Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

SBI CLERK MAINS MODEL TEST - 28

GENERAL AWARENESS
1. The Union Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports announced the names of the 2024

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National Sports Award winners on 2 January 2025. The award winners will be
felicitated by President Droupadi Murmu at a function at the Rashtrapati Bhavan
in New Delhi on 17 January 2025. Sucha Singh, who has been honored with the
2024 Arjuna award in the lifetime category, belongs to which sport?
1) Athletics 2) Hockey 3) Chess 4) Boxing 5) Wrestling
2. IDFC First Bank, in association with Swift, has become the first Indian bank to
offer a real-time tracking service for cross-border money transfers. This marks a
ha
significant milestone in the Indian banking industry. The service is available for
customers using the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) for various purposes.
What is the amount maximum amount that can be remitted under the LRS scheme
in the financial year?
1) USD 1,00,000
3) USD 1,50,000

E 2) USD 2,50,000
4) USD 2,00,000 5) USD 5,00,000
d
3. Which category industries have been exempted by the Ministry of Environment,
Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) from obtaining approval from the State
Pollution Control Boards (SPCBs)?
1) White Category 2) Blue Category
ee

3) Green Category 4) Grey Category 5) Gold Category

4. Greg Bell, the oldest living Olympic gold medallist in athletics and a remarkable
figure in the world of sports and medicine, passed away on January 25, 2025, at
C
the age of 94. His extraordinary contributions to the long jump and dentistry have
left a lasting impact on both fields, and his story continues to inspire future
generations. When did he receive the Olympic Gold Medal in the Long Jump?
Sr

1) 1949 2) 1956 3) 1971 4) 1968 5) 1975

5. “Raja Bhoj Airport” is located in which of the following Indian state?
1) Madhya Pradesh 2) Arunachal Pradesh 3) West Bengal
4) Maharashtra 5) Himachal Pradesh
6. Which company has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the
Ministry of Labour & Employment (MoLE) to enhance employment accessibility in
India?
1) Flipkart 2) Microsoft Corporation 3) MakeMyTrip 4) Amazon 5) Walmart
C
7. What is the name of the summit India will host for the first time in 2025?
1) Audio-Visual Content Expo 2) Global Entertainment Summit
3) World Creative Content Summit
4) International Media and Arts Summit
5) World Audio Visual Entertainment Summit
8. How much amount has been approved by the Cabinet Committee on Economic
Affairs (CCEA) headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi for the PAN 2.0 project of
the Income Tax Department?
1) Rs.1,812 crore 2) Rs.1,986 crore
3) Rs.1,435 crore 4) Rs.1,021 crore 5) Rs.1,773 crore
9. An investor is dubbed a ‘QIB’ if they are thought to require less regulatory protection
than unsophisticated investors. What does QIBs stand for?
1) Quality Index Broker 2) Quoted Interest Bonus
3) Quantitative Interest Buyout
4) Qualified institutional Buyer 5) Quarterly institutional Bailout
10. As National Wildlife Week comes on October 2, 2024, India prepares to recognize
its diverse ecosystems and highlight the crucial role that wildlife conservation
plays. When did the Indian Board of Wildlife establish itself?
1) 1952 2) 1953 3) 1954 4) 1951 5) 1950
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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

11. Which of the following ‘2025 Padma Vibhushan’ awardees are incorrectly matched
with their respective field?
1) Shri Jagdish Singh Khehar - Public Affairs
2) Shri Duvvur Nageshwar Reddy – Medicine
3) Shri M. T. Vasudevan Nair - Literature and Education
4) Shri Lakshminarayana Subramaniam – Others-Spiritualism
5) All options are correct.
12. Which of the following bank has launched a “FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management
Act) Centre of Excellence” proposition to help clients navigate and comply with
the dynamic regulatory environment and enhance efficiencies?
1) DBS Bank 2) Standard Chartered Bank
3) Deutsche Bank 4) World Bank 5) Barclays

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13. Morgan Stanley, an American multinational investment bank, has lowered its
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) projection for India to __________for the Financial
Year 2024-25 (FY25), down from its previous estimate of 6.7%.
1) 6.6% 2) 6.5% 3) 6.1% 4) 6.4% 5) 6.3%
14. A collection of non-bank financial intermediaries that provide services similar to
traditional commercial banks is known as ___________.
1) Off-shore Banking
ha
3) Shadow Banking System
2) Investment Banking System

4) Merchant Banking System 5) Conventional Banking

15.

E
The Odisha Warriors Club won the inaugural edition of the Women’s Hockey India
League 2024-25 titles by defeating Soorma Hockey Club 2-1 in the final played at
the Marang Gomke Jaipal Singh Munda Astro Turf Hockey Stadium in Ranchi on
d
26 January 2025. How many teams participated in the inaugural edition of the
Women’s Hockey India Leagues 2024-25?
1) Five Teams 2) Eight Teams3) Seven Teams 4) Four Teams 5) Six Teams
ee

16. Which of the following Committee recommended for setting up of National Bank
for Agriculture and Rural Development?
1) Vinod Singh Shekhawat 2) B Sivaraman 3) Narasimhan II
C
4) S Nagalingam 5) Balwant Rai Mehta
17. Which state will celebrate the Silver Jubilee of Hornbill Festival 2024 from 1
December to 10 December, in a vibrant cultural showcase attracting global visitors?
Sr

1) Meghalaya 2) Arunachal Pradesh

3) Assam 4) Tripura 5) Nagaland
18. In which among the following institutions the Union Minister Dharmendra Pradhan,
Ministry of Education (MoE), announced the set up of Artificial Intelligence (AI)
Centres of Excellence (CoEs) for ‘Sustainable Cities’?
1) IIT Madras 2) IIT Ropar 3) IIT Kanpur 4) IIT Bombay 5) IIT Delhi
19. The Government of India (GoI) has set up a Group of Ministers to address issues
C
related to the viability of the electricity distribution utilities in the country. The
first meeting of the Group of Ministers was held virtually recently. The meeting
was attended by the Energy Minister of the Central government, States, and
officials of the Central and State Governments. Who is the convenor of the Group?
1) Electricity Minister of Rajasthan, Heeralal Nagar
2) Electricity Minister of Tamil Nadu, V. Senthil Balaji
3) Electricity Minister of Andhra Pradesh, Gottipati Ravi Kumar
4) Electricity Minister of Uttar Pradesh, Arvind Kumar Sharma
5) Electricity Minister of Madhya Pradesh, Pradyuman Singh Tomar
20. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued an order to change the cap on loans
against shares and debentures for Urban Co-operative Banks. The prior ceiling
was established at what percentage of held funds?
1) 20% 2) 30% 3) 15% 4) 25% 5) 5%
21. Civil aviation is one of two major categories of flying, representing all non-military
and non-state aviation, both private and commercial. Who has been appointed as
the chief of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA)?
1) Ashutosh Agnihotri 2) Rajiv Gauba
3) Faiz Ahmed Kidwai 4) Sanjeev Chopra 5) Ajay Bhalla

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

22. Why did the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) supersede the board of Aviom India
Housing Finance Pvt Ltd?
1) Violation of foreign exchange laws
2) Merger with another financial institution
3) Governance issues and payment defaults
4) Non-compliance with RBI’s monetary policies
5) High-profit declaration despite financial losses
23. Which private firm has signed an Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) to promote the
startup ecosystem in the manufacturing sector?
1) Mahindra & Mahindra 2) Tata Advanced Systems
3) Reliance Industries 4) Infosys Foundation 5) Bhaane Group

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24. Which of the following National Park located in “Madhya Pradesh”?
1) Kanha National Park 2) Gorumara National Park
3) Gir Forest National Park
4) Jim Corbett National Park 5) Guindy National Park
25. Aditya Birla Housing Finance (ABHFL), a wholly owned subsidiary of Aditya Birla
Capital Ltd, has entered into a strategic partnership with which fintech company

1) PhonePe
ha
to facilitate access to home loans and loans against property for the latter’s
merchant partners?
2) GooglePay 3) BharatPe 4) AmazonPay 5) Paytm
26. Which of the following is/are NOT true regarding the “World Neglected Tropical
Diseases Day”?

E
1) The iconic India Gate was illuminated on 30 January 2025 in vibrant purple
and orange hues on the occasion of World Neglected Tropical Diseases Day.
d
2) The day has been observed every year since 2022 on 30 January to raise
awareness about neglected tropical diseases.
3) The theme of the 2025 day is Unite. Act. Eliminate.
ee

4) The first day was observed on 30th January 2022.

5) All options are correct.
27. State-owned Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML) has been awarded a contract
of how much rupees for designing, manufacturing, and commissioning two high-
C
speed train sets, marking the first time that such work will be done indigenously?
1) Rs 866.87 crore 2) Rs 876.69 crore
3) Rs 927.12 crore 4) Rs 761.45 crore 5) Rs 967.29 crore
Sr

28. A bank is governed by an international banking license (also known as an offshore

license), which prevents the bank from conducting business in the jurisdiction
where it was established, is called ____________.
1) Wholesale Bank 2) Retail Bank 3) Virtual Bank
4) Shadow Bank 5) Offshore Banks
29. What is the name of the ?100 crore credit guarantee scheme launched by the
Indian government for Ministry of Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (M/o MSME)?
1) MSME Growth Fund 2) Startup India Credit Scheme
C
3) Credit Linked Capital Subsidy Scheme
4) Emergency Credit Line Guarantee Scheme
5) Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme (MCGS-MSME)
30. Which organization released the List of the World's Greatest Places for 2024,
featuring the Museum of Solutions (MuSo) in Mumbai, Manam Chocolate in
Hyderabad, and Naar in Himachal Pradesh?
1) Forbes 2) S&P Global Market Intelligence
3) Wall Street Journal 4) TIME 5) Bloomberg
31. Which organisation has published the report “World Food and Agriculture:
Statistical Yearbook 2024”, stating that 152 million more people are facing hunger
in 2023?
1) Food Corporation of India 2) Food and Agriculture Organization
3) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
4) Indian Chamber of Food and Agriculture
5) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India
32. What are the height and width of Rs 500 note?
1) 61mmX147mm 2) 67mmX146mm
3) 62mmX132mm 4) 65mmX126mm 5) 66mmX150mm

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

33. On December 2, 2024, PhonePe announced the launch of a new Dengue and
Malaria Insurance Plan on its platform, starting at Rs 59 annually. The minimal
price of this health coverage plan provides comprehensive year-round coverage of
up to ______for medical expenses associated with vector and air-borne diseases.
1) Rs 50,000 2) Rs 75,000 3) Rs 1,00,000 4) Rs 1,50,000 5) Rs 2,00,000
34. In January 2025, SBI Payments and Pine Labs have announced an expanded
strategic alliance, building on their long-standing 12-year partnership. What is
the primary goal of the strengthened partnership between SBI Payments and
Pine Labs?
1) Establishing a new financial institution
2) Promoting cryptocurrency transactions
3) Expanding international banking operations

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4) Driving Digital commerce adoption in India
5) Increasing ATM installations across rural areas
35. The Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act draft regulations were released
by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). When will the
public be able to comment on these rules via the MyGov portal?
1) June 18, 2025 2) April 18, 2025
36.
3) January 18, 2025
ha 4) March 18, 2025 5) February 18, 2025
India’s FY25 GDP Growth Projection is upgraded to 7% by the Asian Development
Bank (ADB) Owing to Strong Investment and Consumer Demand. What percentage
of India's growth has the ADB projected for the fiscal year 2025–2026?

37.
1) 7.2% 2) 7.3%

E 3) 6.8% 4) 7.1% 5) 6.9%

Which of the following state government has launched the ‘Sustainable Wetland
and Integrated Fisheries Transformation (SWIFT)’ project to revitalise 129 Beels
d
and boost Indigenous fish production?
1) Maharashtra 2) Punjab
3) Chhattisgarh 4) Uttar Pradesh 5) Assam
ee

38. Which organisation has signed a MoU with the MS Swaminathan Research
Foundation (MSSRF) to launch the Rural Agriculture Innovation Programme (RAIN)?
1) Indian Institute of Soil Sciences 2) Indian Council of Agricultural Research
3) Centre for Cellular and Molecular Platforms
C
4) National Academy of Agricultural Research & Management
5) National Institute of Rural Development and Panchayati Raj
39. According to the Jana Small Finance Bank, it has launched the 'Liquid Plus Fixed
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Deposit' plan. The Liquid Plus Fixed Deposit duration varies from 7 to how many days?
1) 90 days 2) 150 days 3) 100 days 4) 180 days 5) 120 days
40. The Department of Pension and Pensioners’ Welfare organized the 7th Anubhav
Awards Ceremony in New Delhi. It has been organized to recognize the contribution
made by Government employees in service. How many have received Anubhav awards?
1) Five 2) Four 3) Six 4) Seven 5) Eight
41. In November 2024, which bank has become a signatory to the globally recognised
Partnership for Carbon Accounting Financials (PCAF)?
C
1) Indian Bank 2) Punjab National Bank
3) Union Bank of India 4) UCO Bank 5) Canara Bank
42. The United Nations General Assembly (UNGA) is one of the six principal organs of
the United Nations (UN), serving as its main deliberative, policymaking, and
representative organ.
Where is the headquarters of the 'UNGA'?
1) Geneva, Switzerland 2) London, United Kingdom
3) Vienna, Austria 4) New York, USA 5) Paris, France
43. Indian Squash prodigy Anahat Singh defeated Egypt’s Malika Elkaraksy to win the women’s
Under 17 British Junior Open 2025 Squash tournament in Birmingham, England.
Identify the “INCORRECT” Option from the British Junior Open 2025 Squash Tournament:
1) It was held in Birmingham, England from 2-6 January 2025.
2) The competition was held for both boys and girls in the five age groups Under
11, Under 13, Under 15, Under 17, and Under 19.
3) Over 777 squash players from 50 countries participated in the 99-year tournament.
4) Egypt finished the tournament with seven titles, while India, Pakistan, and the
United States of America each won one title.
5) All options are correct.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

44. What is the new deadline for implementing the transaction volume cap on UPI
apps as per NPCI?
1) December 31, 2030 2) December 31, 2028
3) December 31, 2026 4) December 31, 2027 5) December 31, 2025
45. Which country has been nominated as the “Country of Focus” by the Ministry of
Information and Broadcasting at the 55th edition of the International Film Festival
of India (IFFI) to be held in Goa from 20 November to 28 November 2024?
1) Singapore 2) Japan 3) France 4) Australia 5) USA
46. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to withdraw the ?2000 denomination
banknotes from circulation but they will continue to remain as legal tender. This
banknote was introduced in November 2016 under which section of RBI Act 1934?
1) Section 24(1) 2) Section 14(1)

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3) Section 45a (1) 4) Section 31b 5) Section 34(1)
47. ‘Guru Shikhar Peak’ situated in which of the following Indian State?
1) Karnataka 2) Rajasthan 3) Kerala 4) Andhra Pradesh 5) Himachal Pradesh
48. Which organisation has partnered with Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC)
Limited to form a 50: 50 Joint Venture Company (JVC) through their Green Energy
Subsidiaries?

49.
1) NTPC Limited
3) NHPC Limited
ha 2) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited
4) Indian Oil Corporation 5) GAIL (India) Limited
Elon Musk-owned social media platform X is collaborating with Visa to introduce
a real-time payment system, marking progress toward Musk’s long-standing goal

1) X Pay

E
of transforming the platform into an “everything app.” What is the name of the
upcoming payment service on X?
2) X Wallet 3) X Finance 4) X Digital Cash 5) X Money
d
50. Which agency has maintained India's Gross domestic product (GDP) growth
prediction for the current fiscal year (FY 2024-25) at 6.8%?
1) Fitch Rating 2) World Bank (WB)
ee

3) S&P Global ratings

4) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)5) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions (51-55): In this question a word has been given in followed by a sentence
C
has been given with four words given in bold denoted by (A), (B), (C) and (D). One
of the four given in bold may be inappropriate in the context of the sentence.
Sr

REPLACE that word with the Antonym of the given words such that when
rearranged, that word should be it both grammatically and meaningfully in the
sentence. Then rearrange the given words in order to form a grammatically correct
and meaningful sentence and answer the given questions:
51. We live in an era of minimal (A) post-retirement hate (B), medical cost inflation,
volatile interest rate cycles, credit busts and evolving (C) choices for post-
retirement investments (D).
1) ABDC: entertainment 2) BCDA: indifference
C
3) CBAD: aspirations 4) DCBA: fun 5) No replacement required
52. An important recommendation (A) of the Fifteenth Finance Commission is the
entry-level criterion(B) to avail the union(C) local grant by local (D) governments
1) ABDC: conjecture 2) BCDA: guess 3) ABCD: change
4) DCBA: possibility 5) No replacement required
53. the condition is online submission (A) of annual accounts (B) for the previous
year and before (C) accounts for the year neglect(D).
1) ABDC: audited 2) BCDA: scrutinize
3) ABCD: review 4) DCBA: survey 5) No replacement required
54. The National Democratic Alliance Government (A), under the leadership (B) of
the Prime Minister, has relationships (C) transformed Centre-State effectively
(D).
1) ABCD: finally 2) BCDA: thoroughly 3) ABDC: completely
4) DCBA: comprehensively 5) No replacement required
55. Neither the Fifteenth(A) Finance Commission nor the earlier equivalent (B) took
pains to examine (C) how and where the financial reporting (D) system has
failed.
1) ABDC: obverse 2) BCDA: supplement
3) ABCD: counterparts 4) DCBA: ditto 5) No replacement required

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

Directions (56-57): Select the correct way (among the given option) to connect
the sentences given below in the question. If all are in correct, choose ‘none of
these’ as your answer.
56. There are serious problems in our country. We feel this is a good time to return.
1) There are serious problems in our country. Nonetheless, we feel this is a good
time to return.
2) There are serious problems in our country whereas; we feel this is a good time
to return.
3) There are serious problems in our country. Similarly, we feel this is a good
time to return.
4) There are serious problems in our country. In addition to, we feel this is a good
time to return.

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5) None of these
57. Eternal truths will be neither true nor eternal. they have fresh meaning for every
new social situation.
1) Eternal truths will be neither true nor eternal unless they have fresh meaning
for every new social situation.
2) Eternal truths will be neither true nor eternal until they have fresh meaning
ha
for every new social situation.
3) Eternal truths will be neither true nor eternal up to they have fresh meaning
for every new social situation.
4) Eternal truths will be neither true nor eternal till they have fresh meaning for

5) None of these

E
every new social situation.

Directions (58-59): In the following questions, five options are given in each
d
question, select the best one which is either starting of the sentence or ending of
the sentence to form a meaningful paragraph. If none of the correct, to mark the
option ‘5’ as your answer.
ee

58. Before starting Kakao in 2010, his first venture was Hangame, an online game
developer, which merged with a search company to form what’s known today as
Naver, Korea’s other internet giant.
C
1) Kakao is also expected to list its Kakao Bank unit as early as next month,
which could fetch $1.8 billion.
2) Kim launched Hangame after spending five years grinding away inside Samsung’s
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IT services group until the first dot-com bubble lured him away.
3) The company is expanding now through its Kakao Entertainment mass media
company and the taxi-hailing app Kakao Mobility with plans for IPOs next year,
4) Taking that user base to other places, Yi says, Kakao added advertising, e-
commerce, maps, games and financial services.
5) NONE OF THE ABOVE
59. And climate change realities force governments and corporations to take meaningful
action for a cleaner future
C
1) Numerous countries worldwide are racing to meet Paris Agreement targets. Coal
use needs to halve this decade to keep warming below 2°C.
2) Although all coal assets are forecast to generate sufficient revenues, forecasts
highlight significant variability in profitability between coal assets.
3) And if renewables are going to have a big share then definitionally there will be
less share and lower revenue for thermal and particularly coal generation.
4) The transition to clean energy is well underway in Australia and around the
world as countries make net zero commitments, finance for coal dries up.
5) NONE OF THE ABOVE
Directions(60-61): Choose the appropriate antonym for the bolded word in the
given sentence.
60. The democratization of the mapping data will facilitate the rise of the latest
technologies as well as platforms that will bring efficiencies in allied and
agriculture sectors.
1) joined 2) bound 3) linked 4) associated 5) single
61. Indigenous capability for the design and development of satellite and associated
technologies for communications, navigation, remote sensing and space sciences.
1) primitive 2) alien 3) domestic 4) endemic 5) innate

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

Directions (62-64): Read the passage and answer the question.

62. Mr. S recently visited Amazon rain forests. He went deep into the forests and
posted pictures on Instagram. He took help of local guide and visited most exquisite
places in southern Brazil. He is always willing to visit new places and have new
experiences. Which of the following best describes Mr. S
1) Adventurous 2) fool hardy 3) brave 4) hazardous 5) reckless
63. My mother met a man near the bus station shivering and he has nothing to cover
his body. My mother felt pity and covered him with a blanket. What kind of person
is she?
1) Pragmatic 2) Serious 3) Inventive 4) Nervous 5) Considerate
64. The lectures given by sir motivates the students in the institute to get good
marks in English. He is very expressive trying to infuse positive thought to meet

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the meter. Choose the word the best describes him.
1) Serious 2) Persuasive 3) Passive 4) Introverted 5) Docile
Directions (65-72): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions
It is a far cry from an earlier period of digital expansion, when internet
ha
communication was seen to promote global exchange and understanding. The
time when the word “global” was likely to attach to the word “digital” is most
definitely over. The new elites in many Western countries are no longer

E
cosmopolitan and globalist, but rather isolationist and identitarian. Before,
technology was supposed to connect and mediate. The online world seemed like a
Disney vision of multiculturalism, promoting sterile tolerance from above. Now
d
technology divides and fragments; it identifies and ranks people.
Mária Schmidt, a historian close to Hungary’s illiberal leader, Viktor Orban,
argues that automation and artificial intelligence will reduce the demand for
ee

labor and thus for migration. So automation not only disadvantages local workers,
but also benefits closed and homogeneous societies. It also wrecks the public
conversation via bots and botnets impersonating real people, spreading viral
disinformation and broken news. This rise of artificial stupidity is the antithesis
C
of, or rather the millions of shabby little cousins to, artificial intelligence. Just as
socialism in practice has been a far cry from the glorious promises of
revolutionaries, artificial stupidity is a mediocre and greedy version of the sublime
Sr

machine intelligence intended to elevate and improve human life.

All sorts of minor communication applications are artificial stupidities. And
though they may not seem impressive, their real-world effects are baffling: the
destruction of public discourse and the polarization of populations; wages and
hours managed by algorithms; customer service, clerical, counseling or legal
work eliminated by virtual assistants or chatbots. Even simple things, such as
buying a ticket for a plane, train or concert, have become arduous and frustrating
C
chores in an era of targeted, opaque pricing. Instead of a common reality and a
set of rules that apply to everyone, we have frustration, dysfunction and a waste
of precious time and energy.
And automation is not alone in chipping away at modern society. The few
platforms that effectively own the digital communication sphere today operate
without serious checks and balances, or even basic competition in an open market.
Their algorithms are proprietary and unknown. There are few alternatives, if
any, for consumers. The result is an endless cycle of broken news and quarter-
truths, stretched and repurposed ad nauseam, because in the age of artificial
stupidity, truth is traded for popularity and reach. The norms of reality TV have
found a foothold in the digital age. The point is not that there is no reality — the
point is that it’s every fact for itself, competing against all others, while social
media multiply alternative versions of it. If you don’t like the reality you are
facing, there is always another one, custom-made for your preferences. This is
our real, existing digital world: nothing more than hourly waves of feverish and
toxic agitation, played out over stale mainstream channels that discourage
innovation and experimentation, drown in excruciating advertisements and drain
people’s attention and souls.

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

An unpopular truth cannot survive online in such a world, because traction

is privileged over _______________. And to artificially stupid automatons and
algorithms, reality is defined as brute quantity, by ranking, ratings and elimination.
The truth doesn’t fit into that mold. The truth is a piece of work with unruly and
messy details that nevertheless require attention and never fully add up. It is
usually much too complicated to be entertaining, and it may not be to everyone’s
liking at all. It may not make things easier or more efficient — quite the opposite,
in fact. If truth is not a marketable item, like clean environments or livable
neighborhoods, the platforms that manage digital communication seem to show
little interest in maintaining it, letting broken news propagate. As a result, fake
reports, digital rumors and conspiracy theories have moved from fringe to
mainstream. They have also created a new reality.

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Facts, on the other hand, are often quite unspectacular. They will not improve,
and may even deteriorate, if they are “liked” or shared. And both facts and the
truth rely on strong institutions, not consumers, to defend them: judiciaries,
scientific communities, an independent press. It is no coincidence that all those
institutions are being undermined in many countries around the world — see the
rioters in Chemnitz fuming at the “lying press,” the defunding of scientific research

65.
ha
throughout the Western world or attempts at the partisan realignment of judicial
institutions, such as Poland’s Supreme Court.
What is the main idea of the passage?
1) Technology in today’s world

E
2) Technology is changing day by day.
3) Technology has destroyed reality.
4) Technology can affect people’s health. 5) Technology can do anything
d
66. What is the earlier period of digital expansion?
1) The period of time when internet communication encouraged and supported
the world of digital.
ee

2) It is when people start to communicate.

3) The period of time that technology was first invented.
4) When technology was used. 5) Both B and C
67. The word “homogeneous” given in bold in the passage is closest in meaning to...
C
1) Same 2) Equal 3) United 4) Alike 5) Consistent
68. What does the word “antithesis” mean as used in the passage?
1) Similarity 2) Exact opposite 3) Defiance 4) Relate 5) Convey
Sr

69. In the following sentence, the word “it” refers to...

It also wrecks the public conversation via bots and botnets impersonating real people,
spreading viral disinformation and broken news.
1) Artificial intelligence 2) Demand 3) Society 4) Automation 5) Technology
70. What can be inferred from the third paragraph?
1) Automation and artificial intelligence will decrease the needs of people.
2) Many jobs such as customer service or counseling will be taken over by computer.
3) Some of the western elites turn to isolationist.
C
4) Mária Schmidt is a historian close to Hungary’s illiberal leader.
5) Automation has a lot of disadvantages to local workers
71. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in the passage to make it
contextually correct and meaningful?
1) falsehood 2) veracity 3) infidelity 4) hypothesis 5) conjecture
72. Which of the following sentences is/are true according to the passage?
I. The algorithms of few platforms that effectively own the digital communication
sphere are proprietary and unknown.
II. Fake reports, digital rumors and conspiracy theories have created a new reality.
III. Facts are often quite unspectacular.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) II and III Only 4) Only III 5) I, II and III
Directions (73-75): In this question a sentence is given with bolded part that in
it. Choose the correct meaning of these idioms and phrases out of the given
options
73. We found that two key resource uses and two basic technologies lay at the root
of lunar industry.
1) Take on a project that you cannot finish 2) To make a bad situation worse
3) Good things come after bad things 4) The reason for some thing 5) none

8
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

74. After the warning about the aggressive dog, I decided to steer clear of that
neighbourhood during my evening walks.”
1) To avoid getting involved in a particular subject or situation.
2) Avoid someone or something because it is dangerous for you
3) To navigate or guide away from obstacles
4) To intentionally approach and confront a challenging situation. 5) none
75. The new documentary aims to cast light on the untold stories of marginalized
communities, shedding light on their struggles and resilience
1) information that makes it easier to understand
2) something that is unlikely to happen, often said mockingly
3) To do something without worrying about the risk
4) Too morally or socially extreme to accept 5)none

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Directions (76-80): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions
given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while
answering some of the questions
Dolphin, any of the toothed whales belonging to the mammal family
Delphinidae (oceanic dolphins) as well as the families Platanistidae and Iniidae,
the two that contain the river dolphins. Of the nearly 40 species of dolphins in
ha
the Delphinidae, 6 are commonly called whales, including the killer whale and
the pilot whales. The name dol phin is also applied to members of
the fish genus Coryphaena (family Coryphaenidae). Most dolphins are small,
measuring less than 3 metres (10 feet) in length, and have spindle (A) -shaped

E
bodies, beaklike snouts (rostrums), and simple needle like teeth. Some of
these cetaceans are occasionally called porpoises, but scientists prefer to use
this term as the common name for the six species in the family Phocoenidae, all
d
of which differ from dolphins in having blunt (B) snouts and spade like teeth.
Dolphins are popularly noted for their grace, intelligence, playfulness, and
friendliness to humans. The most widely recognized species are
ee

the common and bottlenose dolphins (Delphinus delphis and Tursiops truncatus,
respectively). The bottlenose, characterized by a “built-in smile” formed by the
curvature of its mouth, has become a familiar performer in oceanariums. It has
also become the subject of scientific studies because of its intelligence and ability
C
to communicate by using a range of sounds and ultrasonic pulses. It adapts to
captivity better than the common dolphin, which is timid. In addition,
the bottlenose dolphin has the longest social memory of any nonhuman species;
Sr

several members of the species were able to recognize the unique whistles of
individual dolphins they once associated with at least 20 years after becoming
separated from them. Bottlenose dolphins have demonstrated the ability to
recognize their reflections in several experiments, suggesting a degree of self-
awareness. That capability has been observed only in higher primates and a few
other animal species.
76. According to the passage given above, what is the special quality of dolphin compare
to other nonhuman beings?
C
1) recognize the unique whistles of individual 2) the longest social memory
3) noted for their grace, intelligence, playfulness
4) ability to communicate by using a range of sounds
5) ability to recognize their reflections in several experiments
77. Which of the following is SIMILAR in meaning to the word spindle (A)given in
bold in the above passage?
1) exteriority 2) periphery 3) outside 4) pivot 5) exterior
78. According to the passage given above, what is the characteristic feature of
bottlenose?
1) suggesting a degree of self-awareness
2) It adapts to captivity better than the common dolphin 3) friendliness to humans.
4) “built-in smile” formed by the curvature of its mouth 5) none
79. Which of the following is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word blunt (B) given in
bold in the above passage?
1) smoothed 2) sharp 3) round 4) edgeless 5) dull
80. According to the passage given above, what is the common name for six species
used by scientists?
1) porpoises 2) Coryphaena 3) Platanistidae 4) Iniidae 5) Coryphaenidae

9
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

Directions (81-82): Read the following sentences and find out the sentence which
is grammatically correct.
81. 1) home species that live at or just above the high tide level are sometimes
considered to be sea snails and sometimes listed as land snails.
2) Sea snails are a very large group of animals and a very diverse one.
3) Most snails that live in salt water respire using a gill or gills.
4) A few species have a lung, are intertidal, and are active only at low tide when
they can move around in the air.
5) All correct
82. 1) This is not the first time the controversial Confederate flag has been included
on materials issued by the state and used as a symbol of Georgia’s heritage.

r’s
2) Napoleon shatter this coalition with decisive victories in the Ulm Campaign,
and a historic triumph at the Battle of Austerlitz.
3) Behavioral problems or psychosis due to dementia are often treat with
antipsychotics, but this is not usually recommended.
4) The speed of growth is affected by a few variables such as the temperature of
the water, depth on the water, food present for the snail, as well as isotopic
oxygen levels.
5) All correct
ha
Directions (83-85) : In each question, you have been given a small paragraph
with three blanks followed by six words out of three could fill blanks. Identify

E
which of the given options would correctly mention the pattern of the options
which would be filling the blanks.
d
83. The numerous concordats ___________ towards the middle of the 19th century
with several of the South American republics either have not come into force or
have been _________and replaced ________a more or less pacific modus vivendi.
ee

(i) underdone (ii) concluded (iii) by (iv) with

(v) affirmed (vi) denounced
1) (iii), (i) & (vi) 2) (vi), (v) & (iv) 3) (i), (v) & (iii)
4) (ii), (vi) & (iii) 5) NONE OF THESE
C
84. Another fact of __________ technical importance is, that the various races of
__________show considerable differences in the amount and proportion of
Sr

________products other than ethyl alcohol and carbonic acid which they produce..
(i) bantam (ii) considerable (iii) ease
(iv) fermentation (v) yeast (vi) deterrent
1) (vi), (v) & (iii) 2) (ii), (v) & (iv) 3) (v), (i) & (iii)
4) (iii), (i) & (v) 5) NONE OF THESE
85. Early in the year, Microsoft announced a commitment to _________an amount of
carbon ________to what it calculates is all of the carbon it has _________since it
was founded in 1975.
C
(i) equivalent (ii) capture (iii) capture
(iv) disparate (v) emitted (vi) kept
1) (i), (v) & (vi) 2) (i), (ii) & (iv) 3) (iii), (i) & (v)
4) (vi), (ii) & (v) 5) NONE OF THESE
Direction (86-88): In the following question, three sentences (I, II and III) are
divided into four or five parts (A), (B), (C) and (D)/(E). There is an error in one part
of each of the sentences. Select the option with the parts containing errors in all
three sentences and mark it as your answer. If there is no error in any part of a
sentence, select ‘E’ as the answer for that sentence.
86. I. Hardly had we settled down (A)/on the night’s rest when we were startled (B)/
by the loud noise being (C)/made outside the house (D) /No error (E)
II. According to me (A)/every student of English literature (B)/ must read all the
best tragedies (C) of Shakespeare. (D) /No error (E)
III. Sirivennela, who conceived, co-authored (A)/and wrote a number of good songs,
(B)/was one of India’s most(C)/ talented lyricist (D) / No error (E)
1) III D, II A, I B 2) I A, II C, III E 3) II D, III A, I E
4) I C, II A, III D 5) All are correct

10
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

87. I. In urban society the social circle (A) / is limited with the family but (B)/in the
villages it encompasses (C)/ the entire village (D)/ No error (E)
II. In this age of despair and despondency (A)/ only our rich cultural heritage can
help (B)/ us escape to (C)/ the menacing doom (D)/ No error (E)
III. For nearly half a century he lived in that village, (A)/ sharing the joys and
sorrows of the people (B)/ there, but later he left the village (C) and has not been
heard of since. (D) No error (E)
1) III D, II C, I B 2) I A, II C, III E 3) II D, III A, I E
4) I A, II D, III B 5) All are correct
88. I. The beauty of her autobiography lies(A)/ in coming to terms with life facing(B)/
its many challenges(C)/ through a rare courage.(D)/ No error

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II. (A) A delegation of Parliament of Members /(B) from Punjab met Union Home
Minister Amit Shah /(C) to seek the resumption of train services /(D) to the State
stopped since September. /(E) NO ERROR
III. (A) The most youngest of Mr. Lalu Prasad’s /(B) nine children, Mr. Tejashwi
faced criticism for “not accommodating” /(C) allies, especially the Communist
ha
Party of /(D) India’s rising star Kanhaiya Kumar, due to “insecurity”. /(E) NO
ERROR
1) III C, II A, I B 2) I D, II C, III E 3) II D, III A, I E
4) I D, II A, III A

E 5) All are correct

Directions (89-90): Choose the word that is closest in meaning to the bolded
word in the sentence
d
89. The positive feedback from early product testing augurs well for the success of
our upcoming launch.
1) portend 2) Herald 3) Predict 4) Presage 5) conceal
ee

90. A spate of new regulations has been introduced to address safety concerns in the
construction industry.
1) puissant 2) pervade 3) deluge 4) cliché 5) trickle
C
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
Direction (91-96): Read the data and answer the following questions.
Sr

The pie chart given below shows the degree or percentage wise distribution of the
number of literate males about the total number of literate males across five
villages together named 'P', 'Q', 'R', 'S' and 'T'
The table below represents the ratio of the number of literate males to the number
of literate females, along with the percentage of the literate population out of the
total population of each city.
C
NUMBER OF LITERATE MALES ACROSS FIVE CITIES

35% o P
54
Q
R
S
o o
90 60 T

1
8 %
3

11
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

City literate male: percentage of

literate female literate
population
P 4:3 63%
Q 5:4 54%
R 5:3 64%
S 1:3 45%
T 3:5 48%
Note:
(1) Total literate population of a city = Number of literate males + Number of
literate females in the city
(2) Total illiterate population of a city = Number of illiterate males + Number of

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illiterate females in the city
(3) Total population of a city = Total literate population + Total illiterate population
of the city
(Total literacy population )
(4) Literacy Rate =  100
(Total population)

(a) Male literacy Rate =

ha (Total male literacy population )
 100
(Total male population)

(b) Female literacy Rate =

E (Total female literacy population )

(Total female population)
 100
d
(5) The average literate population of city P, R, and S together is 3350
91. What is the difference between the number of illiterate males in City 'P' and the
number of illiterate males in city 'R', given that the female literacy rate in city 'P'
ee

6
is 42 % and the male literacy rate in city 'R' is 60%?
7
1) 400 2) 680 3) 450 4) 340 5) 600
C
92. If the total literate female population in all five given cities together is represented
as a pie chart then what is the central angle corresponding to the combined
literate female population of city 'Q' and city 'T'?(Approximately)
Sr

1) 1580 2) 1400 3)1300 4) 1200 5) 1100

93. What is the average number of illiterate population of the all the cities together?
1) 3200 2) 3914 3) 3714 4) 3002 5) 3600
94. What is the sum of the literate female population of city S and total literate males
population in city R?
1) 6000 2) 6200 3) 7400 4) 7600 5) 7200
95. What is the overall literacy rate in all the five cities together? (Approximately)
C
1) 50% 2) 60% 3) 75% 4) 65% 5) 45%
96. What is the difference between literate males to literate females in all the cities?
1) 4320 2) 3350 3) 4530 4) 5400 5) 2500
1
97. A bank lends some money to a farmer at 12 % per annum for 1 year 73 days. How
2
much compound interest the farmer had to pay if the simple interest for the first
year was Rs. 8000. Find The values of the CI and sum lent.
(Note: Consider 1 year is equal to 365 days)
1) 4800, 64000 2) 3600, 25000 3) 5200, 45000
4) 9800, 64000 5) 1200,36000
98. The quadratic equations Y2 – 6Y + P = 0 and Y²-nq + 6 = 0 have one root in common
and the other roots of equations (i) and (ii) are integers in the ratio of 4: 3 then,
what is the value of common root
1) 3 2) 1 3) 4 4) 6 5) 2
99. A and B takes 'x' days to complete the work together, A takes x+8 days to complete
the work individually and B takes x +32 days to complete the work individually.
Find the time required to finish the work together and time taken by A and B
individually. (In days)
1) 8,12,24 2) 8,16,32 3) 16, 24, 48 4) 24,36,72 5) 36,48,72
12
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

100. A salesman sells 12 Notebooks on Monday, 15 Notebooks on Tuesday, 18 Notebooks

on Wednesday, 20 Notebooks on Thursday and 16 Notebooks on Friday. If the
salesman is paid Rs. x for selling every 12 Notebooks and Rs. y for selling every
extra Notebook, then find the average of daily earning of the salesman in rupees
for the five days?
21y 19 y 17 y 18 y 14 y
1) x  2) x  3) x  4) x  5) x 
5 5 5 5 5
101. A car travels a distance of 2376 km from point A to B in 'P' hours. Bike 'X' covers
the same distance in (P-30.5) hours, while bike 'Y' takes 18 hours to cover the
same distance. The speed ratio of bike 'X' to bike 'Y' is 4:3. What is the speed of

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the car? (In kmph)
1) 33 2) 36 3) 45 4) 54 5) 56
Direction (102-106): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given following questions.
The table given below shows the number of students in two different streams (A
and B), percentage of students in A and number of students in B in four different
ha
engineering colleges. Some values are missing.
Engineering Total Percentage of Number of
colleges students(A+B) students in students in

P
Q
R

E 1936
-------
-------
stream A
50%
65%
44%
stream B
------
------
1008
d
S 1800 ----- ------

102. In college S, if the percentage range of students in stream A lies within 20  X <
30 and X is an even multiple by the sequence of 7 and 4 then find the Square root
ee

of number of students in stream B in college S?

1) 34 2) 36 3) 44 4) 46 5) 54
103. If the number of students in stream B in college Q is 156 more than 4 times the
C
difference between total students in college P and S, then find the sum of total
number of students in college R and the number of students in stream A in
college Q?
Sr

1) 3500 2) 2100 3)4600 4) 3100 5) 5100

104. Find the average of all the students in all four colleges P, Q, R and S in both (A
and B) streams. If the number of students in college R in stream B is 25% less
than the number of students in college Q in stream B.
1) 2344 2) 2144 3) 2304 4) 1936 5) 3969
105. If the total number of students in college T is 3 times the number of students in
3
stream A in college P and the number of students in stream B in college T is th
C
4
of the total students in that college. Then find the average of total number of
students in stream A in college T and the number of students in stream B in
college P?
1) 600 2) 850 3) 910 4) 947 5) 847
106. If the ratio of the total number of students in stream B in college S and total
number of students in stream B in college P is 3:4. Then find the number of
1
students in stream B in college Q, which is 33 % more than the number of
3
students in college S in stream A?
1) 1728 2) 1331 3) 1432 4) 1500 5) 1532
107. The ratio of the marked price to cost price of the watch is 5: 4 and the ratio of the
marked price to cost price of the mobile phone is 6: 5. If the difference between
the selling price of the watch and mobile phone is Rs.4350 and ratio of the cost
price of watch to mobile phone is 2: 3, and if the profit earned from watch and
mobile phone is 30% and 35% respectively, then what is the difference between
the marked price of watch and mobile phone?
1) 2000 2) 3300 3) 3000 4) 2200 5) 3500

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

108. Time taken by a boat to cover half of a distance in upstream is equal to time taken
by boat to cover total distance in downstream. If boat covers a distance 480 km
downstream with three different speeds in three different parts in the ratio of 12:
1
17 : 19 respectively. Boat cover first part with usual speed, second part with rd
3
of its usual speed and third part with half of its usual speed, if boat takes total
38.2 hours to cover total distance. Find usual speed of boat.(in kmph)
1) 24 2) 20 3) 18 4) 12 5) 15
109. There are two containers A and B containing mixture of milk and water. The
concentration of milk in container A and B is (x – 10)% and (x + 15)% respectively.
If both mixtures are mixed together in a certain ratio to get 175 litres of mixture

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in which the concentration of milk is (x + 8)%, find the amount of mixture used
from container B.
1) 121 2) 144 3) 136 4) 126 5) 150
7
110. The area of a triangle is th of the area of a rectangle whose sides satisfy the
12
ha
quadratic equation x2 – 25x + 144 = 0 and the base of the given triangle is 14 cm.
If the side of a square is equal to the height of the given triangle, then what will
be the perimeter of the square? (in cm)
1) 42 2) 48 3) 54 4) 64 5) 72

E
Direction (111-115): In the given question two quantities are given, one as Quantity
I and another as Quantity II. You have to determine relationship between two
Quantities and choose the appropriate option.
d
111. A box contains 40 balls, in which 5 are red balls, 6 are green balls, 9 are blue
balls, and the remaining are yellow balls.
Quantity I: Probability of picking 3 balls such that at least one of them is red
ee

Quantity II: Probability of picking 3 balls such that at least one of them is blue
1) Quantity I < Quantity II 2) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity I
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established.
C
112. Quantity I: Syam can row a boat 54 km upstream in 9 hours. If speed of Syam boat
is 10 km/h. find how much Syam can row downstream in 12 hours.
Sr

Quantity II: Varun boat travelled 120 km in 12 hours in still water. If total time
taken by Varun to reach the distance is 8 hours for first half of time he goes
against the stream and for remaining half along with the stream. Find the distance
travelled, if speed of stream is 2 km/h.
1) Quantity I  Quantity
2) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established.
3) Quantity I > Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I < Quantity II
C
113. Quantity I: A vessel contains 60 litres of milk but the milkman is planning to
replace 10 litres of milk with water and he will repeat this process total 3 times.
Find the quantity of milk left in the container
Quantity II: There is a mixture of 44 litres of honey and water in the ratio of 5:6
Find the amount which should be added to both honey and water to make the
ratio of water to honey 25: 27
1) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established.
2) Quantity I  Quantity II 3) Quantity I  Quantity II
4) Quantity I <Quantity II 5) Quantity I > Quantity II
114. A B, C can do a job working alone in 18, 36, 54 days respectively
Quantity I. A and B work for 6 days. Then they left the work, remaining work is
done by C alone in how many days.
Quantity II: A, B and C work alternately for 12 days, remaining work is done by A
and C together in how many days.
1) Quantity I  Quantity
2) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established.
3) Quantity I > Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
5) Quantity I < Quantity II

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

115. Quantity I: The average of 20 numbers is calculated as 45. It is discovered later

that while calculating the average one number namely 80, was misread as 40.
Find the correct average
Quantity II: Three numbers are in the ratio 5:8:7. If the sum of the first and
second numbers is greater than the third number by 18. find the sum of three
numbers.
1) Quantity I = Quantity II or Relation cannot be established.
2) Quantity I  Quantity 3) Quantity I  Quantity II
4) Quantity I < Quantity II 5) Quantity I > Quantity II
Directions (116-120): Read the data and answer the given following questions.
Train A of length [I] meters crosses a platform twice its length in 30 seconds.
Another train B of length 400 meters crosses a cyclist, moving in the opposite

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direction as that of train with a speed 18 kmph. in 20 seconds. Ratio of speed of
trains A and B is 4:1 respectively. Both the trains can cross each other while
moving opposite directions in [II] seconds.
Train A is supposed to travel 6480 km with the condition that it will take rest
of 20 minutes after travelling for an hour. Total time of travel for train A to cover
6480 km is [III] hr. On the other hand, train B charges a fare of Rs.2.50 for 1 km
[IV] hours
ha
journey. If ashok paid Rs. 1620 for the ticket in train B, then he could travel for

116. Find the number of factors of Value (I)

1) 30 2) 28 3) 26 4) 20 5) 24
117. find the value of IV: (II+III)
1) 53:12 2) 12:53

E 3) 11:12 4) 12:11 5) 23:13

118. Find the time taken by a train X to cross a pole if speed of train X is 54 km/h and
d
length of train X is (I-IV+ 162) meters.
1) 35 sec 2) 36 sec 3) 40 sec 4) 54 sec 5) 50 sec
119. Find the value of II-IV.
ee

4 5 1 2 7
1) 2) 3) 4) 5)
3 3 3 3 3
120. Find the simple interest earned if Rs. 12000 is invested at a rate of 10% p.a. for
C
(II+III) years.
1) 51000 2) 56000 3) 54500 4) 62000 5) 63600
DIRECTION (121-125): What approximate value will come in place of the question
Sr

(?) in the given question? (You are not expected to calculate exact value).
121. (78425.411 – 53267.123 – 15417.77 – 9649.98) × 6403 =?
1) 6880 2) 7840 3) 6440 4) 5460 5) 7280
122. 31.01% of 560.32 + 36% of 579.89 = ?% of 1708.08
1) 32 2) 22 3)42 4) 26 5) 29
123. (19.98%of 750  34.9  3.6) = ?2 - 33.67
C
3

1) 4 2) 8 3) 2 4) 6 5) 9
124. 3
2743  3 4916  3.054  ?
1) 784 2) 961 3) 841 4) 729 5) 1024
125. 0.004 × 0.8 × 0.006 × 0.3 + 0.007 × 0.4 + 25.75 – 23.15 = ?
1) 5 2) 3 3) 6 4) 4 5) 7
Direction (126 – 128In the following question, two equations I and II are given.
You have to solve both the equations and give answer.
126. I. 6 6 x2 - 216 =0 II. 3 125 y2 -125=0
1) x > y 2) x  y 3) x < y
4) x  y 5) x = y or the relation cannot be established
5/ 2
8 5 14
127. I. + = x II. y2- =0
x x y
1) x  y 2) x < y 3) x  y
4) x > y 5) x = y or the relation cannot be established

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

128. I. x3-507=79000 II. 5y2-8000=10000

1) x = y or the relation cannot be established 2) x > y
3) x  y 4) x < y 5) x  y
129. The cold water pipe can fill a tank in 30 minutes and the hot water pipe in 15
minutes. A person leaves the place after turning on both pipes simultaneously
and returns at the moment when the tank was supposed to be completely full but
he found that the waste pipe was also open because of which the time taken to fill
the tank is 11 minutes more than the usual time. Find the time in which the
waste pipe can empty the full tank?(in minutes)
10 1 9 1 1
1) 10 2) 19 3) 11 4) 12 5) 13
11 11 11 11 11

r’s
130. In a class of 150 students, a class test for two subjects maths and social was
conducted (x+50) students passed in maths and (x + 40) students passed in social
and no student failed in both subjects. If 80 students passed in both subject,
then, what is the number of students passed in only maths?
1) 50 2) 60 3)45 4) 30 5) 40
131. The cost price of 30 kg sugar is equal to the selling price of 20 kg sugar, the cost
price of 36 kg rice is equal to the selling price of 30 kg rice and the cost price of 30
ha
kg wheat is equal to the selling price of 40 kg wheat. If the ratio of the cost price
of wheat, rice, and sugar is 4:5:6 respectively then find the overall profit/loss
percentage on selling 2 kg sugar, 4 kg rice, and 2 kg wheat.

1) 12
1
2
2) 12

E 3) 15 4) 20
132. There are three vessels P, Q and R having petrol to kerosene ratio as 3:5, 1:3 and
5) 25
d
7:X. After adding mixture of vessel Q to P, the petrol to kerosene ratio becomes
1:2 in P. Now 60% of mixture is taken out from vessel P and mixture of vessel R is
mixed with remaining mixture of vessel P which results in a final petrol to kerosene
ee

ratio of 3:4. Find the value of X given that volume of Q is 20 litres and volume of R
is (7 + X) liters.
1) 8 2) 6 3) 4 4) 12 5) 10
C
Directions (133 -137): Study the data carefully and answer the following questions.
Line chart given below shows markup percentage above Cost price of article B.
And discount percentage given on article A on five different days while table given
Sr

below shows ratio between marked price of article A to marked price of article B
on these days.
MARKUP PERCENTAGE OF ARTICLE B DISCOUNT PERCENTAGE ON ARTCLE A

140
125 125
120 110 110
100
100
80
C
60
40
40 30
20
20
20 10
0
TUESDAY WEDNESDAY THURSDAY FRIDAY SATURDAY

DAYS Mark up percent of article A : Mark up percent of article B

Tuesday 16:25
Wednesday 1:2
Thursday 13:22
Friday 3:5
Saturday 5:11

133. Ratio between cost price of article A on Tuesday to Friday is 4 : 5. Retailer earns
Rs.150 profit on selling article A on Friday. Find profit earned on selling article B
on Tuesday, if he give 35% discount on marked price of B while Cost price of
article A and B is same on Tuesday.
1) 1110 2) 1210 3)1310 4) 1400 5) 1500

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

134. On selling article A and B on Saturday, retailer earns total Rs.2860 profit. If selling
price of article B is Rs.1040 more than selling price of article A and cost price of
article A and B is same, then find discount percentage offered on article B.
2 2
1) 14 2) 16 3) 20 4) 40 5)25
7 3
135. The ratio of the cost price of article A to article B on Thursday is 3 : 4. Retailers
earn 26% profit on selling article B by giving a discount of Rs.2016. Find the
difference between the selling price of both articles.
1) 1440 2) 732 3) 841 4) None of these 5) 1260
136. Find the profit percentage earned by the retailer on selling article B on Wednesday
at a 40% discount, if the cost price of article B is 20% less than that of article A.

r’s
1) 20 2) 50 3)30 4) 25 5) 35
137. If profit earned on selling article A on Tuesday is 352 then find the total profit
earned by retailer on selling article A on all five days. It is given that ratio between
cost price of article A on respective days starting from Tuesday to Saturday is
1 : 2 : 3 : 4 : 5.
1) 2204 2) 4400 3) 3604 4) 2604 5) 4604
ha
Direction (138-140): Read the data and answer the given following questions.
Coromandel Express after traveling 250 km met with an accident due to
which it proceeded at 75% of its original speed and arrived at its destination 70

E
minutes late but had the accident taken place 60 km further then the train
would have arrived at its destination 50 minutes late. Coromandel Express crosses
a pole with its original speed in 90 seconds and crosses Howrah Express which is
d
20% longer than Coromandel Express and is coming from the opposite direction
in 1.8 minutes.
138. What is the time taken by Coromandel Express to cover a distance of 540 km with
ee

its original speed? (In hrs)

1) 8 2) 9 3) 6 4) 5 5) 3
139. Find the time taken by Howrah Express to cover the total distance traveled by
coromandel express.(in hrs)
C
1) 5.8 2) 4.6 3) 7.6 4) 9.4 5) 9.2
140. The time taken by Howrah Express to cross a platform is 216 sec. find the length
Sr

of the platform.
1) 1000 2) 1500 3) 1200 4) 750 5) 2500
REASONING
Direction: (141-145) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions carefully.
Ten persons- A, B, C, D, E, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting in two parallel rows
facing each other. Each one likes different colors of BLUE, ORANGE, GREEN,
INDIGO, VIOLET, GRAY, PURPLE, PINK, WHITE and BLACK. Persons A, B, C, D, E
C
are facing south direction and V, W, X,Y, Z are facing north direction. Neither
two persons are sitting each-other according to alphabetical order (e.g. B is not
sitting an immediate neighbor of either A or C) nor two persons are facing each
other according to reverse alphabetical order (e.g. A is not sitting opposite to Z
and B is not sitting opposite to Y and so on… M is not sitting opposite to N).
C is sitting opposite to one who is sitting second to the right of one who likes
White but neither of them is sitting at ends of the line. X is an immediate neighbor
of one who likes Violet and is sitting at ends of the line. One who likes Pink is
sitting second to the right of one who likes Indigo but neither of them is sitting
opposite to either X or one who likes White. V is sitting opposite to one who is an
immediate neighbor of C. D is neither likes indigo nor sitting opposite to X. Person
likes Orange is sitting opposite to one who likes Purple, who is an immediate
neighbor of the one who likes Black. Person likes Green is sitting second to the
right of one who likes Gray. V does not like pink.
• Each person is rolling the Dice according to alphabetical order and got 2, 5,
6, 4, 2, 3, 1, 6, 5, 5 on Dice.
• The person got even number in Dice then he interchanges his position with
the one who is sitting opposite to him.

17
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

• The person got odd number in Dice then he interchange his position with
the one who is sitting immediate left to him.
141. How many persons remain at same place after rolling the Dice?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four
142. What is the position of E with respect to one who likes Gray in final arrangement?
1) 2nd to the right 2) 2nd to the left 3) 3rd to the left
4) 3rd to the right 5) 4th to the left
143. How many persons are sitting between Z and one who likes Gray after rolling the
dice?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) No one 5) Can’t be determined
144. What is the position of the one, who is sitting opposite to one who likes Violet
(after rolling the Dice), with respect to one who likes Blue (after rolling the

r’s
Dice)?
1) Immediate right 2) Immediate left 3) Second to the right
4) Second to the left 5) Third to the right
145. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t belong to that group in final arrangement?
1) Y-E 2) W-C 3) B-X 4) D-Z 5) V-A
146.
ha
Read the following information and the sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) are
given below carefully and answer the question :
A retail store manager - “The government should work towards saving the
environment. There is an easy solution - undertaking recycling is a major step

E
towards it. For the same, there should be a complete ban on the use of plastic
bags and paper bags should be promoted because paper bags can be recycled.”
(A) Other factors such as smoke, water toxicity, etc. also contribute to
d
environmental degradation.
(B) As the government has been promoting ‘carry your own bag’ it has made it
mandatory to charge for the bags if bought from the store.
ee

(C) Plastic cannot be recycled.

(D) Paper is made from wood and is damaging to the environment as it leads to
20-50% deforestation.
C
(E) Paper is bio-degradable, whereas plastic takes millions of years to degrade.
(F) Paper production emits 70 percent more greenhouse gases than the production
of plastic bags.
Sr

Which of the following statements supports the manager’s argument to some

extent ?
1) D 2) B 3) A 4) F 5) E
Direction: (147-150) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
In a certain coding language—
STUDENTS ARGUMENT LEARNS FACT is coded as 7$M 11^G 2#X 6&M
CATEGORIES DOUBT DIFFERENT LANGUAGE is coded as 4&T 7$V 5^M
C
1#Y
YOU HAVE UNLOCKED TECHNOLOGY is coded as 10!T 4@E 22*L 13$V
147. What is the code for the word “GEOGRAPHY”?
1) 2!D 2) 4$L 3) 2^S 4) 12&B 5) 3$V
148. Which among the following words have the code of “5&L 4$L”?
1) FREEDOM FIGHTER 2) BOREDOM DIRECTOR 3) KINGDOM WRITER
4) STARDOM DRIVER 5) Both 1 and 3
149. Which among the following is TRUE as per the above coding?
1) STRAIGHT – 11!S 2) CEREMONY - 5$M 3) TEMPER – 16&V
4) BROWSING – 6!M 5) MONEY – 9#V
150. What is the code for the word “CATCH WATCH”?
1) 3&X 18&X 2) 2&S, 18$X 3) 2&X 18&X 4) 3$S 17&S 5) 2&S, 17&S
Direction: (151-155) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Ten persons - A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting around the circular
table and all are facing the center. There are other two chairs are vacant around
the table and these are not immediate and not opposite to each other. I is third to
the right of J. Two persons are sitting between I and F. The number of chairs

18
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

between F and J is as same as between J and H. A is not opposite to vacant chair.

D is immediate right of B. Neither B nor D is immediate to J and I. Two persons
are sitting between D and G, who is not immediate to I. A is immediate to neither
D nor H. Neither J nor E is immediate to vacant chair. E is facing either B or D. G
does not sit immediate to vacant seat.
151. How many persons are sitting between two vacant chairs?
1) Four 2) Two 3) Six 4) Three 5) One
152. Who is fourth to the left of B?
1) C 2) F 3) H 4) E 5) Vacant
153. The number of persons are sitting between B and I (right of I) is as same as
between G and ______ (left of G)?
1) F 2) C 3) B 4) I 5) Both 2 and 3

r’s
154. If all the persons are sitting in alphabetical order starting from A is anti-clock
wise direction in occupied chairs then who among the persons group are immediate
to vacant chairs (exclude A)?
1) C, D, F 2) G, H, J 3) F, G, I 4) B, C, F 5) D, H, I
155. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) EC 2) IH 3) JE 4) FD 5) DA
ha
Direction: (156-158) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
A#B means A is elder than his Sister B.

E
A$B means A is the Parent of B.
A@B means A is the Paternal uncle of B.
A&B means A is the Father-in-law of B.
d
A%B means A is the Daughter-in-law of B.
156. How is ‘N’ related to ‘K’ in the given expression “K@B%S$P” and “N&P”?
1) Uncle 2) Brother-in-law 3) Father-in-law
ee

4) Brother 5) Son
157. How is S related to D in the expression “S&M#T” and “D$L%P$M”?
1) Father 2) Wife 3) Brother 4) Mother 5) Husband
C
158. How is “Brother of S related to C” in the expression “C$N#T%P”, T$V, S@V”?
1) Son 2) Father 3) Daughter-in-law
4) Son-in-law 5) Father-in-law
Sr

159. In country A, allopathic medicines constitute 95% of the market whereas

alternative medicines constitute only 5% of the total market. Japanese medicine,
a kind of alternative medicine has minimal usage in Country A. Therefore, a
private company is contemplating that its launch in the country will catapult the
company to the topmost position in the alternative drug industry in merely two
years’ time.
“As against allopathic medicines, the introduction of Japanese medicines will
C
make medications more affordable to the poor, thus improving the overall health
status of the country.” CEO of the company.
(A) The knowledge of Japanese medicines is passed on only across generations
and takes 10-15 years of training and apprenticeship before being eligible for
professional practice.
(B) A few Japanese medicines do not need a prescription and can be bought over
the counter with ease.
(C) Out of the 5% market for alternative medicines, 4% consists of loyal homeopathic
medicine users whose preferred medicine type can never be changed.
(D) Allopathic medicines will cost more than Japanese medicines at least to some
extent at the time of the launch.
(E) There will be more users of Japanese medicines as compared to allopathic
medicines in a couple of years.
(F) Owing to more users, there are more number of doctors on Japanese medicines
in Europe than in Japan itself.
Which of the given statements is an assumption inherent in the CEO’s statement
?
1) (A) 2) (C) 3) (D) 4) (E) 5) (B)

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Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

Direction: (160-162) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Seven persons - J, K, L, M, N, P and Q have different weights. No one’s weight
is below 40kg. More than three persons are heavier than N. Q is heavier than J and
is not the heaviest. The difference between the weights of K and J is 15kg. As
many persons are heavier than Q as lighter than the one who is 63kg. Only two
persons have their weight between K’s weight and M’s weight. K is lighter than N.
L is 17kg lighter than P but not to Q. The second-lightest person has 52kg. The
weight difference between N and Q is 23kg. The total weight of J and N is equal to
the weight of P. One of the person has a perfect square number weight.
160. What is the total weight of M and L?
1) 154kg 2) 162kg 3) 175kg 4) 145kg 5) 155kg

r’s
161. Which among the following is the ODD ONE ?
1) N-75kg 2) M-48kg 3) L-63kg 4) Q-115kg 5) J-98kg
162. How many persons are heavier than J?
1) Six 2) Three 3) Four 4) Two 5) Five
Direction: (163-166) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight members- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are working in a company with
ha
different designations viz. Director, Chief Executive Officer (CEO), General
manager (GM), Regional Manager (RM), Supervisor, Office Manager (OM), Team
Leader (TL) and Team Member (TM). Director is the senior most and Team member

E
is the junior most position. They all uses different mobiles viz. Samsung, Apple,
Nokia, Sony, LG, HTC, Honor and Redme.
The one who uses Sony is senior to Team leader but not to General Manager.
d
Only one person is junior to G. E uses either Honor or Apple. The number of
positions between G and the one who uses Sony is the same as between H and the
one who uses Sony. No one’s designation is in between H and one who uses Honor.
As many persons are senior to the one who uses Honor as junior to one who uses
ee

Redme. A is senior to one who uses Samsung. A is neither Director nor CEO. C
uses Nokia and is not the either Team member or General Manager. B is not a
Supervisor and is senior to D. The Team Member uses either HTC or LG. As many
C
persons has designations in between one who uses Samsung and A as between A
and E, who is senior to A. At least one person is senior to H. Two people’s designations
are in between the one who uses Nokia and the one who uses HTC.
Sr

163. What is the designation of F?

1) CEO 2) Director 3) Supervisor 4) OM 5) Team Member
164. Who is Regional Manager?
1) A 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) One who uses Sony
165. How many persons are junior to one who uses Nokia?
1) Five 2) Four 3) No one 4) Six 5) Seven
166. H uses which mobile?
1) Red me 2) HTC 3) Honor 4) Apple 5) Nokia
C
167. Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
Recently, it was found that despite the policy for generic drugs and vaccines
being present in country A it was not followed in proper perspective as a result of
which cheaper medicines of the same generic composition were not available. As
a consequence, people below the poverty line or slightly above it did not get the
medicines at the time of need.
Which of the following statements represents an appropriate course of action to be
taken by the government in order to ensure that such a situation doesn’t arise again?
1) A generic price for all the medicines in the country should be set by the
government regardless of the actual cost of the medicine.
2) The government should take over the pharmaceutical sector and all the
medicines should be provided for free in government hospitals.
3) The government should make stringent rules and regulations regarding generic
medicines and penalize the offenders if the rules are not followed.
4) The government should ease the policy for generic drugs and vaccines and
should not mandate the companies to follow them.
5) The licenses of the pharmaceutical companies that did not follow the protocol
efficiently should be canceled and they should not be allowed to do business in
the country.

20
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

Direction: (168-171) Each of the questions below consist of a question and two
statements numbered I and II. You have to decide whether the data provided in
the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
168. Seven boxes- G, H, J, K, L, M and N are arranged one above another in a stack and
each box contains different number of coins viz. 12, 19, 24, 16, 65, 37, 49. Which
has least number of coins?
Statement I: One of the box contains double number of coins to its alphanumeric
value and only two boxes are below to it. Three boxes between box K and box N
and one of the boxes is at the bottom.
Statement II: As many boxes are above box K as below box M. Two boxes are
between box M and one which has least coins. Box H is just below one which has

r’s
37 coins. Box G has 30 more coins than box H.
1) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
2) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.
ha
4) The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the
question.
5) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the

E
data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.
169. Eight members A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around the circular table.
d
Who is immediate right of F?
Statement I: Two persons are sitting between H and B. One person is sitting
between B and D. G is immediate right of C. D and C are not immediate neighbors.
ee

Statement II: Two persons are sitting between C and A. D and A are immediate
neighbors. The number of persons are sitting between A and H is the same as H
and G.
1) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
C
data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.
2) The data in both statements I and II together are necessary to answer the
Sr

question.
3) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
4) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.
5) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
170. Eight members- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H buy different articles viz. Book, Cup,
C
Watch, Bag, Lock, Vase, Ring and Jar. Who buys Bag?
Statement I: Three persons buy between the one who buys Bag and E. More than
three persons buy before E. A buys the Jar. The number of persons buys before A
is two more than the number of persons buys after E.
Statement II: The number of persons buys before the one who buys Bag is equal
to the alphanumeric value of that person name. A and B don’t buy immediately. E
buys either Ring or Lock.
1) The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
2) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.
3) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.
4) The data in both statements I and II together is necessary to answer the
question.
5) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.

21
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

171. Six members- P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a straight line facing North and
each one likes different Ornaments viz. Ring, Bangle, Bracelet, Chain, Choker
and Anklet, but not necessarily in the same order. How many persons sitting
between Q and one who likes Bangle?
Statement I. Q is second to the right of the one who likes Chain. Two persons are
sitting between the one who likes Chain and the one who likes Ring. S is an
immediate right of the one who likes Bangle and both are to the left of the one
who likes Chain.
Statement II. The one who likes Choker is second to the left of T. One person is
sitting between the one who likes Choker and S. P and R are immediate to S. Two
persons are sitting between U and the one who likes Bangle.
1) The data in both the statements I and II together is necessary to answer the

r’s
question.
2. The data in either statement I alone or statement II alone is sufficient to
answer the question.
3) The data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement I is not sufficient to answer the question.
4) The data, even in both statements I and statement II together, are not sufficient
to answer the question.
ha
5) The data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the
data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
Direction: (172-175) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.

E
A certain number of persons are sitting in a straight line facing the North.
The information about some of them is given. Prime number of persons, which is
d
more than ten and less than Sixteen are sitting in between T and the one who is
immediate left of F. The number of persons are sitting between T and M is double
to the number of persons are sitting between M and the one who is immediate
ee

left of F. The number of persons are sitting between M and F is the same as
between B and G. G is to the left of T and one person is sitting between T and B.
The number of persons are sitting between T and G is the same as between B and
C
L, who is to the right of B. K is fourth to the right of L. Three persons are sitting
between K and N. The number of persons are sitting to the right of N is the same
as to the left of G. J is third to the left of G. Two persons are sitting between F
Sr

and D. D is to the right of M and is at one of ends. The number of persons sitting
between J and T is one less than the number of persons are sitting between K
and D. C and K are immediate neighbors.
172. The number of persons are sitting between T and C is one more than the number
of persons sitting between ____ and ____?
1) D, M 2) G, L 3) L, F 4) J, B 5) M, F
173. If all the persons are arranged in alphabetical order in the given occupied places
then how may persons are in between N and F?
C
1) 11 2) 13 3) 15 4) 12 5) 14
174. Which among the following is the ODD ONE ?
1) GT 2) BL 3) CF 4) LK 5) JB
175. How many persons are sitting in the straight line?
1) 22 2) 30 3) 31 4) 29 5) 27
Direction: (176-179) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions givens below.
H 9 @ 4 P 1 * R % C 7 $ G 2 Q & D ^ K J # 3 S 5 ?
Z + E V 6
Step 1: Symbols which are immediately preceded by a number, then interchange
their positions with that numbers.
Step 2: After the completion of step 1, Alphabets which are immediately preceded
by a number and followed by a symbol, then delete such type of alphabets from
the above step 1.
Step 3: After the completion of step 2, Numbers which are immediately followed
by a symbol are arranged in ascending order in between E and V step 2.
176. In which step ‘&’ is sixth to the left of ‘3’?
1) Step 1 2) Step 2 3) Step 3 4) Both 1 and 2 5) No such step

22
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

177. How many digits are there which is immediately preceded by an alphabet in the
step 3?
1) Two 2) Three 3) Five 4) Four 5) None
178. If we remove all digits from the step 2, then which of the following element is 5 th
to the left of 9th from the right end?
1) G 2) @ 3) * 4) % 5) V
179. Which of the following element is exactly placed between ‘*’ and ‘?’ in step 1?
1) & 2) Q 3) 2 4) G 5) 7
Direction: (180-183) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Input: SERIOUS 3592 JOURNEY 2957 CASUAL 6138 GRAVITY 8723
Step 1: CASUAL 45 SERIOUS 3592 JOURNEY 2957 GRAVITY 8723

r’s
Step 2: JOURNEY 39 CASUAL 45 SERIOUS 2957 GRAVITY 8723
Step 3: GRAVITY 10 JOURNEY 39 CASUAL 45 SERIOUS 2957
Step 4: SERIOUS 31 GRAVITY 10 JOURNEY 39 CASUAL 45
Step 4 is the final step for the given INPUT and as per the above rules step by step
solve the given below INPUT.
INPUT: DIMENSION 4236 WATER 4827 BRIGHT 7359 NATURAL 6728
1) WATER
ha
180. Which among the following is the fifth from the left end in step 1?
2) 7359 3) 4827 4) DIMENSION 5) 18
181. The word/ number which is first from the left in final step is at which place in
step 3?
1) Second from left
4) Second from right

E 2) Third from right

5) Third from left
182. Which among the following is the ODD ONE based on the final step?
3) Fourth from right
d
1) DIMENSION – NATURAL 2) BRIGHT – 18 3) WATER – 18
4) 12 – 48 5) NATURAL – 12
183. What is the total of the numbers which are second from left in final step and
ee

second from right in step 2?

1) 6776 2) 7397 3) 7407 4) 6740 5) 7393
184. Read the given information to answer the given question:
Statement : City M was recently announced as the host of one of the most
C
prestigious cricket tournaments in the country. According to a report by a leading
newspaper the tournament is expected to pull a large number of spectators. Being
a small city this tournament is a very good opportunity for city M to shine but the
Sr

residents of the city are not very happy about it.

Which of the following cannot be a reason for the residents being unhappy?
1) All of the given statements can be reasons.
2) The tickets for the matches are priced very high because of high demand.
3) Spectators coming for the matches park their cars around the nearby residential
areas or along the footpath which makes it difficult for the residents to park their
vehicles.
4) A large number of hawkers have congested the footpaths near the stadiums
C
making it difficult for pedestrians to walk.
5) The stadium which will be used by the government for the majority of the
matches is located very near the residential areas.
Direction: (185-189) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Eight members - A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are living in a building which has
eight floors. The ground floor is numbered 1, just above to it is numbered 2 till the
top floor is numbered 8. They all plans family trips in eight different months viz.
March, April, May, June, July, August, September and October, on eight different
dates.
E lives on even-numbered floor, but not on top floor. Only two persons live
below to the person, who goes before the maximum number of persons. The one
who lives on topmost floor is goes on the date, which is half of the number of days
in that month. H lives in odd-numbered floor, but not immediate to E. The number
of floors above H is the same as number of floors below the one who goes on 22 nd of
the month. H goes on the date which is a perfect square of his floor number. The
one who goes in April is lives immediately below the one who goes on 10 th of the
month. Two persons live between B and the one who goes in July. C goes on the

23
Sreedhar’s CCE SBI CLERK MAINS MT - 28

last day of the month, but not in the month May. More than two floors are between
the H and the one who goes in May. The number of floors between E and the one
who goes in May is the same as between E and C. A goes on even numbered date
and lives immediately above to the one who goes at last. The number of floors
between A and C is the same as between H and the one who goes in August. B
goes on even-prime numbered date, but not in April. G lives below F but not to D
and F goes before G. The date of one who goes in August month is, equal to the
dates difference between the C and B. G lives above the one who goes on 18 th.
185. The one who lives in 4th floor is goes in which month?
1) March 2) April 3) June 4) July 5) September
186. Who goes on 18th date?
1) H 2) The one who goes in July

r’s
3) The one who goes in March 4) A 5) B
187. The one who goes in March is goes on which date?
1) 31st 2) 9th 3) 2nd 4) 29th 5) 30th
th
188. The one who goes on 10 is lives on which of the following floor?
1) Second 2) Fifth 3) Fourth 4) Seventh 5) Eighth
189. Which among the following is the ODD ONE?
1) B- August 2) C-22nd 4) F-10th
190.
ha 3) G- October 5) E- March
Study the given information carefully to answer the given question :
The government of State X rewarded the largest brick kiln of the state,
located in Shalaaj Village, for manufacturing a large quantity of bricks to be

E
exported to other states as it helped to earn higher revenues. Unlike other villages,
when the people of Bihupaada (a neighboring village) heard about this, they claimed
their share of the reward for providing Shalaaj with good quality clay each time.
d
Which of the following can be inferred from the given information?
(An inference is something by which you can logically deduce something to be
true based on the given premise only)
ee

1) Though the brick kiln is in Shalaaj, all the equipment and raw materials
required are provided by other states.
2) Few villages of State X other than Shalaaj are also involved in the process of
brick-making in some or the ^ other way.
C
3) People of Bihupaada are very poor and they want the reward to improve their
economic conditions.
4) State X has only one brick kiln which is located in Shalaaj.
Sr

5) Shalaaj is the one and only village of the state to have received such kind of a
reward.

KEY
1.1 2.2 3.1 4.2 5.1 6.4 7.5 8.3 9.4 10.1
11.4 12.2 13.5 14.3 15.4 16.2 17.5 18.3 19.4 20.1
21.3 22.3 23.5 24.1 25.3 26.5 27.1 28.5 29.5 30.4
C
31.2 32.5 33.3 34.4 35.5 36.1 37.5 38.3 39.4 40.1
41.2 42.4 43.5 44.3 45.4 46.1 47.2 48.1 49.5 50.3
51.3 52.5 53.1 54.3 55.3 56.1 57.1 58.2 59.4 60.5 SCAN QR FOR
61.2 62.1 63.5 64.2 65.3 66.1 67.3 68.2 69.4 70.2 OUR RESULTS
71.2 72.5 73.4 74.2 75.1 76.2 77.4 78.4 79.2 80.1
81.5 82.1 83.4 84.2 85.3 86.4 87.1 88.4 89.1 90.3
91.2 92.1 93.2 94.1 95.1 96.3 97.4 98.5 99.3 100.1
101.4 102.2 103.4 104.1 105.5 106.3 107.2 108.5 109.4 110.2
111.1 112.3 113.4 114.3 115.4 116.5 117.2 118.5 119.1 120.5
121.5 122.2 123.4 124.1 125.2 126.5 127.2 128.1 129.2 130.5
131.1 132.3 133.1 134.2 135.4 136.1 137.4 138.2 139.5 140.3
141.2 142.2 143.1 144.3 145.5 146.5 147.3 148.2 149.2 150.3
151.4 152.1 153.3 154.2 155.5 156.4 157.5 158.4 159.3 160.2
161.4 162.3 163.3 164.1 165.5 166.4 167.3 168.4 169.4 170.4
171.5 172.2 173.4 174.5 175.5 176.4 177.1 178.4 179.2 180.3
181.4 182.5 183.3 184.1 185.4 186.4 187.1 188.4 189.3 190.2

24