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 Table of Contents

Chapter Name Page No.

Indian Polity Test 01 ________________________________________ 1

Indian Polity Test 02 ________________________________________ 5

Indian Polity Test 03 ________________________________________ 8

Indian Polity Test 04 ________________________________________ 11

Indian Polity Test 05 ________________________________________ 14

Indian Polity Test 06 ________________________________________ 18

Indian Polity Test 07 ________________________________________ 22

Indian Polity Test 08 ________________________________________ 26

Indian Polity Test 09 ________________________________________ 30

Indian Polity Test 10 ________________________________________ 34

Answer Key _______________________________________________ 38

 Indian Polity Test 01
1. Consider the following statements regarding National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA):

1. The chairperson of NDMA is appointed on the recommendation of a selection committee

comprising of Prime Minister, Minister of Home Affairs, and Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha.
2. The chairperson of the NDMA designates one of the members as the vice-chairperson of the
NDMA.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT CORRECT?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

2. In which year, the Government of India had set up the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State
relations?

1.1 980 2. 1983 3. 1987 4. 1992

3. Who decides the reasonableness of the restrictions placed on Fundamental rights in India?

1. Parliament 2. Courts 3. President 4. Prime minister

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 mentions about the United Nations Convention Against
Corruption.
2. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 shall apply to public servants in and outside India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Not less than fifty per cent of the Members of the Lokpal shall be from amongst the persons
belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes.
2. A member of Lokpal shall not be a member of any Panchayat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

6. Consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog:

1. Vice-chairperson of NITI Aayog enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister.

2. Fostering Cooperative Federalism is one of the functions of NITI Aayog.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT CORRECT?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

7. Consider the following statements:

1. Part XIV-A (Tribunals) is added to the Constitution of India by 44th Constitutional Amendment
Act.
2. Article 323 B contemplates establishment of tribunals for public service matters only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1.1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

1
8. Consider the following in regard to the powers and actions taken by the State Human Rights
Commission:

1. A State Human Rights Commission can inquire into violation of human rights only in respect of
subjects mentioned in the State List and the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution.
2. The chairperson and members of a State Human Rights Commission are appointed and removed
by the Governor.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

9. With reference to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), consider the following statements:

1. The CBI is not a statutory body.

2. Establishment of the CBI was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of
Corruption
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

10. Consider the following statements about National Investigation Agency (NIA):

1. The NIA was created by an Act of the Parliament following Mumbai Terror Attack of November
2008.
2. The NIA deals with offences under certain laws, which also includes among them the Atomic
Energy Act, 1962.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

11. Consider the following statements about State Administrative Tribunals (SAT):

1. The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 empowers the Central government to establish the
State Administrative Tribunals (SATs) on specific request of the concerned state governments.
2. SAT exercise original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment and all service matters of state
government employees.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT CORRECT?

1.1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

12. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) exercises original jurisdiction in relation to recruitment
and service matters of public servants belonging to:

1. Civilian employees of defence services

2. Officers of the Supreme Court
3. All-India Services
4. Secretarial staff of the Parliament
5. State government employees
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 3 only 2. 1, 2 and 3 only 3. 2, 4 and 5 only 4. 3 only

13. Consider the following statements

1. An ordinance can be issued only on those subjects on which the Parliament can make laws.
2. If the Parliament takes no action, the ordinance ceases to operate on the expiry of six months
from the reassembly of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 Only 2. 2 Only 3. Both 4. None

2
14. Consider the following statements:

1. The ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the president.
2. A member of Lok Sabha who is disqualified on the ground of defection can be appointed as a
minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 Only 2. 2 Only 3. Both 4. None

15. Consider the following statements:

1. The term Cabinet is not mentioned in the Constitution.

2. Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional in emergence.
3. Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs is chaired by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only 2. 2 only 3. 2 and 3 only 4. 1,2 and 3

16. Consider the following statements:

1. Prime Minister appoints the Attorney General of India.

2. President can return a money bill (which is reserved by Governor) for the reconsideration of the
State Legislature.
3. Article 142 deals with the power of President to consult Supreme Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

1. 1 only 2. 1 and 2 only 3. 2 only 4. 1,2 and 3

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Unlike American President, there is no suspensive veto in the case of Indian President.
2. The President while exercising the power to grant pardons, sit as a court of appeal
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 Only 2. 2 Only 3. Both 4. None

18. Consider the following statements regarding The Protection of Human Rights Act:

1. A person appointed as a Member of National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) shall hold office
for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
2. The functions relating to human rights in case of Union territory of Delhi shall be dealt with by
the National Human Rights Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT CORRECT?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

19. Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Information Act:

1. The Chief Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of five years from the date on
which he enters upon his office.
2. The salaries and allowances payable to the Chief Information Commissioner shall be the same
as that of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

3
20. Consider the following statements regarding The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act,
2019:

1. As the Act doesn‟t provide an alternative, a minor child has to wait up to 18 years in order to
make an application to the District Magistrate for issuing a certificate of identity as a transgender
person.
2. Prime Minister shall act as an ex-officio chairperson of the National Council for Transgender
Persons mentioned in the Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT CORRECT?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

21. Consider the following statements regarding Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 :

1. It reduces the time period for renewal of Licence for acquisition and possession of firearms and
ammunition from five years to three years.
2. Whoever, by using force, takes the firearm from the police or armed forces shall be punishable
with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than ten years but which may extend to
imprisonment for life and shall also be liable to fine.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

22. Consider the following statements

1. Though the Constitution has abandoned the system of separate electorate, it provides for the
system of communal representation by reserving seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes
in the Lok Sabha.
2. Though the Constitution has adopted the system of proportional representation in the case of
Rajya Sabha, it has not preferred the same system in the case of Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

23. Consider the following statements with regard to Constitution of India:

1. Territorial integrity or continued existence of any State is not guaranteed by the Constitution.
2. The Constitution prohibits discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste,
sex or place of birth but not on the ground of residence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

24. Consider the following statements in regard to Council of Ministers:

1. It is the duty of every minister to stand by cabinet decisions and support them both within and
outside the Parliament.
2. President can remove a minister even at a time when the council of ministers enjoys the
confidence of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

25. With reference to Election Commission of India, Consider the following statements:

1. The President has the power to increase/decrease the number of Election Commissioners in the
Election Commission.
2. A Regional Commissioner shall not be removed from office except on the recommendation of
the Chief Election Commissioner.
Which of the above statement[s] is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

4
 Indian Polity Test 02
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

1. Consider the following statements:

1. The lists of the SCs or STs vary from state to state.
2. Any inclusion or exclusion of any caste or tribe from Presidential notification can be done only
by the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

2. Which among the following are considered essential for the realization of the highest good of
India‟s citizens?

1. Fundamental rights 2. Fundamental duities

3. DPSP 4. Preamble

3. From which country, the method of Impeachment of the President of India is adopted from?

1. USA 2. UK 3. USSR 4. France

4. Who among the following was the Prime Minister of India when Mandal Commission was
constituted?

1. Indira Gandhi 2. Morarji Desai 3. Rajiv Gandhi 4. V P Singh

5. Arrange Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Kerala, Maharastra in correct chronological order of creation?

1. Maharastra, Kerala, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur

2. Kerala, Maharastra, Manipur, Himachal Pradesh
3. Kerala, Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur
4. Maharastra, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, kerala

6. Which amendment of the Indian Constitution has abolished the nomination of Anglo-Indians to the
Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies?

1. 101th Amendment Act 2. 102nd Amendment Act

3. 103rd Amendment Act 4. 104th Amendment Act

7. Which of the following presidents of India had shortest tenure?

1. S Radhakrishanan 2. Zakir Hussain 3. V. V Giri 4. BD Jatti

8. Which of the following countries Lower House is called Gyelyong Tshogdu?

1. Bhutan 2. Myanmar 3. Thailand 4. Cambodia

9. Which among the following Union Territory had a Judicial Commissioner‟s Court?

1. Pondicherry 2. Andaman & Nicobar Islands

3. Daman & Diu 4. Lakshadweep

10. Which of the following is not one of the grounds for disqualification for being elected as a Member
of Parliament?

1. If the person holds an office of profit under the State Government.

2. If the person has voluntarily acquired citizenship of a foreign State.
3. If a person is so disqualified under the Tenth Schedule.
4. If the person has/had been detained under the Preventive Detention Law.

1. Only 2 2. Only 4 3. 1 and 4 4. 1,2 and 4

5
11. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is NOT a specific ground on which the
state can place restriction on freedom of religion?

1. Public Order 2. Social Justice 3. Morality 4. Public Health

12. Creation of new state or change in name of state needs amendment in which of the following
schedules?

1. First 2. Second 3. Third 4. Fourth

13. In context with the writ jurisdiction of Supreme Court and High Courts, which of the following is a
correct statement?

1. Supreme Court‟s writ jurisdiction is broader than the High Court.

2. Supreme Court‟s writ jurisdiction is narrower than the High Court.
3. Both Supreme Court and High Court have equal powers in issuing writs.
4. Supreme Court can issue writs on only Fundamental Rights, while High Courts can issue writs on
only ordinary legal rights

14. Which article endeavors to separate the judiciary from the executive?

1. Article 44 2. Article 49 3. Article 39 4. Article 50

15. For how long can the Vice President act as the President when the President is not able to perform
his duties due to his resignation, removal, death or otherwise?

1. 1 year 2. 9 months 3. 6 months 4. 3 months

16. According to which Article of the Constitution the executive power of the Union is vested in the
President?

1. Article 53 2. Article 54 3. Article 55 4. Article 56

17. What happens if the Lok Sabha passes a no-confidence motion against the council of ministers?

1. Only ministers from Lok Sabha resign 2. Only ministers from Rajya Sabha Resign
3. All the ministers have to resign 4. None of the above

18. Which year is related to the formation of Rajya Sabha for the first time?

1. 1949 2. 1950 3. 1951 4. 1952

19. Which Constitutional Amendment empowered the administrators of certain union territories to
promulgate ordinances?

1. 24th 2. 27th 3. 29th 4. 31st

20. Which amendment states that the total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the
Central Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha?

1. 87th 2. 89th 3. 91st 4. 93rd

21. On whose recommendation was the Committee on Public Undertakings created?

1. Punchi Commission 2. Sarkaria Commission

3. Krishna Menon Committee 4. Fazl Ali Commission

22. Which Constitutional Amendment provided that the election of the president or vice-president
cannot be challenged on the ground of any vacancy in the appropriate electoral college?

1. 11th Amendment Act, 1961 2. 12th Amendment Act, 1962

3. 13th Amendment Act, 1962 4. 14th Amendment Act, 1962

6
23. Which amendment replaced the term „internal disturbance‟ by „armed rebellion‟ in respect of
national emergency?

1. 38th Amendment 2. 42nd Amendment 3. 44th Amendment 4. 48th Amendment

24. In how many categories are the parliamentary standing committees classified?

1. 4 2. 5 3. 6 4. 7

25. When was the Parliamentary Forum on Millennium Development Goals created?

1. 2000 2. 2010 3. 2013 4. 2015

7
 Indian Polity Test 03

DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

1. Consider the following statements regarding provisions related to National Investigation Agency
Act:

1. National Investigation Agency constituted under the Act is functioning as the Central Counter
Terrorism Law Enforcement Agency in India.
2. Under the Act, the Governor shall, in consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court (for
the trial of Scheduled Offences) designate one or more Courts of Session as Special Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT CORRECT?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Central Vigilance Commission shall consist of a Central Vigilance Commissioner and not more
than two Vigilance Commissioners.
2. Central Vigilance Commissioner is appointed on the recommendation of a three member
committee consisting of the Prime Minister, an Union Minister of Cabinet Rank and the Leader of
the Opposition in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

3. Consider the following statements regarding NITI Aayog:

1. Only those Union Territories having Legislatures are represented in the Governing Council of
NITI Aayog.
2. National Institute of Labour Economics Research and Development (NILERD) is a Central
Autonomous Organization attached to NITI Aayog.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT CORRECT?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

4. Consider the following in regard to the powers and actions taken by the National Human Rights
Commission:

1. NHRC has wide-ranging powers to investigate and to recommend prosecutions and award
compensations for human rights violations.
2. NHRC can take any coercive measures and take action against persons or authorities who do
not follow the guidelines laid down by it.
Which of the statements given above is/are NOT CORRECT?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

5. Which of the following is/are the objectives of establishing a National Green Tribunal:

1. To provide effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and
conservation of forests and other natural resources including enforcement of any legal right
relating to environment.
2. Giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

6. Which of the following states was the first to establish the institution of Lokayukta?

1. Maharashtra 2. Karnataka 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Kerala

8
7. Who among the following comes under the purview of Lokpal?

1. Armed Forces
2. Prime Minister of India
3. Group „A‟ or Group „B‟ officers
4. Group „C‟ or Group „D‟ officials
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 2. 2, 3 and 4 3. 3 and 4 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

8. With reference to Central Vigilance Commission (CVC), Consider the following statements:

1. Its establishment was recommended by the Santhanam Committee on Prevention of Corruption.

2. Originally the CVC was neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body but in 2003 the
Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the CVC.
3. It has all the powers of a civil court and its proceedings have a judicial character.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. 1 and 3 only 4. 1, 2 and 3

9. When was the Indian Forest Service (IFS) created?

1. 1965 2. 1966 3. 1967 4. 1968

10. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to inter-state council?

1. Its decisions are binding

2. The Council may meet at least thrice in a year
3. Decisions are taken by majority votes
Select the correct option from the codes given below:

1. Only 1 2. Only 2 & 3 3. Only 2 4. None of the above

11. Which Commission was appointed to investigate the circumstances that warranted the declaration
of an Emergency in 1975?

1. Shah Commission 2. Khosla Commission

3. Sarkaria Commission 4. Nanavati Commission

12. Article 371-J contains special provisions with respect to which state?

1. Mizoram 2. Karnataka 3. Tripura 4. Nagaland

13. According to which of the following committee the district should be the first point for
decentralisation under popular supervision below the state level?

1. Ashok Mehta Committee 2. G.V.K. Rao Committee

3. L M Singhvi Committee 4. Thungon Committee

14. Which of the following state took steps to revitalize the panchayati raj after the recommendations
of Ashok Mehta Committee?

1. Karnataka 2. West Bengal 3. Andhra Pradesh 4. Maharashtra

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

1. Only 1 & 2 2. Only 1 & 3 3. Only 1, 2 & 3 4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

15. Which committee recommended for the creation of the post of District Development
Commissioner?

1. Gadgil Committee 2. Thungon Committee

3. Ashok Mehta Committee 4. G.V.K. Rao Committee

9
16. Who shall be consulted before making the acquisition of land in the Scheduled Areas for
development projects?

1. Governor 2. Chief Minister 3. Gram Sabha 4. None of the above

17. Where was the first municipal corporation set in India?

1. Madras 2. Calcutta 3. Bombay 4. Delhi

18. Which committee recommended that there should also be reservation of seats for women in
Panchayati Raj Institutions?

1. Thungon Committee 2. L M Singhvi Committee

3. G.V.K. Rao Committee 4. Gadgil Committee

19. Eleventh Schedule contains how many functional items of the Panchayats?

1. 21 2. 25 3. 27 4. 29

20. The PESA Act aims to extend the provisions of which part of the Constitution relating to the
panchayats to the scheduled areas with certain modifications?

1. Part VIII 2. Part IX 3. Part IX B 4. Part X

21. Who can appoint a commission to report on the administration of the scheduled areas and the
welfare of the scheduled tribes in the states?

1. Supreme Court 2. President 3. Governor 4. Parliament

22. Which constitutional amendment provides constitutional status to the National Commission for
Backward Classes?

1. 100 2. 101 3. 102 4. 103

23. Where is the headquarters of Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) ?

1. New Delhi 2. Mumbai 3. Hyderabad 4. Kolkata

24. Where is the headquarters of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)?

1. Mumbai 2. New Delhi 3. Amravati 4. Hyderabad

25. Who headed the National Commission on Urbanisation?

1. Girijapati Mukharji 2. Rafiq Zakaria 3. C.M. Correa 4. K.N. Sahaya

10
 Indian Polity Test 04
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

1. In which year was the first commission to report on the administration of the scheduled areas and
the welfare of the scheduled tribes in the state constituted?

1. 1950 2. 1960 3. 1970 4. 1980

2. Who appoints the banking ombudsman?

1. President 2. Prime Minister

3. Reserve Bank of India 4. Parliament

3. Which of the following statement is correct about the orders issued by the Delimitation
Commission?

1. They are scrutinized by the committee constituted for the same.

2. They are subject to judicial review.
3. They are final and cannot be challenged in any court.
4. None of the above

4. Which of the following constitute the All-India services?

1. Indian Administrative Service (IAS) 2. Indian Police Service (IPS)

3. Indian Forest Service (IFS) 4. Indian Economic Service (IES)

1. Only 1 & 2 2. Only 1 & 3 3. Only 1, 2 & 3 4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

5. In which year National Commission for Women was set up?

1. 1992 2. 1995 3. 2002 4. 2005

6. Which of the following are the members of NITI Aayog?

1. Prime Minister of India

2. Chief Ministers of all the States
3. Chief Ministers of Union Territories with Legislatures
4. Special Invitees like experts, specialists and practitioners with relevant domain knowledge
Select the correct option from the codes given below:

1. Only 1 & 2 2. Only 2 & 3 3. Only 1 & 4 4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

7. Which of the following articles of the constitution mention special provisions for the scheduled
castes (SCs), the scheduled tribes (STs), the backward classes (BCs) and the Anglo-Indians?

1. Articles 330 to 342A 2. Articles 344 to 352A

3. Articles 350 to 352A 4. Articles 360 to 362A

8. Which of the following articles of the constitution contains provisions for the reservation of seats
for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the House of the people?

1. Article 330 2. Article 335 3. Article 340 4. Article 346

9. In which year the SC overturned the previous judgment by Delhi High Court (2009) that
decriminalised homosexual acts and criminalised homosexuality once again?

1. 2012 2. 2013 3. 2014 4. 2015

11
10. Consumer Protection Act, 2019 has replaced which of the following?

1. Consumer Protection Act, 1976 2. Consumer Protection Act, 1986

3. Consumer Protection Act, 1996 4. Consumer Protection Act, 2006

11. Essential Commodities Act was enacted in which year?

1. 1992 2. 1993 3. 1994 4. 1995

12. The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products Act, 2003 prohibits smoking of tobacco in which of the
following places?

1. Auditoriums 2. Movie theaters 3. Hospitals 4. Public transport

Select the correct the correct option from the codes given below:

1. Only 1 & 2 2. Only 2 & 3 3. Only 1 & 4 4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

13. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act was enacted in which year?

1. 2004 2. 2005 3. 2006 4. 2007

14. Which of the following bills introduced foster care in India?

1. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000

2. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2005
3. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2010
4. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015

15. The constitution of India mentions untouchability in which of the following articles?

1. Article 15 2. Article 16 3. Article 17 4. Article 18

16. Which act declared Indian Institutes of Technology as Institutes of National Importance?

1. The National Institutes of Technology, Science Education and Research Act, 2007
2. The Indian Institute of Management Act, 2017
3. The Institutes of Technology Act, 1961
4. None of the above

17. Maternity leave of how many weeks is available to mothers adopting a child below the age of three
months from the date of adoption under Maternity Benefit Amendment Act?

1. 3 weeks 2. 6 weeks 3. 9 weeks 4. 12 weeks

18. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act was
passed in which year ?

1. 2003 2. 2004 3. 2005 4. 2006

19. Consider the following statements regarding Renaming of states in India.

1. The procedure of renaming of the state can be initiated by either the Parliament or the State
Legislator.
2. Article 3 lays down that a bill to alter the name of any state can be introduced in the Parliament,
only with the prior recommendation of the President.
3. After recommending the bill to alter the name of any state to the Parliament, the President has
to refer the same to the state legislature concerned for expressing its views within a specified
period.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1, 3 2. 2 only 3. 1, 2 4. 2, 3

12
20. The mutual delegation of executive power between centre and states cannot occur

1. From Centre to State through President

2. From State to Centre through Governor
3. From Centre to State through Parliament
4. From State to Centre through State legislature

21. Constitution confers executive power of a subject in the Concurrent list to

1. Union Government 2. State Governments 3. President 4. All of the above

22. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the
following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

1. Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.
2. Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.
3. Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.
4. Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.

23. Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

1. A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions relating to imposition,
abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. A Money Bill has provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency
Fund of India.
3. A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of moneys out of the Contingency Fund of
India.
4. A Money Bill deals with the regulation of borrowing of money or giving of any guarantee by the
Government of India.

24. With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:

1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the
Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

25. Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

1. If there are more laws, there is less liberty.

2. If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
3. If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
4. If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.

13
 Indian Polity Test 05
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

1. Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during
his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his
term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

2. Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the "Rule of Law"?

1. Limitation of powers
2. Equality before law
3. People's responsibility to the Government
4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 3 only 2. 2 and 4 only 3. 1, 2 and 4 only 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

3. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in
respect of a particular State, then

1. the Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved.

2. the powers of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the
Parliament.
3. Article 19 is suspended in that State.
4. the President can make laws relating to that State.

4. With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees
scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-
laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly
exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

1. Committee on Government Assurances

2. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
3. Rules Committee
4. Business Advisory Committee

5. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a
person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State
Council of Teacher Education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher
Eligibility Test conducted in a accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education
guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90% of teacher education institutions are directly under the State
Governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 2. 2 only 3. 1 and 3 4. 3 only

14
6. Consider the following statements:

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be
recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only 2. 2 only 3. 2 and 3 only 4. 1, 2 and 3

7. Consider the following statements:

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of
India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no
judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

8. "Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following?

1. Amnesty International
2. International Court of Justice
3. The office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
4. World Justice Project

9. Consider the following statements:

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general
elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political
parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only 2. 2 only 3. 2 and 3 only 4. 3 only

10. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

1. There is an independent judiciary in India.

2. Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States,
3. The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
4. It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.

11. Democracy‟s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

1. the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.

2. the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
3. a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
4. a band of dedicated party workers.

12. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in

1. Federalism 2. Democratic decentralization

3. Administrative delegation 4. Direct democracy

15
13. Consider the following statements:

A Constitutional Government is one which

1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority
2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

14. Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

1. Liberty of thought 2. Economic liberty

3. Liberty of expression 4. Liberty of belief

15. The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

1. The Preamble 2. The Fundamental Rights

3. The Directive Principles of State Policy 4. The Fundamental Duties

16. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?

1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only 2. 2, 3 and 4 only 3. 1 and 4 only 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

17. One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

1. Privileges 2. Restraints 3. Competition 4. Ideology

18. Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the
42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

1. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
2. Participation of workers in the management of industries
3. Right to work, education and public assistance
4. Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers

19. Which one of the following statements is correct?

1. Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.

2. Rights are privileges which are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
3. Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
4. Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.

20. Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute
limitations upon
1. legislative function
2. executive function
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

1.1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

21. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?

1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.

2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

16
22. In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and
Duties?

1. Rights are correlative with Duties.

2. Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
3. Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
4. Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.

23. Consider the following statements:

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50
percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker‟s
post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker‟s to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

24. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President‟s
rule in a State?

1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly

2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code below:

1. 1 and 2 only 2. 1 and 3 only 3. 2 and 3 only 4. 1, 2 and 3

25. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the
Cabinet form of Government:

1. An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are
complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
2. A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are
increasing day by day.
3. A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the
Government to the people.
4. A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the
people is in a state of decline.

17
 Indian Polity Test 06
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

1. For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

1. anyone residing in India.

2. a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
3. any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
4. any citizen of India.

2. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:

1. A private member‟s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but
only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member‟s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in
its history
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

3. The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

1. the executive and legislature work independently.

2. it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.
3. the executive remains responsible to the legislature.
4. the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

4. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through

1. Adjournment motion
2. Question hour
3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only 2. 2 and 3 only 3. 1 and 3 only 4. 1, 2 and 3

5. In India, Judicial Review implies

1. the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
2. the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
3. the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to
by the President.
4. the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different
cases.

6. Consider the following statements:

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

7. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.

2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse
on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

18
8. Consider the following statements:

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.

2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

9. The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national
interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

1. Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

2. Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
3. Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
4. Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

10. The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

1. People‟s participation in development

2. Political accountability
3. Democratic decentralization
4. Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only 2. 2 and 4 only 3. 1 and 3 only 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

11. The ideal of 'Welfare State' in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy

3. Fundamental Rights 4. Seventh Schedule

12. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:

1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country

2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

13. Consider the following statements:

1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative
Assembly of that particular State.
2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

14. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

1. Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people

2. Parliament can amend the Constitution
3. Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
4. Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha

15. Consider the following statements:

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 1 and 2 only 3. 2 and 3 only 4. 1, 2 and 3

19
16. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed
by

1. a simple majority of members present and voting

2. three-fourths majority of members present and voting
3. two-thirds majority of the Houses
4. absolute majority of the Houses

17. Consider the following statements:

1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
2. The Prime Minister is the ex-officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

18. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented
to the Parliament.
2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization
from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the
Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only 2. 2 and 3 only 3. 2 only 4. 1, 2 and 3

19. Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

1. The President of India 2. The Prime Minister of India

3. The Lok Sabha Secretariat 4. The Supreme Court of India

20. "To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the

1. Preamble of the Constitution 2. Directive Principles of State Policy

3. Fundamental Rights 4. Fundamental Duties

21. Which of the following Is an example of "Equal protection of law":

1. Reservation
2. Differential tax rates

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

22. With reference to the idea of "Secularism" as enshrined in our constitution, consider the following
statements:

1. It opposes the inter-religious domination.

2. It opposes the intra-religious domination.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

23. In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?

1. External Aggression.
2. Internal Emergency.
3. When Martial Law is in force

1. 1 only 2. 2 & 3 only 3. 1 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3

20
24. Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 – “No person shall be deprived of his
life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”

1. Right to speedy trial.

2. Right against delayed execution.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

25. Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?

1. Prohibition, Certiorari & Mandamus

2. Certiorari & Mandamus
3. Prohibition & Mandamus
4. Prohibition & Certiorari

21
 Indian Polity Test 07
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.

1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.

2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.

1. 1 only 2. 2 & 3 only 3. 1 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3

2. The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:

1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.

2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
3. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by
half of the state legislatures.
4. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.

3. Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency.

1. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either

house of parliament by a special majority.
2. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either
house of parliament by a simple majority.
3. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of
parliament by a simple majority.
4. None of these.

4. Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency
(Article 360).

1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six
months.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house
of parliament by simple majority.
3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court
and High Court Judges.

1. 1 only 2. 2 & 3 only 3. 1 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3

5. When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant –

1. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker.

2. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
3. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
4. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected.

6. With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill –

1. The President can reject the bill but cannot return the bill.
2. The President cannot reject the bill but can return the bill.
3. The President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill.
4. The President can either reject the bill or return the bill.

7. The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are –

1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.

2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

22
8. The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the
following manner?

1. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.

2. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
3. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
4. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.

9. The office of the „Whip‟ is mentioned in:

1. Constitution of India. 2. Rules of the house.

3. In a separate Parliamentary Statute. 4. None.

10. The office of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned in:

1. Constitution of India. 2. Rules of the house.

3. A separate Parliamentary Statute. 4. None.

11. Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution for a person to be chosen a member
of parliament:

1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC / ST, he must be a member of a SC / ST in

any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as
untouchability, dowry & sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.

1. 1 only 2. 2 & 3 only 3. 1, 2, & 3 4. None of these

12. A minister who is not a member of either house (Note: A person can remain a minister for six
months, without being a member of either house of parliament):

1. Can participate in the proceedings of Lok Sabha only.

2. Can participate in the proceedings of Rajya Sabha only.
3. Can participate in the proceedings of either house of parliament.
4. Cannot participate till he becomes a Member of either house of parliament.

13. Consider the following statements with regard to Calling Attention motion and Zero Hour:

1. Both are Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure.

2. Both are not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
3. Only Zero hour is Indian innovation
4. Only Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure
The correct statements is/are:

1. 1 & 2 only 2. 3 & 4 only 3. & 3 only 4. 1 & 4 only

14. Which of the following motion/s if passed leads to the defeat of the government:

1. Censure Motion.
2. Cut Motion.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

15. The decision whether a bill is money bill or not is decided by the speaker, this decision cannot be
questioned by:

1. Any court of law.

2. Lok Sabha.
3. President of India.

1. 1 & 2 only 2. 2 & 3 only 3. 2 only 4. None of these

23
16. Which of the following condition may lead to the resignation of the government:

1. Defeat of an ordinary bill introduced by a minister.

2. Defeat of a money bill.

A. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both. 4. None.

17. Which of the following officials take the Oath that has the following lines: “To preserve protect and
defend the constitution”

1. President.
2. Governor.
3. Chief Justice of India.

1. 1 only 2. 1 & 2 only 3.1, 2 & 3. 4. None of the above.

18. Which of the following situation will bring about the collapse of the council of ministers of a state.

1. Resignation by Chief Minister

2. Death of Chief Minister

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

19. Which of the following statements are correct:

1. President can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately
represented in LS.
2. Governor can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately
represented in LA.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

20. When in a bicameral legislature, an ordinary bill, which has originated in the assembly is rejected
by the council:

A. Will be considered in a joint sitting to resolve the disagreement.

B. The assembly can override the council by passing the bill for the second time with or without
any amendments.
C. The council does not have power to reject any bill that has originated in the assembly and
hence the bill is deemed to have passed.
D. The bill ends and becomes dead.

21. Chief Justice of High court is appointed by:

1. The President after consultation with the CJI.

2. The President after consultation with the CJI & Governor of state.
3. The Governor on the recommendation of President who in turn consults the CJI.
4. The President after consultation with the Governor of the state & a collegium of two very senior
SC judges headed by CJI.

22. Which of the following statements are correct:

1. The High court cannot issue writs to any person outside its territorial jurisdiction.
2. An aggrieved person can approach the Supreme Court directly against the decision of a tribunal.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

24
23. Correct statements with regard to Panchayati Raj Institutions are:

1. The people directly elect all members of Panchayat at the village, intermediate and district
levels.
2. Governor can remove the State Election Commissioner on the recommendation of the State
Legislature.
3. The 73rd Amendment act of 1992 (PRI Act) is applicable to all states except J&K.

1. 1 only 2. 1 & 3 only 3. 1, 2 & 3 4. 2 & 3 only

24. Corrects statement/s with regard to UTs is/are:

1. The parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for the UT except Delhi and
Puducherry.
2. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is not empowered to promulgate ordinances.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

25. Corrects statement/s with regard to Election Commission is/are:

1. The constitution debars the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the
government.
2. The election commission is not concerned with the elections to state legislatures, for this the
constitution provides for a separate state election commission.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

25
 Indian Polity Test 08
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

1. Which of the following are quasi-judicial bodies:

1. Finance Commission.
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. National Human Rights Commission.
4. Central Information Commission.
5. Competition Commission of India.
6. Union Public Service Commission.
7. National Commission for SCs.

1. All except 1, 2 & 6. 2. All except 2, 4 & 6.

3. All except 6. 4. None of the above options are correct

2. Which of the following is/are not the functions of National Commission for SCs:

1. To advise on the planning process of socio economic development of the SCs.

2. To investigate all matters relating to OBCs.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

3. Which of the following official/s is/are appointed by the President by Warrant under his hand and
seal.

1. CAG.
2. Chairperson of National Commission of SCs.
3. Attorney General of India.
4. CVC

1. 1, 2 & 4 only 2. 2 & 3 only 3. 1 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3

4. Which of the following funds/authorities/bodies can be audited by CAG:

1. Consolidated funds of India, States & UTs having legislative assembly.

2. Contingency funds of India.
3. Public account of States.
4. Receipts and expenditures of PPP.
5. Local bodies.

1. 1, 2 & 3 only 2. 1, 2 & 5 only 3. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only 4. All

5. Which of the following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:
1. He/she is the highest law officer of the country.
2. He/she can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge
of the SC.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

6. Which of the following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:

1. He/she can be a member of a Parliamentary committee.

2. He/she is debarred from private legal practice.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

26
7. Which is the correct order for approval of 5 year plans:

1. Planning Commission – NDC – Cabinet – Parliament .

2. Planning Commission – Cabinet – NDC – Parliament .
3. Planning Commission – NDC – Cabinet.
4. Planning Commission – Cabinet – NDC.

8. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to NHRC.

1. NHRC is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.

2. After their tenure Chairman & members are not eligible for further employment under the
central or state government.
3. Its recommendations are binding on the concerned government or authority.

1. 1 & 2 only 2. 2 only 3. 1 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3

9. Members of selection committee for the selection of chairman of NHRC consists of:

1. PM
2. Speaker
3. Deputy Chairman of RS
4. Leaders of the opposition in LS
5. Leaders in the opposition in RS
6. Chief Justice of India
7. Home minister
8. Minister of Social Justice & Welfare

1. All except 7 2. All except 7 & 8

3. All except 6 & 8 4. None of the above options are correct

10. Which of the following statements are correct:

1. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are
similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner.
2. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Information Commissioner are
similar to those of the Chief Justice of High Court.
3. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner are
similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC.

A. 1 & 3 only 2. 1 & 2 only 3. 2 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3

11. Which of the following articles are correctly matched:

1. Election Commission – Article 338.

2. Finance Commission – Article 280.
3. National Commission for SCs – Article. 324
4. CAG – Article 148.
5. Attorney General of India – Article 76.

1. All except 1 & 5 2. All except 1 & 3 3. All except 2 & 5 4. None of the above

12. The Jurisdiction of CAT extends to:

1. Secretarial staff of Parliament.

2. Civilian employees of Defense Services.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

27
13. My friend described a tribunal in the following manner: The Tribunal shall not be bound by the
procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of
natural justice. He/she is probably referring to:

1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).

2. National Green Tribunal (NGT).
3. He/she is either referring to CAT or to NGT.
4. He/she is neither referring to CAT nor to NGT.

14. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. Right to Vote is not a FR but a Constitutional right.
2. Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the Right to Vote.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

15. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. If somebody is convicted for some offence and he is sentenced to imprisonment for 3 years he
cannot contest elections.
2. A person cannot contest from more than two constituencies for a Lok Sabha/Vidhan Sabha
election.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

16. Which of the following provisions of the constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian
State:

1. The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law.
2. No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the state.
3. The state shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a uniform Civil Code.
4. Any section of the society shall have the right to conserve its distinct language.

1. 1, 2, 3 only 2. 2 only 3. 2 & 3 only 4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

17. Which of the following feature/s of the constitution of India has/have been borrowed from GOI Act
1935:

1. Office of the Governor.

2. Emergency Provisions.
3. Legislative Procedure.
4. Bicameralism.
5. Federation with a strong center.

1. 1, 2 & 4 only. 2. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only. 3. 1 & 2 only. 4. None of the above

18. Which of the following term/s was/were added by the 42nd Amendment act in our Preamble:

1. Socialist.
2. Secular.
3. Republic.

1. 1 & 2 only 2. 1 only 3. 2 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3

19. Which of the following statements are incorrect:

1. The Preamble is a prohibition on the powers of the legislature.

2. Preamble is not a part of the constitution.
3. Preamble cannot be amended, as it is a part of the basic structure of the constitution.

1. 1 & 2 only 2. 2 & 3 only 3. 1 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3

28
20. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state without amending the constitution as mentioned
in article 368.
2. Resolution of boundary dispute between India and another country does not require
constitutional amendment.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

21. Which of the following subject/s is/are enumerated in the concurrent list:

1. Actionable wrongs.
2. Education.
3. Protection of wild Animals and Birds.

1. 1 & 2 only 2. 2 & 3 only 3. 1 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3

22. Article 14 says that the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal
protection of laws within the territory of India. Which of the following statements is/are true with
regard to article 14.

1. Equality before the law is a negative concept whereas equal protection of law is a positive
concept.
2. The concept of equality before the law is of British origin whereas equal protection of law is of
American origin.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

23. Which of the following statements is/are true:

1. High court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.

2. Territorial jurisdiction of SC for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of a High Court.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

24. Which of the following statement with regard to Directive Principles is/are correct:

1. Courts cannot declare a law violative of any of the Directive Principles as unconstitutional and
invalid.
2. Courts can uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was enacted to give effect to a
directive.

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 4. None

25. Which of the following schedules can be amended by simple majority of Parliament.

1. Second Schedule. 2. Fifth Schedule. 3. Sixth Schedule 4. Seventh Schedule.

1. 1 only 2. 1 & 4 only 3. 2 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3 only

29
 Indian Polity Test 09
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

1. In which of the following cases parliament can make laws in any matter enumerated in the state
list.

1. During National Emergency.

2. During Presidents Rule.
3. To Implement International Agreements.

1.1 only 2. 1 & 4 only 3. 2 & 3 only 4. 1, 2 & 3 only

2. Article 358 & 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental right. Which of
the following statements are correct with regard to Article 358 & 359.

1. Article 358 operates only in the case of External emergency and not in the case of Internal
emergency.
2. Article 359 operates in case of both External & Internal emergency.
3. Article 358 suspends FR under article 19 for the entire duration of emergency.
4. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas article 359 may extend to entire country or
part of it.

1. 1 & 2 only 2. 1, 2 & 3 only 3. 2, 3 & 4 only 4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

3. Choose the correct statements from below:

a. The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step by British govt to regulate the East India
Company.
b. The Pitt‟s India Act setup the Supreme Court in Calcutta.
c. The Charter Act of 1833 first recognized the company‟s territories in India as British
possessions.
d. Pitt‟s India Act created the Board of Control to look after political affairs.

1. Only a,b,c is correct. 2. Only a,c,d is correct.

3. Only a,d is correct. 4. All are correct.

4. Correct statement
1. The Pitt‟s India Act created Board of Control to manage political affairs.
2. The Pitt‟s India Act created the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs.
3. Both correct
4. Both wrong

5. Choose the correct answer

a. Charter Act of 1833 created the post Governor General of India.

b. Charter Act, 1833 deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras their legislative powers.
c. Charter Act, 1853 introduced open competitive system for recruitment of civil servants.
d. Macaulay Committee on the Indian Police Service was formed in 1854 and it drafted the Indian
Police Act,1861.

1. Only a,b is correct. 2. Only a,c is correct. 3. Only a,b,c is correct. 4. a,b,c,d is correct.

6. The 15 member Council of India was setup under which act?

1. Indian Councils Act,1861

2. Indian Councils Act, 1892
3. Government of India Act,1858.
4. Indian Councils Act,1909

30
7. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?(2011)

1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim

budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government‟s budget, while an “interim
budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statements; given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

8. In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special
advantages it is entitled to?(2011)

1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.

2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to LokSabha.
3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister‟s 15-Point Programme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 and 3 only‟ 3. 1 and 3 only 4. 1, 2 and 3

9. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the- Consolidated Fund of India must come
from: (2011)

1. The President of India 2. The Parliament of India

3. The Prime. Minister of India 4. The Union Finance, Minister

10. All revenues received by the Union. Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the
conduct of Government business are credited to the: (2011)

1. Contingency Fund of India 2. Public Account

3. Consolidated Fund of India 4. Deposits and Advances Fund

11. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the LokSabha (2011)

1. the Budget is modified and presented again

2. the Budget is referred to the RajyaSabha for suggestions
3. the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign,
4. the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

12. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?(2011)

1. To vote in public elections

2. To develop the scientific temper
3. To safeguard public property
4. To abide by me Constitution and respect its ideals

13. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
(2011)

1. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development

2. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
3. It ensures transparency in financial administration
4. None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context

14. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment: (2012)

1. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a
member of one of the” Houses within six months
2. need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a
member of the LokSabha within six months
3. must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
4. must be a member of the LokSabha

31
15. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (2012)

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.

2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State
Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 only 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

16. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid
before the Parliament which of the following? 2012

1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission

2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee
3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
4. The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. 1 only 2. 2 and 4 only 3. 1, 3 and 4 only 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

17. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament
during the passage of (2012)

1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. 1 only 2. 2 and 3 only 3. 1 and 3 only 4. 1, 2 and 3

18. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian
Constitution? (2012)

1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. 1 and 2 only 2. 2 only 3. 1, 3 and 4 only 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

19. What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?(2012)

1. While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief
Justice of India.
2. The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
3. The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the
legislature does not have to vote.
4. All appointments of officers and staffs of the Supreme Court of India are made by the
Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only 2. 3 and 4 only 3. 4 only 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

20. The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based
on the scheme provided in the(2012)

1. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 2. Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919

3. Government of India Act, 1935 4. Indian Independence Act, 1947

32
21. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is(2012)

1. to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

2. to let opposition members collect information from the ministers
3. to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
4. to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some
members

22. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the
Constitution of India: (2012)

1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code

2. Organizing village Panchayats
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities

Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of
State Policy?

1. 1, 2 and 4 only 2. 2 and 3 only 3. 1, 3 and 4 only 4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

23. Consider the following statements:(2012)

1. Union Territories are not represented in the RajyaSabha.

2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only 2. 2 and 3 3. 1 and 3 4. None

24. Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?(2012)

1. A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States

2. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State
3. A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory
4. A dispute between two or more States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. 1 and 2 2. 2 and 3 3. 1 and 4 4. 3 and 4

25. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?(2012)

1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces

2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. 1 only 2. 2 and 3 only 3. 1 and 3 only 4. 1, 2 and 3

33
 Indian Polity Test 10
DIRECTIONS for the question: Mark the best option:

1. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution
of India? (2012)

1. To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State
2. To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create
one or more All India Services
3. To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President
after his/her retirement
4. To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election
Commissioners

2. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? (2012)

1. Directive Principles of State Policy

2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. 1 and 2 only 2. 3, 4 and 5 only 3. 1, 2 and 5 only 4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

3. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
(2012)

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament

2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill
3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account
4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against
macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office
5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only 2. 1, 2 and 4 only 3. 3, 4 and 5 only 4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

4. Consider the following regarding the Finance Commission (FC):

1. The members of FC are not eligible for reappointment.

2. The Chairman of the FC should not be more than 60 years of age.
Mark the correct Response:

1. Only 1 2. Only 2 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

5. The Supreme Court has held that if an accused/suspect/witness is compelled to undergo narco-
analysis, polygraph test, brain-mapping it is violative under article(s):

1. Article 19 2. Article 20 3. Article 21 4. Article 22

Mark the correct Response:

1. 2 and 3 only 2. Only 2 3. only 3 4. None of the above

6. Which of the following statements are correct?

i) India is a „Union of States‟ implies the indestructible nature of its unity.
ii) Acquisition of a foreign territory falls within the purview of Article 1.
iii) Exclusive Economic Zone extends up to 200 km into the sea.

1. i) only 2. i) and ii) only 3. iii) only 4. All of the above

34
7. Which of the following features of the constitution of India have been based on the constitution of
British Constitution?

1. Cabinet system 2. Legislative procedure

3. Prerogative writs 4. Suspension of Fundamental rights during emergency.

Mark the correct response:

1. 1, 2 and 3 only 2. 1 and 2 only 3. 2, 3 and 4 only 4. All the Above

8. Which of the following initiatives is/are useful to make India‟s representative democracy more
participatory and inclusive in nature?

1. Rights to Public Service Act 2. System of Social Audit 3. citizens‟ Charter

Mark the correct response:

1. Only 1 2. Only 2 3. 2 and 3 only 4. All the above

9. The power of the President wherein he can reduce rigorous imprisonment to simple imprisonment
during the pregnancy period of a woman convict is:

1. Respite 2. Reprieve 3. Remission 4. Commutation

10. As per Representation of People Act 1951, in an election if there is equality of valid votes polled in
favour of two or more candidates, then:

1. The returning officer shall decide between such candidates by drawing a lot.
2. A re-election is to be held between the candidates who are tied.
3. A re-election is to be held between all the contesting candidates.
4. The PM shall exercise casting vote to decide between such candidates.

11. Which of the following acts enabled the Constituent Assembly of India to enact a constitution of its
own free will?

1. Cabinet Mission Plan 1935 2. Government of India Act of 1935

3. Indian Independence ACt 1947 4. Partition of India

12. Consider the following statements regarding Quo Warranto:

1. It can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by
a statute or the constitution.
2. It can be sought only by persons whose legal rights have been infringed.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1 2. Only 2 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

13. Which of the following is/are the fundamental duties laid down in the constitution?

1. to respect the National Flag

2. to protect the natural environment
3. to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of 6 and 18 years.
4. to abjure violence.
Mark the correct response:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only 2. 1 and 4 only 3. 1 and 2 only 4. All the above

14. Article 371A of the constitution extends protection to the state of Nagaland against an Act of
Parliament in which of the following areas?

1. Naga customary law and procedure.

2. Ownership and transfer of land and its resources.
3. Religious or social practices of the Nagas.

35
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1 2. 1 and 3 only 3. All the above 4. None of the above

15. Consider the following statements regarding Speaker Pro Tem:

1. He is appointed by the President on the basis of a convention.

2. The PM administers oath to the Speaker Pro Tem
3. He has all the powers of the Speaker
4. He administers oath to the newly elected members of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 4 only 2. 2, 3 and 4 only 3. 3 and 4 only 4. 1, 3 and 4 only

16. Which of the following statements regarding the advisory jurisdiction of the SC are correct:

1. It is binding on the SC to give its opinion on any matter referred to it by the President.
2. The full bench of the SC hears any reference made to it under its power of advisory jurisdiction.
3. The opinion given by the SC under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the Govt.
4. Not more than one reference at a time can be made to the SC under its power of advisory
jurisdiction.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 2. 1 and 3 3. 2 and 3 4. 2 and 4

17. Under which circumstances the Indian Citizenship is compulsorily terminated by the central
Government:

1. When the citizen has shown disloyalty to the constitution of India.

2. When the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for seven years continuously.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1 2. Only 2 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

18. What is the purpose of „Votes of Credit‟ provision?

1. To meet the expenditure arisen due to some new service not contemplated in the budget.
2. To meet unexpected demand where the magnitude of demand cannot be stated with details in
budget.
3. To meet the situation when money has been spent more than the amount granted in the
budget.
4. To meet expenditure as an advance for part of a financial year pending the completion of the
procedure to enact the Appropriation Bill.

19. Consider the following statements regarding the language of administration:

1. The official language of the Union is Hindi in Devanagari script but the numerals shall be written
in International form of Indian numerals.
2. It is necessary that the text of every Act be translated and published in English.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1 2. Only 2 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

20. Which of the following articles of the constitution deals with Right to consult a legal practitioner of
one‟s choice?

1. Article 15 2. Article 20(2) 3. Article 22 4. Article 21

21. Consider the following statements regarding Preventive Detention:

1. No person shall be taken into Preventive Detention beyond 3 weeks without the approval of an
Advisory Board.
2. No person can be taken into Preventive Detention without the authority of law.

36
 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1 2. Only 2 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

22. When the principle of „due process of law‟ is applied which of the following is a necessary
condition?

1. Principle of Natural Justice 2. Power of judicial review

3. Doctrine of Procedure established by law 4. Independence of judiciary

23. Consider the following statements regarding the Tribes Advisory Council:

1. Tribes Advisory Council is established only in states having scheduled tribes.

2. The Tribes Advisory Council consists of not more than 20 members.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Only 1 2. Only 2 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2

24. Which of the following changes were made in the Constitution under 97th Constitutional
Amendment Act of 2011:

1. Part IX-B was added to the Constitution.

2. A new DPSP on promotion of co-operative societies was included.
3. Right to form co-operative societies was made a Fundamental right.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. Only 3 2. 2 and 3 only 3. 1 and 3 only 4. All the above

25. The National Green Tribunal has jurisdiction over which of the following laws?

1. Air (Prevention and Control Of Pollution) Act

2. Water (Prevention and Control Of Pollution) Act
3. Scheduled Tribes (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2005
4. Forest (Conservation) Act
5. Public Liability (Insurance) Act.
Mark the correct response:

1. 1 and 2 only 2. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only 3. 1, 2 and 4 only 4. 2 and 4 only

37
 Answer Key

Test 01 Test 02 Test 03 Test 04 Test 05

1. 1 1. 3 1. 2 1. 2 1. 3
2. 2 2. 1 2. 1 2. 3 2. 3
3. 2 3. 1 3. 1 3. 3 3. 2
4. 3 4. 2 4. 2 4. 3 4. 2
5. 2 5. 3 5. 3 5. 1 5. 2
6. 4 6. 3 6. 1 6. 4 6. 2
7. 4 7. 2 7. 2 7. 1 7. 1
8. 1 8. 1 8. 4 8. 1 8. 4
9. 3 9. 3 9. 2 9. 2 9. 4
10. 3 10. 2 10. 3 10. 2 10. 4
11. 4 11. 2 11. 1 11. 4 11. 1
12. 1 12. 1 12. 2 12. 4 12. 2
13. 2 13. 2 13. 1 13. 2 13. 2
14. 1 14. 4 14. 3 14. 4 14. 2
15. 2 15. 3 15. 4 15. 3 15. 1
16. 4 16. 1 16. 3 16. 2 16. 3
17. 4 17. 3 17. 1 17 4 17. 1
18. 1 18. 4 18. 1 18. 4 18. 2
19. 4 19. 2 19. 4 19. 3 19. 3
20. 3 20. 3 20. 2 20. 4 20. 4
21. 2 21. 3 21. 2 21. 2 21. 4
22. 2 22. 1 22. 3 22. 3 22. 1
23. 3 23. 3 23. 1 23. 3 23. 4
24. 3 24. 3 24. 2 24. 1 24. 2
25. 3 25. 3 25. 3 25. 2 25. 3

Test 06 Test 07 Test 08 Test 09 Test 10

1. 3 1. 2 1. 3 1. 4 1. 2
2. 4 2. 1 2. 4 2. 4 2. 3
3. 3 3. 4 3. 1 3. 3 3. 1
4. 4 4. 2 4. 4 4. 1 4. 4
5. 1 5. 3 5. 1 5. 3 5. 1
6. 2 6. 3 6. 1 6. 3 6. 1
7. 2 7. 2 7. 2 7. 2 7. 1
8. 4 8. 4 8. 2 8. 3 8. 4
9. 4 9. 4 9. 3 9. 2 9. 1
10. 3 10. 3 10. 1 10. 3 10. 1
11. 2 11. 4 11. 2 11. 4 11. 3
12. 3 12. 3 12. 2 12. 1 12. 1
13. 4 13. 4 13. 3 13. 4 13. 2
14. 4 14. 2 14. 3 14. 1 14. 3
15. 2 15. 4 15. 3 15. 3 15. 4
16. 1 16. 3 16. 4 16. 3 16. 3
17. 4 17. 2 17. 3 17. 1 17. 3
18. 3 18. 3 18. 1 18. 3 18. 2
19. 4 19. 1 19. 4 19. 1 19. 1
20. 4 20. 2 20. 2 20. 3 20. 3
21. 3 21. 4 21. 4 21. 1 21. 2
22. 3 22. 1 22. 3 22. 2 22. 2
23. 3 23. 1 23. 3 23. 4 23. 2
24. 3 24. 4 24. 3 24. 3 24. 4
25. 2 25. 4 25. 4 25. 3 25. 2

38