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P 2

Section - A (Physics) 06. P-V curve for change in the state of the gas from
A to B through 3 different paths, a, b and c are
01. A metal ball of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of shown. Match the options of the two columns :
36 km/h has a head-on collision with a stationary
ball of mass 3 kg. If after the collision, the two
balls move together, the loss in kinetic energy due
to collision is :
(1) 40 J
(2) 60 J
(3) 100 J
(4) 140 J Column – I Column - II
a. Change in internal energy i. a
02. Which one of the following gas molecule possesses
in paths a and b
the large translational kinetic energy :
b. In all the three paths, heat ii. c
(1) 2 moles of helium occupying 1 m3 at 300 K c. Heat absorbed / released iii. is absorbed
(2) 56 g of nitrogen at 107 Nm–2 at 300 K by gas is maximum in path by gas
d. Work done is minimum in iv. Equal
(3) 8 grams of oxygen at 8 atm at 300 K path
(4) 6 × 1026 molecules of argon occupying 40m3
at 900K (1) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
03. The focal length of a convex mirror is 20 cm its (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
radius of curvature will be (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(1) 10 cm (4) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii.
(2) 20 cm 07. In a progressive wave along X-direction, at a
particular location, the particle of the medium are
(3) 30 cm executing :
(4) 40 cm (1) oscillatory motion
04. The time dependence of physical quantity P is given (2) rectilinear motion
2
by P  P0 e t where is  constant and t is the (3) rotational motion
time. The constant  : (4) none of these
(1) is dimensionless 08. Consider the following two statements
(2) has dimension [ T – 2 ] Statement-I:
When a girl sitting on a swing stands up, the peri-
(3) has dimension [ T 2 ]
odic time of the swing will increase.
(4) has dimension of P. Statement-II:
05. The intensity of an electric field inside a capacitor In standing position of a girl, the length of the swing
is E. The work required to make a charge q, move will decrease.
in a closed rectangular circuit is :
(1) only statement I is correct
(2) only statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect
09. Electric field inside a copper wire length 10 meters,
resistance 2 ohm connected to a 10 volt battery
(1) 2(l  b)qE is
(1) 1 V/m
(2) 2IqE
(2) 0.5 V/m
(3) 2bqE (3) 10 V/m
(4) Zero (4) 5 V/m
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10. A body of mass 10 kg and velocity 10 m/s collides (1) 2 V

with a stationary body of mass 5 kg. After collision (2) 6 V
both bodies stick to each other, velocity of the
bodies after collision will be (3) 5 V
(4) 9 V
3
(1) m/s 15. When the rms voltages V L : V C : V R : : 1: 2 : 3. If
10
the rms voltage of the AC sources is 100 V, the VR
18 is close to:
(2) m/s
3 (1) 50 V
9 (2) 70 V
(3) m/s
20 (3) 90 V
20 (4) 200 V
(4) m/s
3 16. A uniform thin rope of length 12 m and mass 6 kg
11. The oscillating electric and magnetic field vectors hangs vertically from a rigid support and a block
of electromagnetic wave are oriented along of mass 2 kg is attached to its free end. A transverse
short wave-train of wavelength 6 cm is produced
(1) the same direction and in phase at the lower end of the rope. What is the wave-
(2) the same direction but have a phase difference length of the wavetrain ( in cm) when it reaches the
of 90° top of the rope
(3) mutually perpendicular directions and are in (1) 3
same phase
(2) 6
(4) mutually perpendicular directions but has a
(3) 12
phase difference of 90°
12. Consider the following statements and select the (4) 9
correct statements(s). 17. The ceiling of a hall is 40 m high. For maximum
I. Two satellites of equal masses orbiting the earth horizontal distance, the angle at which the ball may
at different heights have equal moments of inertia be thrown with a speed of 56 m/s without hitting
the ceiling of the hall is
II. If earth were to shrink suddenly, length of the
day will decrease (1) 25°
III. Centre of gravity cannot coincide with centre (2) 30°
of mass (3) 45°
(1) I only (4) 60°
(2) II only 18. A sonometer wire of density  and radius r is held
(3) I and II between two sharp edges at a distance l. The wire
(4) I,II, and III has a tension T. The frequency of pth overtone will
be
13. A stone is thrown with a velocity u making an angle
 with the horizontal. The horizontal distance ( p  1) T
covered by its fall to ground is maximum when the (1) n 
2l r 2
angle  is equal to
(1) 0° ( p  1) T
(2) n 
(2) 30° 2l r 2
(3) 45°
p T
(4) 90° (3) n 
2l r 2
14. The threshold frequency for a photosensitive metal
is 3.3 × 10 14 Hz . If light of frequency 8.2 × 10 14
1 T
Hz is incident on this metal, the cut-off voltage for (4) n 
2l r 2
the photoelectric emission is nearly
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19. A sample of gas expands from volume V1 to V2. 24. Pentavalent impurity is called
The amount of work done by the gas is greater,
(1) Acceptor
when the expansion is
(1) Adiabatic (2) Donor
(2) Equal in all cases (3) Acceptor-donor
(3) Isothermal (4) None of the above
(4) Isobaric 25. A cylindrical vessel of 92 cm height is kept filled
20. Light with an average flux of 20 W/cm2 falls on a upto the rim. It has four holes 1, 2, 3 and 4 which
semi reflecting surface (50% reflecting and 50% are respectively at heights of 20 cm, 30 cm, 46 cm
absorbing) at normal incidence having surface area and 80 cm from the horizontal floor. The water
20 cm2. The energy absorbed by the surface during falling at the maximum horizontal distance from the
time span of 1 minute is vessel comes from
(1) 24 × 10 3 J (1) Hole no.4
(2) 48 × 10 J 3
(2) Hole no.3
(3) 10 × 10 3 J
(3) Hole no.2
(4) 12 × 10 3 J
21. A ray of light passes through an equilateral glass (4) Hole no.1
prism. Such that the angle of incidence is equal to 26. Light of wavelength 2 falls on a metal having
angle of emergence which is 3/4 of the angle of
work function hc /  0 . Photoelectric effect can
prism. Find angle of deviation  of the ray
take place only if
(1) 0°
(2) 90° (1)    0
(3) 60°
(2)   2 0
(4) 30°
22. Determine the elongation of the steel bar 1m long 0
and 1.5 cm2 cross-sectional area when subjected (3)  
2
to a pull of 1.5 × 10 4 N
(Take Y = 2.0 × 1011 N/m2) (4) Both 1 and 2
(1) 0.5 mm 27. A spherical portion has been removed from a solid
(2) 10.5 mm sphere having Q charge distributed uniformly in its
volume as shown in figure. The electric field inside
(3) 0.1 mm the emptied space is
(4) 6.0 mm
23. A lens having focal length f and aperture of diameter
d forms a real image of intensity I. Aperture of
diameter d/2 in central region of lens is covered by
a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of
image now will be respectively
I
(1) 2 f ,
4

3f I
(2) ,
2 2
(1) Zero energy where
3I
(3) f , (2) Non-zero and uniform
4
(3) Non-uniform
f I
(4) , (4) Zero only at its centre
2 2
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28. Match the following 32. Diffraction effect can be observed in

(1) in sound waves
Column – I Column - II
A. Electric field outside a I. Constant (2) only light waves
conducting charged
sphere (3) only ultrasonic waves
B. Electric potential II. Directly proportional to
outside a conducting distance from the centre (4) both sound as well as light waves
charged sphere
C. Electric field inside a III. Inversely proportional 33. A lens of power 16 D is used as a simple micro-
non-conducting to distance from the
charged sphere centre
scope. In order to obtain maximum magnification,
D. Electric potential inside IV. Inversely proportional at what distance from the lens should a small ob-
Charged conducting to square of the ject be placed ?
sphere distance from the centre
(1) 5 cm
(1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III (2) 10 cm
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) 16 cm
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (4) 25 cm
29. In the circuit given in the following figure, 1 and 2 34. On moving a charge of 20 coulomb by 2 cm, 2 J
are ammeters. Now just after key k is pressed to of work is done, then the potential difference be-
complete the circuit, the readings are tween the points is
(1) 0.1 V
(2) 8 V
(3) 2 V
(4) 0.5 V
(1) Zero in both 1 and 2 35. STATEMENT - A : when 1 gram of ice at 0°C
(2) None zero in both 1 and 2 melts at one atmosphere pressure, change in inter-
(3) Zero in 1 non zero in 2 nal energy is greater than 80 cal.
(4) Non zero in 1 and zero in 2 STATEMENT- B : when 1 gram of water at
30. A long glass tube is held vertically in water. A tun- 100°C boils at one atmosphere pressure, change
ing fork is struck and held over the tube. Strong in internal energy is less than 540 cal.
resonances are observed at two successive lengths (1) Both statements are true
0.50 m and 0.84 m above the surface of water. If
the velocity of sound is 340 m/s, then the frequency (2) A is true but B is false
of the tuning fork is (3) A is false and B is true
(1) 250 Hz
(4) Both statements are false
(2) 125 Hz
(3) 500 Hz Section - B (Physics)
(4) 350 Hz 36. Two identical conducting balls A and B have
31. Which of the following is correct in YDSE ? positive charges q1 and q2 respectively but q1 
(1) If incident is white light, then central fringe is q2. The balls are brought together so that they touch
white while all other fringes are coloured each other and then kept in their original positions.
(2) Sustained interference pattern can also be The force between them is :
obtained by two incoherent sources of light (1) Less than that before the balls touched
 (2) Greater than that before the balls touched
(3) If initial phase difference between waves is ,
2
(3) Same as that before the balls touched
central line will be occupied by minima
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Zero.
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37. A particle undergoes simple harmonic motion 41. A particle is at X = 0 initially. The velocity of particle
having time period T. The time taken in 3/8th moving on x-axis varies as V  2 x . Then the
oscillation is time dependence of the velocity of the particle is
3 t2
(1) T (1)
8 2
5 (2) 2t
(2) T
8 t
(3)
2
5
(3) T
12 (4) 2t 2
7 42. A meter scale with a load 250 g at one end is
(4) T balanced at 20th cm from the sharp knife edge.
12
The weight of the scale is
38. When a moving charge enters a uniform magnetic
20 cm
field, then which among the following statements
may be wrong m

(1) Particle momentum may change but kinetic

energy remains constant 250 g
(2) When particle velocity is perpendicular to
magnetic field, the motion in plane perpendicular 1
(1) kg
to magnetic field is circular 3
(3) If velocity is perpendicular to magnetic field, 1
the magnetic force acts like a centripetal force (2) kg
6
(4) Some work is done by magnetic force when a
charge particle is moving in a magnetic field. 1
(3) kg
2
39. Two identical wires are made of materials having
specific conductivity 1 and 2 . The effective 1
(4) kg
4
conductivity of the combination formed by them
placed side by side is 43. A uniform rod AB of mass m and length L is free to
rotate about A. The rod is released from rest in
212 horizontal position. The initial angular acceleration
(1)    of the rod will be
1 2

1  2
(2)
2

12
(3)   
1 2

(4) 1  2
2g
40. The range of voltmeter of resistance 200  is (1)
3L
changed from 5V to 30V. It can be done by
connecting a series resistance of 3g
(2)
2L
(1) 1 K 
2g
(2) 0.5 K  (3)
5L
(3) 10 K 
3g
(4) 2.2 K  (4)
4L
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44. A particle having the charge q moves in a circular (1) 500 nm

path of radius R under the influence of a magnetic (2) 600 nm
field of B. If an electric field E perpendicular to (3) 400 nm
previous magnetic field B makes it to move in a
straight path, then the mass of the particle is (4) 300 nm
48. Two bodies A and B start moving on a circular
qBR track in opposite direction with speed  rad/s and
(1)
E  / 2 rad/s as shown in the diagram given below..
Radius of the circle is 20 cm, then the time taken
qB 2 R by them to collide will be (Initial angular separation
(2)
2E
 / 3 rad )
qBE
(3)
R

qB 2 R
(4)
E (1) 1 s
45. Column I contains the name of the logic gates and (2) 2 s
column II contains their Boolean expression (Char- (3) 0.5 s
acteristics equation). Match the column I with col- (4) 10/9 s
umn II and choose the correct option. (Symbols
49. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is
have their usual meanings)
accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as a
function of time t is given by
Column – I Column - II
A. AND P. Y AB
1 v 2
(1) 2 m t t
1
B. OR Q. Y AB
C. NOR R. Y  AB v 2
(2) m t t
1
D. NAND S. Y AB
2
1  mv  2
(3)  t
(1) A-R ; B-P ; C-S ; D-Q 2  t1 
(2) A-P ; B-Q ; C-R ; D-S
(3) A-R ; B-S ; C-P ; D-Q 1 v2 2
(4) 2 m 2 t
(4) A-Q ; B-P ; C-R ; D-S t1
46. A star which is acting like a black body has radius 50. Two conducting rods A and B of same length and
T. What would be the temperature of the star, in cross- sectional area are connected (i) In series
which the rate of energy production is equal to Q ? (ii). In parallel as shown. In both combination a
1/2
temperature difference of 100°C is maintained. If
(1) 
Q  thermal conductivity of A is 3K and that of B is K

 4R 2   then the ratio of heat current flowing in parallel
combination to that flowing in series combination
1/4 is
(2) 
Q 

 4R 2  

 
1/4
(3) Q 4R 2 

 
1/4
(4) Q 4 R 2 16 3
(1) (2)
3 16
47. If two slits in Young’s experiment are 0.4 mm apart
and fringe width on a screen 200 cm away is 2 1 1
mm, the wavelength of light illuminating the slits is (3) (4)
1 3
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Section - A (Chemistry) 56. A sudden large jump between the values of second
51. The hydrogen phosphate of a certain metal has and third ionization energies of an element would
formula MHPO4. The formula of metal chloride be associated with the electronic configuration.
would be (1) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2
(1) MCl (2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1
(2) M2Cl2 (3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2 3p1
(3) MCl2 (4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6, 3s2 3p2
(4) MCl3 57. Evaporation of water is
52. If the shortest wavelength of H-atom in Lyman (1) An exothermic change
series is x. Then longest wavelength in Balmer
series of He+ is (2) An endothermic change
(3) A process where no heat changes occur
9x
(1) (4) A process accompanied by chemical change
5
58. If K1 and K2 are respective equilibrium constants
36x for the two reactions:
(2)
5
XeF6 (g)  H 2 O(g)  XeOF4 (g)  2HF(g)
x
(3)
5 XeO4 (g)  XeF6 (g)  XeOF4 (g)  XeO3 F2 (g)
the equilibrium constant for the reaction,
5x
(4)
9 XeO4 (g)  2HF(g)  XeO3 F2 (g)  H 2 O(g)
53. The correct decreasing order for acid strengthis: will be
(1) NO2CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > K1
CNCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH (1) K 2
2

(2) FCH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > (2) K1.K2

NO2CH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
K1
(3) CNCH2COOH > NO2CH2COOH > (3) K
2
FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH
(4) NO2CH2COOH > CNCH2COOH > K2
(4) K
FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH 1

54.
i. DIBAL  H
R  CN 
ii. H 2 O
R  Y. Consider the above 59. The difference in energy between the actual
structure and the lowest energy resonance structure
reaction and identify “Y”. for the given compound is
(1) –CH2NH2 (1) Electromeric energy
(2) –CONH2 (2) Ionization energy
(3) –CHO (3) Hyperconjugation energy
(4) –COOH (4) Resonance energy
55. Which of the following has the most negative value 60. The technique used for purification of steam volatile
of electron gain enthalpy? water immiscible substances is:
(1) S (1) Fractional distillation
(2) Se (2) Fractional distillation under reduced pressure
(3) O (3) Simple Distillation
(4) Te (4) Steam distillation
 9 P

61. The bond angle in PH3 is close to 66. Given below are two statements one is labelled as
(1) 90o Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R).
(2) 105o
(3) 109o Assertion (A): Haloalkanes react with KCN to
(4) 120o form alkyl cyanides as a main product while with
AgCN form isocyanide as the main product.
62. Identify the correct order of decreasing bond
strength in the bonds formed by 2s-2s, 2p-2p, and Reason (R): KCN and AgCN both are highly
2s-2p overlapping. ionic compounds. In the light of the above
(1) 2s-2s > 2s-2p > 2p-2p statements, choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
(2) 2s-2s > 2p-2p > 2s-2p
(3) 2p-2p > 2s-2p > 2s-2s (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) 2p-2p > 2s-2s > 2s-2p (2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
63. When the rate of formation of reactants is equal to correct explanation of (A)
the rate of formation of products, this state is known (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
as,
(1) Chemical reaction (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(2) Chemical equilibrium correct explanation of (A)
(3) Chemical kinetics 67. The correct statement about orthoboric acid is
(4) None of these
(1) It is a strong monobasic acid
64. Oxidation is
(2) It is not a proton donor, but a weak Lewis acid
(1) Loss of electrons
(2) Addition of hydrogen (3) It is a tribasic acid
(3) Decrease in oxidation number (4) It is harmful for eyes
(4) All of these
68. The strongest bond is present in
65. Major product formed in the following reaction is
a mixture of (1) Br2

CH3 (2) I2
HI (3) Cl2
O – C – CH3 Major Product
(1eq.)
CH3 (4) F2
69. The oxidation state of nitrogen in N3H is
I
(1) –3
(1) and (CH3)3I
(2) +3

I (3) –1
(4) –1/3
(2) and (CH3)3COH
70. Saturated solution of KNO3 is used to make ‘salt
OH bridge’ because
(1) Velocity of K+ is greater than that of NO3 –
(3) and (CH3)3COH
(2) Velocity of NO3– is greater than that of K+
OH CH3 (3) Velocities of both K+ and NO 3– are nearly the
same
(4) and CH3–C–l
(4) KNO3 is sparingly soluble in water
CH3
 10
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71. Which of the following compound will most easily 73. In the dichromate anion
be attacked by an electrophile? (1) 4 Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(2) 6 Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(1) (3) all Cr–O bonds are equivalent
(4) all Cr–O bonds are non-equivalent
74. The effective atomic number of Cr (Z = 24) in
[Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is
(1) 35
(2)
(2) 27
(3) 33
(4) 36
75. The rate constant of a reaction is
(3) 2.3 × 10–2 mol–2 L2 min–1. The order of reaction is
(1) Zero
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) (4) 3
76. Statement I: A reagent that is entirely consumed
when a reaction goes to completion is known as
72. Which of the following would react most readily limiting reagent.
with nucleophiles?
Statement II: The amount of limiting reagent
present in a reaction limits the amount of product
formed.

(1) (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
77. Cannizzaro reaction is an example of
disproportionation reaction, i.e. self oxidation-
reduction. Which of the following will undergo
(2)
Cannizzaro reaction?
(1) Benzaldehyde
(2) Acetaldehyde
(3) Acetone
(4) Pentanone

(3) 78. Consider the following compounds.

hyperconjugation occurs in
(1) Only I (2) Only II
(4) (3) Only III (4) I and III
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79. Geometrical isomerism in coordination compounds Choose the correct answer from the options given
is exhibited by below
(1) Square planar and tetrahedral complexes (1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) Square planar and octahedral complexes (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(3) Tetrahedral and octahedral complexes (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(4) Square planar, tetrahedral and octahedral
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
complexes
80. Which of the following is incrrectly matched? 83. Which one of the following pairs of pyrimidine
bases are present in DNA?
(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3–blue
(1) Cytosine and uracil
(2) K2Fe[Fe(CN)6]–red
(2) Adenine and guanine
(3) Cu2[Fe(CN)6]–chocolate brown
(4) Fe3[Fe(CN)6]2–blue (3) Cytosine and adenine

81. Which of the following statements are not correct? (4) Cytosine and thymine
(A) The energy (E) of a photon of light is related 84. Phenolic group can be identified by a positive
to its wavelength in ( ) as (1) Neutral FeCl3 test
(2) Lucas test
(3) Tollen’s test
(4) Carbylamine test
85. The uncertainty in momentum of an electron is
(B) The correct order of frequency of 1 × 10–5 kg m/s. The uncertainty in its position will
electromagnetic radiation is X rays > Infrared > be
Radio waves. (h = 6.62 × 10–34 kg m2/s)
(C) If the electronic structure of oxygen atom is (1) 5.27 × 10–30 m
written as then it would (2) 1.05 × 10–36 m

violate Pauli’s exclusion principle. (3) 1.05 × 10–34 m

(D) The increasing order of increasing energy of (4) 5.25 × 10–38 m
subshells for multi-electron atom is 4f, 5d, 6s, 6p.
Section - B (Chemistry)
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
option given below 86. In an oven, using 10 kg coal (assume the coal is
80% carbon in weight), insufficient oxygen is
(1) A and D supplied such that 60% of carbon is converted to
(2) B and D CO2 and 40% carbon is converted to CO. The
(3) C and D only heat generated, when coal is burnt in this fashion
would be
(4) A, C and D
Given: C(s)  O 2(g)  CO 2(g) ; H  394 kJ
82. Match List I with List II.
List I List II 1
(Application) (Formula) C(s)  O 2(g)  CO (g) ; H  111 kJ
A. Calculation of heat Q 2
I. S  rev
transfer T (1) 183200 kJ
B. Second law of II. H  TS
thermodynamics (2) 187200 kJ
C. Gibbs free energy III. U  Q  W
(3) 185200 kJ
D. First law of IV. mCT
thermodynamics (4) 181200 kJ
 12
P

87. In the following reaction major product formed is 90. Assertion (A): Among chalcogens, tendency of
catenation is minimum for sulphur.
Reason (R): S–S bond dissociation energy is more
than O–O bond dissociation energy.
(1) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
(1)
(2) A is true but R is false
(3) A is false but R is true
(2) (4) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
91. Molality of 1 M NaNO3 solution (Density of
solution is 1.25 g mL –1 and mol. wt. of
(3) NaNO3 = 85 g mol–1) is
(1) 1.286 m
(2) 4.44 m
(4) (3) 0.858 m
(4) None of these
88. Which one of the following compounds is inactive 92. A mixture of NO2 and N2O4 has a vapour density
towards SN1 reaction? of 38.3 at 300 K. What is the number of moles of
NO2 in 100 g of the mixture?
CH3
(1) 0.43
(1) C Cl
(2) 4.4
CH3
CH3 (3) 3.4
Cl (4) 3.86
(2)
93. Match List I with List II.
List I (Reactions)
(3)
(A) CH3(CH2)5–C–OC2H5 CH3(CH2)5CHO
O
CH3 (B) C6H5COC6H5  C6H5CH2C6H5
C Cl (C) C6H5CHO  C6H5CH(OH)CH3
(4)
(D) CH3COCH2COOC2H5 
H
CH3CH(OH)CH2COOC2H5
89. Match List I with List II
List I List II List II (Reagents)
(Molecule) (Bond order) (I) CH3MgBr, H2O
A. N 22  I. 1.33
(II) Zn(Hg) and conc. HCl
B. Be2 II. 3
(III) NaBH4, H+
C. CO III. 2
(IV) DIBAL–H, H2O
D. NO3 IV. 0.5
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
below
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(1) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
 13 P

94. In the given reactions identify A and B 98. For gaseous reactions, the rate is often expressed
in terms of dP/dt instead of dC/dt or dn/dt (where
C is concentration and n is the number of mole).
What is the relation among these three expressions?

dC 1  dn  1  dP 
(1)     
dt V  dt  RT  dt 
(1) A: n-Pentane B: Cis-2-butene
dC  dn   dP 
(2) A: 2-Pentyne B: Cis-2-butene (2)   
dt  dt   dt 
(3) A: n-Pentane B: trans-2-butene
(4) A: 2-Pentyne B: trans-2-butene dC  dn  1  dP 
(3)    
dt  dt  RT  dt 
95. When SO2 is passed through acidified K2Cr2O7
solution
dC V  dn 
(4)   
(1) The solution turns blue dt RT  dt 
(2) The solution is decolourised 99. Which of the following compounds will give a
(3) SO2 is reduced yellow precipitate with iodine and alkali?

(4) Green Cr2(SO4)3 is formed I. 2-hydroxypropane

96. Which of the following statements are correct? II. Acetophenone

A. [Ni(Cl 4)]2– is an inner orbital complex. III. Acetamide

B. [Mn(CN)6]4– is an outer orbital complex. IV. Methyl acetate

C. The complex [Co(NH3)6]3+, is a low spin or V. Benzyl alcohol

spin paired complex.
Choose the correct option.
D. The complex [CoF6] uses outer orbital in
3–
(1) I and IV
hybridisation.
(2) II and V
E. Inner orbital complex have less number of
unpaired electrons. (3) I and II
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (4) IV and V
options given below
100. The decreasing order of stability of following cation
(1) A, C and D only is
(2) D and E only
(3) A, B and C only
(4) C, D and E only
97. The reference calomel electrode is made from
which of the following?
(1) ZnCl2 (1) P > Q > R > S

(2) CuSO4 (2) R > P > Q> S

(3) Hg2Cl2 (3) S > R > Q > P

(4) HgCl2 (4) S > Q > P > R

P 14

Section - A (Biology : Botany) 108. Ribbon like pollen grains are released in the water
and spread passively for pollination upto stigma
101. Common characteristic feature between in
bryophytes and pteridophytes is (1) Vallisneria
(1) Vascular sporophyte and nonvascular (2) Hydrilla
gametophyte (3) Zostera
(2) Gametophyte dependent on sporophyte (4) Both 1 and 3
(3) Sporophyte dependent on gametophyte 109. Assertion: Mycoplasma is pathogenic both to
(4) Multicellular sex organs with sterile jacket. animals and plants
102. China rose, Lady’s finger and Cotton having twisted Reason: These organisms lack cell wall and can
aestivation in their corolla belongs to family survive without oxygen
________ (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
(1) Fabaceae reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Asteraceae (2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
(3) Malvaceae reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(4) Poaceae
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
103. What is the first member of TCA cycle?
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(1) Acetyl CoA
110. Among rust, smut and mushroom all the three
(2) Citric acid are
(3) Isocitric acid (1) Pathogen
(4) OAA (2) Saprobes
104. The interphase nucleus (nucleus of cell when it (3) Bear ascocarp
is not dividing) has highly extended and (4) Basidiomycetes
elaborate nucleoprotein fibres called :-
111. Mature eukaryotic m-RNA is recognized by
(1) Chromatin (2) Nuclear matrix
(1) Shine dalgarno sequence at 5’ end
(3) Chromosomes (4) Nucleoli (2) 7-methyl guanosine at 3’ end and
105. Axillary buds are modified for support in plants polyadenine bases at 5’ end
having weak stem is found in ________ (3) 7-methyl guanosine at 5’ end and
(1) Banyan tree (2) Maize polyadenine bases at 3’ end
(4) Presence of coding and non-coding
(3) Pea (4) Gourds
sequence
106. The following are live components of phloem
112. In a segment of DNA 3.2 kilobases are present.
except If DNA segment has 820 adenine molecules,
(1) Sieve tube then what will be number of cytosine ?
(2) Companion cell (1) 1560

(3) Phloem parenchyma (2) 1480

(3) 780
(4) Phloem fibre (bast fibre)
(4) 740
107. Assume that there are 6 types of nitrogen bases
113. The effect of apical dominance can be overcome
available and 40 types of amino acid are
by which of the following hormone
available for protein synthesis, then in genetic
code each codon made up by minimum how (1) IAA
many nitrogen bases ? (2) Ethylene
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) Gibberellin
(3) 5 (4) 2 (4) Cytokinin
 15 P
114. Assertion: Gymnosperms lack fruit formation. 120. A geneticist isolated a gene for a specific trait
under study. She also isolates the corresponding
Reason: Gymnosperms lack ovary formation.
mRNA. Upon comparison, the mRNA is found
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the to contain 1,000 fewer bases than the DNA
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. sequence. Did the geneticist isolate the wrong
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the DNA?
reason is not the correct explanation of the (1) Yes, mRNA is made from a DNA template
assertion. and should be the same length as the gene
(3) Asertion is true but reason is false. sequence
(2) Yes, the mRNA should contain more bases
(4) Both assertion and reason are false
than the DNA sequence because bases flanking
statements.
the gene are also transcribed
115. A food chain begins with:
(3) No, the final mRNA contains only exons,
(1) Nitrogen fixation the introns were removed
(2) Carbohydrate metabolism (4) No, the mRNA was partially degraded after
(3) Carbon dioxide fixation it was transcribed
(4) Decomposition of dead substances. 121. Which is incorrect statement
(1) α Thalassemia is controlled by two closely
116. The prokaryotic cells may vary greatly in shape
linked genes HBA1 and HBA2 on chromosome
and size, and shows four basics shapes of
11
bacteria, select the odd one with respect to
same- (2) β Thalassemia is controlled by a single gene
HBB
(1) Bacillus (rod like)
(3) Failure of segregation of chromatids called
(2) Coccus (spherical) aneuploidy
(3) Vibrio (comma shaped) (4) Thalassemia is a quantitative problem of
(4) Spirillum (palisade). synthesising too few globin molecules while
sickle cell-anemia is a qualitative problem of
117. The movement of plant and its parts in response synthesising incorrectly functioning globin
to light is called? 122. The order and sequence of amino acids are
(1) Photorespiration defined by the
(2) Photosynthesis (1) Sequence of bases in the DNA.
(3) Phototropism (2) Exons
(4) Photophosphorylation (3) Process of translation
(4) Sequence of bases in the mRNA
118. Small protein attached to outer surface of inner
mitochondrial membrane which acts as mobile 123. How many pollen grains develop from a single
microspore
carrier for transfer of electrons between complex
III and IV is (1) One (2) Two
(3) Four (4) Many
(1) Cyt a
124. Which of the given statement about the light
(2) Cyt b
harvesting complex is correct?
(3) Cyt c (1) The pigments of the antenna complex funnel
(4) Cyt d the light energy out of the photosystems.
119. Cross XXYy X xxYy yields Xx YY : XxYy : (2) The pigment binding proteins organize the
Xxyy : xxyy offspring in the ratio of individual pigment molecules optimally for
efficient energy transfer.
(1) 0 : 3 : 1 : 1
(3) Carotenoids are absent in light-harvesting
(2) 1 : 2 : 1 : 0 complexes.
(3) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 (4) Antenna complex transfers the light energy
(4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 1 to the primary electron acceptor molecule.
P 16

125. From a single ear of corn, a farmer planted 180 130. If non-disjunction of chromosome 21 is known
kernels which produced 140 tall & 40 short to occur in the division of a secondary oocyte in
plants. The genotypes of these off springs are a particular woman, then what is the chance that
most likely. a mature egg arising from this cell division will
(1) T T , tt receive two 21 chromosomes.
(2) T T , Tt , tt (1) 1 / 4 (2) 3 / 4
(3) T T , Tt (3) 1 / 2 (4) 1 / 4
131. Because most of the amino acids are
(4) T t , tt
represented by more than one codon, the genetic
126. Read the following statements with reference to code is
diatoms: (1) Overlapping (2) Unambiguous
(i) In diatoms, the cell walls form two thin (3) Generate (4) Degenerate
overlapping shells which fit together as in a soap
132. Feathery stigma is characteristic feature of
box
_______
(ii) The walls are embedded with silica and thus
(1) Asteraceae
the walls are indestructible
(2) Malvaceae
(iii) The fossilized diatoms are called
diatomaceous earth (3) Poaceae
(iv) Diatoms are not the main producers in the (4) Brassicaceae
oceans 133. Which of the following sentences are correct
about energy formation?
(v) Diatomaceous earth is used in polishing,
filtration of oil and syrups a) NADP reductase is present on the stroma
side of membrane
How many of the above statements is/are
incorrect? b) Protons are needed for reduction of NAD
from the lumen of thylakoid.
(1) One
c) H+ ions are transported across membrane
(2) Four because the primary electron acceptor located
(3) Three towards outer side of membrane transfers its
electron not to an electron carrier but to an H
(4) Two
carrier.
127. First step of animal taxonomy is:
d) Protons are produced within the stroma of
(1) Identification chloroplast by splitting of water.
(2) Characterization (1) a and b
(3) Classification (2) c and d
(4) Making of herbarium sheet (3) b and c
128. In some organisms karyokinesis is not followed (4) c and a
by cytokinesis as a result of which multinucleate 134. The nucleus is separated from surrounding
condition arises leading to the formation of- cytoplasm by a nuclear envelope, which is :-
(1) Syncytium (1) Double layered without pores
(2) Polytene. (2) Single layered with pores
(3) Phragmoplast (3) Double layered with pores
(4) Cell plate (4) Single layered without pores
129. If there were only parental combinations in F2 of 135. Cells which are metabolically more active, have–
a dihybrid cross then Mendel might have (1) Less number of mitochondria
discovered ?
(2) More number of mitochondria
(1) Independent assortment
(3) No relation between metabolic activities and
(2) Atavism number of mitochondria
(3) Linkage (4) No mitochondria, to provide more space in
(4) Repulsion cytoplasm for metabolic activities
 17 P

Section - B (Biology : Botany) 141. The pyramid of energy is always upright for any
ecosystem.
136. Epidermis consists of ______ and is ______
(layered). This situation indicates the that:
(1) Sclerenchyma, multilayered (1) Producers have the lowest energy conversion
efficiency
(2) Collenchyma, single layered
(2) Carnivores have a better energy conversion
(3) Parenchyma, multilayered efficiency than herbivores.
(4) Parenchyma, single-layered (3) Energy conversion efficiency is the same in
137. Skoog and his co-workers observed that all trophic levels
internodal segment of tobacco stem proliferated (4) Herbivores have a better energy conversion
when in addition to auxin which of the following efficiency than carnivores.
was added in nutrient medium ? 142. Quiescent stage (G0) of the cell denotes -
(1) Extract of vascular tissue (1) Differentiated state of cell cycle.
(2) Yeast extract/ Coconut milk or DNA (2) Check point before entering next phase
(3) Dormant potato tuber (3) Death of cell
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Un-differentiated state of cell cycle.
138. Which among the following steps in glycolysis 143. In a two celled pollen grain in angiosperms, the
yields energy? large cell with irregular nucleus
(i) Conversion of BPGA to PGA (1) Divides and forms two male gametes
(ii) Conversion of fructose – 6 –phosphate to (2) Divides and forms pollen
fructose 1, 6 –bisphosphate (3) Does not divide but forms two male gametes
(iii) Conversion of PEP to pyruvic acid (4) Does not divide but forms pollen tube
(iv) Conversion of glucose – 6 –phosphate to 144. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
fructose – 6 – phosphate
(1) Leptotene - formation of bivalents
(1) Both ii and iv (2) Diplotene - chiasmata appear
(2) i, ii, iii (3) Pachytene - chiasmata terminalisation
(3) Both i and iii (4) Zygotene - formation of bouquet
(4) All of the above
139. Which of the following statements is incorrect 145. is the floral formula of
regarding bryophytes? _______
(1) Sporophyte is parasite over gametophyte (1) Lupin (2) Brassica
(2) Zygote undergoes mitosis to form embryo (3) Makoi (4) Gram
proper 146. Read the following statements:
(3) Fertilization takes place in presence of water (i) The bacterial structure is very complex but
(4) Zygote undergoes meiosis to produce are simple in behaviour
spores. (ii) Compared to many other organisms,
140. Match the column: bacteria as a group show the most extensive
metabolic diversity
Column-I Column-II
A. Giant brown algae (i) Coenobial colony (iii) Some of the bacteria are autotrophic
B. Volvox (ii) Kelps (iv) Most of the bacteria are heterotrophic
C. Spirogyra (iii) Filamentous (v) Bacteria possess cell wall
D. Chlamydomonas (iv) Unicellular
How many of the above statements are not
(1) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (iii) incorrect?
(2) A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (i) (1) Four (2) Five
(3) A = (ii), B - (i), C = (iii), D - (iv) (3) Two (4) Three
(4) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
P 18

147. Round seed trait (R) is dominant over wrinkled 152. Early Greek thinkers called units of life as
(r) seed trait in Pea. Heterozygous round seeded (1) Gametes (2) Spores
plant (Rr) is crossed with wrinkled seeded plant
(rr). What is the possibly progeny? (3) Zygote (4) Clusters
(1) 302 round : 102 wrinkled 153. Nucleus of granuler WBC is mainly :-
(2) 210 round : 95 wrinkled (1) Spindle shape (2) Round
(3) 105 round : 99 wrinkled (3) Oval shape (4) Lobed
(4) 103 round : 315 wrinkled 154. Generally, cannabinoids are taken
148. Flowers are always wind pollinated in the family (1) Intracenously
(1) Compositae (2) Intramuscularly
(2) Brassicaceae (3) Through oral route
(3) Solanaceae
(4) Through implants
(4) Poaceae
155. If regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly
149. The given graph shows the effect of light intensity discontinued it causes _________.
on the rate of photosynthesis. In which portion
of the graph, the rate of photosynthesis is directly (1) Hallucinations
proportional to the light intensity? (2) Withdrawal syndrome
(3) Diversion to criminal activites
(4) Severe depression
156. If the head of cockroach is removed, it may
live for few days because
(1) The supra-oesophageal ganglia of the
cockroach are situated in ventral part of
abdomen
(2) The cockroach does not have nervous
system
(3) The head holds a small proportion of a
(1) B (2) A nervous system while the rest is situated along
the ventral part of its body
(3) C (4) D
(4) The head holds a 1/3rd of a nervous system
150. Wheat, Grasses, Monocotyledonae and Plantae
while the rest is situated along the dorsal part
show:
of its body.
(1) Same taxa of different categories
157. Misuse of amniocentesis has led to the misuse
(2) Different taxa of same category of ________
(3) Same taxa of same category (1) MTP (2) STD
(4) Different taxa of different category (3) RTI (4) HIV
Section - A (Biology : Zoology) 158. Arrange the following elements present in
151. Assertion: Adenine and guanine are double ring human body in their ascending order of
bases. occurrence. Hydrogen, Calcium, Nitrogen,
Carbon, Oxygen.
Reason: Adenine and guanine are pyrimidines.
(1) Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Calcium,
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the Hydrogen
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Calcium, Hydrogen, Nitrogen, Oxygen,
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the Carbon
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion. (3) Hydrogen, Calcium, Nitrogen, Oxygen,
Carbon
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Hydrogen, Calcium, Nitrogen, Carbon,
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. Oxygen
 19 P

159. During early course of evolution of earth, the 165. Reabsorption of sodium and nutrients takes
source of energy was: place in
(1) By Lightening and UV-rays (1) PCT by passive transport
(2) Infra-red rays (2) DCT by simple diffusion
(3) Boiling lava (3) PCT by active transport
(4) Free ATP (4) PCT & DCT by passive transport
160. (1) Gluconeogenesis 166. In the thin filament of skeletal muscle fibre, a
small globular protein that masks the active sites
(2) Anti inflammatory on the F-actin is:
(3) Immuno booster (1) G-actin
(4) Lipolysis and protein synthesis (2) Tropomyosin
(5) Inhibits cellular uptake and utilisation of fats (3) Troponin
Choose the correct option for the functions of (4) Myosin
cortisol. 167. Which of the following is a richly vascular layer
(1) 1, 2 are correct with lots of blood capillaries covering of brain:-
(2) 1, 2, 4, 5 are correct (1) Duramater
(3) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 are correct (2) Piamater
(4) 1, 2, 3 are correct (3) Epidermis of skin
161. Which is not the character of hyperthyroidism (4) Both (1) & (2)
(1) Protrusion of eye balls 168. What is indicated by ‘d’ in the figure ?
(2) Enlargement of thyroid gland
(3) Increased B.M.R.
(4) Increased weight
162. Human skull is
(1) Monocondylic
(2) Dicondylic
(3) Tricondylic
(4) Acondylic
(1) Epitope
163. During secretory phase of menstrual cycle......
(2) Paratope
(1) A new uterine lining is formed
(3) Antigen binding site
(2) The old functional layer is sloughed off
(4) Both 2 & 3
(3) Corpus luteum actively secreting
169. Striated muslces are primarily involved in
progesterone
(A) Locomotory actions
(4) There is gradual increase in the secretion of
FSH and LH (B) Changes in body postures
164. Which of the following method of contraception (C) Transportation of food through digestive tract
is effective only upto a maximum period of six (D) Transportation of gametes through genital
months following parturition? tract
(1) Cortus interruptus (1) A, B
(2) Lactational amenorrhea (2) B, C
(3) Periodic abstinance (3) C, D
(4) Condoms (4) A, D
P 20

170. Gonapophysis is ......

I II III IV
(1) Chitinous symmetrical structures surround the
(1) T T T F
male gonopore
(2) T T T T
(2) Internal genitalia in cockroach (3) F T T T
(3) Present in both male and female cockroach (4) T F T F
(4) Present only in male cockroach not in female 175. Assertion : Crack is a potent stimulant of CNS,
171. Select the correct sequence of organs in the producing sense of euphoria and increased
alimentary canal of cockroach starting from energy.
mouth.
Reason : It interferes with the transport of
(1) Buccal cavity  Pharynx  Oesophagus neurotransmitter dopamine.
 Ileum  Crop  Gizzard  Colon 
Rectum (1) Assertion and reason both are true and the
reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Buccal cavity  Pharynx  Oesophagus
 Crop  Gizzard  Ileum  Colon  (2) Assertion and reason both are true but reason
Rectum is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Buccal cavity  Pharynx  Oesophagus (3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
 Gizzard  Crop  Ileum  Colon  (4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
Rectum
176. Mantle cavity, radula present in
(4) Buccal cavity  Pharynx  Oesophagus
 Gizzard  Ileum  Crop  Colon  (1) Chaetopleura
Rectum (2) Echinus
172. The most common species of frog found in India (3) Ornithorhyncus
is....
(4) Apis
(1) Indian bullfrog
177. Longitudinal and circular muscles helps in
(2) Indian cowfrog
locomotion in
(3) Himalaya Paa Frog
(1) Ancylostoma
(4) Bengal tiger
(2) Nereis
173. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by
(3) Pinctada
(1) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood (4) Saccoglossus
(2) Carbon dioxide content in arterial blood 178. Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a
(3) Oxygen content in venous blood four year old girl with adenosine deaminase
(4) Oxygen content in arterial blood (ADA) deficiency ?

174. Find out which of the following statements are (1) Immunotherapy
true (T)/ false (F) and choose the correct option : (2) Radiation therapy
I. The medulla oblongata contains centres which (3) Gene therapy
control respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and (4) Chemotherapy
gastric secretions 179. A bacterium modifies its DNA by adding methyl
II. Pons consists of fibre tracts that interconnects groups to the DNA, It does so to :-
different regions of the brain (1) Clone its DNA
III. Cerebellum has very convoluted surface to (2) Be able to transcribe many genes
provide the additional space for many more
simultaneously
neurons
(3) Turn its gene on
IV. The medulla of brain is connected to the
spinal cord (4) Protect its DNA from its own restriction
Options enzyme
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180. In which type of bioreactor air bubbles Section - B (Biology : Zoology)

dramatically increases the oxygen transfer area? 186. Assertion: Starch with I gives blue colour
2
(1) Simple stirred tank bioreactor because of starch I2 complex.
(2) Sparged stirred tank bioreactor Reason: Starch Can hold I2 in their helical
(3) Both 1 & 2 portion
(4) None of these (1) Both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
181. What would happen when blood is acidic
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the
(1) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin reason is not the correct explanation of the
increases assertion.
(2) Red blood corpuscles are formed in higher (3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
number (4) Both assertion and reason are false.
(3) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin 187. Which one of the following techniques made it
decreases possible to genetically engineer living organisms?
(4) There is no change in oxygen binding nor (1) Hybridization
number of RBC (2) Recombinant DNA techniques
182. Match the scientists listed under column ‘A’ with (3) X-ray diffraction
‘ideas listed in column ‘B’.
(4) Heavier isotope labelling
Column A Column B 188. Read the following statements.
i. Darwin M. Abiogenesis (a) They have to swim constantly to avoid sinking
ii. Oparin N. Use and disuse of organs (b) Teeth are modified placoid scales
iii. Lamarck O. Continental drift theory (c) Gills are not covered by gill covering
iv. Wagner P. Evolution by natural selection (d) Notochord persistent through out life
(1) i - M; ii - P; iii - N; iv - O (e) These animals are predaceous
All these characters found in
(2) i - P ; ii - M; iii - N; iv - O
(1) Osteichthyes (2) Chondrichthyes
(3) i - N; ii - P; iii - O; iv - M
(3) Cyclostomata (4) Cephalochordata
(4) i - P; ii - O; iii - N; iv - M
189. What is correct regarding peroxidases and
183. A small amount of curd added to the fresh milk catalases
contain millions of LAB, which at suitable (1) Both have coenzymes, derivative of vitamin B
temperatures multiply, thus converting milk to
(2) Both require Zinc as cofactor
curd is called as-
(3) They have no cofactor
(1) Medium (2) Inoculum or Starter
(4) They have haem as prosthetic group
(3) Microbial culture (4) Colonies. 190. Carrying capacity of a population is determined
184. Following are Modern ex situ conservation by.
except (1) Predation
(1) Home garden (2) Natality rate
(2) Cryopreservation techniques (3) Limiting resources
(3) Tissue culture methods (4) Mortality rate and natality rate
(4) Hot spot regions 191. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse
through synapse fibre is due to :–
185. In which of the following both pairs have
(1) Nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath.
incorrect combinations.
(2) Sodium pump starts operating only at the
Narrowly Utilitarian Broadly Utilitarian cyton and then continues into the nerve fibre.
(1) Pharmaceutical Pest control (3) Neurotransmitters are released by dendrites
(2) Bioprospecting Flood control and not by axon endings.
(3) Industrial product Climate moderation (4) Neurotransmitters are released by the axon
(4) Climate moderation Firewood and food endings and not by dendrites.
P 22

192. Match the List I with List II. 197. Idenitfy A, B and C in the given below blood
cloting process.
List I List II
A. Scapula a. Cartilaginous joints
B. Cranium b. Flat bone
C. Sternum c. Fibrous joints
D. Vertebral column d .Triangularflat bone

(1) A-a; B-c; C-b; D-d

(2) A-b; B-c; C-d; D-a
(3) A-d; B-b; C-c; D-a
(4) A-d; B-c; C-b; D-a
193. Choose the mismatched pair from the below A B C
(1) Gene recombination = New combination of (1) Thromoplastin Prothrombin Flbrinogen
genes Thromobo-
(2) Mutation = Discontinuous source of (2) Thrombin Fibrinogen Kinase
migration (3) Thromboplastin Thrombin Fibrinogen
(3) Genetic drift = Change in gene frequency (4) Prothrombin Thrombin Fibrinogen
by chance
198. Haemozoin is responsible for chill and recurring
(4) Isolation = Segregation of population which
every ________ days.
prevents interbreeding
194. Microbes like bacteria and many fungi can be (1) Sustain high fever, 2-3 days.
grown on nutritive media to form - (2) Low fever, 3-4 days.
(1) Medium. (3) High fever, 3-4 days.
(2) Inoculum or Starter (4) High fever, 2-3 days.
(3) Microbial culture. 199. Read the following statements carefully and find
(4) Colonies out correct option given below
195. Match the column: A. Zygote divides to form morula which is
implanted in uterus.
Column-I Column-II B. The structure which provides vascular
A. Exponential growth
connection between foetus and uterus is called
equation
placenta
B. Integral form of
exponential growth
C. Ovulation is induced by a hormone called
C. Logistic growth oxytocin
equation D. Fertilisation takes place in isthmus
D. Integral form of (1) A, B and C are correct
logistic growth equation (2) Only B and C are correct
(3) Only A and B are correct
(1) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (iii) (4) Only B is correct
(2) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv) 200. Read the following statements regarding to
(3) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (ii) ‘SAHELI’ and find out incorrect one
(4) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D - (iii) (1) Saheli is developed by CDRI
196. Potassium secretion takes place in (2) Saheli makes uterus unsuitable for
(1) PCT by aldosterone implantation
(2) DCT by aldosterone (3) It is once a month contraceptive with very
(3) DCT by ADH few side effect and high contraceptive value
(4) PCT by ADH (4) It is non-steroidal preparation
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK