request permission to use the community hall for our local event on Saturday, June
5th.
d. We would need the hall from 10 AM to 4 PM for various activities, including a bake sale and a
silent auction.
e. Thank you for considering our request.
Sincerely,
David Rose
A. c - b - d - a - e B. c - a - b - e - d C. a - d - c - b - e D. d - c - a - b - e
9
Question 16. a. I felt a rush of excitement as the players ran onto the field, eyes focused on the ball, and the game
began.
b. As I entered the stadium, the atmosphere was electric, with fans cheering loudly and waving their
respective team flags.
c. The best part was when our team scored the winning goal in the final minutes, causing the crowd to
go crazy.
d. It was an unforgettable experience, and I can't wait to go to another match soon.
e. Last Saturday, I went to watch a live football match at the local stadium between our home team,
the Eagles against the Cannons from the neighbouring town.
A. e - b - a - c - d B. e - d - c - b - a C. e - a - b - c - d D. e - b - c - a - d
Question 17. a. The Nobel Prizes are among the most prestigious awards in the world, recognizing outstanding
contributions to various fields.
b. Despite his invention of dynamite, he wished to leave a positive legacy, so he created the Nobel
Prizes to honour those who benefit humanity.
c. As a result, winning a Nobel Prize brings immense recognition and respect to the recipients,
significantly impacting their careers and fields of work.
d. Each year, a committee reviews nominations and selects the laureates, who receive a medal, a
diploma, and a cash award.
e. Alfred Nobel, a Swedish inventor, established these awards in his will in 1895.
A. a - d - b - c - e B. a - e - d - c - b C. a - b - e - c - d D. a - e - b - d - c
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
"Master Chef" is a popular TV show that features home cooks competing against each other to become the
best chef. Each season, contestants from various backgrounds and skill levels enter the competition with the hope of
winning the coveted title. The show is hosted by famous chefs (18)_____. The competition includes a series of
challenges, such as mystery box challenges, where contestants must create a dish using surprise ingredients, and
elimination challenges, where the weakest performers risk being sent home. (19)_____.
A well-equipped cooking space where contestants prepare their dishes, called the “Master Chef Kitchen”,
(20)_____. Viewers enjoy watching the creative and innovative dishes that the contestants produce, (21)_____. The
show also provides valuable cooking tips and techniques that viewers can try at home. "Master Chef" has inspired
many people to explore their culinary talents and experiment with new recipes. It has also helped to popularize
cooking and make it more accessible to a wider audience. (22)_____.
Question 18. A. who judge the contestants’ dishes and give them feedback on their cooking skills
B. from whom give the contestant’ feedback on their cooking skills and judgement
10
C. they judge the contestants’ dishes and give them feedback on their cooking skills
D. give the contestants’ dishes and give them feedback on their cooking skills
Question 19. A. Complex recipes and time pressure led to the push of limits by contestants
B. Tackling complex recipe and cooking undertime pressure, contestants’ limits are pushed
C. Complex recipes and cooking under time pressure are pushed to the limits by contestants
D. Contestants are pushed to their limits as they tackle complex recipes and cook under time pressure
Question 20. A. being one of the show’s highlights B. is one of the show’s highlights
C. having been one of the show’s highlights D. which is one of the show’s highlights
Question 21. A. what’s more is the drama and excitement that unfold in the kitchen
B. to the drama and excitement that unfold in the kitchen
C. the drama and excitement that unfold in the kitchen also play a part
D. as well as the drama and excitement that unfold in the kitchen
Question 22. A. The show’s success has made it a global phenomenon enjoyed by food lovers everywhere
B. Enjoyed by food lovers everywhere, this has made the show’s success a global phenomenon
C. With the show’s success, food lovers everywhere made it a global phenomenon
D. Food lovers everywhere enjoyed it and made a global phenomenon from the show’s success
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
Friendships have changed a lot over the years. In the past, people often made friends with their neighbours,
classmates, or colleagues. They spent time together by visiting each other's homes, going to parks, or participating in
community events. Communication was mostly face-to-face or through letters and phone calls. Friendships were built
on regular, personal interactions and shared experiences.
Today, friendships have expanded beyond geographical boundaries. With the rise of social media and
technology, people can make friends from all over the world. They stay in touch through messaging apps, video calls,
and social networks. This allows for more frequent and instant communication, even if friends are miles apart. Online
gaming and virtual communities also provide new ways to connect with like-minded individuals.
However, while technology has made it easier to stay connected, it has also changed the nature of friendships.
Some people argue that online interactions lack the depth and authenticity of face-to-face meetings. It can be harder to
build trust and understand each other's emotions through screens. Additionally, the convenience of social media
sometimes leads to more superficial relationships, with people having many acquaintances but fewer close friends.
Despite these changes, the core values of friendship, such as trust, support, and shared interests, remain
important. Whether through traditional methods or the latest technology, friendships continue to play a crucial role in
11
our lives, providing companionship and emotional support. Finding a balance between online and offline interactions
can help maintain strong and meaningful friendships in today's fast-paced world.
Question 23. Which of the following is NOT a place where people usually spent time together in the past?
A. homes B. social networks C. parks D. community events
Question 24. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
A. Friendships only stop at geographical borders nowadays.
B. Physical borders are the only challenge presented by friendships these days.
C. These days, friendships have reduced within physical borders.
D. Nowadays, friendships extend beyond physical borders.
Question 25. The word “it” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. technology B. nature C. depth D. authenticity
Question 26. The word “superficial” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by _____.
A. intimate B. absurd C. shallow D. demanding
Question 27. The word “traditional” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. reliable B. old-fashioned C. conventional D. modern
Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. People now have a larger number of close friends than before.
B. Technological advancements have little effect on the way people make friends.
C. True friendships can be maintained through both technology and face-to-face interactions.
D. It is easy to build trust and know other people’s emotions with the help of digital devices.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention the essential qualities found in friendship?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer mention the media via which people can stay in contact?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
[I] Initially, the excitement of discovering a different environment, meeting new people, and exploring unique
customs can be exhilarating. [II] This phase, often referred to as the "honeymoon stage," is filled with wonder and
fascination as everything seems new and exciting. [III] However, as time passes, the novelty begins to wear off, and the
reality of living in a foreign culture sets in. [IV]
During the second stage, often called the "frustration stage," individuals may start to feel overwhelmed by the
differences between their home culture and the new one. Everyday tasks that were once simple can become complicated,
12
and communication barriers may lead to feelings of isolation and misunderstanding. The unfamiliarity with local
customs, language, and social norms can lead to frustration and anxiety. This stage can be particularly challenging as it
tests one's adaptability and resilience. Many people feel at sea with the complexities of their new surroundings.
The third stage, known as the "adjustment stage," marks the beginning of acceptance and adaptation. Individuals
start to develop coping mechanisms to deal with the cultural differences and find ways to integrate aspects of the new
culture into their daily lives. Building new friendships, learning the local language, and finding a routine can help ease
the transition. During this period, individuals often begin to appreciate the new culture more deeply and feel more
comfortable in their new surroundings.
Finally, the "adaptation stage" represents a more profound adjustment where the individual feels fully integrated
into the new culture. They have learned to navigate the cultural landscape with greater ease and confidence. The
initial feelings of homesickness and frustration have diminished, and a sense of belonging starts to take root. While the
individual may still encounter occasional challenges, they have developed a toolkit of strategies to handle them. This
stage signifies a significant milestone in the journey of cultural adaptation and personal growth.
Question 31. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
Experiencing culture shock can be a profound and challenging aspect of moving to a new country.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32. The phrase “at sea” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _____.
A. central to B. conscious of C. baffled by D. astonished at
Question 33. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Building relationships and learning the local language help people adjust to the new culture better.
B. In the adjustment stage, people start to acclimatise themselves to the new culture.
C. During the third stage of culture shock, individuals start to feel more and more unpleasant in the new culture.
D. Different aspects of the new culture are appreciated more deeply during the third stage of culture shock.
Question 34. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. It is confident and easy for them to navigate their new cultural environment.
B. They have acquired the knowledge to easily navigate their new cultural environment.
C. What helps them navigate their new cultural environment is ease and confidence.
D. They have become more adept and assured in navigating their new cultural environment.
Question 35. The word “diminished” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. intensified B. minimised C. exaggerated D. incorporated
Question 36. The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _____.
A. individual B. feelings C. strategies D. challenges
13
Question 37. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT a feature of the honeymoon stage?
A. fascination B. exhilaration C. novelty D. isolation
Question 38. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The adaptation stage is where individuals in a new culture feel extremely uncomfortable.
B. Culture shock is a phenomenon experienced by everyone who lives in another culture.
C. People can get used to the new culture more smoothly by developing a daily routine.
D. Once individuals have familiarised themselves with a new culture, they will never have issues anymore.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. The hardest part of culture shock is the honeymoon stage, where people start to feel homesick.
B. It is not difficult for a person to deal with further problems once they’ve got to the adaptation stage.
C. The honeymoon stage of culture shock normally lasts for only a few days.
D. If people already speak the local language, they will not experience culture shock.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Culture shock is a multi-stage phenomenon that requires individuals to build friendships and speak the local
language to get over.
B. Experiencing culture shock is something people living in another culture will face, but it is very easy to
overcome it.
C. After feeling excited, individuals will feel frustrated and then start to adapt to the new culture over a few
stages by learning the local language and developing daily habits.
D. Culture shock involves initial excitement, followed by frustration and adaptation as people adjust to the new
culture with time and effort.
14
ĐỀ VỀ ĐÍCH 15
ĐỀ VỀ ĐÍCH 15
Read the following information and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
HOW SOME MAJOR COMPANIES GOT THEIR NAMES
• NIKE The company got its name from the • SKYPE The original concept for the name was
ancient Greek goddess of victory Sky-Peer-to-Peer, (4)_____ became Skyper, and
• GOOGLE Google comes from googol, which then Skype.
is the math (1)_____ for the number 1 • HÄAGEN-DAZS The name of the American ice-
followed by 100 zeros. cream brand (5)_____ to sound Danish and
• FACEBOOK The name was taken from the traditional, but it has no meaning in any language.
term for a list with students’ names and photos • PEPSI The soft drink got its name from the word
(2)_____ at American universities. dyspepsia, which means indigestion, (6)_____ its
• SAMSUNG In Korean, sam means “three” and inventor believed it helped treat an upset stomach.
sung means “star,” so the name means “three
stars.” It (3)_____ the idea that the company (Adapted from Interchange)
Read the following announcement and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that
best fits each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
⌘ Important Announcement for Travelers ⌘
American Airlines will now (7)_____ a $15 fee for the first checked bag. United Airlines has also approved
(8)_____ the decision to introduce the same fee, (9)_____ immediately. According to Gerard Arpey, the Chief Executive
of American Airlines, “While we understand these fees affect (10)_____ customers, we remain committed to offering
15
competitive prices and providing customers with a (11)_____ range of choices and value.” Please note that this change
might impact your travel plans, so we encourage you (12)_____ accordingly. For any questions or concerns, please
contact your airline directly. Thank you for your understanding.
(Adapted from NEW Economy TOEIC)
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to
make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
Question 13. a. Jess: I was going to, but I couldn’t find any I liked.
b. Jen: Didn’t you tell me the other day that you were going to buy a new pair of jeans.
c. Jess: Hi, Jen. How do you like my new skirt?
A. b - a - c B. c - b - a C. a - c - b D. a - b - c
Question 14. Dear Mr Tim,
a. On this day, Peter was late for his shift, yet when I confronted him, as his supervisor, he got upset
and shouted at me.
b. That was 58 minutes later than the shift’s starting time at 6.00.
c. Because of such a lack of punctuality and manner, I wholehearted ask that you consider laying Peter
off for good.
d. I am writing this email to report an incident on 14th May.
e. He angrily stated that he was on time even when his clock-in time was recorded at 7:28.
Yours sincerely.
Rubben
A. d - a - e - b - c B. d - a - b - e - c C. d - e - b - a - c D. d - b - a - e - c
Question 15. Dear Stan,
a. This is the first time there has been a delay and I’m quite worried.
b. It has been the fifth already and I haven’t received my pay check for November yet.
c. This is because I have bills to pay and some Christmas shopping to do.
d. Please understand that I only ask you to do this because I called my bank earlier today and they
informed me that there were no pending transactions.
e. Could you look into the delay for me?
Look forward to hearing from you soon.
Mark
A. e - b - a - c - d B. d - e - b - a - c C. b - a - c - e - d D. a - c - e - d - b
16
Question 16. a. Gill Grissom William Petersen, best known as the head of the Las Vegas CSI crime lab, used to be a
basketball player.
b. Going to Idaho State on a scholarship, Petersen quickly found his passion for theatre and acting.
c. Interestingly enough, Petersen and his group of actors went to Basque Country to continue learning
and working with one of their acting teachers.
d. While they were in the area, Petersen responded to a call for players by local third division
basketball team and became involved in the sport.
e. He was born in Evanston, Illinois and later moved to Boise, Idaho.
(Adapted from www.spanishunlimited.com)
A. a - e - b - d - c B. a - d - b - c - e C. a - c - d - b - e D. a - e - b - c - d
Question 17. a. In addition, the use of service robots would rob many unskilled workers of potential employment.
b. However, these are not the only service roles performed by entertainment, leisure and retail
workers.
c. Using robots in service industries is very different from using them to build cars.
d. In fact, these industries are all based on making consumers feel looked after, which requires the
human touch.
e. It can, first of all, be argued that robots could manage basic service functions, such as selling tickets
or even preparing food and drinks.
f. This, in turn, could put a strain on the economy and reduce the overall amount of disposable income
for leisure pursuits.
(Adapted from Mindset for IELTS)
A. c - a - b - d - e - f B. c - a - f - e - b - d C. c - e - b - d - a - f D. c - e - f - a - b - d
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
In the near future, (18)_____ will be very important. This has encouraged research in many areas, including
economics, law, and technical fields like safety, security, and control. If your laptop crashes or gets hacked, it might be
a small problem. However, it becomes much more serious (19)_____ your car, airplane, pacemaker, trading system, or
power grid doesn’t work correctly. Another short-term concern is stopping the development of dangerous weapons
controlled by AI.
Looking further ahead, a big question is what will happen if we create very advanced AI that is smarter than
humans at everything. Such a system could improve itself repeatedly, (20)_____. This “super-intelligence” might
create amazing new technologies that could help us solve problems like war, disease, and poverty. If that happens, it
could be the greatest achievement in human history. (21)_____.
(22)_____, while others are confident it will be beneficial. Many experts believe both outcomes are possible, but
they also warn that AI could cause harm, whether by accident or on purpose. They think that doing careful research
today will help us prepare for potential risks in the future, so we can enjoy the benefits of AI without facing serious
problems.
(Adapted from an online source)
17
Question 18. A. keeping AI’s impact on society positive
B. kept AI’s influence on society positively
C. the effects that AI have on society positive
D. AI’s power over society remains positive
Question 19. A. if an AI system controls
B. if an AI system controlling
C. with an AI system controlling
D. with an AI system controls
Question 20. A. whose intelligence develops day by day
B. gradually grown into an intelligent being
C. where its intelligence keeps increasing
D. becoming more intelligent with each step
Question 21. A. However, some experts worry that if we don’t align AI’s goals, it could be dangerous
B. Therefore, should human beings refuse to control AI, there will be consequences
C. AI, for instance, can eventually lead to a loss of jobs that are dull and repetitive in nature
D. This is because factory workers feel threatened with the prevalent use of AI technology
Question 22. A. The advancements in AI technology seem questionable
B. Suspecting the practicality of AI in their daily lives
C. Some people doubt we’ll ever create such advanced AI
D. It is argued that the application of AI may be positive
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
In the early 1990s, many African countries saw tourism as a way to fight poverty. They built large concrete hotels
along the beaches of Kenya, South Africa, and other nations to attract foreign visitors. For a while, this worked well,
with charter flights bringing tourists from Germany and Italy. These visitors wanted to see wild animals in nature reserves
but also craved the comforts of home. As a result, the hotels often imitated a Mediterranean style and became crowded
tourist hubs.
Today’s travelers prefer more authentic experiences instead of staying in European-style resorts. For example,
some tourists now choose to go horseback riding through the African bush. After a day of exploring, they enjoy a
traditional dinner of meat stew, pumpkin leaves, and wild spinach while sitting by a fire. Local Xhosa people tell folk
stories, creating a unique cultural experience. These tours are offered by Amadiba Adventures, a small business run by
the Xhosa community. The money they earn gives the Xhosa guides an income two and a half times higher than the
average local wages.
18
This type of off-the-beaten-track travel may very well be the future of global tourism. Despite challenges,
such as economic recessions and events like the 2019 pandemic, tourism continues to grow. For example, in 2021, tourist
numbers dropped significantly for the first time since 2001, but the decrease was smaller than expected. Over the past
few years, improving transport, cheaper flights, and the growing use of advanced technology to plan trips have made it
easier for people to travel.
Global tourism is expected to keep expanding. Last year, 1.5 billion people traveled internationally, and this is
predicted to rise to a staggering number of over 5 billion in 2030. Tomorrow’s tourists will also come from new places,
especially Asia. As the region’s economy grows and becomes more integrated into the world’s, the number of Chinese
travelers is expected to increase rapidly.
(Adapted from Oxford Exam Excellence)
Question 23. What happened in Africa in the early 1990s, according to paragraph 1?
A. African people realised that they were poor. B. Africans started moving to Germany and Italy.
C. Africans constructed many concrete hotels. D. African people liked Mediterranean resorts.
Question 24. The word “craved” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by _____.
A. rejected B. enjoyed C. mentioned D. expected
Question 25. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. folk stories B. local wages C. travelers D. Amadiba Adventures
Question 26. Which best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. The world will see a rise in the number of natural attractions.
B. More and more tourists are choosing to travel to remote places.
C. Tourist spots are becoming simpler and environmentally-friendly.
D. The future of tourism is quite uncertain due to a number of factors.
Question 27. The word “integrated” in paragraph 4 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. weakened B. disconnected C. avoided D. combined
Question 28. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. A number of multinational tour operators are currently offering story-telling tours in Africa.
B. The year 2030 is expected to witness an improvement in tourism across the world.
C. In the 1980s, tourists to Africa wanted not only to see wildlife but also to feel comfortable.
D. These days, tourists to Africa are looking to experience things that seem more real.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer describe the daily routine of a people in Africa?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer make predictions about the future of tourism?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
19
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Recent studies show that about half of people are drawn to the idea of becoming entrepreneurs. Many successful
business founders, like Richard Branson, the creator of the Virgin Group, have become well-known figures over the
years. Others, such as Ben Towers, who started his marketing agency at just 18 years old, are newer faces in the
entrepreneurial world. Towers’ company, Towers Design, already employs 22 people, proving that some businesses
grow quickly. On the other hand, James Dyson’s journey to success took much longer. It took him 15 years and over
5,000 prototypes to perfect his bagless vacuum cleaner, which finally became successful in the 1990s. Dyson believes
perseverance is key, saying that setbacks are unavoidable and only those who keep trying will succeed. Similarly,
Thomas Edison, who invented the electric light bulb, once said he had not failed but simply found 10,000 ways that
didn’t work.
While some entrepreneurs, like Tom Blomfeld, show early signs of success, others achieve it despite initial
struggles. Richard Branson, for example, did poorly in school, and his headmaster predicted he would either end up in
prison or become a millionaire. Today, Branson is one of the wealthiest businesspeople in the world, although Dyson’s
wealth has surpassed his. Education, while helpful for some, isn’t always necessary. Branson believes that formal
schooling isn’t the best path for everyone, pointing to Ben Towers as an example. Despite being university age, Towers
focuses on running his business. Dyson, who attended art college, also values practical skills over academic
qualifications.
[I] Entrepreneurs often succeed by doing things differently even when they ran counter to the wisdom of so-
called experts. Branson, for instance, took a risk in 1993 by starting Virgin Trains when experts doubted the idea. [II]
Branson also tested job applicants by observing how they treated an elderly taxi driver, who was actually Branson in
disguise. [III] Similarly, Towers hired himself as an apprentice when his school wouldn’t let him leave to run his
business. [IV]
Entrepreneurs need more than charm; connections and financial knowledge are essential. For instance, Tom
Blomfeld raised £1 million for his banking app, Monzo, in just 96 seconds. Entrepreneurs also face fierce competition.
Edison’s direct current system competed with alternating current systems, while Dyson’s vacuum design challenged
Hoover, which eventually paid Dyson £4 million for patent infringement.
(Adapted from Mindset for IELTS)
Question 31. The word “perseverance” in paragraph 1 can be best replaced by _____.
A. determination B. investment C. concentration D. fortune
Question 32. Which of the following is NOT true according to paragraph 1?
A. The famous and successful Richard Branson was the founder of the Virgin Group.
B. Ben Towers’ marketing agency has proven that some companies grow quickly.
20
C. James Dyson was faced with many setbacks before he became successful.
D. Thomas Edison had a very negative reaction towards the times when he failed.
Question 33. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 2?
A. Most entrepreneurs, unlike Tom Blomfeld, managed to become successful very early in their lives.
B. Tom Blomfeld’s success meant that it was challenging for other entrepreneurs to follow in his footsteps.
C. Unlike Tom Blomfeld whose success came early, others managed to accomplish it with great difficulty.
D. Tom Blomfeld was the most successful businessperson ever to achieve success at such a young age.
Question 34. The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to _____.
A. entrepreneurs B. things C. experts D. applicants
Question 35. The phrase “ran counter to” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. follow B. produce C. advise D. compare
Question 36. Where in paragraph 3 does the following sentence best fit?
None of the rude candidates got the job.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 37. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 4?
A. In order to become successful financially, entrepreneurs need to develop connections and avoid competition
from their rivals.
B. Few entrepreneurs are given an easy ride from their rivals, so they need connections and financial stability to
deal with this.
C. Successful entrepreneurs need connections and financial know-how as well as a willingness to face
competition and innovate.
D. Faced with competition from new innovators, it is advisable that entrepreneurs be closely connected to
financial startups.
Question 38. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Branson and Towers’ approaches were somewhat different from what ordinary people would do.
B. Branson became wealthier than Dyson in spite of Branson’s lack of an early formal education.
C. The journeys towards success of Dyson and Towers were similar in terms of how long they took.
D. Hoover won a large sum of money from Dyson as a result of Dyson’s copying Hoover’s invention.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. All of Thomas Edison’s inventions were probably the eventual result of countless failed attempts.
B. Tom Blomfeld’s feat was thanks to the fact that he had connections and understood finance well.
C. Tower Design was perhaps the company with the largest number of dedicated employees ever.
D. Only by being formally schooled did Dyson managed to be more financially stable than Branson.
21
Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Failed as the majority of startups did in their early years, the situation can be avoided if entrepreneurs possess
a number of qualities and a willingness to undertake challenges.
B. Most companies achieve success primarily through formal education and qualifications, with most relying on
academic achievements to overcome challenges in competitive industries.
C. With competition frequently challenging their progress, entrepreneurs succeed by prioritising charisma and
charm over financial knowledge and problem-solving skills.
D. Entrepreneurs who had certain qualities such as perseverance, great knowledge and adaptability are more
likely to succeed regardless of the challenges they may face.
22
ĐỀ VỀ ĐÍCH 16
ĐỀ VỀ ĐÍCH 16
Read the following text and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 1 to 6.
Are you ready for an epic space journey? "Galaxy Quest: Space Adventures" is here to take you on an unforgettable
ride! Explore distant planets, battle alien creatures, and uncover treasures (1)_____ throughout the numerous levels in
this exciting new video game. With stunning graphics and an (2)_____ storyline, you will feel like you're truly
(3)_____ outer space. Customize your spaceship, upgrade your weapons, and team up with friends (4)_____
challenging missions. Whether you're a(n) (5)_____ player or love multiplayer action, "Galaxy Quest: Space
Adventures" has something for everyone. Don't miss out on the adventure of a lifetime!
Available now on all (6)_____. Get your copy today and start your space adventure!
Read the following text and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best fits
each of the numbered blanks from 7 to 12.
Is losing weight as difficult as you think?
Losing weight needn’t be (7)_____ uphill struggle. With the right approach, it can be easily achieved. Here are some
effective tips to help you on your journey:
• Consume a variety of fruits, vegetables, lean proteins, and (8)_____ grains to provide essential nutrients.
• Be mindful of portion sizes to avoid overeating, and try using smaller plates to help manage your servings.
• (9)_____ regularly. Aim for at least 150 minutes of moderate aerobic activity or 75 minutes of (10)_____
activity each week, combined with strength training exercises.
23
• Drink (11)_____ water throughout the day to stay hydrated and help control your appetite.
• Ensure you get 7-9 hours of sleep each night, as insufficient sleep can negatively impact your metabolism
(12)_____ hunger hormones.
Question 7. A. a B. an C. the D. Ø
Question 8. A. full B. all C. entire D. whole
Question 9. A. Take up B. Make for C. Pull off D. Work out
Question 10. A. meticulous B. abundant C. vigorous D. extensive
Question 11. A. plenty of B. a few C. every D. an amount
Question 12. A. and B. but C. so D. for
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the best arrangement of utterances or sentences to
make a meaningful exchange or text in each of the following questions from 13 to 17.
A. b - a - c B. a - c - b C. b - c - a D. c - b - a
Question 14. a. Ron: “Yes, I just finished it last night. What did you think of the ending?”
b. Ron: “I know, right? I couldn't believe it. The character development was fantastic too.”
c. Kim: “Absolutely! I'm already looking forward to the sequel.”
d. Kim: “Hey Mark, have you finished reading that new sci-fi book, "Galaxy Odyssey"?”
e. Kim: “I loved it! The plot twist was so unexpected.”
A. d - a - e - b - c B. d - b - e - a - c C. c - a - d - b - e D. c - b - e - a - d
Question 15. Dear Mr Potter,
a. Firstly, the food arrived cold, and despite my best efforts to catch their attention, the staff were
unresponsive to my concerns.
b. All in all, my whole evening, which was supposed to be a romantic fine dining experience, turned
into a disaster.
c. I am writing to express my disappointment with the service I received at your restaurant last night.
d. I hope you will address these issues promptly and improve your service.
e. Additionally, the bill included items we did not order, and it took forever for the staff to correct their
mistake.
Sincerely,
A concerned customer
A. c - b - d - a - e B. c - e - d - b - a C. c - a - e - b - d D. c - a - b - d - e
24
Question 16. a. As I stepped out of the plane, the rush of wind against my face was both exciting and terrifying.
b. Falling through the sky, I was astounded as everything below looked small and unreal; even the
tallest buildings looked like tiny dots.
c. I had what was arguably the most thrilling experience ever in my life last week when I went
skydiving with a group of friends from college.
d. A few minutes later, which felt like forever, I opened my parachute and felt a sudden pull upwards.
e. As I floated down, despite the wind rushing against my eyes, I tried to keep them open and enjoyed
the beautiful views of the land below before landing safely on a patch of grass.
A. c - b - a - d - e B. c - a - b - d - e C. c - e - d - b - a D. c - a - b - e - d
Question 17. a. Despite its high speed, it is also known for its safety and efficiency, making it a remarkable
achievement in modern transportation.
b. This technology makes the ride incredibly smooth and quiet, offering a comfortable experience for
passengers.
c. Therefore, the train has become a popular choice for travellers looking to save time on their
journeys.
d. It uses magnetic levitation technology, which allows it to float above the tracks and move with
minimal friction.
e. China's maglev train is one of the fastest trains in the world, reaching speeds of up to 431 kilometres
per hour.
A. e - d - b - c - a B. e - d - c - b - a C. e - a - b - d - c D. e - c - b - d - a
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best
fits each of the numbered blanks from 18 to 22.
The moon is Earth's only natural satellite and the fifth largest moon in our solar system. Having a bright,
glowing presence in the sky, (18)_____. The moon orbits the Earth at an average distance of about 384,400 kilometres,
and it takes approximately 27.3 days to complete one orbit. (19)_____. As the moon orbits the Earth, we see different
portions of its illuminated side, creating the phases we know as new moon, crescent, first quarter, gibbous, and full
moon. These phases repeat in a cycle every 29.5 days.
The moon's surface is covered in craters, mountains, and valleys, (20)_____. It has no atmosphere, so there is
no weather or wind to erode these features. The temperature on the moon varies greatly, from extremely hot during the
day to extremely cold at night. In 1969, NASA's Apollo 11 mission made history when astronauts Neil Armstrong and
Buzz Aldrin (21)_____. Since then, there have been several more missions to explore and study the moon. (22)_____.
25
C. it has fascinated humans for centuries
D. which has fascinated humans for centuries
Question 19. A. Orbiting the earth, the phases of the moon are the most noticeable feature
B. The moon and its phases which are the most noticeable features we can see
C. One of the most noticeable features of the moon is its phases
D. The phases of the moon are the most noticeable feature while orbiting the earth
Question 20. A. created by impacts from asteroids and comets over billions of years
B. by which the impacts from asteroids and comets created over billions of years
C. these have been created by impacts from asteroids and comets over billions of years
D. the impacts of asteroids and comets over billions of years led to the creation of these
Question 21. A. who became the first humans to walk on the moon
B. to become the first humans walking on the moon
C. became the first humans to walk on the moon
D. the first humans to walk on the moon became
Question 22. A. Learning more about its origins and potential, the moon continues to be studied by scientists today
B. Today, scientists continue to learn more about its origins and potential so that they study it
C. Scientists continue to study the moon although they want to learn more about is origins and
potential
D. Today, scientists continue to study the moon to learn more about its origins and potential
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions from 23 to 30.
Halloween is a popular holiday celebrated on October 31st in North America. It has its roots in the ancient
Celtic festival of Samhain, which marked the end of the harvest season and the beginning of winter. Over time,
Halloween has evolved into a fun and festive occasion for people of all ages, filled with costumes, candy, and spooky
decorations.
One of the most exciting parts of Halloween is dressing up in costumes. Children and adults alike enjoy
transforming into their favorite characters, whether they are spooky monsters, superheroes, or animals. Costume
parties are a common way to celebrate, with prizes often awarded for the best outfits. Some people even create their
own costumes, adding a personal touch to their Halloween look.
26
jack-o'-lanterns that light up the night with their glowing candles. Some neighbourhoods hold pumpkin carving
contests to see who can create the most unusual or scariest design.
Many communities hold events such as haunted houses, parades, and festivals to celebrate Halloween. People
decorate their homes with spooky decorations like ghosts, skeletons, and cobwebs. The festive spirit of Halloween
brings people together and creates a sense of community and fun. Some towns even have Halloween-themed events
like zombie walks or horror movie marathons.
Question 23. The word “roots” in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by _____.
A. entrances B. origins C. branches D. bottoms
Question 24. The word “their” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. parts B. characters C. costumes D. children and adults
Question 25. Which of the following is NOT a character people dress up as at Halloween, according to the passage?
A. celebrities B. monsters C. superheroes D. animals
Question 26. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 3?
A. The most popular activity at Halloween is trick-or-treating.
B. Trick-or-treating is the only activity that people love at Halloween.
C. Trick-or-treating is also an activity enjoyed by many people at Halloween.
D. A tradition that many people find interesting at Halloween is trick-or-treating.
Question 27. The word “unusual” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. beautiful B. creative C. ordinary D. weird
Question 28. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Some people watch a series of horror movies together at Halloween.
B. Zombies are the best characters to dress up as at Halloween.
C. Halloween is a festival that first began in North America.
D. Children love trick-or-treating more than adults at Halloween.
Question 29. In which paragraph does the writer mention the exact date of a special occasion?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Question 30. In which paragraph does the writer mention the specific name of a product often made at Halloween?
A. Paragraph 1 B. Paragraph 2 C. Paragraph 3 D. Paragraph 4
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to
each of the following questions from 31 to 40.
Maintaining a balanced diet is crucial for overall health and well-being. A balanced diet provides the body with
the necessary nutrients to function correctly. [I] These nutrients include proteins, carbohydrates, fats, vitamins, and
27
minerals. [II] For instance, proteins are essential for muscle repair and growth, carbohydrates provide energy, and
vitamins and minerals support various bodily functions. [III] Without a balanced diet, the body can suffer from
deficiencies, leading to health issues such as fatigue, weakened immunity, and poor mental health. [IV]
One of the key benefits of a balanced diet is its role in maintaining a healthy weight. Consuming a variety of
nutrient-rich foods helps control appetite and prevents overeating. Foods high in fibre, such as fruits and vegetables, can
make you feel full longer, reducing the urge to snack on unhealthy options. Moreover, a balanced diet that includes the
right amount of healthy types of fat can help manage weight more effectively than one that eliminates them altogether.
Therefore, a balanced diet containing fish or nuts can fit the bill for those looking to achieve or maintain a healthy
weight.
Additionally, a balanced diet can prevent chronic diseases. Diets high in processed foods, sugar, and unhealthy
fats can lead to obesity, diabetes, heart disease, and other health problems. On the other hand, a diet rich in fruits,
vegetables, lean proteins, and whole grains can help lower the risk of these diseases. Antioxidants found in various fruits
and vegetables can protect the body from damage caused by free radicals, which are linked to chronic illnesses. Thus,
incorporating a wide range of healthy foods into your diet is essential for long-term health.
Lastly, a balanced diet supports mental health and cognitive function. Nutrient-dense foods like fish, nuts, and
leafy greens are rich in omega-3 fatty acids, vitamins, and minerals that are vital for brain health. These nutrients can
improve mood, reduce anxiety, and enhance cognitive abilities. Conversely, diets lacking essential nutrients can
contribute to mental health issues, such as depression and anxiety. By eating a balanced diet, individuals can support
their mental well-being and maintain optimal brain function.
Question 31. Where in paragraph 1 does the following sentence best fit?
Each nutrient plays a specific role in keeping the body healthy.
A. [I] B. [II] C. [III] D. [IV]
Question 32. The word “one” in paragraph 2 refers to _____.
A. diet B. weight C. amount D. fat
Question 33. The phrase “fit the bill” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by _____.
A. be generous B. be determined C. be incorrect D. be suitable
Question 34. The word “incorporating” in paragraph 3 is OPPOSITE in meaning to _____.
A. daunting B. excluding C. gratifying D. integrating
Question 35. Which of the following best summarises paragraph 3?
A. Antioxidants in fruits and vegetables are beneficial to health because they protect us from free radicals.
B. A balanced diet should contain a wide variety of healthy foods to avoid obesity.
28
C. Diseases like obesity, diabetes, and heart disease can be prevented by having a diet rich in healthy foods.
D. Too much sugar, processed foods, or unhealthy fats is the main cause of obesity, diabetes, and heart disease.
Question 36. According to the passage, which of the following does NOT contain a high amount of omega-3 fatty
acids?
A. fish B. nuts C. leafy greens D. processed foods
Question 37. Which of the following best paraphrases the underlined sentence in paragraph 4?
A. Only by eating a balanced diet can brain function and mental health be sustained.
B. Our mental health and brain function play a crucial role in maintaining a balanced diet.
C. Eating a balanced diet can enhance our mental health and help our brain work well.
D. By having a balanced diet, people can prevent their mental health and brain from working well.
Question 38. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. Eating vegetables and fruits can make people feel hungrier and eat more.
B. For muscle to grow, people do not need to take in any protein.
C. Poor mental health results from fatigue and weakened immunity.
D. Consuming fruits and vegetables can help us avoid serious diseases as we age.
Question 39. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
A. Fish and nuts contain fats that do not cause weight gain.
B. Leafy greens are the only food to eat if we want to feel less stressed.
C. Diabetic patients can be cured if they consume antioxidants.
D. If people already speak the local language, they will not experience culture shock.
Question 40. Which of the following best summarises the passage?
A. Eating a variety of food will help people lose weight, avoid diseases, improve mental health and cognitive
functions.
B. A balanced diet provides essential nutrients, aids weight management, prevents illnesses, and supports mental
and cognitive abilities.
C. Weight control, illness prevention, and mental well-being maintenance are the most important benefits of
eating a healthy diet.
D. Having a balanced diet is beneficial to our health because it enables us to lose weight, fight diseases, and live
longer.
29