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Section - A (Physics)

Section - A (Physics)
 English 3 E
Section - A (Physics) 5. In Young‟s double slit experiment, the distance
between two slits is 0.8 mm and the fringes are
1. Two coherent sources of intensity ratio  interfere, then
observed 1m away. If it produces the second dark
 I I  fringe at a distance of 1.5 mm from the middle position
the value of  max min  is
 I max  I min  of central bright fringe, the wavelength of the
monochromatic source of light used is
1   1   (1) 600 nm (2) 500 nm
(1) (2)  
    (3) 450 nm (4) 800 nm
4
1  2  6. If the refractive index of water is and that of given
(3) (4) 3
2  1 
5
slab of glass immersed in it is , what is the critical
2. Water rises upto height h in a capillary tube of certain 3
diameter. This capillary tube is replaced by similar tube angle for a ray of light tending to go from glass to
water?
of half the diameter. Now, the water will rise to the
 3
height of (1) sin 1  
4
(1) 4h (2) 3h
 3
(3) 2h (4) h (2) sin 1  
5
3. In Young‟s double slit experiment, the 5th bright fringe
4
(3) sin 1  
from central maxima due to wavelength 1 coincides 5
with 8th bright fringe from central maxima due to (4) Data given are insufficient to make any
wavelength 2, then the wavelengths of visible lights calculation

are 7. A flint glass prism (refractive index = 3 ) is made

such that a beam of light incident on it retraces its path
(1) 500 nm and 800 nm (2) 480 nm and 400 nm
after reflection from other refracting surface due to
(3) 640 nm and 400 nm (4) 640 nm and 560 nm
silvering. If angle of prism is 30°, then angle of
4. If a biconvex lens is cut into identical parts by a incidence is
horizontal plane XY as shown in the figure, then which
of the following statement is correct?

(1) 30° (2) 60°

(3) 90° (4) 0°
(1) Focal length of each part will be same and forms 8. A ray of light strikes a material slab at an angle of
image with same intensity. incidence 60°. If the reflected and refracted rays are
(2) Focal length of each part will be same and forms perpendicular to each other, the refractive index of the
image with reduced intensity. material is
(3) Focal length of each part will be different and
(1) 3 (2) 2
forms image with reduced intensity.
1 1
(4) None of the above. (3) (4)
2 3
 E 4 English
9. If minimum deviation = 30°, then speed of light in 14. A telescope has an objective of focal length 50 cm and
shown prism will be an eye-piece of focal length 5 cm. The least distance of
distinct vision is 25. The telescope is focused for
distinct vision on a scale 200 cm away. The separation
between the objective and the eye-piece is
(1) 75 cm (2) 60 cm
3 1 (3) 71 cm (4) 74 cm
(1)  108 m / s (2)  108 m / s
2 2 15. Two thin equiconvex lenses each of focal length 0.2 m
2 2 are placed coaxially with their optic centres 0.5 m apart.
(3)  108 m / s (4)  108 m / s
3 3
Then, the focal length of the combination is
10. A double convex thin lens made of glass (refractive (1) – 0.4 m (2) 0.4 m
index  = 1.83) has both radii of curvature of (3) – 0.1 m (4) 0.1 m
magnitude 30 cm. Incident light rays parallel to the axis 16. A plano-convex lens (f = 20 cm) is silvered at plane
of the lens will converge at a distance L, such that surface. Now, focal length will be
(1) 30 m (2) 25 cm (1) 20 cm (2) 40 cm
(3) 18 cm (4) 13 cm (3) 30 cm (4) 10 cm
11. In Young‟s double slit experiment, the fringe width is 17. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm in front of a
foun to 0.5 mm. If the whole apparatus is immersed in concave mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image
5 produced is
liquid of refractive index , without disturbing the
3 (1) real, inverted and smaller in size.
geometrical arrangement, then new fringe width will be
(2) real, inverted and of same size.
(1) 0.35 m (2) 0.6 mm
(3) real and erect.
(3) 0.45 mm (4) 0.3 mm (4) virtual and inverted.
12. Two polaroids are crossed. If now one of them is rotate
18. Two liquid drops have diameters of 1 cm and 1.5 cm.
through 30° and unpolarised light of intensity I 0 is
The ratio of excess of pressures inside them is
incident on the first polaroid, then the intensity of
(1) 1:1 (2) 5:3
transmitted light will be (3) 2:3 (4) 3:2
I0 3I 0 19. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of
(1) (2)
4 4
radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R and
3I 0 I0
(3) (4) volume V. If T is the surface tension of the liquid, then
8 8
1 1 
13. A thin prism P1 of angle 4° and refractive index 1.54 is (1) energy = 4 VT    is released
r R
combined with another thin prism P 2 of refractive index
1 1 
1.72 to produce dispersion without deviation. The angle (2) energy = 3 VT    is absorbed
r R
of P2 is 1 1 
(3) energy = 3 VT    is released
(1) 4° (2) 5.33° r R
(4) energy is neither released nor absorbed
(3) 2.6° (4) 3°
 English 5 E
–3
20. An ice cube of density 900 k-gm is floating in water 1
–3
26. A gun is aimed at a horizontal target. It takes s for
of density 1000 kgm . The percentage of volume of ice 2
cube outside the water is the bullet to reach the target. The bullet hits the target x
(1) 20% (2) 35% metre below the aim. Then, x is equal to
(3) 10% (4) 25% 9.8 9.8
(1) m (2) m
21. An atomiser is based on the application of 4 8
(3) 9.8 m (4) 19.6 m
(1) Torricelli‟s theorem
27. Three infinitely long charge sheets are placed as shown
(2) Bernoulli‟s theorem
in figure. The electric field at point P is
(3) Archimedes‟ principle
(4) Principle of continuity
22. Two discs of moment of inertia I1 and I2 and angular
speeds 1 and 2 are rotating along collinear axes
passing through their centre of mass and perpendicular
to their plane. If both discs are pressed face to face to
2 4
rotate combinedly along same axis, then rotational KE (1) k̂ (2) k̂
0 0
of system is
2 4
 
 I1  I2  1  2  (3) k̂ (4) k̂
2
I11  I 22 0 0
(1) (2)
2  I1  I 2  2
28. When the current in an ac circuit is wattless, the phase
 I11  I22 
2
difference between the applied voltage and circuit
(3) (4) None of these
2  I1  I 2  current will be
(1) 45° (2) 60°
23. One mole of an ideal gas ( = 1.4) is adiabatically
(3) 90° (4) 180°
compressed, so that its temperature rises from 27°C to
29. What will happen when a 40 watt, 220 volt lamp and
35°C. The change in the internal energy of the gas is
100 watt, 220 volt lamp are connected in series across
(R = 8.3 J/mole K).
40 volt supply?
(1) 166 J (2) 168 J
(1) 100 watt lamp will fuse
(3) – 166 J (4) – 168 J
(2) 40 watt lamp will fuse
24. 20 g of water at 50°C and 8 g of ice at – 20°C are
(3) Both lamp will fuse
mixed together in a Calorimetry. What is the final
(4) Neither lamp will fuse
temperature of the mixture? (Given, specific heat of ice 30. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side l is
= 0.5 cal g–1 °C–1 and latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 suspended between the pole pieces of a permanent
cal g–1) 
magnet such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to a
(1) – 5oC (2) 5oC
current i in the triangle a torque  acts on it, the side l of
(3) 20oC (4) 10oC
the triangle is
25. At what temperature is the root mean square velocity of 1
gaseous hydrogen melecules equal to that of oxygen 2   2 2  
  3  Bi 
(1) (2)
molecules at 47°C ? 3  Bi 
1
(1) 3K (2) – 73 K   2 1 
(3) 2  (4)
(3) 80 K (4) 20 K  3Bi  3 Bi
 E 6 English
31. A pipe closed at one end produces a fundamental note Section - B (Physics)
of 412 Hz. It is cut into two pieces of equal length. The 36. A cord is wound round the circumference of the wheel
of radius r. The axis of the wheel is horizontal and the
fundamental frequencies produced by the two pieces
moment of inertia about its centre is I. A weight mg is
are
attached to the cord at the end. The weight falls from
(1) 206 Hz, 412 Hz (2) 824 Hz, 1648 Hz rest. After falling through a distance h, the angular
(3) 412 Hz, 824 Hz (4) 206 Hz, 824 Hz velocity of the wheel will be

32. Current I1 in the following circuit is 2mgh

(1) 2gh (2)
I  2mr 2

2mgh 2gh
(3) (4)
I  mr 2 I  mr
37. A body falls on the ground from a height of 10 m and
rebounds to a height of 2.5m. Then the ratio of
velocities of the body just before and just after the
collision will be
(1) 0.4 A (2) – 0.4 A (1) 2:1 (2) 1:2

(3) 0.8 A (4) – 0.8 A (3) 4:1 (4) 1:3

33. Which of the following waves has the maximum 38. The equivalent capacitance between a and b for the

wavelength? combination of capacitors shown in figure where all

capacitances are in microfarad is
(1) Infrared rays (2) UV rays

(3) Radio waves (4) X-rays

34. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one-dimensional

motion with constant acceleration. The power delivered

to it at time t is proportional to :

(1) t1/2 (2) t

(3) t3/2 (4) t2 (1) 6.0 F (2) 4.0 F

35. What is the work done in blowing a soap bubble of (3) 2.0 F (4) 3.0 F

radius 0.2 m? (The surface tension of soap solution is 39. The ratio of the density of oxygen nucleus  O  and
16
8

  is
0.06 N/m) 4
helium nucleus 2 He
(1) 192 10–4 J (2) 96 10–4 J
(1) 4:1 (2) 8:1
–4
(3) 194.2 10 J (4) None of these (3) 1:1 (4) 2:1
 English 7 E
40. Three straight parallel current carrying conductors are 43. A proton moving with one tenth of velocity of light has
shown in the figure. The force experienced by the a certain de-Broglie wavelength of . An alpha particle
middle conductor of length 25 cm is : having certain kinetic energy has the same de-Broglie
wavelength . The ratio of kinetic energy of proton and
that of alpha particle is :
(1) 4:1 (2) 1:4
(3) 1:2 (4) 2:1
44. Two metallic wires of identical dimensions are
connected is series. If 1 and 2 are the conductivities
of the these wires respectively, the effective
–4
(1) 3  10 N towards right conductivity of the combination is :
–4
(2) 6  10 N towards right 12 212
(1) (2)
(3) –4
9  10 N towards right 1  2 1  2

(4) Zero 1  2 1  2
(3) (4)
41. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a velocity v1 and 212 12

another particle of mass m2 is moving with a velocity 45. Match List I with List II :

v2.Both of them have same momentum but different List I List II

kinetic energies are E1 & E2 respectively. If m1>m2 then A. Isothermal I. Work done by the gas
(1) E1 = E2 (2) E1< E2 Process decreases internal energy.

E1 m1 B. Adiabatic II. No change in internal

(3)  (4) E1> E2
E2 m2 Process energy.

42. A block of 3kg is attached to a string whose other end C. Isochoric III. The heat absorbed goes
Process partly to increase internal
is attached to the wall. An unkown force F is applied so
energy and partly to do
that the string makes an angle of 30° with the wall. The
work.
–2
tension T is : (Given g = 10 ms ) D. Isobaric IV. No work is done on or by
Process the gas

Choose the correct answer from the options given

below :
A B C D A B C D
(1) I II III IV (2) II I IV III
(1) 20 N (2) 25 N
(3) I II IV III (4) I II III IV
(3) 10 N (4) 15 N
 E 8 English
46. A particle starting from rest falls from a certain height. Section - A (Chemistry)
Assuming that the acceleration due to gravity remain 51. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order
the same thought the motion, its displacements in three of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution?
Cl Cl Cl
successive half second intervals are S1, S2 and S3 then Cl
NO2 O2 N NO2
(1) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 5 : 9
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 3 : 5
NO2 NO2 NO2

(3) S1 : S2 : S3 = 9 : 2 : 3
Select the correct option.
(4) S1 : S2 : S3 = 1 : 1 : 1
(1) I < II < III < IV (2) I < II < IV < III
47. Two wires of same material and length but cross-
(3) IV < III < II < I (4) IV < III < I < II
sections in the ratio 1 : 2 are used to suspend the same
52. Identify the product formed in the following reaction.
loads. The extensions in them will be in the ratio of
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:1  Br2 
Heat
UV Light
 Product
(3) 4:1 (4) 1:4
Br
48. The mass of neutron and proton are 1.0087 and 1.0073
Br
amu, respectively. If neutrons and protons combines to
form a helium nuclei of mass 4.0015 amu, the binding
energy of the helium nucleus will be (1) (2) Br
Br Br
(1) 28.4 MeV (2) 20.8 MeV
(3) 27.3 MeV (4) 14.2 MeV
49. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is Br Br
(3) (4)
found to be proportional to the cube of its temperature. 53. Product of the following reaction.
Cp O
The ratio of for the gas is CH2 CH CH C OCH3
Cv O 
NaBH4

3
(1) (2) 2
2 OH
CH2 CH CH C OCH3
5 4 O
(3) (4)
3 3 (1)
50. In the cyclic process shown in the p-V diagram, OH
CH2 CH2 CH2 C OCH3
p0 V0
magnitude of the work done is found to be , O
m
(2)
then the value of m is
O
CH2 CH2 CH2 CH2

OH

(3)
OH
CH2 CH CH CH2

(1) 1 (2) 2 OH

(3) 4 (4) 3 (4)

 English 9 E
54. Choose the correct order of nucleophilic addition 57. Match the List–I with List–II.
reaction. List–I List–II
H5C6 H5 C 6
A. ArN +2 Cl- 
H 2O
 (i) Ph-N=N-C 6H5OH
C O C O
H H3C B. (ii) Ar-OH
ArN +2 Cl-  
H PO
I. II. 3 2

H H3C
C. ArN +2 Cl-  
CH CH OH
3 2 (iii) Ar-H+H3PO3 +N2
C O C O
III. H IV. H D. (iv) Ar-H
ArN +2 Cl-  
C H OH
6 5

Select the correct option.

Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) II < I < IV < III (2) II < I < III < IV
below.
(3) IV < III < I < II (4) IV < III < II < I
(1) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i)
55. Product of the following reaction (2) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)
R
(3) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(iii), D–(i)
C O  Semicarbazide 
 ?
(4) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(iv), D–(i)
H
R O 58. Major product of the following reaction is,

C N C NH NH2 CH 3COCH3 

(i)Dil. Ba(OH)2
?
(ii)Δ
(1) H

R O (1) 4–methyl pent–3–ene–2–one

C N NH C NH2 (2) 2–methyl pent –3–ene–2–one
(2) H
(3) 3–methyl pent–2–ene–3–one
R NH2
(4) None of these
C C
H NH NH2 59. In this reaction, the product is
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

56. Choose the correct order of basic nature of following

H3C CH O 
HI
 Product
CH3
amines in aqueous solution.
OH

(1) (CH3 )2 NH2 >(CH3 )3N>CH3NH2 H3C CH OH H3C CH I

+ +
CH3 CH3
(2) (CH3 )3N > (CH3 )2 NH>CH3NH2 (1) (2)
OH

(3) (CH3 )2 NH > (CH3 )-NH2 > (CH3 )3N H3C CH OH

+
CH3
(4) CH3NH 2 > (CH3 )3 > (CH3 )2 NH
(3) I (4) None of these
 E 10 English
60. Correct IUPAC name of following compound 62. Complete the following reaction
CH3
C2 H 5 -C=CH 2
| 
 CH3CO  O A 
CrO3 373K
H O
B
2 3
CH 3 -CH-C  CH

A and B are respectively

(1) 2–ethyl–3–methyl pent–1ene–4–yne
CHO COOH
(2) 4–ethyl–3–methyl pent–4–ene–yne
(1)
(3) 3–methyl–4–ethyl pent–ene–4–yne
COOH H
(4) 3–methyl–4–ethyl pent–4–ene–1yne
(2)
61. Match the List–I with List–II. OCOCH3
HC COOH
OCOCH3
List–I List–II
(3)
(Reaction) (Product)
OCOCH3
HC CHO
A. (i) COONa OCOCH3

CO, HCl
Anhyd. AlCl3 /CuCl
  CHI3
(4)
63. Find the product (P) of the following conversion
2
B. CH3 – C  CH 
Hg
 (ii) COOH OH
H2SO4

 Br2  aq. 
 Product (P)

C. CH2CH2CH3 (iii) H3C C CH3

KMnO4 KOH
(1) 2–bromophenol

 O
(2) 4–bromophenol

D. O (iv) CHO (3) 2, 4, 6– tribromophenol

C CH3 (4) 2, 4– dibromophenol


NaOH
I2
 64. Complete the following equation.
(i) AlH i Bu 
I. CH3  CH  CH  CH 2  CH 2  CN 
 ii  H2O 
2

Choose the correct answer from the options given

II. CH3  CH 2 7  COO  C2 H5 
(i) DlBaL-H
ii  H2O ?
below.
Choose the correct option.
(1) A–(iii), B–(iv), C–(ii), D–(i) I II

(2) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i) (A) 4–hexenal Nonanone

(B) 2–hexenal Nonanal
(3) A–(i), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(iv)
(C) 4–hexenal Nonanal
(4) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(iv), D–(i) (D) 2–hexenal Nonanone
 English 11 E
CH3 OH 68. Which of the following will not give SN1.

H3C C CH CH3 
H

 Major Product (1) CH2  CH – CH2 – Cl
65. CH3
CH2 Cl
CH3
H3C CH C CH2 CH3 (2)
(1)

(3) CH3 – CH  CH  Cl
CH2 CH3
H2C C
(2) CH2 CH3 Cl
(4)
CH3 CH3
69. The correct structure of C is

(3) H3C C C CH3 

CH3  CH 2  CN 
CH3MgBr
Ether
A 
H3O
B
CH3
Zn  Hg

HCl
C
H2C C CH CH3

(4) CH3 (1) CH3  CH2  CH2  CH3

O
66. Which of the following amine will give the (2) ||
CH 3  CH 2  C  CH 3
carbylamines test?
OH
NHCH3 N(CH 3)2 (3) |
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 3

(4) CH3  CH2  CH  CH 2

(1) (2)
70. The product formed from the following reaction
NHC2H5 NH2 sequence is
CN
(i) LiAlH 4 , H 2O

(3) (4) 

(ii) NaNO2 , HCl
(iii) H 2O

67. Which of the following is a purification method which

+ –
is based on solubility of compound. N2Cl Cl

(1) Distillation
(1) (2)
O
(2) Sublimation
OH NH2
(3) Crystallization

(4) Column Chromatography (3) (4)

 E 12 English
71. Given below are two statements. 74. Determine product A and B in following reaction (i)
Statement I : In Lucas test, primary, secondary and and (ii).

tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis of their I. R-CH 2OH 
2K2Cr2O7
+ A
H

reactivity with conc. HCl+ZnCl2, Known as Lucas II. CH3 -CH=CH-CH 2OH 
PCC
CH Cl
B
2 2
reagent. A B
Statement II : Primary alcohols are most reactive and
(1) R-COOH CH3 -CH=CH-CHO
immediately produce turbidity at room temperature on
(2) R-CHO 2CH3 -CHO
reaction with Lucas reagent.
(3) R-COOH CH3 -CO-CO-CH2OH
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
(4) R-CHO CH3 -CH=CH-CHO
appropriate answer from the options given below.
(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect. 75. In following reaction, product P is
MgBr
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.

(i) CO2
(ii) H O

(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct. 3

72. Consider the following reactions. CHO COOH

Which of the above methods cannot be used in the

synthesis of ether?
(1) (2)
ONa  CH3I 
 OH

I.
O

Br  CH3ONa 

(3) (4) H5 C6 C C6 H5
II. 76. In the following reaction reagent A will be,
III.  CH3 3 C – Cl + CH3ONa 
 NO 2 NO 2

IV.  CH3 3 C – ONa + CH3Cl 



A

(1) Both I and IV (2) Both I and III Br Br
N2Cl
(3) Both II and IV (4) Both II and III
(1) H3PO2 (2) Cu 2Cl2
73. Choose the incorrect statement about SN2 reaction.
(3) HgSO4 /H2SO4 (4) H  /H 2O
(1) SN2 reaction depends on concentration of reactant
77. Aniline in following set of reaction yielded a product D
as well as concentration of nucleophile.
(2) Optically active alkyl halide gives complete
inversion through SN2 reaction.
(3) Weaker nucleophile favours S N2 reaction.
The structure of the product D would be
whereas stronger nucleophile favour S N1
reaction. (1) C6H5CH2 NH2 (2) C6H5NHCH2CH3

(4) Minimum steric hindrance favour to SN2 reaction. (3) C6H5NHOH (4) C6H5CH 2OH
 English 13 E
78. In the reaction 81. An organic compounds “A” on treatment with benzene

sulphonyl chloride gives compound B. B is soluble in

dil. NaOH solution. Compound A is

(1) C6H5 – N – (CH3 )2

the electrophile involved is

–
(2) C6H5 – CH2 – NHCH3
(1) dichloromethyl anion (CHCl2 )
C6 H5 – CH – NH 2
+ |
(2) formyl cation ( C HO) (3)
CH3

+
(3) dichloromethyl cation ( C HCl2 ) (4) C6H5 -NHCH2 -CH3

(4) dichlorocarbene (:CCl2) 82. Two pi and half sigma bonds are present in :
H+ /H O
Phenol 
o  A   B  C
(i) NaOH Ac O
79. O 2
2 2
(ii) CO2 /140 C (1) (2) N2

In the above reaction, end product „C‟ is

(3) O2 (4) N 2
(1) salicylaldehyde (2) salicylic acid
83. The IUPAC symbol for the element with atomic
(3) phynyl acetate (4) aspirin
number 119 would be :
80. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as
(1) uue (2) une
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
(3) unh (4) uun
Assertion (A) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis cannot be

used to prepare aromatic primary amines. 84. Which of the following is strongest Lewis base?

Reason (R) Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic (1) CH 3 (2) NH 2

substitution reaction.
(3) OH  (4) F
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct
85. The hypothetical complex chloro diaquatri-
answer from the options given below
amminecobalt (III) chloride can be represented as
(1) Both (A) and (R) true but (R) is not the correct

explanation of (A). (1) [CoCl(NH3)3(H2O)2]Cl2

(2) (A) is false but (R) is true. (2) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)Cl3]

(3) Both (A) and (R) true and (R) is correct (3) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)2Cl]
explanation of (A).
(4) [Co(NH3)3(H2O)3]Cl3
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false.
 E 14 English
Section - B (Chemistry) 90. Assertion (A) On dilution, the equivalent as well as

86. What is the structure of Mn2 (CO)10 ? molar conductivity of solution increase.
Reason (R) With dilution, the number of current
(1) Two square pyramidal units joined by bridging carrying particles per cm3 increase.
CO ligands (1) Both A R are correct and R is the correct
explanation of A
(2) Two square pyramidal units joined by Mn–Mn
(2) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct
bond explanation of A
(3) Two tetrahedral units joined by Mn–Mn bond (3) A is correct but R is incorrect
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.
(4) Two square planar units joined by Mn–Mn bond
91. For the reaction, A2 +2B  2AB
87. Which of the following has p  d bonding?
[A2] [B] d [ A2 ]

dt
(1) NO-3 (2) SO32-
0.1 M 0.2 M 1×10-2 Ms-1
(3) BO3-
3 (4) CO32- 0.2 M 0.2 M 2×10-2 Ms-1
88. The radius of the first Bohr orbit of the H–atom is r. 0.2 M 0.4 M 8×10-2 Ms-1
Order of reaction wrt A2 and B are respectively
Then, the radius of the first orbit of Li2 will be
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 1
(1) r/9 (2) r/3 (3) 1 and 1 (4) 2 and 2
(3) 3r (4) 9r 92. A hypothetical reaction, A2 + B2  2 AB follows the
mechanism as given below,
89. Match the type of series given in Column I with the
 A + A (fast)
A2 
wavelength range given in Column II and choose the
A + B2  AB + B (slow)
correct option. A + B  AB (fast)
The order of the overall reaction is
Column I Column II
(1) 2 (2) 1
A. Lyman 1. Ultraviolet 1
(3) 1 (4) 0
B. Paschen 2. Near infrared 2
93. Foran ideal solution, the correct option is
C. Balmer 3. Far infrared
(1) Δmix V  0 at constant T and p
D. Pfund 4. Visible
(2) Δmix H  0 at constant T and p
Codes (3) ΔmixG  0 at constant T and p
A B C D (4) ΔmixS  0 at constant T and p
(1) 1 2 4 3 94. Calculate pH of solution which contain 100 mL of 0.01

(2) 4 3 1 2 M HCl+100 mL of 0.2 M H2SO4+ 100 mL of 0.1 M

HNO3and 700 mL of H2O.
(3) 3 1 2 4
(1) 3.2 (2) 1.22
(4) 4 3 2 1 (3) 7.0 (4) 6.84
 English 15 E
95. Coefficient x, y and z in the following balanced Section - A (Biology-I)
equation
101. Functional residual capacity in human is the amount of
x MnO-4 +y H 2S+zH +  S+Mn 2+ +H 2O
air
Are respectively
(1) 2, 3, 4 (2) 6, 8, 10 (1) that can be filled in lungs by forceful inspiration.
(3) 2, 5, 6 (4) 2, 6, 5 (2) that can be breathed out after forceful expiration.
96. Which of the following pair of molecules contain odd
electron molecule and an expanded octet molecule? (3) that remains in the lungs after normal expiration.
(1) BCl3 and SF6 (2) NO and H2SO4 (4) that remains in the lungs after forceful expiration.
(3) SF6 and H2SO4 (4) BCl3 and NO
102. In hormone action, if receptor molecules are removed
97. Consider the species CH4 , NH 4 , and BH 4 choose the
from target organ, the target organ will
correct option with respect to these species
(1) They are isoelectronic and only two have (1) continue to respond to hormone.
tetrahedral structures
(2) not respond to hormone.
(2) They are isoelectronic and all have tetrahedral
structures (3) continue to respond but requires higher
(3) Only two are isoelectronic and all have concentration.
tetrahedral structures
(4) continue to respond but in the opposite way.
(4) Only two are isoelectronic and only two have
tetrahedral structures 103. Match column I with column II and choose the right
98. The decreasing order of bond angles in BF3 , NH3, PF3 option.
and I 3 is
Column I Column II
(1) I 3  BF3  NH3  PF3 (2) BF3  NH3  PF3  I 3
A. Hypodermis i. Collenclymatous cells
(3) I 3  NH3  PF3  BF3 (4) BF3  I 3  PF3  NH3
99. If a saturated solution prepared by dissolving Ag2 B. Cortical layers ii. Parenchymatous cells
CO3in water has [Ag ]=2.56 104 . What is the value C. Endodermis iii. Rich in starch
of Ksp for Ag2 CO3?
D. Artificial system iv. Based on few
(1) 83.9 1012 (2) 8.39 1012
of classification morphological
(3) 93.8 1012 (4) 9.38 1012
100. Given, characters
NH3 (g) + 3Cl2 (g)  NCl3 (g) + 3HCl(g); = ΔH1 A B C D A B C D
N2 (g) + 3H2 (g)  2NH3 (g); = ΔH2
(1) iv iii i ii (2) ii iii iv i
H2 (g) + Cl2 (g)  2HCl(g); = ΔH3
(3) iv i ii iii (4) iii iv ii i
The heat of formation of NCl3 (g) in terms of
H1, H 2 and H 3 is 104. Which of the following is not currently a major cause
ΔH2 3 of the global reduction in biodiversity?
(1) Δ Hf = – ΔH1 + – ΔH3
2 2
(1) Overexploitation
ΔH2 3
(2) Δ Hf = ΔH1 + – ΔH3
2 2 (2) Global warming
ΔH2 3
(3) Δ Hf = ΔH1 + + ΔH3 (3) Habitat destruction
2 2
(4) None of the above (4) Introduction of foreign predators and disease
 E 16 English
105. Read the following statements. 108. Which bacterium helps in the production of „Swiss

i. Metagenesis is observed in Helminthes. cheese‟?

ii. Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate (1) Propionibacterium shrmanii

animals. (2) Trichoderma polysporum

iii. Round worms have organ-system level of body (3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
organization. (4) Aspergillus niger
iv. Comb plates present in ctenophores help in 109. Which of the following statements is not correct?
digestion.
(1) Pyramid of numbers in a grassland ecosystem is
v. Water vascular system is characteristic of upright
Echinoderms.
(2) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(3) Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally upright
below.
(4) Pyramid of energy is always upright
(1) ii, iii and v are correct.
110. Consider the statements given below regarding
(2) iii, iv and v are correct.
contraception and answer as directed thereafter.
(3) i, ii and iii are correct.
(i) Medical termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during
(4) i, iv and v are correct.
first trimester is generally safe
106. The two strands of DNA are held together by
(ii) generally chances of conception are nil until
(1) peptide bonds (2) phosphodiester bonds
mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years
(3) hydrogen bonds (4) S – S bonds

107. Statement I : The primary CO2 acceptor in C4 plants is (iii) Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective

phosphoenolpyruvate and is found in the mesophyll contraceptives

cells.
(iv) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week
Statement II : Mesophyll cells of C4 plants lack
after coitus to prevent conception
RUBISCO enzyme.
(1) (ii) and (iii) (2) (iii) and (iv)
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
answer from the options given below : (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (i) and (ii)

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 111. In chlorophyceae, sexual reproduction occurs by

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (1) isogamy and anisogamy

incorrect.
(2) isogamy, anisogamy and oogamy
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) oogamy only
correct.
(4) anisogamy and oogamy
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
 English 17 E
112. statement I : RUBISCO has a similar affinity for both 116. Out of 36 ATP molecules produced per glucose
CO2 and O 2 . molecule during respiration
(1) 2 are produced outside glycolysis and 34 during
Statement II : RUBISCO is the most abundant
respiratory chain
protein present on earth.
(2) 2 are produced outside mitochondria and 34
(1) Both statement I and II statement II are incorrect inside mitochondria
(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect (3) 2 during glycolysis and 34 during Krebs cycle
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct (4) all are formed inside mitochondria
117. Which one of the following is an example of Ex-situ
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
conservation?
113. Which of the metabolites is common to respiration
(1) Wildify sanctuary (2) Seed bank
mediated break down of fats, carbohydrates and
(3) Sacred groves (4) National park
proteins?
118. Which of the following statements is not true?
(1) Fructose 1, 6 - bisphosphate
(1) Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
(2) Pyrucic acid (2) Homology indicates common ancestry
(3) Acetyl CoA (3) Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of

(4) Glucose – 6 - phosphate homologous organs

(4) Analogous strictures are a result of convergent
114. Which of the following statement (s) is/are not correct?
evolution
(1) Cork cambium is also called phellogen
119. Given below are two statements.
(2) Cork is also called phellem Statement I Mutations are non-directional
(3) Secondary cortex is also called periderm Statement II Darwin‟s small variations are directional
(4) Cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex are In the light of the above statements, choose the correct
collectively called phelloderm answer from the options given below.

115. Match the Column-I and Column-II (1) Both statement I and statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and statement II are false
Column-I Column-II
(3) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
A. Auxin (i) Adenine derivatives
(4) Statement I is false, but statement II is true
B. Gibberellin (ii) Carotenoid derivatives 120. Which of the following statement is not correct for two
C. Cytokinin (iii) Terpins genes that show 50% recombination frequency?

D. ABA (iv) Indole compounds (1) The genes are tightly linked
(2) The genes show independent assortment
(1) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) If genes are present on the same chromosome
(2) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
they undergo more than one crossovers in every
(3) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) meiosis
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii) (4) The genes may be on different chromosomes
 E 18 English
121. Match the parts given in column I with the event given 125. Identify the order where plants show alternate, opposite
in column if and choose the correct combination from and whorled phyllotaxy -
the options given below. (1) China rose, Calotropis and Nerium
Column-I Column-II (2) China rose, Nerium and Calotropis

A. Grana of chloroplast (i) Kreb‟s cycle (3) Nerium, Calotropis and China rose

B. Stroma of chloroplast (ii) Light reaction (4) Calotropis, China rose and Nerium
126. Racemose inflorescence is identified by -
C. Cytoplasm (iii) Dark reaction
(1) Acropetal arrangement of flowers on peduncle
D. Mitochondrial matrix (iv) Glyolysis
(2) Presence of sessile flowers
(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)
(3) Continuous growth of main axis
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(4) 1 and 3 both
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(ii)
127. Choose the incorrect match -
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(1) Zygomorphic flowers– pea, gulmohur,bean,
122. How many ATP are produced by substrate level
Cassia
phosphorylation from one molecule of PGAL if it is
(2) Asymmetric (irregular flower) - Canna
oxidised completely during aerobic respiration
(3) Inferior ovary - pea
(1) 2 (2) 3
(4) Superior ovary / Hypogynous flower – mustard,
(3) 6 (4) 4 china rose and brinjal
123. The below figure is related ot the root-tip. Identify 128. Which of the following is an incorrect match?
zones A, B and C (1) Perigynous flower – Plum, rose and peach
(2) Monadelphous - Pea
(3) Epigynous flower – Guava, cucumber and ray
florests of sunflower
(4) Polyadelphous - Citrus
129. Epiphyllous condition is indicated by -

(1) 
C A (2) 
A G
(1) A-zone of elongation, B –zone of meiosis, (3) 
K C (4) 
P A
C-zone of mitosis. 130. Match the Column I with Column II –
(2) A-zone of maturation, B-zone of meristematic Column I Column II
(Aestivation in (Examples)
activity, C-zone of elongation. Corolla)
(3) A-zone of mitosis, B-zone of elongation, C-zone A. Valvate i. China rose, Lady
finger, cotton
of root cap
B. Twisted ii. Calotropis
(4) A-region of maturation, B-region of elongation, C. Imbricate iii. Cassia, Gulmohur
C-meristematic activity. D. Vexillary iv. Pea, Beans

124. Thorns of Citrus and Bougainvillea are modified - A B C D A B C D

(1) Stem (2) Root (1) ii i iii iv (2) ii i iv iii
(3) Leaf (4) Inflorescence (3) i ii iii iv (4) ii iv i iii
 English 19 E
131. Identify the types of aestivation shown in the following Section - B (Biology-I)
diagram – 136. Non-albuminous seed is produced in -

(1) Maize (2) Castor

(3) Wheat (4) Pea

137. Which of the following is not a stem modification?

(1) A-Valvate, B-Twisted, C-Imbricate, D-Vexillary
(1) Pitcher of Nepenthes
(2) A-Vexillary, B-Valvate, C-Twisted, D-Imbricate
(2) Thorns of citrus
(3) A-Imbricate, B-Vexillary, C-Valvate, D-Twisted
(3) Tendrils of cucumber
(4) A-Twisted, B-Imbricate, C-Vexillary, D-Valvate
(4) Flattened structures of Opunita
132. Match the following figures with I, II and III –
138. Stems modified into flat green organs performing the
I – Hypogynous flower II – Perigynous flower
functions of leaves are known as -
III – Epigynous flower
(1) Cladodes (2) Phyllodes

(3) Phylloclades (4) Scales

139. Match the placental types (column I) with their

examples (column II)

A B C A B C Column I Column II

(1) I II III (2) I III II A. Basal i. Mustard

(3) III II I (4) III I II B. Axile ii. China rose

133. In mango and coconut, the fruit (drupe) develops from- C. Parietal iii. Dianthus

(1) Monocarpellary superior ovaries and are one D. Free central iv. Sunflower
seeded. Choose the correct answer from the following options :
(2) Monocarpellary superior ovaries and are many A B C D A B C D
seeded.
(1) iii iv i ii (2) ii iii iv i
(3) Polycarpellary superior ovaries and is one seeded.
(3) i ii iii iv (4) iv ii i iii
(4) Polycarpellary superior ovaries and are many 140. Glycolysis takes place in
seeded. (1) all living cells
134. The “Eyes” of the potato tuber are (2) eukaryotic cells only
(3) prokaryotic cells only
(1) Axillary buds (2) Root buds
(4) none of the above
(3) Flower buds (4) Shoot buds
141. Each molecule of NADH release how many number of
135. Flowers are Zygomorphic in ATP molecules?
(1) Datura (2) Mustard (1) 3 (2) 2

(3) Gulmohur (4) Tomato (3) 4 (4) 5

 E 20 English
142. The process used in conversion of pyruvate to acetyl 146. The aerobic respiration yields
CoA is
(1) 8NADH2, 2FADH2, 2ATP
(1) oxidative dehydration
(2) 10NADH2, 2FADH2, 38ATP
(2) oxidative decarboxylation
(3) oxidative phosphorylation (3) 12NADH2, 30ATP, H2O
(4) oxidative dehydrogenation
(4) 10NADH2, 2FADH2, 2GTP, 2ATP
143. Choose the correct combination between respiratory
substrates and their respective RQs. 147. RQ (respiratory quotient) is defined as
Carbohydrate Fat Protein (1) Volume of CO2 evolved = volume of O2
(1) 2 1 1
consumed
(2) 0 1 1
(3) 1 0.7 0.9 Volume of O2 consumed
(2)
(4) 0.5 0.5 0.5 Volume of CO2 evolve

144. Identify the correct sequence of events in Krebs cycle.

Volume of CO2 evolved
(3)
(1) Acetyl CoA  Citrate  Pyruvate  – Volume of O2 consumed

ketoglutaric  Succinate  Malate  Fumarate (4)

Volume of O2 evolved
Volume of CO2 consumed
 OAA
148. Connecting link between glycolysis and Krebs cycle is
(2) Acetyl CoA  Citric acid  –ketoglutaric acid
(1) oxaloacetate (2) PEP
 Succinic acid  Fumaric acid  Malic acid
(3) pyruvate (4) acetyl CoA
 OAA
149. Fermentation products of yeast are
(3) Acetyl CoA  Citric acid  Malic acid  –
(1) H2O + CO2
ketoglutaric acid  Succinic acid  OAA
(2) methyl alcohol + CO2
(4) None of the above
(3) methyl alcohol + water
145. At the end of the Krebs cycle, but before the electron
(4) ethyl alcohol + CO2
transport chain, the oxidation of glucose has produced a
150. In glycolysis the end product is
net grain of
(1) phosphoglyceric acid
(1) 3CO2, 5 NADH2, 1 FADH2, 2 ATP
(2) citric acid
(2) 6CO2, 10 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 4 ATP
(3) pyruvic acid
(3) 6CO2, 10 NADH2, 2 FADH2, 38 ATP
(4) glucose
(4) None of the above
 English 21 E
Section - A (Biology-II) 155. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the
151. Refer the given equation and answer the question. developmental process in a plant cell?
2(C51H98O6 ) + 145O2  102CO2 + 98H2O + Energy (1) Plasmatic growth, Differentiation, Senescence
and Maturation respectively.
The R.Q. of above reaction is
(2) Plasmatic growth, Differentiation , Maturation
(1) 1 (2) 0.7
and Senescence respectively
(3) 1.45 (4) 1.62
(3) Maturation, Plasmatic growth, Differentiation and
152. In an electron transport chain in terminal oxidation the
senescence respectively
cytochrome which donates electrons to O2 is (4) Differentiation, Plasmatic growth, Maturation and
(1) cytochrome b (2) cytochrome c senescence respectively.
(3) cytochrome a3 (4) cytochrome a 156. Identify the hormone/s which promote/s all these events
153. In the given columns, column–I contain complexes and in plants and choose the correct option

column–II contain their alternative names. Select the A. Antagonist to GA

correct match from the option given below. B. Promoted bud dormancy
C. Promoted stomatal closure
Column–I Column–II
D. Promoted abscission layer
A. Complex I I. Cytochrome bc1 complex
(1) Cytokinin (2) Auxin
B. Complex II II. NADH dehydrogenase
(3) Abscisic acid (4) C2 H 4
C. Complex III III. ATP synthase
157. Growth is a characteristic of an organism. It is
D. Complex IV IV FADH2 dehydrogenase characterized by
V. Cytochrome c oxidase (1) irreversible permanent increase in size of a cell
(1) A–III; B–V; C–I; D–IV (2) irreversible permanent increase in size of an
(2) A–II; B–V; C–I; D–IV organ

(3) A–II; B–IV; C–I; D–IV (3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) reversible permanent changes
(4) A–IV; B–I; C–II; D–V
158. Given below the functions of different plant growth
154. Apical dominance means
hormones.
(1) suppression of growth of apical bud by axillary
buds. A. Cytokinins suppress the synthesis of Chlorophyll.

(2) suppression of growth of axillary buds by the B. Auxins control apical dominance.

presence of apical bud. C. Gibberellins promote fruit elongation

(3) stimulation of growth of axillary buds by removal D. Abscissic acid enable seeds to withstand

of apical bud. desiccation

(4) inhibition of growth of axillary buds by removal Which of the above statements are correct?
of apical bud. (1) (A) and (B) (2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (C) (4) (B), (C) and (D)
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159. Choose the wrongly matched pair from the following 163. Parthenocarpic fruit can be produced by the application
(1) Auxins – “to grow” of which of the following auxin?
(1) IBA (Indole butyric aced)
(2) Gibberellins – “gibberella fujikuroi”
(2) IAA (Indole acetic acid)
(3) Cytokinins – Herring sperm DNA
(3) 2, 4-D (2-4 dichlorophenoxy acetic acid)
(4) Abscisic acid – Flowering hormone
(4) All of the above
160. Match the growth regulators in column-I with the 164. Match column-I (Discovery) and Column-II (Scientists)
processes in column-II and chose the correct the correct and select the correct option.
combination. Column–I Column–II
Column–I Column–II A. Foolish seeding disease of I. Cousins
A. Auxin I. Ripened oranges rice
B. Gibberellin II. Callus B. Crystallized the Kinetin II. F.W. Went

C. Cytokinin III. Coleoptile of oat seeding C. Release of ethylene gas III. Skoog and
Miller
D. Ethylene IV. Sterile filtrates of fungus
D. Bioassay of Auxin IV E. kurosawa
(1) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
(2) A-I; B-IV; C-II; D-III (1) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II

(3) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II (2) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I

(4) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III (3) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
161. Read the given statement and select the option that (4) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
correctly identifies the incorrect ones- 165. Read following statement about effects of ethylene and
(i) Cytokinin is primarily concerned with cell choose the correct option

division (i) More female flowers in cucumber

(ii) C2H4 Breaks seed dormancy (ii)  - amylase production in seeds

(iii) ABA stimulate the opening of stomata (iii) Acceleration of fruit ripening in tomatoes

(iv) ABA is synergistic to GA (iv) Delay sprouting in potato tuber

(v) Auxin was first isolated from human liver (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (ii)
(3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (iii) and (iv)
(1) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v) (2) (iii), and (ii)
166. Pick out the incorrect statement about gibberellic acid
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (iii), (i) and (v)
(i) GA3 was one of the first gibberellins to be
162. Removal of shoot tips is a very useful technique to
discovered
boost the production of tealeaves. This is because:
(ii) All gibberellins are acidic
(1) Gibberellins delay senescence of leaves
(iii) They increase the length of plant axis as in grapes,
(2) Gibberellins prevent bolting and are inactivated
sugarcanes etc.
(3) Auxins prevent leaf drop at early stages
(iv) They promote senescence
(4) Effect of auxins is removed and growth of lateral
(1) Only (i) (2) (i) and (ii)
buds is enhanced
(3) Only (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
 English 23 E

167. In the expression, W1  W0 ert

(geometrical growth), 172. Which one of the following is represented by Clavin

W1 , W0 and t represents which of the following cycle?

respectively?
(1) reductive carboxylation
(1) Initial size – Final size – Growth rate – Time of
growth (2) Oxidative carboxylation
(2) Final size – Initial size – Growth rate – Time of (3) Photophosphorylation
growth
(4) Oxidative phosphorylation
(3) Final size – Growth rate – Initial size – Time of
growth 173. Assimilatory power in photosynthesis refers to
(4) Initial size – Final size – Growth rate – Time or
(1) ATP + NADPH2  CO2
dividing
168. The stomatal apparatus includes- (2) ATP + NADPH2
(1) Only stomatal aperture
(2) Stomatal aperture and guard ells (3) ATP
(3) Only guard cells (4) NADPH2
(4) Stomatal aperture guard eells and surrounding
subsidiary cells 174. Fixation of one CO2 molecule through Calvin cycle
169. What type of vascular bundies are A, B and C?
requires

(1) 1 ATP and 2 NADPH2

(2) 2 ATP and 2 NADPH2

(1) Radial, close collateral conjoint, open collateral (3) 3 ATP and 2 NADPH2
conjoint
(4) 2 ATP and 1 NADPH2
(2) Close collateral conjoint, open collateral conjoint,
Radial 175. In photosynthesis, splitting of water takes place during
(3) Open collateral conjoint, Close collateral conjoint,
(1) cyclic photophosphorylation
Radial
(4) Bicollateral, concentric, Radial (2) oxidative phosphorylation
170. Well developed pith is seen in –
(3) noncyclic photophosphorylation
(1) Monocot root and monocot stem
(2) Dicot root dicot stem (4) calvin cycle
(3) Monocot root and dicot stem 176. In plants, Calvin cycle operates in
(4) Dicot root and monocot stem
(1) stroma of bundle sheath chloroplasts
171. Which chemical compound molecule supplies electrons
continuously to PS-II (2) grana of bundle sheath chloroplasts
(1) CO2 (2) O2 (3) grana of mesophyll chloroplasts
(3) H 2O (4) NADPH
(4) stroma of mesophyll chloroplasts
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177. Which of the following with respect to early 181. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
experiments of photosynthesis is wrongly matched? (1) C3 plants respond to higher temperature,
(1) JosephA.Priestley Showed that plants O 2 show higher photosynthetic rate while C4

(2) Jan Ingenhousz Showed that sun light is plants have lower optimum temperature
essential for photosynthesis (2) Tropical plants have higher temperature optimum
than the plants adapted to temperate climate
(3) Julius von sachs Proved that plants produce
(3) Light reaction is less temperature sensitive than
glucose when they grow
dark reaction
(4) T.W. Engelmann Showed that the green (4) The effect of water as a factor is more through its
substance is located within effect on plant, rather than directly on
special bodies in plants photosynthesis.
182. Study the figure showing graph of light intensity on the
178. Read the following four statements a, b, c, and d and
rate of photosynthesis. Choose the correct option by
select the right option having both correct statements matching the column I with column II
A. Z scheme of light reaction takes place in presence
of PSI only

B. Only PSI is functional in cyclic

photophosphorylation

C. cyclic photophosphorylation results into synthesis

of ATP and NADPH2 Column–I Column–II

D. Stroma lamellae lack PSH as well as NADP A. Limiting factor I. Some factor other than
in region A light intensity is
(1) B and D (2) A and B
becoming the limiting
(3) B and C (4) C and B factor

179. In a chloroplast the highest number of protons are B. B represents to II. Light is no longer
limiting factor
found in
C. C represents to III Light intensity
(1) stroma
.
(2) lumen of thylakoids D. D represents to IV Maximum rate of
(3) inter membrane space . photosynthesis
(4) antennae complex E. E represents to V. Saturation point for light
180. The special membranous structure, which is formed by intensity

the extensions of plasma membrane into the cell is The correct option is -

(1) glycocalyx (1) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV, E-V

(2) mesosome (2) A-III; B-I; C-II; D-V, E-IV

(3) polysome (3) A-IV; B-II; C-V; D-III, E-I
(4) filament (4) A-V; B-IV; C-III; D-II, E-I
 English 25 E
183. Why are C 4 plants able to photosynthesize with no 188. cortex is the region found between:-

apparent photorespiration? (1) Endodermis and Pith

(2) Endodermis and vascular bundle
(1) They do not participate in the calvin cycle
(3) Epidermis and stele
(2) They use PEP carboxylase to initially fix CO2
(4) Pericycle and endodermis
(3) They are adapted to cold wet climates
189. In dicot stem-
(4) They conserve water more efficiently
(1) Vascular bundles are conjoint open and arranged
184. In Hatch and slack pathway primary CO2 acceptor is
in a ring
(1) RUBISCO
(2) Xylem is endarch
(2) Oxaloacetic acid
(3) Phosphoglyceric acid (3) Collenchymatous hypodermis

(4) Phosphoenol pyruvate (4) All

185. Which one is correct about bulliform / motor cell? 190. Vascular bundle without cambium is called
(1) It is seen in grasses (1) close vascular bundle
(2) It is large-sized, thin-walled colorless, (2) Open vascular bundle
vacuolated cells on the adaxial surface
(3) conjoint vascular bundle
(3) It helps in rolling of leaf to minimize water loss
(4) Radial vascular bundle
when it is flaccid
(4) All 191. Which one is not the part of stele?

Section - A (Biology-II) (1) Pericycle (2) Pith

186. Select the characters which are not applicable to the (3) Vascular bundle (4) Cortex
anatomy of dicot roots? 192. Which one is wrong about the guard cells
A. conjunctive tissue present
(1) Thy are modified ground tissue
B. Presence of protein compounds in the casparan
(2) They are chlorophyllous
strips
(3) Their outer wall is thin and inner wall is highly
C. Polyarch xylem bundles
D. Presence of pericycle thickened

(1) A and B (2) B and D (4) They regulate stomata movement for transpiration

(3) C and D (4) B and C and gaseous exchange

187. Radial vascular bundle, exarch xylem, large pith, 193. Which of the following is characteristic feature of
colenchymatous hypodermis cockroach regarding sexual dimorphism?
How many of the above items are for a young dicot
(1) Presence of anal styles
stem?
(2) Presence of sclerites
(1) 2 (2) 3
(3) Presence of anal cerci
(3) 4 (4) 1
(4) Dark brown body colour and anal cerci
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194. Match List I with List II. 197. Which of the following statement is correct about
Column–I Column–II operon?
A. Taenia I. Nephridia (1) A gene sequence that regulates other genes
B. Paramecium II. Contractile vacuole (2) A protein binding subunit that enhances gene
C. Periplaneta III. Flame cells
expression
D. Pherectima IV Urecose gland
(3) A cluster of structural genes with related functions
Choose correct answer from the options given below.
(4) A protein that inhibits translation
(1) A-I; B-II; C-IV; D-III
198. Seeds of a large number of species live for several
(2) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I
years, some seeds can remain alive for hundreds of
(3) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
years. The oldest known seed is
(4) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(1) Lupines (2) Phoenix dactylifera
195. Melonate inhibits the growth of pathogenic bacteria by
(3) Ginkgo (4) Psilotum
inhibiting the activity of
199. In recombinant DNA technology hepatitis B vaccine is
(1) amylase
produced from :
(2) lipase
(1) Adeno Virus (2) Yeast
(3) dinitrogenase
(3) Toxoplasma (4) Streptococcus
(4) succinic dehydrogenase
200. Which of the following statement is not true?
196. In a stable population of a country,
(1) BAC and YAC are the commonly used vectors in
(1) Reproductive and pre-reproductive individuals are
human genome sequencing
equal in number
(2) During HGP, the fragments were sequenced that
(2) Reproductive individuals are less than the post-
worked on the principle of a method developed by
reproductive individuals
Marshall Nirenberg
(3) Pre-reproductive individuals are more than the
(3) Caenorhabditis, Drosophila, and Arabidopsis have
reproductive individuals
also been completely sequenced
(4) Pre-reproductive individuals are less than the
(4) The human genome contains 3164.7 million
reproductive individuals
nucleotide base
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Space For Rough Work
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Space For Rough Work