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Rachana Shareera

The document outlines the examination structure for the First Year BAMS (NCISM) Degree Examination at Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka, scheduled for December 2023. It includes sections for long essays, short essays, and multiple-choice questions covering topics in Human Anatomy, with specific questions related to various anatomical structures and concepts. The examination is designed to assess students' understanding and application of human anatomy principles.

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Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
100% found this document useful (1 vote)
1K views15 pages

Rachana Shareera

The document outlines the examination structure for the First Year BAMS (NCISM) Degree Examination at Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka, scheduled for December 2023. It includes sections for long essays, short essays, and multiple-choice questions covering topics in Human Anatomy, with specific questions related to various anatomical structures and concepts. The examination is designed to assess students' understanding and application of human anatomy principles.

Uploaded by

sdmdgilibrary
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 15

Q.P.

Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First year BAMS (NCISM) Degree Examination - 20-Dec-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks:


100

RACHANA SHARIR (HUMAN ANATOMY) – PAPER I (RS-7)


Q.P. CODE: 3607
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
NOTE : MCQ answers must be written in words along with alphabets

LONG ESSAYS 4 x 10 = 40 Marks


1. Explain the concept of Beeja, Beejabhaga and Beejabhagavayava. Enumerate Laws of Heredity.

2. Explain humerus in detail with muscle attachment and applied aspects.


3. Explain Sandhi as per Sushruta.

4. a) Write about Cerebellum


b) Explain thymus gland

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks


5. Explain Shadangha according to different Acharyas.
6. Explain the structure of Graffian Follicle.
7. Define Asthi. Classify and explain Valayasthi in detail.
8. Explain about the Panchamahabhoutika Swaroopa, Swabhava and relations with the Prakruti of
Danta with its clinical relevance.
9. Explain muscles of scapula region.
10. Define Sandhi. Explain Vaysatunda Sandhi and correlate with modern science.
11. Write about Sciatic Nerve along with applied anatomy.
12. Explain supra renal gland.

Multiple Choice Questions 20 x 1 = 20 Marks

13. Total number of day’s dead body should be kept in flowing water before dissection.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 11

14. Total Number of Sevani are


A. 6
B. 7
C. 14
D. 16

15. Total number of Kurcha are


A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 9
Page 1 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
16. The part which is affected in Gridrasi is
A. Kandara of Parshni
B. Sira of Parshni
C. Dhamani of Parshni
D. Nadi of Parshni
17. Number of Asthi Sanghata stated by Vagbhata are
A. 12
B. 14
C. 16
D. 18

18. The nature of Aartava is


A. Sheeta
B. Aagneya
C. Ruksha
D. Sthula

19. According to Acharya Charaka Douhridini avastha is seen in which month of Masaanumasika
Garbha Vruddhi?
A. 3rd month
B. 4th month
C. 5th month
D. 6th month

20. Kubja, Kuni , Kanja, Jada is said in relation to


A. Vyakta Garbha laxana
B. Rutukala
C. Rutu Vyatita kaala
D. Dhouhridini vikruti laxana

21. The Kalal swaroopa of Garbha seen in


A. Pratama masa
B. Dwitiya masa
C. Tritiya Masa
D. Chaturtha masa

22. Average weight of Placenta at the time of birth is


A. 200 gm
B. 300 gm
C. 400 gm
D. 500 gm

23. Median nasal septum is comprised of perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone and ______bone
A. Nasal
B. Maxilla
C. Vomer
D. Lacrimal

24. Total number of additional peshis in each Stana of female_______


A. 20
B. 5
C. 11
Page 2 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
D. 10

25. ______ number of Snayu are present in human as per Sushruta


A. 600
B. 700
C. 800
D. 900

26. __________ type of Snayu is present in Basti


A. Pratanavati
B. Vritta
C. Sushira
D. Pruthu

27. Flocculonodular lobe is the part of


A. Pons
B. Midbrain
C. Medulla oblongata
D. Cerebellum

28. Broca’s area is associated with


A. Speech
B. Olfaction
C. Sleep
D. Vision

29. Plantar reflex shows


A. Flexion of Big toe
B. Plantar extention
C. Flexion of all toes
D. Eversion of foot

30. The emotion of Anger and Anxiety are associated with


A. Thalamus
B. Hippocampus
C. Amygdala
D. Hypothalamus

31. Weight of pituitary gland


A. 500mg
B. 5gm
C. 2gm
D. 1gm

32. Largest lymphoid organ in body


A. Spleen
B. Liver
C. Kidney
D. Gall Bladder
a) 2

*****

Page 3 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First year BAMS (NCISM) Degree Examination - 26-Jul-2024

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks:


100

RACHANA SHARIR (HUMAN ANATOMY) – PAPER I (RS-7)


Q.P. CODE: 3607
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
NOTE : MCQ answers must be written in words along with alphabets

LONG ESSAYS 4 x 10 = 40 Marks


1. Define Garbha. Explain Angapratyanga Utpatti in detail.

2. Explain Ulna in detail with muscle attachment and Write two applied aspects.

3. Define joint, explain classification of synovial joint.

4. a) Explain Duramater
b) Explain thyroid gland

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks


5. Describe Angapratyanga Vibhaga in detail.

6. Explain Placenta formation.


7. Define Asthi. Classify and discuss each classification with examples along with applied importance
of Asthi.
8. Explain About Kesha and Nakha. Write the clinical examination with its applied aspect.
9. Describe the structure, origin, insertion, action and nerve supply of Biceps brachii muscle.
10. Define Sandhi, explain its classification.
11. Write parts, tracts and blood supply of spinal cord.
12. Anatomy of lymph node.

Multiple Choice Questions 20 x 1 = 20 Marks

13. Which Acharya preached the study of Mrutha Shareera


A. Sushruta
B. Kashyapa
C. Charaka
D. Sharaghadara

14. World organ donation day is on


A. 13 August
B. 30 August
C. 13 September
D. 30 September

15. Along with Shastrajnana factors responsible for improvement of knowledge


A. Pratyaksha
B. Anumana
C. Upamana
D. Yukthi
Page 4 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
16. Anatomical Structure involved in pathology Of Khanja
A. Simanta
B. Sandhi
C. Sanghata
D. Kandara
17. Seevani found in
A. Gulpha
B. Shephas
C. Bahu
D. Nasa

18. All the following are derived from primordial germ cells EXCEPT
A. First polar body
B. Second polar body
C. Corona radiate
D. Zona pellucida

19. “Rohit Matsyasya Mukham Bhavati Rupata” is true regarding


A. Garbha
B. Garbhashaya
C. Garbhasthapana
D. Garbhaposhana

20. Shukrabahulyat
A. Stree
B. Puman
C. Napunsaka
D. Agarbha

21. Apara Nirmana takes place from


A. Aartava
B. Shukra
C. Beejabhaga
D. Beejabhagaavayava

22. This stage is manifested in 4th month of Masanumasika Garbha Vruddhi


A. Rutumati stree
B. Sadhyogruhita garbha
C. Vyakta garbha
D. Douhrudaya

23. The bone that develops via intramembranous ossification is


A. Humerus
B. Rib
C. Sternum
D. Clavicle

24. Number of Peshis in Garbha Chidra of Stree are


A. 10
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

25. The number of Snayu present in Hasta and Pada are


A. 30
B. 60
C. 90
Page 5 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
D. 120

26. _________ type of Snayu present in Shiras


A. Pratanavati
B. Vritta
C. Pruthula
D. Sushira

27. The three regions of Brain Stem are


A. Cerebellum, Cerebrum, Midbrain
B. Pons, Cerebellum, Midbrain
C. Pons, Midbrain, Cerebrum
D. Pons, Midbrain, Medulla oblongata

28. Largest of Cranial dural fold is


A. Diaphgram Sella
B. Tentorium Cerebelli
C. Flax Cerebri
D. Falx Cerebelli

29. In upper motor Neuron paralysis


A. Muscle tone decreased
B. Muscle tone increased
C. Muscle tone is normal
D. None of these

30. Limbic lobe and Hypothalamus together control


A. Motivation
B. Expression of emotional reactions
C. Sexual behaviour
D. All of above

31. Weight of Spleen is ________


A. 7 ounce
B. 9 ounce
C. 5 ounce
D. 11 ounce

32. Pituitary gland secretes


A. Growth Hormone
B. Thyroid stimulating hormone
C. Luteinizing hormone
D. All the above

b) 2

*****

Page 6 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First year BAMS (NCISM) Degree Examination - 26-Dec-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks:


100

RACHANA SHARIR (HUMAN ANATOMY) – PAPER II (RS-7)


Q.P. CODE: 3608
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
NOTE : MCQ answers must be written in words along with alphabets

LONG ESSAYS 4 x 10 = 40 Marks


1. Write in detail about location, relation, internal structure, blood supply of Anal canal.

2. Define Marma. Write classification of Marma. Explain Urogata marma in detail.

3. Describe in detail about chambers of the Heart.

4. Write the relevant futures of Nose and explain its lateral wall.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks


5. Define Ashaya and explain Garbhashaya in detail.
6. Name the Sadhyo Pranahara Marma and write location and Viddhalaxana of Shankha marma.
7. Define srotas. Enumerate according to Sushruta and Charaka and explain in brief about Rasavaha
srotas.
8. Explain structure and Histology of larynx.
9. Explain Diaphragm.
10. Explain constrictions of Ureter.
11. Write about Ovary.
12. Middle ear.

Multiple Choice Questions 20 x 1 = 20 Marks

13. Smallest Salivary gland


A. Sublingual gland
B. Submandibular
C. Parotid gland
D. Thyroid gland

14. Marma situated at shiro greeva sandhana pradesha is


A. Sthapani
B. Maatruka marma
C. Krukatika marma
D. Apanga marma

15. Aayama of Pada is


A. Angula
B. 14 Angula
C. 16 Angula
D. 18 Angula

Page 7 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
16. Number of Vatavahinya Sira
A. 10
B. 4
C. 175
D. 24

17. Kedara iva kulyabihi is the Drushtanta given by Acharya Sushruta to describe _______
A. Dhamani
B. Sira
C. Srotas
D. Peshi

18. Number of Tiryak Dhamani


A. 10
B. 24
C. 200
D. 4

19. According to Acharya Sushruta, Mula of Dhamani is


A. Nabhi
B. Hrudaya
C. Yakrut
D. Pleeha

20. Which is the symptom of Udakavaha srotodushti


A. Jihva shosha
B. Taalu shosha
C. Kloma shosha
D. All the above

21. Amashya is the Moola Sthana of which srotas


A. Rasavaha
B. Annavaha
C. Raktavaha
D. Udakavaha

22. The internal lining of the trachea has a membrane of


A. Ciliated endothelium
B. Squamous epithelium
C. Connective tissue cells
D. Mucous cells

23. Number of recess present in pleura are


A. 5
B. 4
C. 2
D. 10

24. Mediastenal surface of right lung is related to the following structure EXCEPT
A. Azygos vein
B. Superior vena cava
C. Thoracic duct
D. Trachea

25. Renal angle is in between __________


A. 11th rib and Erector spine muscle
B. 12th rib and Erector spine muscle
Page 8 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
C. 11th rib and Latissimus dorsi muscle
D. 12th rib and Latissimus dorsi muscle

26. The shape of urinary bladder when empty is _______


A. Triangular
B. Tetrahedral
C. Ovoid
D. None of the above

27. Angle of Anteversion is present in


A. Liver
B. Uterus
C. Spleen
D. Kidney

28. Thickness of Mamasadara layer of Twacha


A. 1 vrhi
B. 2 vrhi
C. 1\12 vrhi
D. 1\18 vrhi

29. Kaninika is part of Netra


A. Mandala
B. Patala
C. Sandhi
D. None

30. Utricle is a present in


A. Ear
B. Nose
C. Tongue
D. Skin

31. Structure Columella is present


A. Ear
B. Nose
C. Tongue
D. Skin

32. Terminal sulcus is present in


A. Ear
B. Nose
C. Tongue
D. Skin

c) 2

*****

Page 9 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
First year BAMS (NCISM) Degree Examination - 18-Aug-2023

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks:


100

RACHANA SHARIR (HUMAN ANATOMY) – PAPER – II (RS-7)


Q.P. CODE: 3608
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
NOTE: MCQ answers must be written in words along with alphabets

LONG ESSAYS 4 x 10 = 40 Marks


1. Explain location, Parts, Visceral relations and interior of stomach with blood supply.

2. Define Marma, write its classification of Marma and Explain Sadhyopranahara marma in detail.

3. Describe external features of Heart, location, dimension and blood supply.

4. Name parts of Ear and explain internal ear in detail.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks

5. Define Koshtha and Koshthangas according to Sushruta.

6. Write location, anatomical structures of Sthapani marma.

7. Define Srotas and explain Pranavaha Srotas.

8. Write a note on Bronchopulmonary segments with clinical aspects.

9. Explain the relations of the Larynx and enumerate the cartilages of larynx.

10. Explain coverings of kidney and its importance.

11. Enlist structures of male reproductive system and explain testes.

12. Write layers of Skin and explain its appendages.

Multiple Choice Questions 20 x 1 = 20 Marks

13. Largest Salivary gland


A. Parotid gland
B. Submandibular gland
C. Sublingual gland
D. Infrorbital gland

14. Pramana of Kurchashira marma is


A. 1 Angula
B. 2 Angula
C. 3 Angula
D. 4 Angula

15. Total Aayama of Sharira according to Acharya Sushruta is


Page 10 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
A. 84 Angula
B. 94 Angula
C. 104 Angula
D. 120 Angula

16. Total number of Sira are


A. 600
B. 700
C. 900
D. 500

17. Following are Udhwaga Dhamani EXCEPT


A. Sukra
B. Shabdha
C. Rasa
D. Rudita

18. Function of Srotas according to Charaka


A. Dhmana
B. Sarana
C. Sravana
D. Tarpana

19. All are Moolastana of Sukravaha Srotas EXCEPT


A. Garbhashaya
B. Sthana
C. Shepha
D. Vrushana

20. Number of Avedhya Sira


A. 116
B. 16
C. 98
D. 700

21. Dhamani Prabhava takes place from


A. Nabhi
B. Hrudaya
C. Udara
D. Sira

22. The upper respiratory tract consists of


A. Nose, nasal cavity
B. Nose, Nasal cavity, Trachea
C. Nose, Pharynx, Larynx
D. Nose, nasal cavity, Pharynx

23. The length of trachea is


A. 10cm
B. 12cm
Page 11 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
C. 15cm
D. 14cm

24. Lingula is present in


A. Left Lung
B. Right Lung
C. Right Kidney
D. Left Kidney

25. Fibrous connective tissue that surrounds the kidney is called as _______
A. Cortex
B. Hilum
C. Medulla
D. Renal pyramid

26. The average length of each ureter is _______ inches


A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14

27. The angle of Antiversion is


A. 125
B. 90
C. 115
D. 75

28. How many kala are there in human body


A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10

29. How many Mandala are present in Netra


A. 5
B. 6
C. 9
D. 10

30. How many layers of Twacha according to Sushrutha


A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10

31. Length of external acoustic meatus of ear


A. 2.4 cm
B. 1 cm
C. 4 cm
D. None

32. How many pairs of ear Ossicle present


A. 3 pairs
B. 8 pairs
C. 9 pairs
D. 5 pairs

Page 12 of 15
d) 2
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
*****
First year BAMS (NCISM) Degree Examination - 29-Jul-2024

Time: Three Hours Max. Marks:


100

RACHANA SHARIR (HUMAN ANATOMY) – PAPER II (RS-7)


Q.P. CODE: 3608
(QP contains three pages)
Your answers should be specific to the questions asked
Draw neat, labeled diagrams wherever necessary
NOTE : MCQ answers must be written in words along with alphabets

LONG ESSAYS 4 x 10 = 40 Marks


1. Explain Micro and Macro structure of large intestine.

2. Define marma and explain about classification of marma. Write about Kalanthara Pranahara
marma.

3. Explain the location, surface, borders, dimension and surface anatomy of heart.

4. Write a note on Nasa and describe anatomical structure of nose.

SHORT ESSAYS 8 x 5 = 40 Marks


5. Define Kosta and enumerate Kostangas according to different Acharyas.
6. Explain about Marmas of Adhoshakha.
7. Write the difference between Sira and Dhamani.
8. Explain in detail about Trachea.
9. Write a note on Bronchopulmonary segments with clinical aspects.
10. Explain Kidney in detail.
11. Explain in detail about location, dimension, surface borders and parts of uterus.
12. Define Kala and explain in detail about Pittadhara kala.

Multiple Choice Questions 20 x 1 = 20 Marks

13. Total number of Kostangas as explained by Acharya Charak is


A. 15
B. 16
C. 17
D. 18

14. Anjali pramana of Raktadhatu is ______anjali


A. 6
B. 4
C. 9
D. 8

15. The marma which causes Badhirya on injury as per Sushruta


A. Phana
B. Apanga
C. Vidhura
D. Avarta
Page 13 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
16. Number of Vataja Urdhwagamini siras as per Sushruta
A. 10
B. 12
C. 20
D. 21

17. Mulasthana of Raktavahasrotas


A. Yakrita and pliha
B. Amasaya and pakwasaya
C. Hridaya and puppusa
D. Talu and kloma

18. Natural pacemaker of the heart is


A. S.A Node
B. B.V Node
C. Bundle of his
D. Coronary artery

19. Base of the heart is mainly formed by


A. Left auricle
B. Right auricle
C. Both atria
D. Right ventricle

20. Mula of Artava Vahasrotas is


A. Andasaya
B. Yoni
C. Garbhashaya
D. Stana

21. Number of Avedhya Siras are


A. 78
B. 88
C. 87
D. 98

22. The upper respiratory tract consists of ………………


A. Nose, nasal cavity
B. Nose, Nasal cavity, Trachea
C. Nose, Pharynx, Larynx
D. Nose, nasal cavity, Pharynx

23. The length of trachea is…………..


A. 10cm
B. 12cm
C. 15cm
D. 14cm

24. Lingula is present in …………


A. Left Lung
B. Right Lung
C. Right Kidney
D. Left Kidney

Page 14 of 15
Q.P. Code: 3605
Rajiv Gandhi University of Health Sciences, Karnataka
25. Nerve which supply the urinary bladder
A. Vesical
B. Hypogastric
C. Inguinal
D. Sciatic

26. Weight of the kidney in males


A. 130gm
B. 135gm
C. 145gm
D. 150gm

27. Weight of the uterus is ……………


A. 20-30 gm
B. 30-40 gm
C. 40-50 gm
D. 50-60 gm

28. Pramana of Avabashini is _________


A. 1/2 vrihi
B. 1/12 vrihi
C. 1 vrihi
D. 1/18 vrihi

29. Shape of Netra……..


A. Gostanakara
B. Anguli
C. Ajastanakara
D. Pundarika

30. Which of the nerve supplies middle ear cavity


A. Facial
B. Trigeminal
C. Glossophryngeal
D. Vegus

31. Muscles of tongue are mostly supplied by XII nerve except


A. Genioglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Hypoglossus
D. Styloglossus

32. “The creamy layer of milk” example given for _______


A. Twacha
B. Netra
C. Nakha
D. Kesha
e) 2

*****

Page 15 of 15

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