NEET (Pre-Medical) Unacademy Major Test Series

Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2

Test Date: 18 April 2025 | Answer Key & Solutions

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 2 4 1 1 4 1 4 3 1 2 2 2 1 3 4 3 1 3 4 4 1 1 2 4 4
Que. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 3 3 3 4 3 4 1 2 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 1 2 1 3 1 3 1 1 2 1
Que. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 2 2 1 2 1 4 1 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 3 4 3 3 4 1 1 3 3 4
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 1 4 2 3 3 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 1 3 2 3 3 2 2 4 4 4 4
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125
Ans. 4 3 3 3 3 2 4 1 1 1 4 1 4 4 1 2 1 2 3 3 2 1 2 1 4
Que. 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans. 4 4 3 1 1 2 4 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 2 4 4 4 3 4 2 4 1 2 3
Que. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
Ans. 3 2 4 3 4 3 1 3 4 4 4 2 3 4 1 4 4 1 2 2 3 1 1 3 3
Que. 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 4 2 3 3 4

HINTS & SOLUTION

PHYSICS
−1 1
1. Number of significant figures are 3, because 4. A= × 2 × 8 + × 6 × 8 ⇒ A = –8 + 24
2 2
103 is decimal multiplier.
A = 16
2. Given, A = 1.0 m ± 0.2 m, B = 2.0 m ± 0.2 m Displacement = 16
Let,
= Y AB
= (1.0)(2.0)
= 1.414m 16
v avg
= = 2
Rounding off to two significant digit 8
Y = 1.4 m du
5. at C = slope = 0
∆Y 1  ∆A ∆B  = 1  0.2 + 0.2  = 0.6 dx
=  +  2  1.0 2.0  2 × 2.0 d2u
Y 2 A B    = ⊕
dx2
0.6Y 0.6 × 1.4
⇒ ∆Y
= =
= 0.212 Umin at C
2 × 2.0 2 × 2.0
Rounding off to one significant digit mgh 500 × 10 × 10
6. Pout
= = = 1000W
∆Y = 0.2 m t 50
Thus, correct value for Pout
=
η × 100
Pin
AB = r ± ∆r = 1.4 ± 0.2m
v 1000
75
= × 100
45 d Pin
3. dmin =
d 2 1000
⇒ Pin= × 100
45 75
= 1.33 kW
B

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 | Answer Key & Solutions 1
 2m1 m2 2×5×2   z
8. T= g ⇒T= g 29. =E ˆi40cos ω  t − 
m1 + m2 5+2  c 

20 20 E is along +x direction
T= g= ⇒T kg − wt ⇒ T = 2.8 kg-wt 
7 7 v is along +z direction

1 2 So direction of B will be along +y and
12. (KE)Rotational = Iω = E
2 E
1 ml 2 2 1 dAl 3 2 magnitude of B will be
=E ω= ⇒E ω c
2 12 2 12
40  z
dA(l)3 2 24E So answer is cos ω  t −  ˆj
=E ω ⇒ = ω c  c
24 dAl 3
38. Energy of the electron, when it comes out
2
2gh  3 2gR  2gh from the second plate = 200 eV – 100 eV =
13. ν2
= ⇒ = ⇒ h = 9R/7
h 
 4 
 h 100 eV
1+ 1+
R R Hence accelerating potential difference
mgh = 100 V
14. = ∆u
1+h/R 12.27 12.27
λElectron = = = 1.23Å
mg × 2R 2mgR v 100
= ∆u ⇒ ∆u =
1 + 2R / R 3 hc 1
39. φ= ⇒ φ0 ∝
15. For just sink : ρ = ρw 0
λ0 λ0
(120 + m) W0 λ0
= ρw
b = 1
⇒ λ0 = 2λ0
W0 / 2 λ0 1

120 + m (120 + m) × 600

= 1000 ⇒ 1000
= Dλ
 120  120 41. β1 = 1
  d
 600 
Dλ2
120 + m = 200 β2 =
2d
m = 80kg
β2 Dλ2 / 2d 1 λ2
18. B A B = =
β1 Dλ 1 / d 2 λ1
445Hz 450Hz 455Hz
1 Dλ2
T↑f↑ T↑f↑
=
β2 β
2 Dλ 1 1
447Hz 450Hz 42. δ = (µ – 1)A
5° = (1.5 – 1)A
B.f=3Hz B.f ↑ A = 10°
B.f > 5Hz µ2 µ 1 µ2 − µ 1
19. x = Acosωt v = –Aω sinωt 43. − =
v u R
20. R = σT4
4/3 1 4/3−1
1/4 ⇒ − =
b b σ v −10 +30
λm = = = b 
T 1
R  ⇒ v = –15 cm
 R 4
  1 1 1 d
σ 44. = + −
feq f1 f2 f1f2
∆ρ ∆ρ
21. = −γ∆T ⇒ = −49 × 10−5 × 30
ρ ρ 1 1 1 d
⇒ = − −
= –147 × 10–4 ∞ 30 10 (30)(−10)
= –1.4 × 10–2 ⇒ d = 20 cm
22. ∆u = nCv ∆T (as Combination behaviour is like plane glass)
3 3 45. fe = 10cm, fo = 4cm, u0 = –5cm, D = 20cm
∆u = n R ∆T = R ∆T
2 2 1 1 1 1 1 5−4
= + = − =
3 v o fo uo 4 5 20
(P V − P1V1 )
2 2 2 v0 = 20
3 vo  D  20  20 
∆u
= (2P V − 2P
= V) 0 m= ×  1 +  = 1+  = 12
2 0 0 0 0
uo  fe  5  10 
NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 | Answer Key & Solutions 2
 BIOLOGY 156. NCERT –XII Page No. # 157
157. NCERT –XII Page No. # 184
136. NCERT –XII Page No. # 135
158. NCERT –XII Page No. # 137
137. NCERT –XI Page No. # 48
159. NCERT –XI Page No. # 117, 118 (Old)
138. NCERT –XI Page No. # 102 (Old)
160. NCERT –XI Page No. # 42, 44, 45
139. NCERT–XI Page No. # 235, 236
th
162. NCERT –XII Page No. # 113
140. NCERT –XI Page No. # 124 163. NCERT –XII Page No. # 27
141. NCERT–XI Page No. # 209
th
164. NCERT –XII Page No. # 135
142. NCERT –XI Page No. # 115 165. NCERT –XI Page No. # 38
143. NCERT–XIth Page No. # 242 166. NCERT –XI Page No. # 112 (Old)

144. NCERT –XIIth Page No. # 33 167. NCERT –XI Page No. # 109
168. NCERT –XI Page No. # 115
145. NCERT –XII Page No. # 141
169. NCERT–XIth Page No. # 186
146. NCERT –XII Page No. # 179
170. NCERT–XIth Page No. # 226
147. NCERT –XI Page No. # 113 (Old)
171. NCERT–XIth Page No. # 244, 245
148. NCERT –XI Page No. # 107
172. NCERT–XIIth Page No. # 34
149. NCERT –XI Page No. # 42
173. NCERT –XII Page No. # 44
150. NCERT–XIth Page No. # 194 174. NCERT –XII Page No. # 133
151. NCERT –XI Page No. # 111, 113 175. NCERT –XI Page No. # 178
152. NCERT–XIth Page No. # 211 177. NCERT –XI Page No. # 91
153. NCERT–XIth Page No. # 184 178. NCERT –XI Page No. # 100

154. NCERT –XII Page No. # 38, 37 179. NCERT –XI Page No. # 122

155. NCERT –XII Page No. # 46 180. NCERT –XI Page No. # 126

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 | Answer Key & Solutions 3
 NEET (Pre-Medical) Unacademy Major Test Series
Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2

Time: 3 Hours Test Date: 18 April 2025 Maximum Marks: 720

Name of Candidate (In Capitals):________________________________________________________________

Roll Number (In figures):______________________________In words:_________________________________
Test Centre (In Capitals):_______________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature:__________________________Invigilator’s Signature:____________________________
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions:
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ballpoint
pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions
(four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology).
45-45 questions in Physics & Chemistry and 90 questions in Biology, subject are divided as per details
given below:
(1) Part A – Physics shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 1 to 45). All questions are compulsory.
(2) Part B- Chemistry shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 46 to 90). All questions are compulsory.
(3) Part C- Biology (Botany & Zoology Combined) shall consist of 90 (Ninety) Questions in each
subject (Questions Nos- 91 to 180). All questions are compulsory.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on these page/marking responses on the
Answer Sheet. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
5. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
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his/her seat.
9. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
invigilator on duty and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not
signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet
and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules
and Regulation of this examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidate will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.

(English)
 TEST SYLLABUS

Unacademy Major Test Series

Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2

18 April 2025

Physics - Full Syllabus

Chemistry - Full Syllabus

Biology - Full Syllabus

  

 
 

North
A
East

B
 
 

   
   
   

  
   
    
  


   −
=  − 
 

 
=  − 
 
 
=  − 
 
 
=  − 
 
 
=  − 
 

 

 
 
 
 
 −

= ( )







 







 
 PART-B: CHEMISTRY 48. Arrange the following compounds in
increasing order of their dipole moment:
46. Statement (I) : A plot of ν (v = frequency
HBr, H2S, NF3 and CHCl3
of X-rays emitted) vs atomic mass is a (1) NF3 < HBr < H2S < CHCl3
straight line. (2) HBr < H2S < NF3 < CHCl3
(3) H2S < HBr < NF3 < CHCl3
Statement (II) : A plot of v(v = frequency
(4) CHCl3 < NF3 < HBr < H2S
of X-rays emitted) vs atomic number is a

straight line. 49. Which of the following pair of species are

isostructural?
In the light of the above statements
(1) BCl3, PCl3 (2) CH4, NH+4
choose the correct answer from the
(3) SF4, CH4 (4) PCl3, ICl3
options given below:
50. Which of the following statement is true
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is
with respect to H2O, NH3 and CH4?
false A. The central atoms of all the molecules
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are are sp3 hybridized.
B. The H–O–H, H–N–H and H–C–H
true
angles in the above molecules are
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are 104.5°, 107.5° and 109.5° respectively.
false C. The increasing order of dipole
moment is CH4 < NH3 < H2O.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II
D. Both H2O and NH3 are Lewis acids and
is true CH4 is a Lewis base
E. A solution of NH3 in H2O is basic. In
this solution NH3 and H2O act as
47. Which of the following electronegativity
Lowry-Bronsted acid and base
order is incorrect? respectively.

(1) Al < Mg < B < N Choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(2) Al < Si < C < N
(1) A, B and C only
(3) Mg < Be < B < N (2) C, D and E only
(3) A , D and E only
(4) S < Cl < O < F
(4) A, B , C and E only

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 8

51. Brown colour acidic oxide among the 55. Based on AgCI precipitation, what is the
following is: secondary valency of metal in PdCl2.4NH3?
(1) N2O (2) NO2 (1) 2 (2) 4
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5 (3) 6 (4) 0

52. Which of the following can form a 56. Why do Zn, Cd, and Hg have low volatility
sesquioxide? and are not regarded as transition
(1) Na (2) B elements?
(3) F (4) H (1) They have completely filled
d-orbitals in all oxidation states
53. Which of the following statements is (2) They have high melting and boiling
incorrect?
points
(1) Spectrochemical series arranges
(3) They have unpaired d-electrons
ligands based on their field strength.
(4) They form coloured compounds.
(2) Strong field ligands form high spin
complexes.
57. When KMnO4 solution is added to oxalic
(3) Weak field ligands form high spin
acid solution, the decolouration is slow in
complexes.
the beginning but becomes instantaneous
(4) d-orbitals split due to crystal field
after some time because
splitting
(1) CO2 is formed as the product.
(2) Reaction Is exothermic.
54. Match the following
(3) MnO4− catalyses the reaction.
Column A Column B
(Process/Use) (Compound) (4) Mn2+ acts as auto catalyst.
A. Purification of Nickel I. [Ag(S₂O₃)₂]³–
B. Extraction of Gold II. [Ni(CO)₄] 58. General electronic configuration of
C. Fixing agent in black III. [Au(CN)₂]– actinoids is (n-2) f1–14 (n-1) d0-2ns2. Which
and white photography of the following actinoids have one
D. Chelating ligand used IV. D- electron in 6d orbital?
for water hardness penicillamine (i) U (Atomic no. 92)
estimation (ii) Np (Atomic no. 93)
E. Treatment of heavy V. EDTA (iii) Pu (Atomic no. 94)
metal poisoning (iv) Am (Atomic no. 95)
(1) Only (i) and (ii)
(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV
(2) (i), (ii) & (iii)
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV, E-V
(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)
(3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-V, E-IV
(4) Only (ii) and (iii)
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II, E-V

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 9

59. Assertion (A): Yellow-colored precipitate 61. In the acidic medium, KMnO4, oxidises
of lead chromate (PbCrO4) is soluble in iodide into Iodine. The change in oxidation
hot sodium hydroxide solution.
Reason (R): CrO24− ions react with hot state of manganese in this reaction is

sodium hydroxide solution to form from

Pb(OH)₂. (1) +7 to +2 (2) +6 to +4
In the light of the above statements,
(3) +7 to +3 (4) +6 to +5
choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is 62. For a sample of perfect gas when its
the correct explanation of (A).
temperature is changed isobarically from
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A). T1 to T2, the entropy change is given by
(3) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect. T
 
(1) ∆S =nRln  2 
(4) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.  T1 

T  
60. Which of the following statements is/are (2) ∆S =nCV ln  2 
 T1 
correct for the test of Br⁻ ions?
T  
(3) ∆S =nCP ln  2 
(a) Starch paper turns yellow when it
 T1 
comes in contact with bromine
T  
(4) ∆S =nCPRln  2 
vapours.
 T1 
(b) Evolution of brown fumes on heating
the bromide salt with conc. sulphuric
63. The following solutions were prepared by
acid.
dissolving 30g of glucose (C6H12O6) in
(c) Acidified sodium carbonate extract of
bromide salt with AgNO₃ gives brown 250ml of water (P1), 10g of urea (CH4N2O)

precipitate. IN 250 ml of water (P2) and 60g of sucrose

(d) Brown ring test is a confirmatory test (C12H22O11) in 250ml of water (P3). The right
for Br⁻ ions. option for the decreasing order of boiling
point of these solutions is:
Options:
(1) T3 > T2 > T1
(1) a & d only
(2) b and d only (2) T3 > T1 > T2

(3) a and b only (3) T1 = T2 = T3

(4) a, b, c and d (4) T3 > T2 = T1

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 10

64. Assertion A: In equation ∆rG° = –nFE°cell, 67. Assertion: Order and molecularity are same.
value of ∆rG° depends on n. Reason: Order is determined

Reason R: For Daniel cell with standard experimentally and molecularity is the
sum of the stoichiometric coefficient of
2.2F
cell potential 1.1 V, n keq = − rate determining elementary step.
RT
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the (1) Both assertion and reason are correct
and the reason is correct explanation
correct explanation of A
of assertion.
(2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct
correct explanation of A
but reason does not explain assertion.
(3) A is true but R is false
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is
(4) A is false but R is true incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is
o o
65. Given ECr 3+ −0.72V,EFe
= 2+ −0.42V.
= correct.
/Cr /Fe

The potential for the cell. 68. Assertion (A): In the dissociation of PCl5 at
constant pressure and temperature addition
Cr|Cr3+(0.1M) || Fe2+ (0.01 M)| Fe is
of helium at equilibrium increases the
dissociation of PCl5.
(1) 0.26 V
Reason (R) : Helium removes Cl2 from the
(2) 0.339 V field of action.
(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct
(3) –0.339 v explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are true but R is not
(4) –0.26 V
correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.

66. When 100 ml 0.1 M CH3COOH acid (4) Both A and R are false.

completely neutralise by NaOH. The

69. 0.5 molar sugar solution is isotonic with
resultant pH of formed solution is -
(1) 1.0 molar glucose solution
(1) 7
(2) 1.2 molar potassium chloride solution
(2) < 7
(3) 0.5 molar urea solution
(3) > 7
(4) 5% urea solution
(4) Cannot say anything

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 11

70. For reaction M2O → 2M(s) + ½O2(g); 73. During the electrolysis of highly
∆H = 30 KJ mol and –1
concentrated H2SO4 solution, which is
∆S = 0.07 KJ K–1 mol–1 at 1 atm.
released at anode?
At what temperature the reaction would
not be spontaneous. (1) H2 (2) O2

(1) 429.5 K (2) 475 K (3) S2O82– (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) 857 K (4) 400 K

71. For the hypothetical reaction, 74. Which of the following is false statement
A2 + B2 → 2AB for He+ –
the mechanism is given as below: (1) K.E. of electron decrease, whereas the
A2  A + A (Fast reaction)
potential energy increases as the
A + B2 → AB + B (Slow reaction)
value of n increase.
A + B → AB (Fast reaction)
Then correct statements are: (2) Energy gap between the consecutive
(a) The rate determining step is energy orbits decrease as the value of
A + B2 → AB + B n increase.
(b) The order of the reaction is 3/2
(3) Velocity of electron decreases, moving
(c) The overall molecularity is 4
from ‘N–shell’ to ‘L–shell;
(d) The rate expression is Rate= k[A] [B2]
(1) a and b (2) b and c (4) The number of waves made by
(3) c and d (4) AII electron increase with increase in ‘n’

72. Match the following:

75. Which of the following mixtures can act
COLUMN–I COLUMN–II
A 88 g of CO2 i 0.25 mol as a buffer ?
B 6.022 × 1023 ii 2 mol (i) HCl + CH3COONa (1 : 2 molar ratio)
molecules of H2O
(ii) CH3COOH + NaOH (2 : 1 molar ratio)
C 5.6 L of O2 at STP iii 3 mol
D 96 g of O2 iv 1 mol (iii) CH3COOH + NaOH (3 : 1 molar ratio)
Codes (iv) CH3COOH + NaOH (1 : 1 molar ratio)
A B C D
(1) (i) and (ii) but not (iii) and (iv)
(1) ii iv i iii
(2) i ii iii iv (2) (ii) and (iii) but not (i) and (iii)
(3) i iv iii ii (3) (ii) and (i) but not (i) and (iv)
(4) iv i iii ii
(4) (i), (ii) and (iii) but not (iv)

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 12

76. The structure of compound ‘X’ (C8H11NO) 79. Among the following, the compounds with

based on the following tests and highest and lowest boiling points
observation is: respectively are:
Reagent/s Observation

Neutral FeCl3 No coloration

Lucas regent Turbidity

NaNO2/HCl at 273 K Yellow oil

(1) I and III

(2) II and III

(I) (II) (III) (IV) (3) I and IV

(1) I (2) II (4) II and V

(3) III (4) IV

80. The structure that represents the major

77. Number of constitutionally different alkyl intermediate formed in the bromination

chlorides obtained on monochlorination of of toluene is:
isohexane?

(1) 5 (2) 4
(1)
(3) 6 (4) 3

X OEt
NaOEt (2)
78.

Y Y

Faster rate of reaction is observed if.

(1) X = I & Y = NO2 (3)

(2) X = Cl & Y = OCH3

(3) X = Br & Y = OCH3

(4) X = F & Y = NO2 (4)

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 13

81. An organic compound on reaction with 2,4- 83. The functional group(s) in reducing sugar
that tests positive with Tollen's reagent is
dinitrophenylhydrazine (2,4-DNP) gives a
(are)
yellow precipitate. It also gives silver mirror
(A) Aldehyde (B) Ketone
on reaction with ammonical AgNO3. It gives (C) Hemi-acetal (D) Acetal

an alcohol and sodium salt of a carboxylic (E) Hemi-ketal (F) Ketal

acid on reaction with concentrated NaOH. It (1) A & C (2) A, B and C

(3) A, B, C & E (4) A, B, C, D & E
yields benzene-1,2- dicarboxylic acid on

heating with alkaline KMnO4. The structure 84. Suitable reagent for the given conversion:
of the compound among the following is: CH=O COOH

OH OH
(1) (2)
(1) CrO3Cl–
N⊕
|
H

(3) (4) (2) CrO3. Dil H2SO4

(3) [Ag(NH3)2]⊕
(4) KMnO4.H+

82. The CORRECT order of stability for the 85. Identify compounds A and B in the
following carbocations is: following reactions:
O Θ
HgSO4 || OH. PhCHO
A C6H5–C–CH3 B (Major)
Dil H2SO4 20°C

(1) A. C6H5–CH=CH2 B. C6H5– CH –CH2– CH –C6H5

| ||
OH O
⊕ (2) A. C6H5–C≡CH B. C6H5– CH –CH2– CH –C6H5
| ||
OH O
(3) A. C6H5–C≡CH B.
IV C6H5 C–C6H5
||
O
(1) I < III < IV < II O
||
(4) A. C6H5–C≡CH B. C–C6H5
(2) II < III < IV < I
C6H5
(3) II < IV < III < I

(4) IV < III < I < II

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 14

86. Which of the following alcohol can not be CH3–CH=CH2
Hx
CH3–CH2–CH2–X
PhC–O–OC–Ph
prepared by the reduction of aldehyde or 89. O O
ketone with NaBH4? NaI
CH3–CH2–CH2–I+Nax
Acetone
OH
(1) (2)
OH Nax formed in this reaction is:

(3) (4)
OH (1) NaCl (2) NaBr
HO

(3) NaI (4) NaF

Br
O OH

KOH O 1. Aq.KOH
87. NH X
2. H3O+
O
90. Column I Column II
X in the above reaction is:
OH – +
OH P. Br+CH3ONa I. E2
(1) || (2) OH
O ||
O

NH2 OH Q. Br+CH3OH
OH
II. SN2
(3) (4)
|| Br O
O

R. – +
ONa+CH3–Br III. SN1

88. 1. 2eq.NaH
HO COOH 2. 1eq CH3CH2–Br X
S. Heat
3. H3O+ Br+C2H5OH IV. E1

X is:
(1) P – I, Q – III, R – II, S – IV
(1)
HO COOH2CH3

(2) P – II, Q – III, R – I, S – IV

(2)
HO COOH

(3) (3) P – I, Q – II, R – III, S – IV

O COOH

(4) P – I, Q – III, R – IV, S – II

(4)
HO COOH

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 15

 PART-C: BIOLOGY 96. Consider the following matches and
identify the incorrect match.
91. Which of the following statements about (1) Ectoparasites–Human body lice
sporopollenin is wrong (2) Endoparasites–Copepods
(3) Parasitism–Cuscuta
(1) Exine is made up of sporopollenin
(4) Brood parasitism–Cuckoo and Crow
(2) Sporopollenin is not degraded by any
known enzyme
97. Given below are two statements; one is
(3) Sporopollenin occurs in the area of
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
germ pores only
labelled as Reason (R).
(4) Sporopollenin is most resistant
Assertion (A) : The gymnosperms are
organic material
heterosporous.
Reason (R) : Gymnosperrms produce two
92. “Photosynthesis is essentially light kind of spores, macro (large) and micro
dependent reaction”, this statement was (small) spores.
given by : Correct answer from the options given
(1) Priestley (2) C.V. Niel below:
(3) Sachs (4) None of these (1) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A.
93. Select the wrong statement (2) A is true but R is false.
(1) When tripalmitin is used as a (3) A is false but R is true.
substrate in respiration, the RQ is 0.7. (4) Both A and R are true and R is the
(2) One glucose molecule yields a net gain correct explanation of A.
of 2 ATP molecules during
fermentation. 98. Which of the following statements is not
(3) The intermediate compound which correct for methanogens?
links glycolysis with Kreb’s cycle is (1) They are archaebacteria.
malic acid. (2) They live in marshy areas.
(4) One glucose molecule yields a net gain (3) They are responsible for the
of 38 ATP molecules during aerobic production of methane (biogas) from
the dung of animals.
respiration
(4) They are present in the guts of all
animals.
94. The region of root few millimetres above
the root cap possessing very small cells
99. Which of the following is correct
with thin walls and dense protoplasm is
option -
(1) Root hair zone
(1) Decapitation usually results in the
(2) Region of elongation
growth of lateral buds
(3) Region of meristems
(2) Decapitation is widly used for tea
(4) Region of maturation plantations
(3) Decapitation is widly used for hedge-
95. Which of the following confirmed that making
communities with more species tend to (4) All of these
be more stable than those with less
species? 100. Which of the following steps of
(1) Alexander von Humboldt decomposition does not need action of
(2) David Tilman microorganisms?
(3) Paul Ehrlich (1) Fragmentation (2) Humification
(4) Edward Wilson (3) Mineralisation (4) Leaching

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 16

101. Each trophic level has a certain mass of 106. The reaction centre in PS II is :
living material at a particular time called as (1) P500 (2) P680
the standing crop, it is measured as the: (3) P780 (4) P400
(1) mass of living organisms and used
energy in a unit area. 107. Choose Incorrect statement with respect
(2) number of trophic level and mass of to the region of elongation
non-living material. (1) Cells differentiate and mature
(3) number and weight of the organic gradually
material. (2) Situated proximal to meristematic
(4) mass of living organism or the number
zone
in a unit area.
(3) Responsible for root growth in length
(4) Cells have dense cytoplasm but are
102. In eukaryotes, the regulation of gene
nucleated and non-vacuolated
expression could be exerted at :-
I. Transcriptional level
108. For Tree and grassland ecosystem,
II. Processing level
pyramid of biomass is -
III. Transport of mRNA from nucleus to
(1) Upright
the cytoplasm.
(2) Inverted
IV. Translational level
Choose the correct combination for given (3) Spindle shape
statements :- (4) May upright or inverted
(1) I, II, III (2) Only IV
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) II, III 109. Recognise the given figures and find out
the correct match :
103. If both strands of DNA in a given segment
of DNA are transcribed then the two RNA
(A) (B)
molecules formed will be :-
(1) Parallel and complementary
(2) Parallel and identical
(3) Antiparallel and complementary
(4) Antiparallel and identical

104. Which one is incorrect statement?

(1) Protista have photosynthetic and
heterotrophic modes of nutrition. (C) (D)
(2) Some fungi are edible.
(3) Nuclear membrane is present in
kingdom Monera.
(4) Cell wall is absent in Animalia. (1) A: Salvinia; B : Sphagnum;
C : Selaginella; D : Funaria
105. What is not true about bundle sheath (2) A: Funaria; B : Sphagnum;
cells of Zea maize : C : Salvinia; D : Selaginella
(1) They have numerous chloroplast (3) A: Funaria; B : Selaginella;
(2) Intercellular spaces absent C : Sphagnum; D : Salvinia
(3) Their walls are not impervious to (4) A: Sphagnum; B : Salvinia;
gaseous exchange C : Funaria; D : Selaginella
(4) Their walls are thick

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 17

110. Given below are two statements 114. Mark the incorrect statement -
Statement I: Wind pollination is quite rare (1) During DNA replication, both strands
in grasses of DNA are copied.
Statement II : Pollination by water is (2) In transcription one of the DNA
common in flowering plants strands is transcribed into m-RNA.
Choose the correct answer from the (3) In transcription a single gene can be
option given below: transcribed several times.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) During transcription unwinding of DNA
incorrect is carried out by helicase
(2) Statement I correct but Statement II
is incorrect 115. In which of the following fruit, thalamus
(3) Statement I is incorrect but contributes to the fruit formation:
Statement II is correct (1) Apple (2) Banana
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) Berry (4) Grape
correct
116. How many of the given plants show
111. Developing embryo shows : phyllotaxy, where single leaf arises at
(1) geometric growth each node?
(2) arithmetic growth Alstonia, Brassica, Calotropis, Chilli,
(3) logistic growth Chinarose, Guava, Datura, Sunflower
(4) both (1) and (2) (1) Three (2) Five
(3) Four (4) Six
112. Which among the following is/are correctly
matched regarding age pyramid? 117. Tetradynamous condition usually present in
(1) Young population pyramid – Pyramid Family
with broad base (1) Brassicaceae (2) Malvaceae
(2) Stable population – Urn-shaped (3) Fabaceae (4) Asteraceae
pyramid
(3) Declining population – Bell-shaped 118. The cattle egret and grazing cattle in
pyramid close association is a classic example of.
(4) More post reproductive individuals – (1) Ammensalism
Inverted pyramid (2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism
113. Match List-I with List-II : (4) Mutualism
List-I List-II
(A) Algin (i) Pinus 119. As estimated by Robert May, what is the
(B) Agar-agar (ii) Ectocarpus total number of species present on earth?
(C) Mycorrhiza (iii) Cycas (1) 3 million (2) 5 million
(D) Coralloid roots (iv) Gelidium (3) 7 million (4) 9 million
Choose the correct answer from the
options given below : 120. Inflorescence of family Compositae is
(1) (A)-(i); (B)-(iii); (C)-(iv); (D)-(ii) (1) Perianth
(2) (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(ii); (D)-(i) (2) Lodicule
(3) (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv) (3) capitulum
(4) (A)-(ii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(iii) (4) Hypanthodium

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 18

121. Assertion (A): The split gene arrangement 125. RNA is less stable than DNA, due to :
represents probably the ancient feature (1) Presence of 2'—OH groups.
of genome. (2) Presence of deoxyribose.
Reason (R): The process of splicing (3) Presence of uracil instead of thymine.
represents the dominance of RNA world. (4) Both (1) and (3)

(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
126. Which does not belong to promoter :
the correct explanation of the (A)
(1) Located towards 5'-end of structural
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
gene.
not the correct explanation of the (A)
(2) It is binding site of RNA polymerase.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (3) Define the coding and template
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false strands.
(4) Help in termination.
122. Assertion: In birds sex of the progeny is
determined by the sex chromosomes of
127. Which is correct about gene :
the female. (1) Functional unit of inheritance.
Reason: female bird is heterogametic. (2) Located on DNA.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true (3) DNA sequence coding for tRNA or
and reason is the correct explanation rRNA or mRNA.
of assertion. (4) More than one options are correct.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation 128. Identify the incorrect matching regarding
of assertion. pyramid of biomass.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. (1) Grassland – Upright
(2) Forest - Upright
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(3) Pond – Upright
(4) Tree - Upright
123. Pick out the correct statements.
a. Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive
129. Identify the incorrectly matched pair?
character. (1) J-shaped curve – Logistic growth
b. Down's syndrome is due to Polyploidy. (2) S-shaped curve – Represented under
c. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal limited resource conditions.
recessive gene disorder. (3) Mortality – Death rate
d. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal (4) Natality – Birth rate
dominant gene disorder.
e. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosomal 130. Match List I with List II.
recessive gene disorder. List I List II
(1) a, b, d correct A. Mutualism i. Copepods and
Marine fish
(2) a, c, e correct
B. Commensalism ii. Balanus and
(3) a, c only correct
Chathamalus
(4) b, e correct
C. Parasitism iii. Egret and cattle
D. Competition iv. Fig and wasp
124. Mendel proposed law of dominance and Choose the correct answer from the
law of segregation based on his options given below.
observations on : A B C D
(1) Monohybrid crosses (1) iv iii i ii
(2) Dihybrid crosses (2) iii i ii iv
(3) Test crosses (3) iv ii i iii
(4) Out crosses (4) ii i iii iv

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 19

131. Gregor John Mendel conducted 138. Choose correct statement regarding cell
hybridisation experiments on garden pea. junctions.
(1) Seven years (1865 - 1872) (1) Gap junctions perform cementing to
(2) Seven years (1856 - 1863)
keep neighbouring cells together.
(3) Seven years (1853 - 1860)
(2) Tight junctions help to stop substances
(4) Fourteen years (1853 - 1867)
from leaking across a tissue.
132. Down streaming processing associated (3) Adhering junctions facilitate
with communication between cells by
(1) Separation (2) Purification connecting their cytoplasm.
(3) PCR (4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Tight junctions and adhering junctions
both allow rapid transfer of ions and
133. Microinjection is used for :
small molecules between cells.
(1) Energy production from sewage
(2) Gene transfer without a vector
139. Assertion (A): The Pons is related with
(3) Biodiesel production
(4) Seedless fruit production skill full voluntary movement and
involuntary activity like body balance etc.
134. Which method is used for development of Reason (R): Pons is the part of hind brain.
pomato? (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
(1) Selection not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) RNA i
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) Somatic hybridization
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) Mutation
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
135. An antibiotic resistance gene of plasmid the correct explanation of (A)
vector which don't get inactivated due to
insertion of alien DNA, helps in the 140. A fossil of hominid found in Africa with
selection of : following features can be identified as :
(1) Transformants i. Small brain with 600 cc cranial capacity
(2) Recombinants
ii. Used blunt stones for hunting but
(3) Non-recombinants
essentially ate fruits
(4) (1) and (3) both
iii. First homonid
136. An antibody molecule have: (1) Australopithecines
(1) 3 light chain and 1 heavy chain (2) Homo habilis
(2) 1 light chain and 3 heavy chain (3) Homo erectus
(3) 2 light chain and 2 heavy chain (4) Neanderthal man
(4) 2 light chain and 4 heavy chain
141. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
137. Match the following columns :
PCT:
Column-I Column-II
(1) Lower part of Bowman’s capsule lead
a. Pristis i. Electric organ
into PCT
b. Trygon ii. Flying fish
c. Carcharodon iii. Saw fish (2) It is highly coiled and surrounded by
d. Torpedo iv. Great white peritubular blood capillaries
shark (3) PCT is lined by cuboidal epithelium
e. Exocoetus v. Sting ray (4) PCT has microvilli for reducing the
(1) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-ii, e-i surface area.
(2) a-iii, b-v, c-iv, d-i, e-ii
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-v, e-ii
(4) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv, e-v
NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 20
142. Activation energy 146. What is true about Bt. toxin?
(1) is the difference in the average energy (1) The concerned Bacillus has antitoxins.
content of 'S' from that of its (2) Inactive protoxin gets converted into
transition state active form in the insect gut.
(2) helps to change reactants into (3) Bt. protein exists as active toxin in the
unstable transition state before they Bacillus.
can be converted into products (4) The activated toxin enters the ovaries
(3) is the minimum energy required from of the pest to sterilise it and stop
outside to overcome the energy multiplication
barrier of reactant or to start a
reaction 147. Choose incorrect statement regarding
(4) all are correct cockroach.
(1) Open type of blood vascular system is
143. Given below are two statements: present.
Statement I: The pineal gland is located (2) Blood vessels are poorly developed
on the dorsal side of forebrain. and open into haemocoel.
Statement II: Pineal gland secretes a (3) Visceral organs located in the
hormone called melatonin. haemocoel are bathed in
In the light of the above statements, haemolymph.
choose the most appropriate answer from (4) The haemolymph is composed of red
the options given below: coloured plasma and haemocytes.
(1) Statement I is correct, but statement
II is incorrect. 148. The structural formula belongs to
(2) Statement I is incorrect, but
statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and II are correct.

144. At the time of ovulation, development of

ovum is arrested in the form of:- (1) Glucose (2) Ribose
(1) Oogonia (3) Sucrose (4) Deoxyribose
(2) Primary oocyte
(3) Secondary oocyte 149. Incorrect statement is :-
(4) Egg (1) All living members of cyclostomata
class are ectoparasites
145. Assertion (A): Cancerous cell just (2) Taenia is free living.
continue to divide giving rise to masses of (3) Members of chondrichthyes have
cell called tumour. placoid scales on their body.
Reason (R): Cancer cells appears to have (4) Notochord in chordates is located
lost property of contact inhibition. between digestive canal and nerve cord.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
not the correct explanation of (A) 150. Monocytes are _______ of the total WBC.
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (1) 1-2%
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (2) 12-20%
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is (3) 6-8%
the correct explanation of (A) (4) 2-3%

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 21

151. Read the following statements : 154. Consider the following statements (a-d)
(a) for a long time it was also belived that and select the option which includes all
life came out of decaying & rotting the correct ones only:

matter like, mud, straw etc., this was (a) Parturition is induced by a complex

theory of spontaneous generation. neuro- endocrine mechanism

(b) The signals for parturition originate
(b) Alfred wallace, a naturalist who
from the fully developed foetus and
worked in malay archipelago had also
the placenta which induced mild
come to same conclusion as darwin
uterine contractions called foetal
around the same time.
ejection relex.
(c) The idea that life originates from pre-
(c) Progesteron, hCG, hPL and estrogens
existing life is referred as abiogenesis
are produced in women only during
theory pregnancy
(d) origin of universe took place almost (d) The first movement of the foetus and
20mya. appearance of hairs on the head are
Select the correct option stating which usually observed during the third
one is true (X) and which one is false (Y) month of pregnancy
(1) (a)-X, (b)-X, (c)-Y, (d)-X (1) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
(2) (a)-X, (b)-X, (c)-X, (d)-X (2) Statements (a), (b) and (c)

(3)(a)-X, (b)-X, (c)-Y, (d)-Y (3) Only statements (a) and (b)

(4) (a)-Y, (b)-Y, (c)-X, (d)-X (4) All statements (a), (b), (c) and (d)

155. Nearly __a___ million MTPs are performed in

152. The interstitial fluid of the kidney has an
a year all over the world which counts to
increasing osmolarity from cortex to the
___b___ of the total number of conceived
inner medulla. This gradient is mainly
pregnancies is a year:
caused by :
(1) a-40 to 50, b = 1/4th
(1) Na , K
+ +
(2) a-40 to 50, b = 1/2th
(2) NaCl and Urea (3) a-45 to 50, b = 1/3rd

(3) NaCl, Water, HCO3− (4) a-45 to 50, b = 1/5th

(4) Urea, K+, HCO3− 156. Consider the following sentences.

I. Nucleopolyhedro virus
153. Which of the following prevents II. Narrow spectrum insecticidal

collapsing of trachea? application

(1) Muscles III. No negative impacts is represent on

birds and non-target insects
(2) Diaphragm
Above term relate with following:
(3) Ribs
(1) Arthropods
(4) Cartilaginous rings
(2) TMV
(3) Baculoviruses
(4) Bacillus
NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12 and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2
th
22
157. Genetic engineering has been 162. The diagram below shows undisturbed
successfully used for producing sedimentary strata at the bottom of an
(1) Transgenic mice for testing safety of ocean. The fossils found in layer B
polio vaccine before use in human resemble the fossils found in layer A. This
(2) Transgenic cow-Rosie which produces similarity suggests that
high fat milk for making ghee
(3) Animals like bulls for farm work as
they have super power
(4) All of these

158. Which of the following drug is used to

(1) The fossils in layer B were formed
reduce the symptoms of allergy:
before the fossils in layer A
(1) Histamine, Serotonin, Steroid
(2) Modern forms of life may have evolved
(2) Anti-histamine, Serotonin, Steroid
from earlier forms of life
(3) Anti-histamine, Adrenalin, Steroid (3) Vertebrate fossils are only found in
(4) Adrenalin, Histamine, Steroid sediments
(4) The fossils in layer A must be more
159. Which of the following does not act as complex than those in layer B
organ of respiration on land w.r.t. frog?
(1) Lungs 163. Match List-I with List-II regarding male
(2) Moist skin reproductive system:
(3) Buccal cavity List-I List-II
(4) Cloaca A Seminiferous I Provide nutrition
tubule
B Intrstitial II 250
160. Match the following organisms with their spaces compartments in
respective characteristics : each testis
A Pila i Excretory system C Sertoli cells III Leydig cells
absent D Testicular IV 1-3 in each
B Bombyx ii Comb plates lobules testicular lobule
C Pleurobrachia iii Radula Choose the correct answer from the
D Ophiura iv Malpighian option given below:
tubules (1) A → IV; B → III; C → II; D → I
Select the correct option from the (2) A → I; B → II; C → III; D → IV
following: (3) A → IV; B → III; C → I; D → II
(A) (B) (C) (D) (4) A → III; B → IV; C → I; D → II
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 164. Assertion (A): Secondary immune
response is quicker and stronger than the
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
primary one.
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Reason (R): Our body appears to have
memory of first encounter and subsequent
161. Which of the following are unique
encounter with same pathogen elicits a
features about the enzyme?
highly intensified response.
(1) They are not consumed by the
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
enzyme- mediated reaction not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) They are not altered by the enzyme- (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
mediated reaction (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) They have lower the activation energy (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
(4) All of these the correct explanation of (A)

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 23

165. Select the incorrect statement – 171. Match the following columns and choose
(1) Platyhelminthes have double opening the correct option.
of digestive system, so it is called Column I Column II
incomplete. i. Zona fasciculata a. Outer layer
(2) In open circulatory system, cell bath ii. Zona glomerulosa b. Middle layer
in blood. iii. Zona reticularis c. Inner layer
(3) Sponges are mostly asymmetrical. iv. Adrenal cortex d. Catecholamines
(4) In adult echinodermata, radial symmetry v. Adrenal medulla e. Corticoids
is present. (1) i–a, ii–b, iii–c, iv–d, v–e
(2) i–b, ii–c, iii–a, iv–d, v–e
166. Which statement is true regarding the (3) i–b, ii–a, iii–c, iv–e, v–d
wing structure of cockroaches? (4) i–c, ii–a, iii–b, iv–e, v–d
(1) The first pair of wings arises from the
prothorax. 172. Recognise the figure given below and find
(2) The hind wings are opaque and out the correct matching about hormones
labelled as A,B,C and D
leathery.
(3) The forewings are transparent and
B
used in flight.
(4) The forewings are called tegmina and
cover the hind wings at rest.

167. Lipid comes under acid insoluble fraction

during analysis of the chemical
composition of tissues. Why?
(1) It has low molecular weight
(2) It has high molecular weight
(3) It is polymer
(4) On grinding, the biomembranes are (1) A- FSH, B- LH, C - Estrogen,
broken into pieces and form insoluble D - Progesterone
vesicles (2) A–LH, B - FSH, C Progesterone,
D – Estrogen
168. Adaptive convergence is the development of- (3) A-progesterone, B - Estrogen,
(1) Common set of characters in groups C - FSH, D – LH
of different ancestry (4) A- Estrogen, B - Progesterone, C - LH,
(2) Common set of characters in closely D – FSH
related groups
(3) Dissimilar characters in closely 173. Select the correct statements regarding
related groups diaphragm as contraceptive device from
the given options:
(4) Random mating
(i) They act as physical barrier for sperm
entry.
169. Which is incorrect in the following ?
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical
(1) Tidal volume = 500 ml
region during coitus.
(2) IRV = 1200 ml
(iii) They are introduced into the uterus to
(3) ERV = 1000 ml
prevent implantation.
(4) RV = 1200 ml (iv) They act as spermicidal agents to
increase their contraceptive
170. Each coxal bone is formed by fusion of: effectiveness
(1) 2 bones (2) 3 bones (1) (i), (ii) only (2) (i), (iv) only
(3) 1 bone (4) 4 bones (3) (ii), (iii) only (4) (iii), (iv) only

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 24

174. Main symptom of ring worms is 177. Select right statement for cell inclusions
(1) Stools with mucous and blood in prokaryotes –
(2) Dysentery (1) they are covered by single membrane
(3) Dry, scaly lesions on skin, nails and of phospholipid and protein
scalps (2) they are non-living substance that
(4) High fever with chills may be as reserve food
(3) ribosome include as cell inclusions
175. Which of the following is correct? (4) both (1) and (2)
(1) The Green Revolution succeeded in
tripling the food supply. 178. Without membranous cell organelle use
(2) The increased yield of crops have to prepare basal body of flagella:
partly been due to the use of (1) Ribosome (2) ER
improved crop varieties, but mainly (3) Centrosome (4) Golgi body
due to the use of better management
practices and use of agrochemicals. 179. Mitosis occurs in:
(3) Both (1) and (2) (1) Haploid individuals
(4) Conventional breeding techniques (2) Diploid individuals
results in more crop yield than the (3) Both (1) and (2)
modern techniques. (4) In bacteria only

176. Middle lamella is made up for: 180. In oocytes of some vertebrates, _____ can
(1) Silica last for months or years
(2) Calcium Carbonate (1) Zygotene
(3) Calcium Oxalate (2) Leptotene
(4) Calcium Pectate (3) Diakinesis
(4) Diplotene

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-2 25

 NEET (Pre-Medical) Unacademy Major Test Series
Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4

Test Date: 22 April 2025 | Answer Key & Solutions

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. 3 4 3 2 2 1 4 4 2 2 2 1 2 3 1 2 1 3 1 3 4 1 4 4 4
Que. 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 3 4 2 1 4 3 2 2 2 4 2 3 2 1 2 3 3 2 3 1 1 1 3 3 2
Que. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. 2 3 3 3 4 2 1 3 4 1 1 1 2 4 2 1 3 1 3 4 3 1 1 4 1
Que. 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 4 1 1 3 1 4 2 1 2 3 1 1 1 4 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 2 2 3
Que. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125
Ans. 1 1 1 2 4 2 3 3 1 2 4 3 2 1 4 4 1 1 2 3 4 3 2 1 1
Que. 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
Ans. 1 1 1 1 4 1 1 4 4 1 2 3 1 1 1 2 1 3 1 3 1 2 1 1 1
Que. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175
Ans. 4 4 1 4 3 2 1 2 4 2 3 3 4 4 2 2 2 4 1 2 4 4 2 1 1
Que. 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 3 2 3 2 4

HINTS & SOLUTION

PHYSICS
5.
1.  = (80.4 – 20.6) ± (0.2 + 0.3)
= (59.8 ± 0.5)°C
−2
M 
1
 L1 
2
 T1  Let length of wire be ‘ ’
2. n2 = n1  1      Area of wire as ‘A’
 M2   L2   T2 
For equivalent wore length = 2 & area will
1 2 −2
 1kg   1m   1sec  be A
=     
 100kg   1000m  100sec  Thermal resistance
2
Req = R1 + R0
1  1  1
  (100)  n2 = 4 = 10
−4
=  2
2
100  1000  10 = +
eqA 1A 1A
3. Heat given by block to get 0°C temperature 2 2 
3
Q1 = 5 × (0.39 × 10 ) × (500 – 0) = 975 × 10
3 = +  eq 1 2
eq 1 1 1 + 2
Heat absorbed by ice to melt m mass
3 mg − FB vg
Q2 = m × (335 × 10 )J 6. geH = =g−
m v
Q1 = Q2
3 3   L
m × (335 × 10 ) = 975 × 10 geH = g  1 −   T = 2
975    geH
m= = 2.910kg
335
kT M 1
4. = =  E = kT
2d P 2
2 d N
2 2

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 | Answer Key & Solutions 1
 GME
= 6.4 …(ii)
r2
By (i) and (ii)
7.
 r = 8  106 m = 8000km

P2
  12. Kinetic energy (K) =  P = 2mK
= L1 2  =  2m
4 2 If Kf = 36 Ki
2v So, Pf = 6Pi
v = f f2 =
2L2 % increase in momentum

v = f1 (4L1 ) f2 =
v Pf − Pi
L2 =  100%
Pi
v 6Pi − Pi
f1 =
4L1 =  100%
Pi
f1 = f2
= 500%
v v
=  L2 = 4L1 −2 − v1
4L1 L2 13. 1=  v1 = −14m/ s
10 − (−2)
60 = 4  L1
L1 = 15 cm
0.4  2 + 0.6  7
14. xcm = = 5m
8. mg – FB – Fv = ma 0.4 + 0.6
a = 0 for constant velocity
mg – FB = FV 15. I11 + I22 = (I1 + I2 )0 (C.O.A.M.)
m Gives 0 = 8 rad/s
FV = mg – v 0g = mg – 0g

1 1
E1 = I121 + I222 = 216J
   2 2
= mg  1 − 0 
   1

( )
E2 = I1 + I2 02 = 192J
2
F F
9.  1= = = 5cm  E = 24J
AY r2Y
4F4 4F
 2= = 2 = 20cm  M   L  MgL
 4r Y r Y
2
18. Wext = – Wg = −  g−  = .
 8   16  128
10. T2  r3
3
T12 T22 20.  = tan  =
= 4
r13 r23 21. If two particle are projected with same
(200) 2 T22 speed and have same range then sum of
=
r3 3 projection angle of both should be 90°.
r
 4
 
1 1
200  200 22. H' =  10  52 = 125m;h = g(3)2 = 45m
= T22 2 2
4 4 4  H = H' – h = 80 m
200
T2 =
42 BIOLOGY
T2 = 25 days
91. 12 NCERT Page No. 197,198
th

GME 92. 12th NCERT Page No. 199

11. − = −5.12  107 …(i)
r
93. 12th NCERT Page No. 197, 198, 99

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 | Answer Key & Solutions 2
94. 12th NCERT Page No. 207 146. NCERT XIth Page No. # 190
147. NCERT XIth Page No. # 203
95. 12th NCERT Page No. 201
149. NCERT XIth Page No. # 206
97. 12 NCERT Page No. 198
th
150. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 151
98. 12th NCERT Page No. 210 151. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 146, 147
152. NCERT XIth Page No. # 187
99. 12 NCERT Page No. 10
th
153. NCERT XIth Page No. # 47, 48, 44, 41
100. 12th NCERT Page No. 6, 7 9 154. NCERT XIth Page No. # 205

101. 12th NCERT Page No. 20 155. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 146
156. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 125
102. 11 NCERT Page No. 63, 64
th
158. NCERT XIth Page No. # 245
103. 11th NCERT Page No. 75 159. XIIth NCERT Page No. 38
160. NCERT XIth Page No. # 107
104. 11th NCERT Page No. 74
161. NCERT XIth Page No. # 104 (Old)
105. 11th NCERT Page No. 65 163. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 144
106. 11th NCERT Page No. 62 164. NCERT XIth Page No. # 39, 40, 42, 43, 45
165. NCERT XIth Page No. # 114 (Old)
136. NCERT XII Page No. # 131
th
168. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 117
137. NCERT XI Page No. # 44
th
169. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 179
138. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 122
170. NCERT XIth Page No. # 42
139. NCERT XIth Page No. # 224
171. NCERT XIth Page No. # 119 (Old)
140. NCERT XIth Page No. # 236
172. NCERT XIth Page No. # 107
141. NCERT XIth Page No. # 245, 246
174. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 125
142. NCERT XIIth Page No. # 183
175. NCERT XIth Page No. # 143
143. XIIth NCERT Page No. 34
176. NCERT XIth Page No. # 95
144. NCERT XIth Page No. # 101, 102 (Old)
145. NCERT XIth Page No. # 108 177. NCERT XIth Page No. # 100
178. NCERT XIth Page No. # 101
179. NCERT XIth Page No. # 123
180. NCERT XIth Page No. # 128

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 | Answer Key & Solutions 3
 NEET (Pre-Medical) Unacademy Major Test Series
Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4

Time: 3 Hours Test Date: 22 April 2025 Maximum Marks: 720

Name of Candidate (In Capitals):________________________________________________________________

Roll Number (In figures):______________________________In words:_________________________________
Test Centre (In Capitals):_______________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature:__________________________Invigilator’s Signature:____________________________
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions:
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ballpoint
pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions
(four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology).
45-45 questions in Physics & Chemistry and 90 questions in Biology, subject are divided as per details
given below:
(1) Part A – Physics shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 1 to 45). All questions are compulsory.
(2) Part B- Chemistry shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 46 to 90). All questions are compulsory.
(3) Part C- Biology (Botany & Zoology Combined) shall consist of 90 (Ninety) Questions in each
subject (Questions Nos- 91 to 180). All questions are compulsory.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on these page/marking responses on the
Answer Sheet. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
5. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
6. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave
his/her seat.
9. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
invigilator on duty and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not
signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet
and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules
and Regulation of this examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidate will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.

(English)
 TEST SYLLABUS

Unacademy Major Test Series

Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4

22 April 2025

Physics - Full Syllabus

Chemistry - Full Syllabus

Biology - Full Syllabus

 


 
 +  +
 +  +
 


 

 
   
 −   − 
    
 
 
 




    
 −   + 
  
   
  
  − 
  
  
−

+  
  

 

= + + + −

= + +

= − + +

= + + +


 



 =
 
− −
 −  −
− −
 


  

 PART-B: CHEMISTRY 51. 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)  NH2CONH2(aq) + H2O(l) if
the Gibbs energy change ∆G° at this this
46. Lanthanoid ions with 4f7 configuration temperature is – 13.6 kJ mol–1, the log K
are:
value of equilibrium constant of this
(A) Eu2+ (B) Gd3+
reaction is:
(C) Eu3+ (D) Tb3+
(1) 3.82 (2) 2.38
(E) Sm2+
(3) 8.32 (4) 2.83
Choose the correct answer from the
options give below:
(1) (A) and (B) only O
52. Kolbe X
(2) (A) and (D) only CH3–CH2–CH2–C–ONa electrolysis
(3) (B) and (E) only
(4) (B) and (C) only
Y

47. The correct order of electron affinities is: (1) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH–CH3

(1) Cl > Si > Na > Ar CH3
(2) Si > Cl > Na > Ar
(3) Cl > Na > Si > Ar (2)
(4) Cl > Si > Ar > Na
(3)
48. Which of the following in colorless?
(1) [Cr(H2O)6]3+ (4) CH3–CH = CH–CH2–CH2–CH3

(2) [Cu(H2O)4]2+
(3) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ 53. Common name of Benzene-1,2-diol is:
(4) KMnO4 (1) Quinol (2) Resorcinol
(3) Catechol (4) o-Cresol
49. The empirical formula and molecular
mass of a compound are CH2O and 180g 54. Arrange the following in the decreasing
respectively. What will be the molecular order of their covalent character:
formula of the compound? (A) LiCl (B) NaCl
(1) C9H18O9 (2) CH2O
(C) KCl (D) CsCl
(3) C6H12O6 (4) C2H4O2
Choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
50. How many photons will a bulb of 100 watt
(1) (A) > (C) > (B) > (D)
emit in one second if the wavelength of
(2) (B) > (A) > (C) > (D)
light is 400 nm?
(1) 1.02 × 1018 (2) 2.01 × 1020 (3) (A) > (B) > (C) > (D)
(3) 3.30 × 1022 (4) 4.04 × 1022 (4) (A) > (B) > (D) > (C)

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 7

55. The correct order of bond enthalpy (kJ 57. The graph of reaction between H2 and N2
producing NH3 is shown below:
mol–1) is:
3H2(g) + N2(g)  2NH3(g)
(1) Si - Si > C - C > Sn - Sn > Ge - Ge
What do 'A', 'B' and 'C' stand for, in the
(2) Si - Si > C - C > Ge - Ge > Sn - Sn graph, respectively?

(3) C - C > Si – Si > Sn – Sn > Ge - Ge

(4) C -C > Si – Si > Ge – Ge > Sn - Sn

56. Column-I Column-II

(p) Open (i) Only matter can

(1) H2, N2, NH3 (2) N2, H2, NH3
system be exchanged with (3) H2, NH3, N2 (4) NH3, H2, N2
surrounding, not
58. Out of the following with reaction has
the energy.
both reactants and products in
(q) Closed (ii) Neither matter nor considerable quantities at equilibrium.
298K
system energy can be (1) N2 ( g ) + O2 ( g )  2NO( g ); Kc =
4.8 × 10−31
exchanged with the 500K
1
(2) H2O( g )  H2 + O ; Kc =
4.1 × 10−48
surrounding. 2 2
298K

(r) Isolated (iii) Matter and energy (3) N2O4 ( g )  2NO2 ; =

K c 4.64 × 10−3
300K
system both can be (4) H2 ( g ) + Cl2 ( g )  2HCl( g ); Kc =
4.0 × 1031

exchanged with
surrounding. 59. Which of the following reaction is
incorrect?
(iv) Only energy can be

exchanged with the (1)

surrounding.
(2)
(Aldehyde Hydrazone
(p) (q) (r) or
Ketone)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii)

(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (3)

(3) (iii) (ii) (i) COOH

(4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (4)

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 8

60. Match the List-I with List-II. 62. Assertion: Alkyl chloride can be best
prepared by reaction of alcohol with
List-I List-II thionyl chloride.
(Compound) B.P.(K) Reason: Alcohol react with thionyl
A Propanal i 370 chloride give side product gases SO2 & HCl
which are escapable.
B Acetone ii 322
(1) Assertion and Reason both are correct
C Propan-1-ol iii 329 and Reason is the correct explanation
D Methoxyethane iv 281 of Assertion.
E n-Butane v 273 (2) Assertion and Reason both are correct
but Reason is not correct explanation
of Assertion.
(1) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv, E-v (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv, E-v false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv, E-v
(4) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-v, E-iv
63. In the structure of diborane:
(1) All hydrogen atoms lie in one plane
61. The structure of D–(+)–Glucose is and boron atoms lie in a plane
CHO perpendicular to this plane.
H OH (2) 2 boron atoms and 4 terminal
HO H hydrogen atoms lie in the same plane
H OH and 2 bridging hydrogen atoms lie in
H OH the perpendicular plane.
(3) 4 bridging hydrogen atoms and boron
CH2OH
atoms lie in one plane and two
The structure of L–(–)–Glucose will be:-
terminal hydrogen atoms lie in a plane
CHO CHO
perpendicular to this plane.
HO H H OH (4) All the atoms are in the same plane.
H OH HO H
(1) HO H (2) H OH
64. In the following equilibrium
HO H HO H
C(s) + CO (g)  2CO(g)
CH2OH CH2OH if pressure is increased, which of the
following is observed?
CHO CHO (1) Volume of reaction chamber will
HO H HO H decrease.
HO H HO H (2) Q will be higher than K.
(3) H OH (4) HO H (3) Reaction will proceed in the reverse
HO H H OH direction.
CH2OH CH2OH (4) All of the above.

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 9

65. What is the pH of 1.0 × 10–8 M solution of 68. Statement (I): Experimentally determined
HCl? oxygen-oxygen bond lengths in the O3 are
(log 1.1 = 0.0414) found to be same and the bond length is
(1) 8.8 (2) 6.96 greater than that of a O = O ( double bond)
(3) 7.96 (4) 6.0414 but less than that of a single (O-O) bond.
Statement (II) : The strong lone pair-lone
66. Match the List-I with List-II. pair repulsion between oxygen atoms is
solely responsible for the fact that the
List-I List-II bond length in ozone is smaller than that
Vitamins Name/Deficiency of a double bond (O=O) but more than
disease that of a single bond (O-O).
a Vitamin B1 i Rickets and In the light of the above statements,
osteomalacia choose the correct answer from the
b Vitamin B2 ii Thiamine options given below:
c Vitamin B6 iii Pernicious (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is
anaemia false
d Vitamin B12 iv Pyridoxine (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
d Vitamin D v Cheilosis true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) a-ii, b-v, c-iv, d-iii, e-i false
(2) a-v, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, e-i (4) Statement I is false but Statement II
(3) a-ii, b-v, c-iii, d-i, e-iv is true
(4) a-v, b-ii, c-v, d-iii, e-i
69. Which of the following complexes exhibits
67. Match List-I with List-II: Sp3d2 hybridization?
(1) [Fe(CN)6]3– (2) [Mn(CN)6]3–
(3) [FeF6]3– (4) [Co(H2O)6]3+

70. Atomic number of Mn, Fe, Co and Ni are

25, 26 27 and 28 respectively. Which of
the following outer orbital octahedral
Choose the correct answer from the
complexes have same number of
options given below: unpaired electrons?
(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (a) [MnCl6]3– (b) [FeF6]3–
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I (c) [CoF6]3– (d) [Ni(NH3)6]2+
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(1) Only a & b (2) Only b & c
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(3) Only a, c & d (4) only a & c

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 10

71. The following reaction is performed for CH3 Θ
74. (i) KMnO4/OH/∆
(A)
NH3
(B)
the detection of NO3− ions: CH3
(ii) H3O⊕ ∆
Strong
heating
FeSO₄ + NO → Product
(C)
Choose the correct statement:
(1) Colour of the complex compound The product (C) will be:-
formed is violet
Θ⊕
CONH2 COONH4
(2) Oxidation number of ‘Fe’ in the
(1) (2)
Θ⊕
complex is +3 CONH2 COONH4
(3) The complex formed is [Fe(H₂O)₅NO]2+
O O
(4) Colour of the complex product is
(3) O (4) NH
yellow
O O

72. What is the solubility of Zr3(PO4)4 in water

at 298 K?
1/7 7 75. Assertion : Linkage isomerism arises in
 K sp   6912 
(1)   (2)  
 6912   K sp  coordination compounds containing
   
1 ambidentate ligand.
 K sp 7
(3)  3  (4) None of these Reason : Ambidentate ligand has two
 (3) + (4)4 
 
different donor atoms.

73. The number of aromatic compounds form (1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct

following are:- and Reason is the correct explanation

of Assertion.
⊕
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct
, .. ,
but Reason is not the correct
O
explanation of Assertion.

, , (3) Assertion is correct but Reason is not

..
N
correct.
H
(1) 6 (2) 5 (4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is

(3) 4 (4) 3 correct.

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 11

76. Which of the following statement is 79. (i) Cu + 2HCl → CuCl2 + H2 ( g ); E Cu

2+ +0.34V
=
/Cu
incorrect?
(ii) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2 ( g ); E Zn2 + / Zn =
−0.76V

(1) The three terms responsible for the
value of ionisation enthalpy are 1
attraction of each electron towards H ( g ); E Ag
(iii) Ag + HCl → AgCl + 
+
/ Ag
+0.80V
=
2 2
nucleus, repulsion between the Which of the above reactions is feasible ?
electrons and the exchange energy.
(1) (ii) (2) (i)
(2) The third ionisation enthalpy of Fe is
(3) (iii) (4) All of these
lower than that of Mn.
(3) Exchange energy is approximately
proportional to the total number of 80. The reagent which does not react with
possible pairs of parallel spins in the both, acetone and benzaldehyde.
degenerate orbitals. (1) Sodium hydrogensulphite
(4) The trend of steady increase in
(2) Phenyl hydrazine
second and third ionisation enthalpy
(3) Fehling's solution
breaks for the formation of Fe2+ and
Mn2+ respectively. (4) Grignard reagent

77. The following reaction 81. C2H5–Cl + NH3 (Excess) → Major product
2Cu2O(s) + Cu2S(s) → 6Cu(s) + SO2(g) 'P'
is a redox reaction-because: 'P' will be
(1) Cu+1 of Cu2O is reduced to Cu0
(1) C2H5NH2 (2) (C2H5)2NH
(2) Cu+1 of Cu2S is reduced to Cu0
(3) (C2H5)3N (4) (C2H5)4N⊕ClΘ
(3) S–2 of Cu2S is oxidised to S+4 in SO2
(4) All of the above
82. Statement (I) : A π bonding MO has lower
78. Identify the incorrect statement. electron density above and below the
(1) The oxidation states of chromium in inter-nuclear axis.
CrO 2−
4
and Cr2O
2−
7
are not the same Statement (II): The π∗ antibonding MO has
(2) Cr2+ (d4) is a stronger reducing agent a node between the nuclei.
than Fe2+ (d6) in water. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) The transition metals and their
true
compounds are known for their
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
catalytic activity due to their ability to
adopt multiple oxidation states and to false
form complexes. (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
(4) Interstitial compounds are those that false
are formed when small atoms like H, (4) Statement I is false but Statement II
C or N are trapped inside the crystal
is true
lattices of metals.

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 12

83. Kohlrausch's law states that at: 85. On treating sodium fusion extract with
(1) Infinite dilution, each ion makes sodium nitroprusside appearance of a
definite contribution to conductance
violet colour indicates the presence of
of an electrolyte whatever be the
Sulphur, appearance of violet colour due
nature of the other ion of the
to-
electrolyte.
(2) Infinite dilution, each ion makes (1) [Fe(CN)5NO]–2 (2) [Fe(CN)5NOS]–4
definite contribution to equivalent (3) [Fe(SCN)]+2 (4) PbS
conductance of an electrolyte
whatever be the nature of the other
86. Match the type of mixture of compounds in
ion of the electrolyte
Column I with the technique of separation
(3) Finite dilution, each ion makes definite
/purification given in Column II.
contribution to equivalent
conductance of an electrolyte Column-I Column-II

whatever be the nature of the other i Two solids which have a Steam

ion of the electrolyte different solubilities in a distillation

(4) Infinite dilution, each ion makes solvent and which do not
definite contribution to equivalent undergo reaction when
conductance of an electrolyte dissolved in it.
depending on the nature of the other ii Liquid that decomposes at b Fractional
ion of electrolyte its boiling point distillation

iii Steam volatile liquid c Simple

84. For the reaction mechanism of the
distillation
reaction
iv Two liquids which have d Distillation
2NO( g ) + 2H2 ( g ) → N2 ( g ) + 2H2O( g )
boiling points close to each under
k1
Step I 2NO  N2O2 (Fast) other reduced
k2 pressure
Step II N2O2 + H2 → N2O + H2O (Slow)
v Two liquids with large e Crystallisation
k3
Step III N2O + H2 → N2 + H2O (Fast) difference in boiling points.

Expression of rate of reaction is: (1) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a, v-e
(Take Keq × k2 = k ' ) (2) i-e, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c, v-b
(1) k' [NO] [H2]
2
(2) k' N2O2 [H2] (3) i-e, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b, v-c
(3) k' N2O [H2] (4) k' N2O2
(4) i-c, ii-d, iii-e, iv-a, v-b

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 13

87. Match the column 88. For the reaction, 2N2O5(g) → 4NO2(g)+O2(g)

If the concentration of NO2 increases by

Pair of Compounds Test to
5.2 x 10–3 M in 100 s, then the rate of the

distinguish reaction is:

(1) 1.3 x 10–5 Ms–1

A OH OH P Neutral
and (2) 0.5 x 10–4 Ms–1

FeCl3 (3) 2 x 10–3 Ms–1

(4) 2.5 x 10–5 Ms–1

B Q Lucas test

89. 15 g of a solute in 100 g of water makes a

solution of freeze at –1°C. 30 g of a solute

C R CHCl3 + in 100 g of water will give a depression in

and freezing point equal to :

KOH
(1) 2°C

(2) 0.5°C

(3) –2°C
D CH3CH2NH2 and S Ammoniacal
(4) 1°C

CH3–NH–CH3 silver nitrate

90. The colors imparted by barium and
solution
calcium ions respectively during the flame

(1) A – Q, B – P, C- S, D- R test are:

(1) Brick red and apple green

(2) A – P, B – Q, C- S, D- R
(2) Yellow and crimson red

(3) Crimson red and yellow

(3) A – R, B – Q, C- R, D- P
(4) Apple green and brick red
(4) A – Q, B – R, C- S, D- P

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 14

 PART-C: BIOLOGY 96. If we analyse the species-area relationships
91. Animals eating plants are categorised among large areas like the entire
separately as herbivores, they are in a continents, then slope of line becomes
much steeper in the range of:–
broad ecological context not very
(1) 0.1 to 0.6 (2) 0.1 to 0.2
different from:
(3) 0.6 to 1.2 (4) 0.2 to 0.6
(1) Parasite (2) Predator
(3) Commensalism (4) Amensalism
97. Study the four statements (a-d) given
92. They may reduce the survival, growth and below and select the two correct ones out
reproduction of the other organism and of them:
reduce its population density, they might (a) A lion eating a deer and a sparrow
render the organism more vulnerable to feeding on grain are ecologically
predation by making it physically weak. similar in being consumers.
They are:– (b) Predator star fish Pisaster helps in
maintaining species diversity of some
(1) Predator
invertebrates
(2) Parasite
(c) Predators ultimately lead to the
(3) Amensalism
extinction of prey species
(4) Commensalism
(d) Production of chemicals such as
93. Match the following and choose the correct nicotine, strychnine by the plants are
combination from the options given below: metabolic disorders
Column–I Column–II The two correct statements are:
A. Mutualism 1. Rhinoceros (1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)
and Ticks (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a) and (d)
B. Commensalism 2. Balanus and
Chathamalus 98. Assertion: In Terrestrial, ecosystem much
larger fraction of energy flows through'the
C. Parasitism 3. Sparrow and
detritus food chain.
seed Reason : In an aquatic ecosystem, GFC is
D. Competition 4. Epiphyte on a the major conduit for energy flow.
mango (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True &
branch the Reason is a correct explanation of
E. Predation 5. Orchid the Assertion.
Ophrys (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
and bee Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(1) A-1, B–5, C–4, D–3, E-2
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is
(2) A-2, B–1, C–5, D–4, E-3
False.
(3) A-3, B–2, C–1, D–5, E-4 (4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.
(4) A-5, B–4, C–1, D–2, E-3
99. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell
94. Which of the following factors inhibit
forms megaspores without undergoing
decomposition ?
meiosis and if one of the megaspores
(1) Low temperature and anaerobiosis
develops into an embryo sac, its nuclei
(2) Warm and moist environment
would be:
(3) Aeration
(1) Haploid
(4) Both (1) and (3)
(2) Diploid
95. Coevolution, coextinction and coexistence (3) A few haploid and a few diploid
(4) With varying ploidy.
is occur in -
(1) Mutualism relation 100. Select the mismatched pair –
(1) Microsporangium - Pollen sac
(2) Predation
(2) Megasporangium - Ovule
(3) Commensalism
(3) Pollen grain - Male gamete
(4) Amensalism (4) Embryo sac - Female gametophyte

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 15

101. Persistent nucellus is called as_______ 106. Which of the following condition of ovary
and is found in_______ - is present in flower of Mustard and
(1) perisperm, black pepper Cucumber respectively?
(2) perisperm, ground nut
(3) endosperm, black pepper
(4) endosperm, groundnut (i) (ii)

102. The mode of arrangement of sepals or

petals in floral bud with respect to the
other members of the same whorl is
known as -
(1) Aestivation
(2) Phyllotaxy (iii) (iv)
(3) Anthesis
(4) More than one option is correct

103. Given below are two statements : one is (1) (ii), (iv) (2) (ii), (iii)
labelled as Assertion (A) and the others (3) (i), (iii) (4) (i), (ii)
labelled as Reason R).
Assertion (A): The trichomes are unicellular 107. Given below are two statements:
elongation of the epidermis cells. Statement I : RuBisCO is the most
Reason (R): Trichomes helps in absorption abundant enzyme in the world.
of water and minerals from the soil. Statement II : Photorespiration does not
occur in C4 plants.
In the light of the above statements,
In the light of the above statements,
choose the
choose the most appropriate answer from
correct answer from the options given the options given below :
below (1) Statement I is correct but Statement
(1) Both (A) and (R) are false II is incorrect
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) Statement I is incorrect but
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true Statement II is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
correct explanation of (A) correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
104. (I) Unicellular hair incorrect
(II) Endodermis with passage cells
(III) Pith-small/inconspicuous 108. Select the wrong statement:
(IV) Radial vascular bundle (1) Cell wall is present in members of
(V) Xylem exarch Fungi and Plantae.
(VI) 2-4 xylem and phloem (2) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes.
The above description refers to which of (3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding
the following : structures in Sporozoans.
(1) Monocot root (2) Dicot root
(4) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of
(3) Monocot stem (4) Dicot stem
the cell in all kingdoms except Monera.
105. Match the column with respect to
109. Match the column-I with column-II:
placentation.
Column-I Column-II
Placentation Example
(i) Chlorophyceae (a) Ectocarpus
(a) Axile (i) Primrose
(ii) Lycopsida (b) Chara
(b) Parietal (ii) Soyabean
(iii) Phaeophyceae (c) Selaginella
(c) Marginal (iii) Tulip
(iv) Liverwort (d) Marchantia
(d) Free-central (iv) Argemone
(1) i-b. ii-c. iii-a. iv-d
(1) (a)-(i); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iii); (d)-(iv)
(2) i-b, ii-d. iii-a. iv-c
(2) (a)-(iii); (b)-(ii); (c)-(iv); (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(iv); (b)-(iii); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i) (3) i-a. ii-d. iii-c. iv-b
(4) (a)-(iii); (b)-(iv); (c)-(ii); (d)-(i) (4) i-c. ii-a. iii-b. iv-d

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 16

110. The figure below is the diagrammatic 114. Given below are two statements:
representation of the E.Coli vector pBR 322. Statement I:
Which one of the given options correctly The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is
identifies its certain component(s) ? phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the
mesophyll cells.
Statement II:
Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack RuBisCo
enzyme.
In the light of the above statements,
choose the correct answer from the
options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) Hind III, ECoRI-selectable markers
(2) AmpR, tetR-antibiotic resistance genes correct
(3) Ori-original restriction enzyme (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) rop-reduced osmotic pressure incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement
111. Select the wrong statements: II is incorrect
(1) Diatomaceous earth is formed by the (4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct
cell walls of diatoms
(2) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans 115. The chemiosmosis in chloroplast
(3) Diatoms are microscopic and float requires-
passively in water (I) a membrane
(4) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible (II) a proton pump
(III) a proton gradient
112. Match the following concerning the (IV) ATP synthase
activity/function and the phytohormone
involved: (1) (I), (II), (III)
(a) Fruit ripener (i) Abscisic acid (2) (II), (III) and (IV)
(b) Herbicide (ii) GA3 (3) (I), (II), (IV)
(c) Bolting agent (iii) 2, 4-D (4) (I), (II), (III) and (IV)
(d) Stress hormone (iv) Ethephon
116. Given below are two statements :
Select the correct option from following:
(1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i) Statement I :
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i) autosomal dominant traits .
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii) Statement II :
Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are
113. Match the following enzymes with their disorders of the blood.
functions: In the light of the above statements,
a. Restriction i Joins the DNA choose the correct answer from the
endonuclease fragments options given below :
b. Restriction ii Extends primers
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II
exonuclease on genomic DNA
are correct
template
c. DNA ligase iii Cuts DNA at (2) Both Statement I and Statement II
specific position are incorrect
d. Taq iv Removes (3) Statement I is correct but Statement
polymerase Nucleotides II is incorrect
from the (4) Statement I is incorrect but
ends of DNA Statement II is correct
Select the correct option from the
following : 117. Which one is wrongly matched?
(1) Uniflagellate gametes - Polysiphonia
(1) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii (2) Biflagellate zoospores - Brown algae
(3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (3) Gemma cups - Marchantia
(4) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii (4) Unicellular organism – Chlorella

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 17

118. Photosynthesis is - 124. Assertion: The m-RNA of lac operon of
(1) Endergonic, photochemical, anabolic Escherichia coli is a polycistronic m-RNA.
and reductive process Reason: It codes for three polypeptide
(2) Exergonic, reductive and catabolic chains.
process (1) Both assertion and reason are true
(3) Exergonic, reductive and anabolic and reason is the correct explanation
process of assertion.
(4) Exergonic and chemosynthetic process (2) Both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation
119. Statement A: Gametophyte consists of of assertion.
two stages i.e. protonema stage and leafy (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
state. (4) both assertion and reason are false.
Statement B: They are attached to soil
through multicellular and branched 125. The central dogma of molecular biology is
rhizoids. depicted as shown below.
Above statements are correct for-
DNA ⎯→ X ⎯→ Protein
(1) Sequoia
(2) Polytrichum Here, X can be :
(3) Salvinia (1) m-RNA only (2) t-RNA only
(4) Marchantia (3) r-RNA only (4) All of the above

120. In garden pea plant gene of seed shape 126. Which of the following is not required for
also control :- the formation of 'Beads-on-string' form
(1) Seed coat colour of chromatin ?
(2) Seed colour (1) H1 histone (2) H2 histone
(3) Size of starch grain (3) H3 histone (4) H4 histone
(4) Pod colour
127. Which of the following is a ribozyme in
121. Which of the following is not an bacteria ?
autosomal recessive disease ? (1) 23S rRNA (2) 28S rRNA
(1) Alkaptoneuria (3) 5S rRNA (4) 16S rRNA
(2) Sickle cell anaemia
(3) Albinism 128. Which of the following serves as template
(4) Haemophilia for protein synthesis ?
(1) m-RNA (2) r-RNA
122. Find out incorrect match :-
(3) t-RNA (4) All of the above
(1) ELISA - molecular diagnosis
(2) PCR - gene amplification
(3) Rossie - transgenic sheep 129. What differs from one nucleotide to

(4) ADA - gene therapy another in a nucleic acid ?

(1) N-base (2) Sugar
123. DNA : (3) N-base and sugar (4) Phosphate
(1) Always contains ribose sugar
(2) Always contains deoxyribose sugar 130. In Meselson and stahl's experiment, which
(3) Contains both ribose and deoxyribose of the following salts was used for density-
sugars gradient centrifugation?
(4) Never contains pentose sugars (1) NaCl (2) NH4Cl (3) KCl (4) CsCl

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 18

131. The technique of obtaining large number 136. Match the disease with vector and choose
of plantlets by tissue culture method is correct options
Disease Vector
called_____.
a. Dengue i. Culex
(1) micropropagation b. Malaria ii. Ades
(2) macropropagation c. Chikungunia iii.Female Anopheles
(3) Totipotency d. Filariasis iv. Plasmodium
(1) a–ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
(4) Somatic Hybridisation
(2) a–ii, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(3) a–i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
132. Emasculation is achieved to control :- (4) a–i, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(1) Self-Pollination
137. Which of the following incorrect about
(2) Cross-Pollination
Arthropoda?
(3) Both (1) & (2) (1) Jointed appendages
(4) None of these (2) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) Only internal fertilization
(4) Development direct or indirect
133. Mendel's work remain unrecognised for
long time due to :- 138. The correct sequence of evolution of
plants:
I. Communication was not easy.
(1) Chlorophytes - Tracheophytes - Rhynia
II. Concept of factors which did not blend type - Psilophytons - Progymnosperms
was not accepted (2) Chlorophytes - Psilophyton
III. Use of mathematics to explain - Tranchophtes - Rhynia type
(3) Chlorophytes - Progymnosperms
biological problem was unacceptable
- Lycopods
IV. He could not provide any physical (4) Psilophyton - Tracheophytes
proof for the existence of factors. - Zosterophyllum - Rhynia type
Choose the right combinations
139. Select the correct match :
(1) I and II (2) II and III
A. Facial bone I. 6
(3) III and IV (4) All of these B. Ear ossicles II. 14
C. Ribs III. 24
134. The phenomenon which results in D. Hyoid bone IV. 1
alteration of DNA sequences and (1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
consequently results in changes in the
(3) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
genotype of an organism is :- (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(1) Mutation
(2) Inheritance 140. Match the following column-I with column-II

(3) Genetic engineering and choose the correct answer?

Column–I Column–II
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(A) Fore brain (i) Cerebrum

135. DNA fingerprinting works on the principle (B) Mid brain (ii) Cerebral aqueduct
(C) Hind brain (iii) Pons
of-
(1) A–i, B–ii, C–iii
(1) Polymorphism in DNA sequences
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–i
(2) Amplification of DNA sequences
(3) A–i, B–iii, C–ii
(3) Gel electrophoresis
(4) A–ii, B–i, C–iii
(4) Identification of heterochromatin

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 19

141. Match the following columns and choose 145. Which of the following statements is
the correct option. false?
(1) Abrin and Ricin are secondary
Column I Column II
metabolites
i. Insulin a. Liver cells
(2) Some secondary metabolites have
ii. Glucagon b. Hypoglycaemic ecological importance
hormone (3) The types of secondary metabolites in
iii. Hepatocytes c. Cells of adipose animal cells are more than in plant
tissue cells
iv. Adipocytes d. Hyperglycaemic (4) Secondary metabolites are found in
fungi, microbes and plants
hormone
(1) i–b, ii–d, iii–c, iv–a 146. Assertion A: Pneumotaxic centre can
(2) i–b, ii–d, iii–a, iv–c moderate the functions of the respiratory
(3) i–d, ii–b, iii–a, iv–c rhythm centre.
Reason R: Neural signal from
(4) i–d, ii–b, iii–c, iv–a
Pneumotaxic centre can reduce the
duration of inspiration and thereby the
142. Transgenic animal has
alter the respiratory centre.
(1) Foreign DNA is all its cells In the light of the above statements,
(2) Foreign RNA is all its cells choose the correct answer from the
(3) Foreign DNA is some of the cells options given below:
(4) Both 2 and 3 (1) If both the A and the R are true and
the R is a correct explanation of the A.
143. Select the incorrect statement: (2) If both the A and R are true but the R
is not a correct explanation of the A.
(1) FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells which
(3) If the A is true but the R is false.
help in spermiogenesis.
(4) If both the A and R are false.
(2) LH triggers ovulation in ovary.
(3) LH and FSH decrease gradually during 147. Angina occurs due to the:
the follicular phase. (1) When heart muscle get enough
(4) LH triggers secretion of androgens oxygen.
from the Leydig cells. (2) Decreased supply of oxygen to heart
muscle.
144. Match List-I with List-II. (3) The deposition of carbohydrates in
List-I List-II artery.
A. Unicellular I. Inner lining of
glandular pancreatic (4) Protein deposition in artery
epithelium duct
148. Assertion: Coitus interruptus have almost
B. Multicellular II. Inner lining of nil side effects.
glandular fallopian Reason : Medicines or devices are not
epithelium tubes used in this method.
C. Ciliated III. Goblet cells (1) Both Assertion & Reason are True and
epithelium the Reason is the correct explanation
D. Compound IV. Salivary of the Assertion
epithelium glands (2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but
Choose the correct answer from the the Reason is not the correct
options given below: explanation of the Assertion
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II,D-I (3) Assertion is True statement but
Reason is false
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I,D-II (4) Both Assertion and Reason are False
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II,D-I statements
(4) A-IV, B-II,C-I,D-III

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 20

149. Identify A, B, C, D & E in given figure: 152. Which of the following is correct
matching:
Respiratory Respiratory
Capacities Volume
(1) Residual 2500 ml
volume
(2) Vital capacity 3500 ml
(3) Inspiratory 2000 ml
reserve volume
(4) Inspiratory 3500 ml
(1) A → Kidney; B → Adrenal Gland; capacity
C → Ureter; D → Urinary bladder;
E → Urethra. 153. Match the columns :-

(2) A → Kidney; B → Adrenal Gland; Column I Column II

Myxine Internal
C → Ureter; D → Urethra;
(a) (Hagfish) (i) fertilisation
E → Urinary bladder. & viviparous
(3) A → Adrenal Gland; B → Kidney; Pterophyllum
(b) (ii) Living fossil
C → Ureter; D → Urethra; (Angel fish)
E → Urinary bladder. Scales on
(4) A → Kidney; B → Adrenal Gland; skin absent,
(c) Limulus (iii)
paired fins
C → Urinary bladder; D → Urethra;
absent
E → Ureter. Metagenesis
Obelia
(d) (iv) present
(sea fur)
150. Select the wrong statement for the lactic
acid bacteria: Gills covered
(e) Pristis (v)
(1) Inoculum contain millions bacteria by operculum
may multiply at any temperature in (1) a-iii, b-v, c-ii, d-iv, e-i
milk. (2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv, e-v
(2) Lactic acid bacteria increasing vit. B12 (3) a-v, b-iii, c-i, d-ii, e-iv
in curd. (4) a-iii, b-ii, c-v, d-iv, e-i
(3) LAB play very beneficial role in
154. Which of the following group of animals
checking growth of disease causing
are ammonotelic in nature ?
microbes in stomach
(1) Many bony fishes, amphibians, Insects.
(4) LAB convert milk into curd
(2) Marine Fishes, amphibians, aquatic insects

151. Measures for prevention and control of (3) Mammals, birds, Reptiles

drug abuse in adolescence includes (4) Many bony fishes, aquatic amphibians,

(1) Avoid undue peer pressure aquatic insects.

(2) Help from parents and peers should 155. Which is responsible for the cirrhosis of
be sought immediately so that they liver
can guide appropriately (1) Sugar
(3) Guidance from parents, professional (2) Hypercholesteremia
and medical help (3) Alcohol
(4) All of these (4) Vitamin

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 21

156. Which human ancestor painted beautiful 160. The structural formula belongs to
paintings on cave wall and developed pre
historic cave art 18000 years ago?
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo sapiens
(3) Java man (4) Australopithecus

(1) Glucose (2) Ribose

157. Assertion: MTPs are considered relatively
safe during the first trimester, i.e. upto 12 (3) Sucrose (4) Deoxyribose
weeks of pregnancy.
Reason: Foetus becomes intimately 161. Given below are two statements:
associated with maternal tissues after Statement I: The bone cells are present in
the first trimester
spaces called lacunae.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
Statement II: Chondrocytes are enclosed
the reason is the correct explanation
in small cavities within the matrix
of the assertion
secreted by them.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct In the light of the above statements,
explanation of the assertion choose the most appropriate answer from
(3) Assertion is true statement but the options given below:
Reason is false (1) Statement I is correct, but Statement
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false II is incorrect.
statements (2) Statement I is incorrect, but
158. Assertion (A): Glucagon increases blood Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are
glucose level i.e., hyperglycemia.
correct.
Reason (R): Glucagon stimulates (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
glycogenolysis, glycogenesis and incorrect.
gluconeogenesis.
In the light of the above statements, 162. A human protein which is being obtained
choose the most appropriate answer from from transgenic animals and is used
the options given below: to treat emphysema is
(1) Alpha-lactalbumin
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
(2) Thyroxine
not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) -1-antitrypsin
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. (4) Insulin
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is 163. Statement I: Nicotine stimulate adrenal
the correct explanation of (A). gland to release adrenaline and
noradrenaline in to blood circulation.
159. Given below are two statements: Statement II: Smoking increases carbon
Statement-I: Parturition is induced by a
monoxide content in blood and reduces
complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
Statement-II: The signals for parturition the concentration of haembound oxygen.
originate from the fully developed foetus (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
and placenta. incorrect
In the light of the above statements, (2) Statement I is correct but statement
choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below: II is incorrect
(1) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect. (3) Statement I is incorrect but
(2) Statement-I is correct but statement- statement II is correct
II is incorrect. (4) Both, statement I and Statement II are
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and
Statement- II is correct. correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II
are correct.

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 22

164. Match the column-I with column-II and 168. Refer the given figure. What does it
choose the correct option: represent?
Column-I Column-II
(A) Porifera (i) Canal system
Water-vascular
(B) Aschelminthes (ii)
system
Muscular
(C) Annelida (iii)
pharynx
(D) Ctenophora (iv) Bioluminescence
(E) Echinodermata (v) Metamerism
(1) A-ii B-iii C-v D-iv E-i
(2) A-ii B-v C-iii D-iv E-i
(3) A-iii B-i C-v D-iv E-ii (1) Convergent evolution
(4) A-i B-iii C-v D-iv E-ii
(2) Adaptive radiation
(3) Divergent evolution
165. How many ommatidia are present in each
(4) Both (2) and (3)
eye of cockroach?
(1) 10000
169. Important objective of bio technology in
(2) 2000
agriculture
(3) 100000
(1) To produce pest resistance varieties
(4) 30000
of plants
(2) To increase the nitrogen content
166.
(3) To decrease the seeds number
(4) To increase the plants

170. Read the following characters :-

What is the structure enclosed by a box? (a) Diploblastic with tissue level of
(1) Amino acid
organisation
(2) Peptide bond
(b) The body bears eight external row of
(3) Glycosidic bond
(4) Zwitier ion ciliated comb plates
(c) Digestion is both extracellular and
167. In a normal pregnant woman, the amount intracellular
of total gonadotropin activity was (d) Reproduction takes place only by
assessed. sexual means
The result expected was :- The given above characters are correct
(1) High levels of FSH and LH in uterus to
for which animal
stimulate endometrial thickening.
(1) Meandrina
(2) High levels of circulating HCG to
stimulate estrogen and progesterone (2) Pleurobrachia
synthesis. (3) Adamsia
(3) High level of circulating FSH and LH in (4) Both (2) and (3)
the uterus to stimulate implantation 171. How many cranial nerves arise from the
of the embryo.
brain of frog?
(4) High level of circulating HCG to
(1) 7 pairs
stimulate endometrial thickening.
(2) 8 pairs
(3) 9 pairs
(4) 10 pairs

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 23

172. Given below is the diagrammatic 177. Which of the following statements is
representation of one of the categories of incorrect for centrioles?
small molecular weight organic (1) Both the centrioles in a centrosome
compounds in the living tissues. Identify lie perpendicular to each other.
the category shown and the one blank (2) Central proteinaceous hub is absent
component "X" in it. in a centriole
(3) Centriole has an organisation like of a
cartwheel.
(4) Centrosome are also called
diplosome.

178. Identify 'A' in given figure:

Category Component
(1) Cholesterol Guanin
(2) Amino acid NH2
(3) Nucleotide Adenine
(4) Nucleoside Uracil
173. The main function of mammalian corpus
luteum is to produce :
(1) estrogen only
(2) progesterone
(3) human chorionic gonadotropin (1) Chromatid (2) Chromatophore
(4) relaxin only (3) Kinetochore (4) Centrosome
174. The cranial capacity of Neanderthal man
was- 179. In which stage at which morphology of
(1) 1400 cc (2) 1100 cc
chromosomes is most easily studied:
(3) 1200 cc (4) 850 cc
(1) Prophase
175. Marijuana is obtained from the fresh (2) Metaphase
flower of which plant: (3) Anaphase
(1) Cannabis sativa (4) Telophase
(2) Ocimum sanctum
(3) Papaver somniferum
180. Which of the following is not true for
(4) Datura
meiosis
176. A cell, which is very active in the synthesis (1) Production of genetic variability
and secretion of proteins would be (2) Maintaining constancy of chromosome
expected to have: number during sexual reproduction
(1) Equal amount of RER and SER. (3) Reduction of chromosome number to
one half
(2) More SER than RER.
(4) Production of diploid cell
(3) More RER than SER.
(4) More golgi bodies and no ER.

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-4 24

 = − − − − − + −
 − + −
= =

+
= =
+
 

= = −  = + =
=
 +

 
   


=   
 
+ =( + )

=  =
−

= = =

−
= 
−


 =  + 

=

 = = =


=


 = =

 =  +  = + =

 = 


= = =

= −

= −

= −

− =  =  =

= =
 

= = 
 


−

 NEET (Pre-Medical) Unacademy Major Test Series
Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3

Time: 3 Hours Test Date: 20 April 2025 Maximum Marks: 720

Name of Candidate (In Capitals):________________________________________________________________

Roll Number (In figures):______________________________In words:_________________________________
Test Centre (In Capitals):_______________________________________________________________________
Candidate’s Signature:__________________________Invigilator’s Signature:____________________________
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions:
1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ballpoint
pen only.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration and the Test Booklet contains 180 multiple-choice questions
(four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany & Zoology).
45-45 questions in Physics & Chemistry and 90 questions in Biology, subject are divided as per details
given below:
(1) Part A – Physics shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 1 to 45). All questions are compulsory.
(2) Part B- Chemistry shall consist of 45 (Forty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 46 to 90). All questions are compulsory.
(3) Part C- Biology (Botany & Zoology Combined) shall consist of 90 (Ninety) Questions in each
subject (Questions Nos- 91 to 180). All questions are compulsory.
3. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
4. Use Blue/Black Ball point Pen only for writing particulars on these page/marking responses on the
Answer Sheet. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet.
5. The candidate should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on
the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test
Booklet/Answer Sheet.
6. Use of white fluid for correction is NOT permissible on the Answer Sheet.
7. Each candidate must show on-demand his/her Admit card to the Invigilator.
8. No candidate, without special permission of the centre Superintendent or Invigilator, would leave
his/her seat.
9. The candidate should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
invigilator on duty and sign (with time) the Attendance Sheet twice. Cases, where a candidate has not
signed the Attendance Sheet second time, will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet
and dealt with as an Unfair Means case.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the examination with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Room/Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per the Rules
and Regulation of this examination.
12. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet shall be detached under any circumstances.
13. The candidate will write the Correct Test Booklet Code as given in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet in
the Attendance Sheet.

(English)
 TEST SYLLABUS

Unacademy Major Test Series

Course: 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3

20 April 2025

Physics - Full Syllabus

Chemistry - Full Syllabus

Biology - Full Syllabus

=  +
     
  +  + 
     

     
  −  −  + 
     

       
−  −  − 
      

     
 + − 
     

+ −
−
+ +

 

 
 
 + −


+ + 

+ − − + −

− + − + +


+

 = 

 
 



 PART-B: CHEMISTRY 49. Total number of σ & π bonds in 3-methyl

pent-4-enenitrile
46. The element that does not belong to the
(1) 15, 3 (2) 16, 3
same period of the remaining elements
(3) 15, 1 (4) 16, 1
(modern periodic table) is:

(1) Palladium (2) Iridium

50. Which of the following is an example of
(3) Osmium (4) Platinum
non-benzenoid aromatic compound.

47. Match List-I with List-II.

(1) (2)

List-I List-II NH2

(A) Al3+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < F– (I) Ionisation O

Enthalpy (3) (4)

(B) B < C < O < N (II) Metallic character

(C) B < Al < Mg < K (III) Electronegativity

(D) Si < P < S < Cl (IV) Ionic radii 51. Which of the following set of groups is

activating group.
Choose the correct answer from the
+
(1) –CH3, NH3 , –Cl
options given below:

(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (2) –Cl, –NH2, –OCH3

(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) –Cl, –OH, –NH–COCH3

(3) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (4) –NHCOCH3, –C2H5, –OCH3
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

52. A solution is prepared by adding 2g of a

48. According to molecular orbital theory, the
substance A to 18 g of water. Calculate
species among the following that does
mass percent of water ?
not exist is:
(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 80 (4) 90
(1) He2− (2) He2+ (3) O22− (4) Be2

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 8

53. A gaseous hydrocarbon on complete 57. The most powerful reducing agent is:
combustion produces equal volume of (1) H3PO3 (2) H3PO4
CO2(g) and H2O(g) under identical (3) H4P2O7 (4) H4P2O6
conditions. Empirical formula of the
hydrocarbon is-
58. Which will undergo deprotonation most
(1) CH (2) CH2
(3) CH3 (4) CH4 readily in basic medium.
O
(1)
54. Select the correct statement
(1) Rate of zero-order reaction decrease O O
linearly as reaction occurs.
(2)
(2) Rate of first-order reaction is OCH3

independent of concentration of O O
(3)
reactant.
(3) For first order reaction, t1/2 ∝ [A]o O O
(4) For zero order reaction, t1/2 ∝ [A]o
(4) H3CO OCH3
55. The number of molecules/ions that show
linear geometry among the following is:
59. Statement I : In alcohol (R–O–H) bond
SO2, BeCl2, CO2, N3− , NO2, F2O, XeF2, NO2+ , I3− ,
cleavage of O & H takes place on reacting
O3
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 3 with acetyl chloride.

Statement II : Alcohol can act as both

56. Assertion A : Dipole-dipole interactions
nucleophile and base.
are the only non-covalent interactions,
resulting in hydrogen bond formation. (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Reason R : Fluorine is the most correct.
electronegative element and hydrogen
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
bonds in HF are symmetrical.
(1) A is false but R is true. incorrect.

(2) Both A and R are true and R is the (3) Statement I is correct but Statement
correct explanation of A.
II is incorrect.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
(4) Both A and R are true and R is not the
correct explanation of A. Statement II is correct.

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 9

60. The kjeldahl's method of nitrogen 64. Statement-I : Noble gases have very high
estimation fails for which of the following boiling points.
reaction products ? Statement-II: Noble gases are
NO2
monoatomic gases. They are held
(1) H2/Pd
together by strong dispersion forces.

Because of this they are liquefied at very

CN
LiAlH4
(2) low temperature. Hence, they have very

high boiling points.

HNO3 +
(3) H2SO4 In the light of the above statements.
LiAlH4 choose the correct answer from the
(4) CH3–CONH2

options given below:

61. Which of the following option is incorrect (1) Statement I is false but Statement II
for electron present in 3p-orbital ? is true.
(1) n = 3 (2) l = 1 (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) m = +1 (4) m = +2
true.

(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is

62. Dissociation constants for two weak acids
false.
HA and HB are 10–3 M and 10–5 M. then :-
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(1) HA is weaker acid than HB
(2) AΘ is stronger base than BΘ false.

(3) BΘ is stronger base than AΘ

(4) Acidic strength of HA and HB is equal. 65. Which of the following complex is

diamagnetic ?
63. A sample of HI(g) is placed in a flask at 2 (1) [CoF6]3– (2) [Co(C2O4)3]3–
atm. At equilibrium, partial pressure of
(3) [Fe(CN)6]3– (4) [MnCl6]3–
HI(g) is 0.4 atm. Calculate KP for the
reaction :-
66. Which ligand is stronger field ligand than
2HI(g)  H2(g) + I2(g)
H2O but weaker than EDTA4–?
(1) 1.6 (2) 4
(1) NCS– (2) NH3
(3) 1 (4) None
(3) en (4) C2O42–

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 10

67. Decreasing order of reactivity towards (3)
electrophilic substitution for the
following compound is:- O
COOCH3
Cl C COOK
A= CH3 , B = ,C=
(a) (b)
OCH3
NH3 CCl3

(c) (d) (4)

NO2 NO2 NO2

(e)
NO2
A= ,B= ,C=
(1) c > a > b > d > e
COCH3 COOK COOCH3
(2) c > b > a > d > e
(3) b > c > d > a > e
(4) a > b > c > d > e

68. Identify correct A, B and C in the reaction

69. During halogen test, sodium fusion
sequence given below.
extract is boiled with concentrated HNO3
NO2 O
CH3–C–Cl KMnO4/KOH
+ A B to:
AlCl3 ∆
CH3–Cl

(1) Remove unreacted sodium.

B

(2) Decompose cyanide or sulphide of

(1)

NO2 NO2 NO2 sodium.

A= ,B= ,C=
COCH3 COOK COOCH3 (3) Extract halogen form organic

(2) compound.
O
COCH3 COOK O–C–CH3 (4) Maintain the pH of extract.
A= ,B= ,C=

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 11

70. Acid A and base B are Titrated. Match the 73. An aqueous pink solution of cobalt(II)
pH of solution at equivalence point in chloride changes to deep blue on addition
column II for different A and B given in
of excess of HCl. This is because ___.
column I.
(a) [Co(H2O)6]2+ is transformed into
Column I Column II [CoCl6] 4–

(i) A→HCl (p) pH > 7

(b) [Co(H2O)6]2+ is transformed into
B→NaOH
[CoCl4] 2–
(ii) A→CH3COOH (q) pH < 7
B→NaOH (c) Tetrahedral complexes have smaller
(iii) A→HCN (r) pH = 7 crystal field splitting than octahedral
B→KOH complexes.
(iv) A→H2SO4 (s) Data (d) Tetrahedral complexes have larger
B→NH4OH Insufficient
crystal field splitting than octahedral
(1) (i)-r ; (ii)-p ; (iii)-s ; (iv)-q
(2) (i)-r ; (ii)-q ; (iii)-q ; (iv)-p complex.
(3) (i)-r ; (ii)-p ; (iii)-p ; (iv)-q (1) Only b
(4) None of these (2) Only b & c
(3) Only b & d
71. Solubility of a salt AB2 (Mw = 50 g. mol–1)
(4) Only a & c
is 5 × 10–4 g.L–1. Calculate [B–] in saturated
solution of AB2 ?
(1) 1 × 10–5 M 74. Which of the following statements are
(2) 2 × 10–5 M correct?
(3) 4 × 10–15 M Statement 1: Mn3+ and Co3+ ions are the
(4) 5 × 10–5 M
strongest oxidizing agents in aqueous
solutions.
72. Consider the given reaction sequence :-
Statement 2: Ti2+, V2+ and Cr2+ are strong
reducing agents and will liberate
A B
hydrogen from a dilute acid.
Statement 3: In 3d series, beyond Mn no
C D
metal has a trihalide except FeX3, and
Select the correction option :- CoF3.
(1) ∆H = ∆H + ∆H + ∆H
° ° ° ° (1) Only 2 & 3
1 2 3 4

(2) Only 1 & 3

(2) ∆H°1 = ∆H2° + ∆H3° – ∆H°4
(3) Only 1 & 2
(3) ∆H°1 =∆H2° – ∆H3° – ∆H°4 (4) All statements are correct
(4) ∆H = –∆H + ∆H – ∆H
°
1
°
2
°
3
°
4

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 12

75. KMnO4 acts as an oxidising agent in 77. Which of the following is not a correct

alkaline medium. When alkaline KMnO4 is method of the preparation of benzylamine

form cyanobenzane ?
treated with Kl, iodide ion is oxidised
(1) LiAlH4
to_________. (2) Sn + HCl

(1) I2 (2) IO– (3) (I) SnCl2 + HCl (II) H3O+

(4) H2/Ni
(3) IO3− (4) IO4−

78. The final major product of the following

reaction is:-
76. The major product obtained in the
CH3 (I) NaNO2 + HCl
following reaction is:- at 5°C
O OH (II) HBF4
(III) NaNO2/Cu
LiAlH2 NH2 heat

CH3 (excess) CH3 NO2

NO2 O (1) (2)

OH F CH3
CH3
F
(1) (3) (4)
CH3
NO2 F
NH2 OH

OH 79. At 298 K, for rusting of iron-

4Fe(s) + 3O2(g) → 2Fe2O3(s)
(2) CH3 Correct option is-

NH2 OH (1) ∆Ssys > O

(2) ∆H > O
OH (3) ∆Stotal > O
(4) ∆G > O
(3) CH3
NO2 OH 80. Which of the following is a non-metal
displacement redox reaction ?
O OH ∆
(1) Cr2O3 + 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Cr
(2) 2Na + 2H2O 
→ 2NaOH + H2
(4) CH3
(3) 2H2O + 2F2 
→ 4HF + O2
NH2 OH (4) (2) and (3) both

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 13

81. 1F charge is passed through aqueous 83. Aqueous solution of AlCl₃, on treatment

solution of AgNO3. The number of g-atoms with sodium hydroxide, gives a white

of Ag deposited at cathode are- gelatinous precipitate X which is soluble

(1) 108 (2) 1 in excess of sodium hydroxide to form Y.

(3) 54 (4) 0.5 X and Y respectively are:

(1) Al₂O₃ and Al(OH)₃

82. Match the compounds/elements given in (2) Al₂O₃ and NaAlO₂

Column I with uses given in Column II. (3) Al(OH)₃ and Al₂O₃

Column I Column II (4) Al(OH)₃ and NaAlO₂

(Compound/ element) (Use)

(i) Lanthanoid oxide (a) Production of Iron 84. Which of the following statements is/are

alloy correct for the test of I⁻ ions?

(ii) Lanthanoid (b) Television screen (a) Addition of MnO₂ to the iodide salt

(iii) Misch metal (c) Petroleum cracking intensifies the evolution of violet

(iv) Magnesium (d) Lanthanoid metal vapours.

based alloy is + iron (b) Iodine vapours turn starch paper blue.

constituent of (c) Acidified sodium carbonate extract of

(v) Mixed oxides of (e) Bullets iodide salt forms yellow precipitate

lanthanoids are (f) In X-ray screen with AgNO₃.

employed Options:

(1) a only

(1) (i)→(c), (ii)→(d), (iii)→(b), (iv)→(e), (v)→(a) (2) b and c only

(2) (i)→(b), (ii)→(a), (iii)→(d), (iv)→(e), (v)→(c) (3) a, b and c

(3) (i)→(d), (ii)→(a), (iii)→(b), (iv)→(e), (v)→(f) (4) only a and c

(4) (i)→(b), (ii)→(d), (iii)→(a), (iv)→(e), (v)→(c)

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 14

85. The incorrect statement among the (1) KCN
(2) H3O+/heat
87. CH2–Cl P,
following is : (3) NaOH+CaO

(1) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are P is:

CH3
anomers.
(1) (2)
(2) The penta acetate of glucose does not

react with hydroxyl amine. CH2–OH CH2–CH3

(3) Cellulose is a straight chain (3) (4)

polysaccharide made up of only β-D-

glucose units. 88. Molar concentration of reactant in

(4) α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are reaction A→B decreases by 80% in 40
minutes. Rate constant of the reaction is
enantiomers.
0.1 M min–1. Calculate initial concentration
of reactant ?
(1) 5 M (2) 20 M
86. Incorrect statement is:- (3) 10 M (4) 0.5 M

(1) Picric acid formed in poor yield when

89. Two equimolal aqueous solutions A and B
phenol is treated with conc. HNO3 contains solute X and Y respectively. If

(2) Phenol-2,4-disulphonic acid is treated solution A boils at higher temperature

than solution B at same pressure then
with conc. HNO3 to get picric acid with
correct relation between vant-Haff
good yield. factor(i) of X and Y is :-
(1) ix > 1 and iy < 1
(3) o-nitrophenol formed as major
(2) ix > 1 and iy = 1
product when phenol is treated with (3) ix = 1 and iy < 1
(4) All of the above are possible
dil. HNO3

(4) o-nitrophenol & p-nitrophenol can be 90. At 298 K, which of the following
aqueous solution has maximum molar
separated by steam distillation
conductivity?
because both are steam volatile. (1) 0.1 M HCl (2) 0.1 M NaCl
(3) 0.01 M HCl (4) 0.01 M KCl

Space for Rough Work

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 15

 PART-C: BIOLOGY 97. In nucleotide, the bond between the
phosphate and hydroxyl group of sugar is:
91. Pollen grains of rice and wheat lose their (1) Phosphodiester bond
viability in _____ minutes of their release: (2) Phosphoester bond
(1) 30 (2) 10 (3) 60 (4) 90 (3) Glycosidic bond
(4) Peptide bond
92. The pathway of respiration common in all
living organisms is __X__ ; Identify X in the 98. Which enzyme is not matched correctly
above paragraph and select the correct with its function :
answer. Column-A Column-B
(1) Glycolysis
(1) Taq polymerase Polymerisation of
(2) ETS
dNTPs
(3) Krebs' cycle
(2) Chitinase Obtaining DNA by
(4) Oxidative decarboxylation
lysis of bacterial cell
(3) Exonucleases Remove nucleotides
93. Identify the A and B in the given reaction
from the ends of DNA
and select the correct option.
(4) DNA ligase Joining of DNA
fragments

99. Which of the following shows the best

A B example of mutualism?
(1) Ethanol, Acetaldehyde (1) Fig and Blastophaga wasp
(2) Ethanol, Formaldehyde (2) Ophrys and bees
(3) Acetaldehyde, Ethanol (3) Acacia and ants
(4) Pyruvate Alcohol (4) Orchid and Mango
dehydrogenase decarboxylase
100. Assertion: If lactose is present in
94. Which of the following factors effects
surrounding medium an enzyme called
photosynthesis -
beta-galactosidase is synthesised by E.
(1) number, size, age and orientation of
coli, it is used to catalyse the hydrolysis
leaves
of lactose.
(2) mesophyll cells and chloroplasts
Reason: It is the metabolic, physiological or
(3) internal CO2 concentration and
environmental conditions that regulate the
amount of chlorophyll
expression of genes.
(4) All of these
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the
95. Which of the following is correct option : correct explanation of A.
(1) Auxin help to initiate rooting in stem (2) Both A and R are true but R is not the
cutting correct explanation of A.
(2) ABA promotes seeds germination (3) A is true but R is false.
(3) Ethylene promoted root hair (4) Both A and R are false.
formation
(4) Both (1) and (3) 101. Two linked genes show :
(1) 100% recombination
96. ABA acts antagonistic to : (2) > 50% recombination
(1) Ethylene (3) 50% recombination
(2) Cytokinin (4) < 50% recombination
(3) Gibberellic acid
(4) IAA

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 16

102. The last chromosome sequenced in 107. 6-furfuryl amino purine, 2, 4-dichlorophenoxy
Human Genome Project was : acetic acid and indole-3 acetic acid are
(1) Chromosome 6 examples respectively for :-
(1) Synthetic auxin, kinetin and natural
(2) Chromosome 1
auxin.
(3) Chromosome 22
(2) Gibberellin, natural auxin and kinetin.
(4) Chromosome 14
(3) Natural auxin, kinetin and synthetic
auxin.
103. India has only 2.4% of the world's land (4) Kinetin, synthetic auxin and natural
area but its share of the global species auxin.
diversity is -
(1) 1.8% (2) 3.1% (3) 5.1% (4) 8.1% 108. Which of the following statements is not
correct?
(1) Pyramid of biomass in forest is inverted.
104. Given below are two statements.
(2) Pyramid of numbers in ocean is upright.
Statement I : Eastern ghats have a greater
(3) Pyramid of energy is always upright.
amphibian species diversity than Western (4) Pyramid of biomass in sea is inverted.
ghats.
Statement II : More than 70 per cent of all 109. The main plant body of Bryophytes are
the species recorded are animals, while called as _____and their ploidy is _______
plants comprise not more than 22% of respectively –
total. (1) Sporophyte, Diploid
(2) Gametophyte, Haploid
In the light of the above statement,
(3) Gametophyte, Diploid
choose the correct answer from the
(4) Sporophyte, Haploid
options given below.
(1) Statement I is incorrect, but 110. Constantly dividing cell both at root apex
statement II is correct. and shoot apex is represent the ...... :-
(2) Both statement I and statement II are (1) Meristematic phase of growth
correct. (2) Elongation phase of growth
(3) Both statement I and statement II are (3) Maturation phase of growth
(4) All of these
incorrect.
(4) Statement I is correct, but statement
111. When xylem and phloem within a vascular
II is incorrect.
bundle are arranged in an alternate
manner on different radii, the
105. In algae reproduction by fragmentation arrangement is called ____ and present
and different types spore is a : in_______
(1) Asexual reproduction (1) Conjoint, Stem
(2) Vegetative reproduction (2) Radial, Roots
(3) Sexual reproduction (3) Radial, Leaf
(4) Conjoint, Roots
(4) (1) and (2) Both

112. What percentage of sperms in a normal

106. The sequential stages of Calvin cycle are: human male contain Y-chromosome?
(1) Carboxylation, Reduction and Regeneration (1) 0% (2) 25% (3) 50% (4) 100%
(2) Carboxylation, Regeneration and Reduction
(3) Reduction, Carboxylation and Regeneration 113. A good producer of citric acid is:
(4) Regeneration, Reduction and Carboxylation (1) Saccharomyces (2) Aspergillus
(3) Pseudomonas (4) Clostridium

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 17

114. In member of Phaeophyceae their 120. Match the following Column-I with Column-
gametes and zoospore are respectively II and choose the correct option.
which shapes? Column–I Column–II
(1) Pear, needle a. Compositae (i)
Ep  ( ) ( ) ( )

(2) Needle, pear

(3) Pear, pear b. Gramineae (ii)  + ( + ) ( )

(4) Spherical, pear c. Malvaceae (iii)

(lod le)

115. Agar a type of chemical are obtained from d. Cruciferae (iv)

r papp s or ( ) ( )

which algae and their uses respectively?

(1) Gelidium, For grow microbes a b c d
(2) Gracilaria, Preparation of ice-cream (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) Gelidium, preparation of jellies
(3) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(4) All of these
(4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

116. Mutation can result in:–

121. Assertion (A): RNA is not the predominant
(1) Loss of phenotype genetic material.
(2) Gain of phenotype Reason (R): RNA being unstable, mutates
(3) No effect on phenotype at faster rate.
(4) All of the above (1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
the correct explanation of the (A).
117. Which of the following is commonly used (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
as a vector for introducing a DNA not the correct explanation of the (A).
fragment in human lymphocytes? (3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(1) disarmed Retrovirus
(2) Ti plasmid
122. Given below are four statements pertaining
(3)  phage
to separation of DNA fragments using gel
(4) pBR 322
electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect
statement.
118. In the given expression, Nt+1 = Nt + [(B + I} - (1) DNA is negatively charged molecule
(D + E)], the alphabet ‘N” stands for :- and so it is loaded on gel towards the
(1) Natality cathode terminal
(2) Mortality (2) DNA fragments travel along the
(3) Density surface of the gel whose
(4) Number of individual concentration does not affect
movement of DNA.
(3) Smaller the size of DNA fragment
119. In a terrestrial ecosystem, the major
larger is the distance it travels
producers are :-
through it.
(1) Phytoplanktons
(4) Pure DNA can not be visualized
(2) Zooplanktons
directly by exposing UV radiation.
(3) Woody plants 123. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was
(4) Fishes proposed by :
(1) Sutton and Boveri
(2) Thomas Hunt Morgan
(3) Watson and Crick
(4) Meselson and Stahl

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 18

124. In Oogamous type of sexual reproduction, 130. In Calvin cycle, what is the correct sequence
which statements are correct regarding of substances :-
to male and female gametes: (1) A ketose sugar, 3-phosphoglycerate,
(a) male gamete is small and motile. Triose phosphate
(b) male gamete is large and motile. (2) 3-C organic acid, A ketose sugar,
(c) female gamete is small and non motile. Triose phosphate
(d) female gamete is large and non-motile. (3) Triose phosphate, 3-C organic acid, A
(1) both (a) and (c) ketose sugar
(2) both (a) and (d) (4) Ribose 1, 3 biphosphate, 3-phosphoglycerate,
(3) both (b) and (c) triose phosphate
(4) both (b) and (d)
131. Sickel Cell Anaemia is a :
125. Filiform apparatus present at the micropylar (1) Qualitative disorder
part of the synergids functions as: (2) Autosomal Recessive disorder
(1) Guiding agent for entry of pollen tube (3) Show pleiotropism
(2) Guiding agent for entry of polar nuclei (4) All of these
(3) Function as fertilizing agent
(4) Both (2) and (3) 132. Match the following:
A PCR I Used in tracing
126. Which one of the following is not included human history
in glycolysis: B Minisatellite II To detect HIV
C Microsatellite III Gene mapping
(1) Substrate level phosphorylation occurs
D SNPs IV DNA
(2) The end products are CO2 and H2O.
fingerprinting
(3) ATP is formed. (1) A–II; B–IV; C–III; D–I
(4) ATP is used. (2) A–III; B–II; C–I; D–IV
(3) A–I; B–IV; C–II; D–III
127. When the genomes of two people are cut (4) A–II; B–III; C–I; D–IV
using the same restriction enzyme, the
length and number of fragments obtained 133. Which statement is correct about PCR:
are different, this is called: (1) Amplify a selective piece of DNA
(1) PCR (2) RFLP (2) Detect Cancer
(3) EST (4)Northern blotting (3) Thermosensitive Taq Polymerase is
required
128. DNA polymorphism forms the basis of: (4) All of these
(1) Genetic mapping
(2) DNA finger printing 134. In a bioreactor, stirrer facilitates:
(3) Both (1) and (2) (1) Even mixing
(4) Translation (2) Availability of O2 throughout the
bioreactor
129. In the g ven express on “ — R = N ”, (3) Both (1) and (2)
the ‘R’ stands for :- (4) Control Temperature
(1) A part of the productivity utilized by
the plant for respiration. 135. Which of the following method of gene
(2) A part of the productivity utilized by transfer is common in plants and animals
the primary consumer for respiration. respectively:
(3) A part of the productivity utilized by (1) Biolistic gene gun and micro injection
the primary carnivore for respiration. (2) Electroporation and micro injection
(4) All the above listed are valid. (3) Chemical mediated and
Electroporation
(4) None of these
NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 19
136. Which of the following statement is 141. Which of the following is not a benefit of
incorrect : transgenic animals
(1) If the greater of BOD of waste water, (1) Investigation of new treatments for
more is its polluting potential. diseases
(2) Some heterotrophic microbes are (2) Early detection of diseases
used in sewage treatment. (3) Testing the safety of vaccines
(3) Activated sludge is digested in aerobic (4) To produce useful biological products
tank with an agitator system.
(4) Chemical fertilizers are extremely 142. According to Hugo deVries the variations
which cause evolution are ?
harmful for human beings.
(1) Small and directionless
(2) Large and directionless
137. Find out the incorrect match?
(3) Large and directional
A. CNS - made up of white matter and
(4) Small and directional
grey matter.
B. Axon - Afferent type
143. According to MTP (Amendment)act, 2017
C. Bipolar neuron - found in hydra
Medical termination of pregnancy is
D. Resting stage - K+ ions influx are
permissible fewer than what fetal age?
responsible.
(1) 24 Weeks
(1) A, B, D only (2) A, D only (2) 9 Weeks
(3) B, C, D only (4) C, D only (3) 18 Weeks
(4) 12 Weeks
138. Which of the following statements is/are
correct? 144. Assertion (A): The rate of synthesis and
I. A reduction in thrombocytes can lead secretion of thyroid hormones is
to clotting disorder. increased to abnormal high levels leading
II. A healthy adult man has on an to a condition called hyperthyroidism.
average, 5 millions of RBCs mm -3
of Reason (R): It occurs due to cancer of the
blood. thyroid gland or due to development of
III. Leucocytes are the most abundant of nodules of the thyroid glands.
all the cells in blood. In the light of the above statements,
(1) I and II (2) II and III choose the most appropriate answer from
(3) I and III (4) I, II and III the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is
139. ATPase is located in :- not the correct explanation of (A).
(1) Actinin (2) Troponin (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) Myosin (4) Actin
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
the correct explanation of (A).
140. AIDS and cancer are examples of
(1) Infectious disease
145. A stage implants in uterine B. Choose the
(2) Non-infection disease
option which correctly fill the A and B:
(3) AIDS infectious and cancer non
A B
infectious
(1) Morula Myometrium
(4) AIDS non-infectious and cancer
(2) Zygote Endometrium
infections
(3) Gastrula Myometrium
(4) Blastocyst Endometrium

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 20

146. Statement I: Terrestrial adaptation 151. Select the incorrect statement:
necessitated the production of lesser (1) Diaphragms are very popular method
toxic nitrogenous waste like urea & uric of contraception in India.
(2) Multiload-375 is Cu releasing IUD
acid for conservation of water
(3) Saheli is once a week pill
Statement II: Ammonia is the most toxic
(4) MTP is a type of induced abortion.
form and require large amount of water
for its elimination 152. Urea can be removed by artificial kidney
(1) Statement I is correct and process involved is
(2) Both statements are correct (1) Distillation
(3) Both statements are incorrect (2) Crystallisation
(4) Statement II is correct (3) Haemodialysis
(4) Endoscopy

147. Each 100 ml of deoxygenated blood

153. Match the List-I with List-II.
deliver ______ml of CO2 to the alveoli
List-I List-II
under normal physiological condition. A Superior I Carries
(1) 4 ml (2) 2 ml (3) 3 ml (4) 5 ml Vena Cava deoxygenated
blood to
lungs
148. The inorganic compounds like sulphate,
B Inferior Vena II Carries
phosphate, etc., are found in Cava oxygenated
(1) acid soluble pool blood from
(2) acid insoluble fraction lungs
(3) both acid soluble pool and acid C Pulmonary III Brings
Artery deoxygenated
insoluble fraction
blood from
(4) not found in cellular pool lower parts
of body to
149. Where is dense irregular connective tissue right atrium
commonly found in the human body? D Pulmonary IV Brings
Vein deoxygenated
(1) In tendons, connecting muscles to
blood from
bones. upper parts
(2) In ligaments, connecting bones to of body into
other bones. right atrium.
Choose the correct answer from the
(3) In the skin, providing resistance to
options given below.
stress.
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(4) In the muscles, providing cushioning (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
to joints. (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
150. Which of the following set of characters
is definitely found at some stage in the 154. Assertion (A) : Cartilaginous fishes have
life cycle of a chordate. to swim constantly to avoid sinking.
Reason (R): Due to the absence of Air
(1) Mammary gland, hairs, gill cleft.
bladder.
(2) Notochord, vertebral column, gill
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true and the (R) is
cleft. the correct explanation of the (A)
(3) Notochord, gill cleft, dorsal tubular (2) Both (A) & (R) are true but the (R) is
nervous system. not the correct explanation of the (A)
(4) Dorsal tubular nervous system, (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
vertebral column, scales. (4) Both (A) and (R) are false

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 21

155. Given below are two statements: one is 158. Which of the following statement is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is incorrect for innate immunity:
labelled as Reason R: (1) Act as barriers
Assertion A: Ground substance of (2) Can phagocytose pathogens
connective tissues is composed of irrespective of antigenic specificity
polypeptides and its derivatives. (3) Is characterized by memory
Reason R: Connective tissues perform the (4) Is present at the time of birth
function of linking and supporting other
tissues and organs of the body. 159. Bio-piracy means
In the light of the above statements, (1) Use of bio-patents
choose the correct answer from the (2) Thefts of plants and animals
options given below: (3) Stealing of bio-resources
(1) A is true but R is false. (4) Exploitation of bio-resources without
(2) A is false but R is true. authentic permission
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A. 160. Choose the statements which is/are
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct for diagram shown below.
correct explanation of A.

156. Which of the two groups of following

involved in peptide bond between
different amino acids?

N (i) Analogous organs are the example of

R convergent evolution.
(1) 2 and 3 (ii) Homology is based upon divergent
(2) 1 and 3 evolution
(3) 1 and 4 (iii) Homologous organs are not
(4) 2 and 4 anatomically similar
(iv) Analogous organ do not indicate
157. Match column-I with column-II and common ancestry
choose the correct option: (1) i, ii, iv (2) iii only
Column-I Column-II (3) ii only (4) iii, iv
a Hormones are i Colostrum
produced in 161. Which of the following functions are
women only performed by aldosterone?
during (i) Excretion of K+ and Phosphate ions.
pregnancy (ii) Glycogenolysis
b Foetal ejection ii hCG, hPL and (iii) Anti-inflammatory reactions
reflex relaxin (iv) Regulation of water and electrolyte
c Menopause iii Parturition balance
d Lactation iv Menstrual cycles (v) Stimulates reabsorption of Na+ and
ceases around water form renal tubules.
50 years of age (1) (i), (ii) and (iii)
in female (2) (i), (iv) and (v)
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (3) (iii) and (iv)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) (ii) and (v)
(3) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 22

162. Which gene isolated from Bacillus 165. The second maturation division of the
thuringiensis has been known to control mammalian ovum occurs :
the insect population of corn borer? (1) In the Graafian follicle following the
(1) HLA-gene first maturation division
(2) Cry I Ab-gene (2) Shortly after ovulation before the
ovum makes entry into the Fallopian
(3) Cry I Ac-gene
tube
(4) Cry II Ab-gene
(3) Until after the ovum has been
penetrated by a sperm
163. Match diseases in column-I with their (4) Until the nucleus of the sperm has
symptoms in column-II. Choose the fused with that of the ovum
correct option.
Column-I Column-II 166. Match correctly between Column I and
a Pneumonia i High fever, weakness, Column II.
stomach pain, loss of Column-I Column-II
appetite and (A) Collagen (I) Glucose
constipation transport
b Amoebiasis ii Nasal congestion and (B) Trypsin (II) Binding with some
chemical, like for
discharge, cough, sore
smell taste and
throat and headache hormones
c Common iii Difficulty in respiration, (C) Insulin (III) Hormones
cold fever, chills, cough, (D) Antibody (IV) Enzyme
headache and cyanosis (E) Receptor (V) Intercellular
in severe cases ground substance
d Typhoid iv Constipation, (F) GLUT-4 (VI) Fight infectious
agents
abdominal pain,
(1) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-VI, E-II, F-I
cramps and blood
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-V, E-VI, F-I
clots in stool
(3) A-VI, B-II, C-I, D-V, E-IV, F-III
(1) a→(i), b→(ii), c→(iii), d→(vi) (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-VI, E-II, F-V
(2) a→(iv), b→(iii), c→(ii), d→(i)
167. Pick the odd pair out -
(3) a→(iii), b→(iv), c→(ii), d→(i) (1) Radial symmetry - Echinodermata
(4) a→(ii), b→(i), c→(iv), d→(iii) (2) Segmentation present - Mollusca
(3) Pseudocoelomate - Aschelminthes
164. Read the following statements : (4) Cellular level – Porifera
(a) The first non-cellular forms of life
168. Given below are two statements:
could have originated 3mya. Statement I: The alimentary canal of frog
(b) first cellular form of life did not is short as frogs are carnivores.
possibly originate till about 2000 mya. Statement II: Cells, tissues, organs and
(c) Charles Drawin concluded that organ systems split up the work in a way
existing living forms share similarity to that exhibits division of labour and
varying degrees not only among contribute to the survival of the body as
themselves but also with life forms a whole.
that existed millions of years ago. In the light of the above statements,
(d) The fitness, according to Darwin choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
refers ultimately and only to
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are
reproductive fitness.
correct.
How many statements are correct
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement
II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct
NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 23
169. malignant malaria is caused by 173. In humans, at the end of the first meiotic
(1) Plasmodium vivax division, the male germ cells differentiate
(2) Plasmodium malaria
into the :
(3) Plasmodium falciparum
(1) Spermatids
(4) All of these
(2) Spermatogonia
170. How many animals in the list given below (3) Primary spermatocytes
are aquatic ? (4) Secondary spermatocytes
Scoliodon, Catla, Chameleon, Corvus,
Pinctada
174. Among the human ancestors the brain
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five size was more than 1000cc in
(1) Homo neanderthalensis
171. Match List-I with List-II w.r.t. cockroach. (2) Homo erectus
List-I List-II
(3) Ramapithecus
A Sclerite I Forewings
B Tegmina II 10th segment (4) Homo habilis
C Gizzard III Exoskeleton
plate
D Anal cerci IV Proventriculus 175. Statement I: Benign tumors are the a
Choose the correct answer from the mass of proliferating cells called
options given below:
neoplastic or tumor cells.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Statement II: Non-ionising radiation like
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II U.V. cause DNA damage leading to
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV neoplastic transformation.
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are
172. The figure given below shows the
incorrect
conversion of a substate into product by an
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement
enzyme. In which one of the four options
(A–D) the components of reaction labelled II is incorrect
as A, B, C and D are identified correctly? (3) Statement I is incorrect but
Statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and Statement II are
correct

176. Mesosomes are formed by the extensions

A B C D of plasma membrane into the cell.

(1) Potential Transition Activation Activation
Select the functions of mesosomes and
energy state energy energy
with without choose the correct answer.
enzyme enzyme
(2) Transition Potential Activation Activation (a) Respiration
state energy energy energy
without with (b) Protein and starch synthesis
enzyme enzyme
(3) Potential Transion Activation Activation (c) Cell wall formation
energy state energy energy
with without (d) DNA replication
enzyme enzyme
(4) Activation Tranistion Activation Potential
(1) (b) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
energy with state energy energy (3) (a), (c) and (d) (4) (b) and (c)
enzyme without
enzyme

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 24

177. Choose the correct statements from the 179. A somatic cell that has just completed
codes given below. the S-phase of its cell cycle, as compared
I. Schleiden studies were based on to gamete of the same species, has
different kinds of plant cells and (1) Same number of chromosomes but
tissues. twice the amount of DNA
II. An incomplete cell structure does not (2) Twice the number of chromosomes
ensure independent living. and four times the amount of DNA
III. Cells of plant tissues are often (3) Four time the number of
connected with one another through chromosomes and twice the amount
cytoplasmic bridges called of DNA
plasmodesmata. (4) Twice the number of chromosomes
IV. Human cheek cells do not possess a and twice the amount of DNA
cell wall.
Codes 180. Arrange the following events of meiosis in
(1) II and III correct sequence
(2) I and II (A) Crossing over
(3) I, III and IV (B) Synapsis
(4) I, II, III and IV (C) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(D) Disappearance of nucleolus
178. Porin protein in outer membrane are (1) (B), (A), (C), (D)
present in following: (2) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(1) E.R. and G.B. (3) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(2) Centrosome and E.R. (4) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(3) Mitochondria and Chloroplast
(4) Plastid and Lysosome

NEET (Pre-Medical) | 12th and Dropper Batch | Major Test-3 25