THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R.

MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0322] MARCH 2022 Sub. Code :6063

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020 Batch onwards)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526063

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions

I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. 25 years male RTA victim presented with rapid pulse, cold clammy cyanotic
skin, tachypnea and landed in emergency ward in unconscious state what is the
diagnosis? Classify the disease write in detail about the pathogenesis, morphology
evolution of the disease.

2. 50 / male vegetarian, presented with pallor, paresthesia of extremities O/E he had

beefy tongue what is your diagnosis? How will you investigate this patient further
and establish the diagnosis. Classify RBC disorders according to etiology.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. 18 years male your friend was diagnosed as Hodgkin’s lymphoma. How will you
empathise with him and his family members & support them?

2. Calcification
3. 10 years female was administered an analgesic injection IM and immediately
collapsed. What is the type of reaction? What is the Pathogenesis of this
reaction?

4. 10 years male presented with evening raise of temperature, neck nodes. His father
was treated for cough with expectoration for 6 months. What is your diagnosis?
Write about pathogenesis morphology of this illness.

5. 30 years male presented with fever with rigors he had H/o dark coloured urine
after admission and also had cloudy consciousness, what is the diagnosis? What is
the role of peripheral smear in diagnosis?

6. Pathogenesis of obesity.
7. 60 years male presented with low back ache. He had multiple lytic lesions of
bones on skeletal survey. Serum electrophoresis and bone narrow was done to
establish diagnosis. What is your diagnosis what are the findings in bone narrow
and electrophoresis?

8. Classify transfusion reactions. How will you investigate a case of transfusion

reactions?

9. 40 years male with splenomegaly on investigations had total count of

1,20,000 cells / mm3 and peripheral smear showed predominance of myeloid
precursors. What is your diagnosis? Draw diagram of peripheral smear. What is
the common genetic event in this condition?

10. Describe normal hemostasis and coagulation cascade

***********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0822] AUGUST 2022 Sub. Code :6063

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526063

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. 30 years female immediately after delivery went into sudden circulatory failure.
She had profuse bleeding per vaginum and from venepuncture sites. What is your
diagnosis? What is the Pathophysiology? How will you investigate this patient?

2. 1 year male child was brought with loss of vision and mass lesion of the eyeball.
There was a family H/o sarcoma of the long bone in the sibling. What is your
diagnosis? What is the molecular mechanism involved in this family. Describe
the normal cell cycle and how this gene affects cell cycle, Name 3 other genes
involved in familial syndromes.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. 7 years male child is found lying down on the road with convulsions with his
mother. How will you react as a medical student and help them?

2. 50 years male who was a diabetic has developed an ulcer in the foot of
size 6 x 4 cm. His last toe was covered with necrotic slough. What is your
diagnosis? What is the pathogenesis and pathology involved in this complication?

3. 8 years female child was hailing from a poor family and was found to have loss of
muscle mass and subcutaneous fat she was emaciated. What is your diagnosis?
How will you categorize nutritional disorders?

4. Pathogenesis of amyloidosis.
5. 25 years male had a cut injury in his hand and wound was sutured immediately.
How does healing take place in such wound? What are the factors delaying
wound healing?

6. What are the sub types of Hodgkin Lymphoma? Also write about types of
RS cells.
… 2 …
 … 2 …

7. 20 years male following antibiotic intake had total leukocyte count of

1200 cells / mm3 and absolute neutrophil count of 120 cells. What is your
diagnosis? What is the pathogenesis of this condition?

8. Infections transmitted by blood transmission. How will you prevent it?

9. 20 years female had hematocrit of 20%, reticulocytosis, hyperbilirubinemia,

peripheral smear revealed anisopoikilocytosis and target cells. What is the
pathophysiology of this disease?

10. WHO classification of acute myeloid leukemia.

********
[MBBS 0822]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code :6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND YEAR – (CBME)

PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526063

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. 35years old male presented with rapid pulse, cold clammy skin, tachypnoea with
hypotension admitted in emergency ward. History of fever for more than 1 week
with increased total WBC Count.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Write in detail about the pathogenesis, morphology and how will you evaluate
this condition?

2. 8 years old girl presented with malaise and fatigue. On examination yellowish
sclera with hepatosplenomegaly noted. Family history revealed similar complaints
in her sibling also. Her Hemoglobin level is 7.8 g/dl. X-Ray skull showed
“crewcut” appearance.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Write in detail about etiopathogenesis, morphology and laboratory investigations
needed to confirm the diagnosis.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Define necrosis and its types.

2. Vitamin D deficiency.
3. Type IV Hypersensitivity reaction.
4. Write short notes on Etiopathogenesis of ITP.
5. Philadelphia chromosome.
6. Describe the morphology of amyloidosis.
7. Enumerate the various anti-coagulants utilized in clinical pathology lab for routine
blood investigations. Write about their mechanism and their uses.
8. Opportunistic infections in AIDS.
9. Chemical Carcinogenesis.
10. Write short notes on
a) Autonomy.
b) Beneficence.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code :6063

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR – (CBME)
PAPER III – PATHOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526063

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)
1. 30/Male presented with massive splenomegaly his total count was
2,35,000 cells per mm3 with preponderance of Neutrophilic precursors.
Platelet count was 1,80,000 cells per mm3.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) What is the molecular basis of this disease?
c) Write about the morphological features in this condition. Classify
myeloproliferative neoplasms.

2. 25 years female presented with malar rash on the face, fever, painful joints of
fingers.
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) Write about the pathogenesis and diagnosis of the disease.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. 20 years female was diagnosed as extrapulmonary tuberculosis.

She is very upset with the diagnosis. How will you support and educate her?
2. Disorders of pigments.
3. What is the role of prostaglandins in inflammation?
4. What is cross matching? Types of cross matching and its importance.
5. What are the types of carcinogens? Write about microbial carcinogens.
6. What do you know about stem cells? What is the role of stem cells in diseases?
7. Von Willebrand disease.
8. 30 years female presented with menorrhagia. She has pallor, koilonychia.
What will be the hematological findings in this patient?
9. What are the investigations required in a case of bleeding disorder?
10. 3 years male child had frontal bossing, pigeon chest, bowing of legs. What is
the underlying dietary deficiency? What are the metabolic changes due to the
deficiency? If seen in adults what is the clinical manifestation?
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code :6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND PROFESSIONAL YEAR – (CBME)
PAPER I – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526063

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)

1. A patient is brought to casualty with multiple superficial and deep injuries.

Patient is a known diabetic.
a) Write in detail about the mechanism of healing and repair of injury.
b) Discuss about the factors influencing the process of healing and expected
complications.

2. 40 years old male with complaints of easy fatigability, history of fever and
abdominal pain. On examination, there was Hepatosplenomegaly and his
WBC count was 1,08,000/cu.mm, Haemoglobin 8.8g/dl and platelet count
1,00,000/cu.mm.
a) What is your probable diagnosis?
b) Write in detail about the etiopathogenesis and other laboratory findings with
relevant diagrams.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Chemotaxis.
2. Turner’s syndrome.
3. Describe in detail the events of invasion and metastasis in neoplasia.
4. Lab diagnosis of DIC (Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation).
5. Vitamin D deficiency.
6. What is informed consent? Discuss the components of an informed consent.
7. Write in detail about pathogenesis and investigation of sickle cell disease.
8. 27 years old female, one week after normal delivery presented with complaints
of dyspnoea, irritability with bleeding Pervaginum admitted in postnatal ward.
On examination she had hypotension and increased pulse rate. What is your
probable diagnosis? What are the causes and other investigations needed to
confirm the diagnosis?
9. Leukemoid reaction.
10. Burkitt’s lymphoma.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0524] MAY 2024 Sub. Code :6063

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)

PAPER I – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526063

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)
1. Enumerate the various carcinogenic agents. Write in detail about the process of
Carcinogenesis in Carcinoma cervix.

2. 26 years old multipara presented in Obstetric OPD with complaints of easy

fatiguability and breathlessness. On evaluation her Hemoglobin level - 6.2 g/dl,
serum iron level-40 mcg/dl.
a) Mention the probable cause of her condition.
b) Write about the pathogenesis and other investigations needed to confirm the
diagnosis.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Pathogenesis of cystic fibrosis.

2. Vitamin ‘A’ deficiency – Causes and Pathology.
3. Klinefelter syndrome.
4. Write about the morphologic changes of reversible injury.
5. Blood transfusion is advised for a post tonsillectomy patient. Immediately after
starting the transfusion, patient complains of chills with rigors. What is the
diagnosis and how will you manage the patient?
6. Blood smear and Bone marrow findings in Megaloblastic anemia.
7. Type II hypersensitivity reaction.
8. What is the screening procedure to be done for a 42 years old female presented
in Gynecology OPD with the complaints of leucorrhea? Describe in detail
regarding the screening procedure.
9. Define embolism and write about pulmonary embolism.
10. What is empathy? What is the role of empathy in care of patients?

*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6063

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)

PAPER I – PATHOLOGY

Q.P. Code: 526063

Time: Three hours Maximum : 100 Marks (80 Theory + 20MCQs)

Answer all the Questions
I. Essay: (2 x 15 = 30)
(3+7+5)
1. a) Define Neoplasia.
b) Describe the pathogenesis of Radiation oncogenesis.
c) What are the characteristics of Benign and Malignant Neoplasms.

(3+5+7)
2. 5-year-old boy presents to ER with complaints of epistaxis and petechiae over the
limbs for the past 3 days.
a) What is the probable condition?
b) What are the relevant investigations to narrow down the cause?
c) Write in detail about pathogenesis of Immune mediated cases of the above
condition.

II. Write Short notes on: (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Tumor markers.

2. Hemophilia.

3. Dystrophic and pathologic calcification.

4. Type I Hypersensitivity reaction.

5. Different types of giant cells with morphology and examples.

6. Protein Energy Malnutrition.

7. Glycogen storage disorders.

8. Mechanism of autoimmunity.

9. Amniotic fluid Embolism.

10. How will you break the news of carcinoma of pancreas and explain the
prognosis to the patient/attender?
********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0322] MARCH 2022 Sub. Code : 6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020 Batch onwards)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script. No
overwriting should be done.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Opsonisation and phagocytosis is promoted by
a. C3a b. C3b c. C3d d. C2a

2. Initiators of inflammation in sepsis are signalling pathways which lie downstream

of
a. TNFα b. TNFβ c. Toll like receptors d. IFN-γ

3. The metabolic derangement in progressive stage of shock includes

a. Hyponatremia b. Hypokalemia c. Alkalosis d. Acidosis

4. Aortic dissection is not associated with

a. Alport syndrome b. Ehler’s Danlos Syndrome
c. Marfan syndrome d. Turner’s syndrome

5. Trisomy 21 carries a higher risk of developing

a. Hydrops fetalis b. Acute leukemias
c. Colonic rupture d. Meckel’s diverticulum

6. NK Cell inhibitory receptors recognise

a. Class I MHC molecules b. Class II MHC molecules
c. Toll like receptors d. IFN-γ

7. The combination of HLA Allele in each individual is called

a. Prototype b. Haplotype c. Diplotype d. Tetratype

8. Serum sickness is the prototype of

a. Type I hypersensitivity b. Type II hypersensitivity
c. Type III hypersensitivity d. Type IV hypersensitivity
9. A tumour is called clonal, when the incurred genetic damage is in
a. Multiple precursor cells b. Single precursor cell
c. Stem cells d. Hetrogenous cells

10. ALK is a
a. Cyclin receptor b. Tyrosine kinase receptor
c. CDK receptor d. RB receptor

11. H.pylori is associated with development of

a. Gastric adenocarcinomas b. Gastric lymphomas
c. GIST d. Gastric sarcomas

12. Cerebral calcifications, cerebral atrophy, ventricular enlargements and hypoplastic

cerebral structures were the most common adverse outcomes seen in
a. Corona virus b. Polio virus c. Zika virus d. Ebola virus

13. Miliary tuberculosis occurs when bacteria disseminate through

a. Systemic arterial system b. Systemic venous system
c. Lymphatics d. Direct spread

14. The pathognomonic feature so common in Anorexia nervosa seen in the bone
marrow is
a. Gelatinous transformation b. Hypercellular marrow
c. Marrow fibrosis d. Depleted marrow

15. Immune hydrops is due to

a. Parvovirus B19 b. Turner syndrome
c. Monozygous Twin pregnancies d. ABO incompatibility

16. Most T-ALL have mutations in

a. NOTCH1 b. NOTCH2 c. NOTCH3 d. NOTCH4

17. The sufficient number in absolute lymphocytosis to fulfil the diagnostic

requirement in CLL is
a. > 2000/cu.mm b. > 3000/cu.mm c. > 4000/cu.mm d. >5000/cu.mm

18. Diagnostic Reed-Sternberg cells are as large as

a. 25µm b. 30µm c. 35µm d. 45µm

19. Sickle cell trait is protective against

a. Filaria b. Falciparum Malaria c. Leishmania d. Trypanosmiasis

20. HbH Disease is caused by deletion of

a. One α-globin gene b. Two α-globin genes
c. Three α-globin genes d. Four α-globin genes
***********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0822] AUGUST 2022 Sub. Code : 6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND YEAR – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)

PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script. No overwriting
should be done.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Damage to nuclear DNA triggers this pathway
a. WNT signalling b. P53 c. AKT signalling d. Ubiquitin

2. Atrophy is decreased protein synthesis due to

a. Ubiquitin proteosome pathway b. WNT signalling
c. AKT pathway d. P53

3. Neutrophil extracellular traps are mainly produced by

a. Chemical carcinogens b. Infectious pathogens
c. Parasites d. Radiation insult

4. The most important cytokine for synthesis of connective tissue proteins is

a. MMPs b. VEGF c. TGF-β d. IL-1

5. Heparin induced Thrombocytopenia syndrome is due to administration of

a. Unfractionated Heparin b. Fractionated Heparin
c. LMW Heparin d. Thrombin

6. Which of these diseases listed is a X-Linked disorder

a. Tay sach’s disease b. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
c. Cystic fibrosis d. Haemophilia A

7. Familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by mutations in the gene encoding the

receptor for
a. HDL b. VLDL c. LDL d. Chylomicrons

8. FISH uses one of the following probes for recognising sequences in a chromosomal
region
a. RNA b. DNA c. CGH Probes d. SNP Probes

9. Class II MHC present antigens derived from

a. Extracellular microbes b. Intracellular microbes
c. Cytoplasmic proteins d. Tumour antigens
… 2 …
 … 2 …
10. In Acute antibody mediated Rejection antibodies bind to
a. CD3+ cells b. CD2+ cells
c. Vascular endothelium d. Tissue epithelium

11. The direct cytopathic effect of the replicating HIV results in

a. Loss of CD8+ cells b. Loss of CD4+ cells
c. Raised CD4+ cells d. Raised CD8+ cells

12. A sentinel lymph node is defined as

a. First node in a regional lymphatic basin receiving lymph flow from the primary
tumour
b. First node in another regional lymphatic basin receiving lymph flow from the
primary tumour
c. Second node in a regional lymphatic basin receiving lymph flow from the primary
tumour
d. Second node in another regional lymphatic basin receiving lymph flow from the
primary tumour

13. The downstream pathway components of RAS in cancer cells include

a. WNT b. NOTCH c. MAPK d. INK

14. The UV portion of the solar spectrum which is carcinogenic is

a. UVA b. UVB c. UVC d. Ozone portion

15. EBV is associated with

a. X-Linked agammaglobulinemia b. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma
c. Leukemia d. Melanomas

16. The novel covid-19 virus is

a. SARS-CoV-1 b. SARS-CoV-2 c. SARS-CoV-3 d. SARS-CoV-4

17. Meyers-kouwenaar bodies are seen in

a. Malaria b. Filaria c. Leishmania d. Taenia

18. The photochemical reaction for the the endogenous production of 7-dehydrocholesterol
requires solar UV Light in the range of
a. 290-315nm b. 320-360nm c. 370-400nm d. 410-425nm

19. The commonest age group of children affected by Teratoma is

a. 0-4 yrs b. 5-9 yrs c. 10-14 yrs d. 12-14yrs

20. The diagnosis of AML requires atleast

a. 50% blasts in bone marrow b. 40% blasts in bone marrow
c. 30% blasts in bone marrow d. 20% blasts in bone marrow.
********

[MBBS 0822]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code : 6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR – (CBME)
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script. No overwriting
should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)
1. Which of the following is true about intravascular hemolysis?
A) Increased haptoglobin levels B) Splenomegaly
C) Hemosiderinuria D) Seen in thalassemia

2. One of the following is an example of genomic imprinting

A) Angelman syndrome B) Hurler syndrome
C) Tay sachs disease D) Fragile X syndrome

3. All of the following are examples of C-C chemokines except

A) Monocyte chemoattractant protein B) Eotaxin
C) Macrophage inflammatory protein D) Lymphotactin

4. Which one of the following cytokines is involved in tissue repair and fibrosis?
A) Tumour necrosis factor B) Transforming growth factor β
C) Interleukin 1 D) Interferon

5. Myasthenia gravis is an example of which of the following type of hypersensitivity?

A) Type IV B) Type III C) Type II D) Type I

6. The major fibril protein associated with hemodialysis associated amyloidosis is

A) AA B) AL C) Aβ2m D) ATTR

7. Which tumour suppressor gene is called as Governor of proliferation?

A) TP53 B) CDKN2A C) APC D) Rb gene

8. Consider the following statements and choose the best answer:

(i) Microcytic hypochromic red blood cells are seen in iron deficiency anemia and in
Thalassemia
(ii) Bone marrow iron levels are high in both iron deficiency anemia and Thalassemia
(iii) Total iron binding capacity is increased in iron deficiency anemia and Thalassemia
(iv) Fetal haemoglobin level is normal in iron deficiency anemia and increased in
Thalassemia
A) All of the above are true B) i, ii and iii are true
C) i and ii are true D) i,iii and iv are true

... 2 ...
 ... 2 ...
9. The pathognomonic feature common in Anorexia nervosa seen in the bone marrow is
A) Gelatinous transformation B) Hypercellular marrow
C) Marrow fibrosis D) Depleted marrow

10. Immune hydrops is due to

A) Parvovirus B19 B) Turner syndrome
C) Monozygous Twin pregnancies D) ABO incompatibility

11. Which of the following syndromes is not associated with Wilms tumour?
A) Beckwith Wiedemann syndrome B) WAGR syndrome
C) Turner syndrome D) Denys drash syndrome

12. Which of the following is not seen in myelodysplastic syndrome?

A) Dutcher bodies B) Pawn ball megakaryocytes
C) Ringed sideroblasts D) Pseudo pelger huet cells

13. JAK 2 mutations is seen in

A) CML B) Polycythemia vera
C) Burkitts lymphoma D) Acute myeloid leukemia

14. All of the following are functional disorders of platelets except

A) Immune thrombocytopenic purpura B) Von willebrand disease
C) Glanzmann thromboasthenia D) Bernard soulier syndrome

15. Anti apoptotic gene are all except

A) Bcl- 2 B) Bcl X C) Bax D) MCL 1

16. Initiators of inflammation in sepsis are signalling pathways which lie downstream of
A) TNFα B) TNFβ C) Toll like receptors D) IFN-γ

17. Maltese cross appearance in RBC is seen in

A) Plasmodium falciparum B) Wuchereria bancrofti
C) Taenia solium D) Babesia microti

18. All of the following are manifestations in the eye due to vitamin A deficiency except
A) Bitots spots B) Central cataract C) Keratomalacia D) Corneal ulcer

19. Libman Sacks endocarditis is seen in

A) SLE B) Staphylococcus septicaemia
C) Systemic sclerosis D) Carcinoid heart disease

20. Zika virus is transmitted through

A) Culex B) Aedes C) Anopheles D) Mansonia.

*********
[MBBS 0223]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code : 6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)
SECOND YEAR – (CBME)
PAPER III – PATHOLOGY – I
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script. No
overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. The chief protein component of intrinsic defect seen in Heriditary Spherocytosis is
A) Ubiquitin B) Spectrin C) Tropomyosin D) Actin

2. The type mutations involved in beta thalessemia is

A) Driver mutation B) Transgenic mutation
C) Splicing mutation D) Reverse mutation

3. PIGA gene is acquired in PNH as

A) X linked B) Autosomal Dominant
C) Autosomal Recessive D) Y linked

4. Tay Sach’s disease caused by inability to metabolise

A) Glucokinase B) Fructokinase
C) GM2gangliosides D) GM3gangliosides

5. Klinefelter’s syndrome shows elevated levels of

A) Testosterone B) FSH C) LH D) Estrogen

6. Turner’s syndrome carry the risk of development of the following tumour

A) Neuroblastoma B) Hepatoblastoma
C) Gonadoblastoma D) Ganglioneuroma

7. The most effective Antigen presenting cells(APCs) are

A) Dendritic cells B) Neutrophils C) Lymphocytes D) NK cells

8. The mediators produced by the Mast cells are responsible for

A) Type I hypersensitivity B) Type II hypersensitivity
C) Type III hypersensitivity D) Type IV hypersensitivity

9. Among the genes known to be associated with autoimmunity, the greatest

contribution is from
A) RB gene B) BRAF gene C) HLA gene D) IL23R gene
… 2 ….
 … 2 ….
10. Smith antigen (Sm) is associated with
A) Sjogren syndrome B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Systemic sclerosis D) SLE

11. Acute cellullar rejection involves killing of cells by

A) CD 2+ B) CD 3+ C) CD 8+ D) CD 10+

12. HHV 8 genome is found in the following cell of infected subjects

A) T- cell B) B- cell C) Neutrophil D) Monocyte

13. Driver mutations are

A) Loss of function B) Passenger mutations
C) Initiating mutations D) Repeat mutations

14. The governor of the cell cycle is

A) BRAF gene B) CDK4 gene C) Cyclin D gene D) RB gene

15. Warburg effect is

A) Anerobic glycolysis B) Aerobic glycolysis
C) Oxidative phosphorylation D) gluconeogenesis

16. Acute promyelocytic Leukemia is a reciprocal translocation between

chromosome 15 and 17 causing a fusion gene
A) BCR-ABL B) C-myc IGH C) PML-RARα D) FLI-EWSR

17. Polio virus infects human cells by binding to

A) CD4 B) CD8 C) CD117 D) CD155

18. A low CD4 count before starting ART is an important risk factor for the
development of
A) Leprosy B) Tuberculosis C) Mucor D) Aspergillosis

19. The fat burning molecule is

A) Ghrelin B) Insulin C) Adiponectin D) Leptin

20. The chromosomal anomalies associated with fetal hydrops is

A) 45X B) 47XXY C) Trisomy 13 D) Trisomy 22.

*********
[MBBS 0723]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code : 6063

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL YEAR – (CBME)

PAPER I – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 30 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions

Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Pap smear used for screening of Carcinoma of cervix is

A) Fine needle aspiration cytology B) Fluid cytology
C) Exfoliative cytology D) Immunocytochemistry

2. The technique which detects multiple cellular antigens on an individual cell

simultaneously
A) Immunohistochemistry B) Immunocytochemistry
C) Flow cytometry D) Frozen section

3. CASPASES involved in execution pathway

A) CASPASE 8 B) CASPASE 9 C) CASPASE 5 D) CASPASE 6

4. Chronic granulomatous inflammation is seen in

A) Sarcoidosis B) Diptheria C) Typhoid D) Atherosclerosis

5. The cell involved in allergies and parasitic infections

A) Lymphocytes B) Monocytes C) Eosinophils D) Plasma cells

6. The primary function of the following gene is to promote Epithelial Mesenchymal

Transition (EMT)
A) P53 B) TWIST C) APC D) CEA

7. Colour of group sera ‘B’

A) Blue B) Yellow C) Red D) Colourless

8. Mantle cell lymphoma is commonly associated with the following translocation

A) t(11:14) B) t(14:18) C) t(9:22) D) t(8:14)

9. Red cell distribution width (RDW) is used for estimation of

A) Poikilocytosis B) Anisocytosis C) Hypochromasia D) Macrocytosis

… 2 …
 … 2 …

10. If the patient is on parenteral heparin therapy the following test is used to monitor the
administration
A) Whole blood coagulation time B) Prothrombin time
C) Thrombin time D) Activated Partial Thromboplastin time

11. Eosinophils are activated by

A) lL-1 B) lL-4 C) ll-5 D) lL-6

12. D-Dimer is the most sensitive diagnostic test for

A) Pulmonary embolism B) Acute pulmonary Oedema
C) Cardiac tamponade D) Acute myocardial infarction

13. Trisomy 13 is identified as

A) Edward syndrome B) Patau syndrome
C) Down syndrome D) Klinfelter syndrome

14. In Marfan syndrome the defect is in

A) Fibrillin I B) Fibrillin II C) Collagen D) Elastin

15. Harmartoma is
A) Proliferation of cells in foreign site B) Proliferation of native cells in tissue
C) Malignant conditions D) Acquired conditions

16. Sure sign of malignancy is

A) Metastasis B) Hyperplasia C) Metaplasia D) Hypertrophy

17. Krukenberg tumour is associated with which malignancy

A) Stomach B) Liver C) Pancreas D) Kidney

18. Acute graft rejection occurs within

A) 3 minute B) 3 hours C) 3 days D) 3 months

19. LE cell phenomenon is seen in

A) Lymphocyte B) Monocyte C) Neutrophils D) Eosinophils

20. Anaemia in humans can be caused by which of the following worms

A) Round worm B) Hook worm C) Tape worm D) Pork worm
*********

[MBBS 0224]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0524] MAY 2024 Sub. Code :6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY (CBME)

PAPER I – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Choose one correct answer in the box provided in the Answer Script.
No overwriting should be done. Choice should be given in Capital Letters.

III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Schistosoma hematobium causes
A) Lung cancer B) Hepatocellular carcinoma
C) Bladder carcinoma D) Testicular carcinoma

2. Warthin Finkeldey cells are seen in

A) Mumps B) Poliomyelitis C) Herpes D) Measles

3. All are proto oncogenes except

A) K- RAS B) RET C) MYC D) RB

4. Translocation seen in follicular lymphoma

A) t ( 9 : 22) B) t (8 : 14) C) t ( 14: 18) D) t (11: 12)

5. SIADH as paraneoplastic syndrome is seen in

A) Breast carcinoma B) Small cell carcinoma of lung
C) Renal carcinoma D) Fibrosarcoma

6. Guardian angel against obesity is

A) Leptin B) Ghrelin C) Glucagon like peptide 1 D) Adiponectin

7. The most abundant cytosolic protein in cells is ____________

A) Vimentin B) Actin C) Desmin D) Cytokeratin

8. Anti-apoptotic protein is _______________

A) BAX B) BAK C) BIM D) BCL-2

9. All are vasodilators except

A) Thromboxane A2 B) PGI2 C) PGD2 D) PGE2

10. Caisson disease is due to ____________

A) Air embolism B) Amniotic fluid embolism
C) Fat embolism D) Pulmonary embolism

... 2 ...
 ... 2 ...
11. Tri-nucleotide repeat mutation is seen in ________
A) Tuberous sclerosis B) Achondroplasia
C) Fragile –X syndrome D) Cystic fibrosis

12. Hexosaminidase- A enzyme deficiency causes

A) Gaucher’s disease B) Tay-sachs disease
C) Fabry’s disease D) Niemann-pick disease

13. Type of hypersensitivity seen in Good pasture syndrome

A) Type – I B) Type – II C) Type – III D) Type – IV

14. Hemotological abnormality seen in Wiskott Aldrich syndrome

A) Anaemia B) Eosinophilia C) Thrombocytopenia D) Polycythemia

15. “Ouch – ouch “ disease is due to toxicity of ____________

A) Mercury B) Arsenic C) Cadmium D) Lead

16. All are risk factors for “SIDS” except

A) Male sex B) Low socioeconomic group
C) Prematurity D) Hypothermia

17. All are associated with good prognosis in ALL except

A) Age < 2 years B) Hyperdiploidy
C) Presence of t (12:21) D) Age between 2 to 10 yrs

18. “CRAB” criteria is used in ___________

A) Multiple myeloma B) Hodgkin Lymphoma
C) Thalassemia D) Myelodysplasic syndrome

19. Glanzmann thrombasthenia is due to deficiency of

A) GP Ib- IX B) GP IIIb-IV C) GP IIb-IIIa D) GP I - III

20. Triggers for hemolysis in G-6-PD deficiency includes all except

A) Pollen B) Fava beans C) Chloroquine D) Salmonella Typhi

*********
[MBBS 0524]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)

PAPER I – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Shade the correct answer with Black of Blue ink ball point pen
SET – A
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. ABO human blood group system was first described by

A) Edward Jenner B) Karl Landsteiner C) Hippocrates D) Laennec

2. Structure of DNA of the cell was described by

A) Watson and Crick B) Tijo and Levan
C) Ruska and Lorries D) Barbara McClintock

3. Frozen section is employed for the following purposes except

A) Fat demonstration B) Amyloid C) Rapid diagnosis D) Enzymes

4. Tissues for electron microscopy are fixed in

A) Carnoy’s fixative B)10% buffered formalin C) Saline D) 4% Glutaraldehyde

5. Actin and myosin proteins are found in

A) Microtubules B) Microfilaments C) Intermediate filaments D) Ribosomes

6. Out of various free radical species, the following radical is most reactive
A) Superoxide B) Hydrogen peroxide C) Hydroxyl D) Nitric oxide

7. In fatty liver due to chronic alcoholism, the following mechanisms are involved except
A) Increased free fatty acid synthesis B) Decreased triglyceride utilization
C) Increased alpha-glycerophosphate D) Block in lipoprotein excretion

8. The following pigments are stainable by Prussian blue reaction except

A) Hemosiderin B) Ferritin C) Haemitin D) Haemochromatosis

9. Enzymatic digestion is the predominant event in the following type of necrosis

A) Coagulative necrosis B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis D) Fat necrosis

10. Idiopathic calcinosis cutis is an example of

A) Necrotising inflammation B) Dystrophic calcification
C) Metastatic calcification D) Calcified thrombi in veins
... 2 ...
 ... 2 ...

11. In atrophy the cells are

A) Dead cells B) Shrunken cells
C) Irreversibly injured cells D) Reversibly injured cells

12. Which of the following gene is proapoptotic

A) p53 B) Bcl2 C) RB D) Bax

13. Transplantation antigens are located on portion of

A) Chromosome 1 B) Chromosome 6 C) Chromosome 9 D) Chromosome 22

14. Transudate differs from exudate in having the following except

A) No inflammatory cells B) Low glucose content
C) Low protein content D) Low specific gravity

15. Which of the complement component act as chemokines

A) C3b B) C4b C) C5a D) C4a

16. Prion proteins are implicated in the etiology of

A) Spongiform encephalopathy B) Viral encephalitis
C) Perivenous encephalomyelitis D) progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

17. Important cyclins in cell cycle include the following except

A) Cyclin A B) Cyclin B C) Cyclin C D) Cyclin D

18. Weight of hemoglobin in RBC is

A) 50% B) 70% C) 90% D) 99%

19. Red cell membrane defects include the following except

A) Spherocytosis B) Ovalocytosis C) Leptocytosis D) Echinocytosis

20. For manifesting bleeding in haemophilia, the activity of factor VIII is generally
A) More than 75% B) 50-75% C) 25-50% D) below 25%
*********
[MBBS 0325]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)

PAPER I – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Shade the correct answer with Black of Blue ink ball point pen
SET – B
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Structure of DNA of the cell was described by

A) Watson and Crick B) Tijo and Levan
C) Ruska and Lorries D) Barbara McClintock

2. Frozen section is employed for the following purposes except

A) Fat demonstration B) Amyloid C) Rapid diagnosis D) Enzymes

3. Tissues for electron microscopy are fixed in

A) Carnoy’s fixative B) 10% buffered formalin C) Saline D) 4% Glutaraldehyde

4. Actin and myosin proteins are found in

A) Microtubules B) Microfilaments C) Intermediate filaments D) Ribosomes

5. Out of various free radical species, the following radical is most reactive
A) Superoxide B) Hydrogen peroxide C) Hydroxyl D) Nitric oxide

6. In fatty liver due to chronic alcoholism, the following mechanisms are involved except
A) Increased free fatty acid synthesis B) Decreased triglyceride utilization
C) Increased alpha-glycerophosphate D) Block in lipoprotein excretion

7. The following pigments are stainable by Prussian blue reaction except

A) Hemosiderin B) Ferritin C) Haemitin D) Haemochromatosis

8. Enzymatic digestion is the predominant event in the following type of necrosis

A) Coagulative necrosis B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis D) Fat necrosis

9. Idiopathic calcinosis cutis is an example of

A) Necrotising inflammation B) Dystrophic calcification
C) Metastatic calcification D) Calcified thrombi in veins

10. In atrophy the cells are

A) Dead cells B) Shrunken cells
C) Irreversibly injured cells D) Reversibly injured cells
... 2 ...
 ... 2 ...

11. Which of the following gene is proapoptotic

A) p53 B) Bcl2 C) RB D) Bax

12. Transplantation antigens are located on portion of

A) Chromosome 1 B) Chromosome 6 C) Chromosome 9 D) Chromosome 22

13. Transudate differs from exudate in having the following except

A) No inflammatory cells B) Low glucose content
C) Low protein content D) Low specific gravity

14. Which of the complement component act as chemokines

A) C3b B) C4b C) C5a D) C4a

15. Prion proteins are implicated in the etiology of

A) Spongiform encephalopathy B) Viral encephalitis
C) Perivenous encephalomyelitis D) progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

16. Important cyclins in cell cycle include the following except

A) Cyclin A B) Cyclin B C) Cyclin C D) Cyclin D

17. Weight of hemoglobin in RBC is

A) 50% B) 70% C) 90% D) 99%

18. Red cell membrane defects include the following except

A) Spherocytosis B) Ovalocytosis C) Leptocytosis D) Echinocytosis

19. For manifesting bleeding in haemophilia, the activity of factor VIII is generally
A) More than 75% B) 50-75% C) 25-50% D) below 25%

20. ABO human blood group system was first described by

A) Edward Jenner B) Karl Landsteiner C) Hippocrates D) Laennec

*********
[MBBS 0325]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)

PAPER I – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Shade the correct answer with Black of Blue ink ball point pen
SET – C
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Tissues for electron microscopy are fixed in

A) Carnoy’s fixative B)10% buffered formalin C) Saline D) 4% Glutaraldehyde

2. Actin and myosin proteins are found in

A) Microtubules B) Microfilaments C) Intermediate filaments D) Ribosomes

3. Out of various free radical species, the following radical is most reactive
A) Superoxide B) Hydrogen peroxide C) Hydroxyl D) Nitric oxide

4. In fatty liver due to chronic alcoholism, the following mechanisms are involved except
A) Increased free fatty acid synthesis B) Decreased triglyceride utilization
C) Increased alpha-glycerophosphate D) Block in lipoprotein excretion

5. The following pigments are stainable by Prussian blue reaction except

A) Hemosiderin B) Ferritin C) Haemitin D) Haemochromatosis

6. Enzymatic digestion is the predominant event in the following type of necrosis

A) Coagulative necrosis B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis D) Fat necrosis

7. Idiopathic calcinosis cutis is an example of

A) Necrotising inflammation B) Dystrophic calcification
C) Metastatic calcification D) Calcified thrombi in veins

8. In atrophy the cells are

A) Dead cells B) Shrunken cells
C) Irreversibly injured cells D) Reversibly injured cells

9. Which of the following gene is proapoptotic

A) p53 B) Bcl2 C) RB D) Bax

10. Transplantation antigens are located on portion of

A) Chromosome 1 B) Chromosome 6 C) Chromosome 9 D) Chromosome 22
... 2 ...
 ... 2 ...

11. Transudate differs from exudate in having the following except

A) No inflammatory cells B) Low glucose content
C) Low protein content D) Low specific gravity

12. Which of the complement component act as chemokines

A) C3b B) C4b C) C5a D) C4a

13. Prion proteins are implicated in the etiology of

A) Spongiform encephalopathy B) Viral encephalitis
C) Perivenous encephalomyelitis D) progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

14. Important cyclins in cell cycle include the following except

A) Cyclin A B) Cyclin B C) Cyclin C D) Cyclin D

15. Weight of hemoglobin in RBC is

A) 50% B) 70% C) 90% D) 99%

16. Red cell membrane defects include the following except

A) Spherocytosis B) Ovalocytosis C) Leptocytosis D) Echinocytosis

17. For manifesting bleeding in haemophilia, the activity of factor VIII is generally
A) More than 75% B) 50-75% C) 25-50% D) below 25%

18. ABO human blood group system was first described by

A) Edward Jenner B) Karl Landsteiner C) Hippocrates D) Laennec

19. Structure of DNA of the cell was described by

A) Watson and Crick B) Tijo and Levan
C) Ruska and Lorries D) Barbara McClintock

20. Frozen section is employed for the following purposes except

A) Fat demonstration B) Amyloid C) Rapid diagnosis D) Enzymes

*********
[MBBS 0325]
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY
[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :6063
M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2019-2020)

SECOND PROFESSIONAL – SUPPLEMENTARY - (CBME)

PAPER I – PATHOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 526063
Time: 20 Minutes Maximum : 20 Marks
Answer All Questions
Shade the correct answer with Black of Blue ink ball point pen
SET – D
III. Multiple Choice Questions: (20 x 1 = 20)

1. Out of various free radical species, the following radical is most reactive
A) Superoxide B) Hydrogen peroxide C) Hydroxyl D) Nitric oxide

2. In fatty liver due to chronic alcoholism, the following mechanisms are involved except
A) Increased free fatty acid synthesis B) Decreased triglyceride utilization
C) Increased alpha-glycerophosphate D) Block in lipoprotein excretion

3. The following pigments are stainable by Prussian blue reaction except

A) Hemosiderin B) Ferritin C) Haemitin D) Haemochromatosis

4. Enzymatic digestion is the predominant event in the following type of necrosis

A) Coagulative necrosis B) Liquefactive necrosis
C) Caseous necrosis D) Fat necrosis

5. Idiopathic calcinosis cutis is an example of

A) Necrotising inflammation B) Dystrophic calcification
C) Metastatic calcification D) Calcified thrombi in veins

6. In atrophy the cells are

A) Dead cells B) Shrunken cells
C) Irreversibly injured cells D) Reversibly injured cells

7. Which of the following gene is proapoptotic

A) p53 B) Bcl2 C) RB D) Bax

8. Transplantation antigens are located on portion of

A) Chromosome 1 B) Chromosome 6 C) Chromosome 9 D) Chromosome 22

9. Transudate differs from exudate in having the following except

A) No inflammatory cells B) Low glucose content
C) Low protein content D) Low specific gravity

10. Which of the complement component act as chemokines

A) C3b B) C4b C) C5a D) C4a
... 2 ...
 ... 2 ...

11. Prion proteins are implicated in the etiology of

A) Spongiform encephalopathy B) Viral encephalitis
C) Perivenous encephalomyelitis D) progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy

12. Important cyclins in cell cycle include the following except

A) Cyclin A B) Cyclin B C) Cyclin C D) Cyclin D

13. Weight of hemoglobin in RBC is

A) 50% B) 70% C) 90% D) 99%

14. Red cell membrane defects include the following except

A) Spherocytosis B) Ovalocytosis C) Leptocytosis D) Echinocytosis

15. For manifesting bleeding in haemophilia, the activity of factor VIII is generally
A) More than 75% B) 50-75% C) 25-50% D) below 25%

16. ABO human blood group system was first described by

A) Edward Jenner B) Karl Landsteiner C) Hippocrates D) Laennec

17. Structure of DNA of the cell was described by

A) Watson and Crick B) Tijo and Levan
C) Ruska and Lorries D) Barbara McClintock

18. Frozen section is employed for the following purposes except

A) Fat demonstration B) Amyloid C) Rapid diagnosis D) Enzymes

19. Tissues for electron microscopy are fixed in

A) Carnoy’s fixative B) 10% buffered formalin C) Saline D) 4% Glutaraldehyde

20. Actin and myosin proteins are found in

A) Microtubules B) Microfilaments C) Intermediate filaments D) Ribosomes

*********
[MBBS 0325]
[LK 542] FEBRUARY 2017 Sub.Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. List the causes of megaloblastic anemia. Discuss about the pathogenesis,

morphology and bone marrow picture of megaloblastic anemia.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Morphological patterns of tissue necrosis.

2. Tumor markers.
3. Klinefelter syndrome.
4. Haemophilia.

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Metaplasia.
2. Lipoxins.
3. Morphology of thrombi.
4. Conditions associated with protein energy malnutrition.
5. Russell bodies.

********
 [LL 542] AUGUST 2017 Sub.Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Define edema. Tabulate the pathophysiological categories of edema and write in

detail about each category with suitable examples and illustrations.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Write about causes of cell injury and write briefly about hyperplasia with suitable
examples.
2. Write briefly about idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura – pathophysiology,
morphology and investigatory findings.
3. Write about dystrophic and metastatic calcification.
4. Type III hypersensitivity reaction.

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Enumerate four risk factors for DIC.

2. Morphology of granuloma.
3. Name the stages of shock.
4. Name four virus implicated in carcinogenesis.
5. Reticulocyte.

*********
[LM 542] FEBRUARY 2018 Sub Code: 5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Define anaemia. Classify haemolytic anaemia. Write in detail about the

pathogenesis, clinical features and lab diagnosis of sickle cell anaemia.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Chemical carcinogenesis.
2. Different types of giant cells with morphology and examples.
3. Protein energy malnutrition.
4. Glycogen storage disorders.
5. Mechanism of autoimmunity.
6. Amniotic fluid embolism.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Warthin Finkeldey giant cells.

2. Types of necrosis.
3. Mention two causes for pancytopenia.
4. Mott cell.
5. Mention four X- linked recessive disorders.
6. Enumerate four examples for metastatic calcification.

*********
 [LN 542] AUGUST 2018 Sub.Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Define Neoplasia. Discuss in detail the pathogenesis, pathophysiology of radiation

oncogenesis.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Type II hypersensitivity reaction.

2. Von villebrand disease.
3. Factors affecting wound healing.
4. Obesity.
5. Tumor markers.
6. Vitamin D deficiency.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Hematocrit in dengue fever.

2. Dysplasia.
3. Phagocytosis.
4. Heinz bodies.
5. Give two examples of autosomal recessive disorder.
6. Actinomycosis.

*********
[LO 542] FEBRUARY 2019 Sub.Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (2 + 8 = 10)

1. Define inflammation. Describe the major events of acute inflammation with a note
on its outcome.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Type I hypersensitivity reaction.

2. Blood and bone marrow picture in multiple myeloma.
3. Anti-phospholipid syndrome.
4. Mechanism of apoptosis.
5. Lab diagnosis of neoplasm.
6. Fracture healing.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Sago spleen.
2. Microscopic appearance of lepromatous leprosy.
3. Mention any four childhood malignancies.
4. Enumerate four types of chromosomal rearrangements.
5. Virchow triad.
6. Reed Sternberg cell.

*******
[LP 542] AUGUST 2019 Sub.Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (4 + 3 + 3 = 10)

1. Define and classify leukaemia. Describe the blood and bone marrow findings in
acute myeloid leukaemia.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Complications of myocardial infarction.

2. Sideroblastic anemia.
3. Tumour metastasis.
4. Graft versus host disease.
5. Viral haemorrhagic fever.
6. Down’s syndrome.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Morphology of infarction.
2. Chloroma.
3. Vitamin C deficiency.
4. Name four cell derived mediators of inflammation.
5. Define hyperplasia and give two examples.
6. Anticoagulants.

*******
[LQ 542] FEBRUARY 2020 Sub.Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (2 + 8 = 10)

1. Define and classify shock. Discuss in detail about septic shock.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Classification of acute leukemia.

2. Vitamin D deficiency.
3. Pathogenesis of aquired immuno deficiency syndrome.
4. Asbestosis.
5. Coagulation disorders.
6. Burkitts lymphoma.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Transcription factors.
2. Hematopoietic cytokines.
3. Asteroid bodies.
4. Keloid.
5. Mutations in chronic myeloid leukemia.
6. Hematocrit in dengue fever.

*******
 [LR 542] NOVEMBER 2020 Sub.Code :5065
(AUGUST 2020 SESSION)

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1+2+2.5+2.5+2=10)

1. Define Inflammation. Enumerate the cellular events in acute inflammation.

Discuss in detail the mechanism of Chemotaxis and Phagocytosis.Enlist the
common defects in Leukocyte functions.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Types and causes for Pathologic Calcification.

2. Type I hypersensitivity reaction.

3. Pathogenesis of Septic Shock.

4. Chemical Carcinogenesis.

5. Laboratory Investigations done for diagnosis of Autoimmune Haemolytic Anaemia.

6. Describe the peripheral smear and bone marrow appearance in Chronic Myeloid
Leukaemia with suitable diagrams.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Enumerate two common cytogenetic disorders involving Sex Chromosomes.

2. Enlist two common stains used to demonstrate fat in tissues.

3.Mention two causes for Basophilic Stippling.

4. Enumerate four common organs involved in Amyloidosis.

5. Enlist four important sequelae for Thrombosis.

6. What is Bombay Blood group?

*******
[MBBS 0921] SEPTEMBER 2021 Sub.Code :5065
(FEBRUARY 2021 SESSION)

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Define neoplasm. Enumerate the features of anaplasia. Discuss in detail about

invasion and metastasis of neoplasm.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Morphology of various types of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

2. Complications of blood transfusions.
3. Necroptosis.
4. Role of tumor necrosis factor and IL-1 in inflammation.
5. PCR and detection of DNA sequence alterations.
6. Mechanism of recognition and rejection of allografts.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Epidermal growth factor.

2. Gross skeletal changes in rickets.
3. Morphology of mucormycosis.
4. Physiological hyperplasia.
5. Glanzmann thrombasthenia.
6. Lines of Zahn.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0222] FEBRUARY 2022 Sub.Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted from the Academic Year 2018-2019)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)

Q.P. Code: 525065

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Define necrosis. Discuss in detail about the morphology of necrotic cell. Discuss
various patterns of tissue necrosis.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Hereditary spherocytosis.
2. Morphology of multiple myeloma.
3. Familial hypercholesterolemia
4. Mucormycosis.
5. Type III hypersensitivity reactions.
6. Morphologic patterns of acute inflammation.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Platelet derived growth factor.

2. Acute phase proteins.
3. Exuberant granulation tissue.
4. Toll like receptors.
5. Skeletal abnormalities in Marfan’s disease.
6. Bernard-Soulier syndrome.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0822] AUGUST 2022 Sub. Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)
Q.P. Code: 525065
Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Define Thrombosis. Enumerate the etiological factors for thrombosis. Describe

the morphology of a thrombus. Enlist the common sequelae for thrombosis. How
will you differentiate it from a post-mortem clot.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Mechanism of Phagocytosis.
2. Transplant rejection reaction.
3. Immune Thrombocytopenia.
4. Types of Paraneoplastic syndromes.
5. Laboratory Investigations done for diagnosis of Iron deficiency Anaemia.
6. Pathological types of Hodgkin’s Lymphoma.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Enlist four common stains used in demonstration of Amyloid.

2. Enumerate four common causes for Eosinophilia.
3. Give four examples for giant cells.
4. Mention four common tumour markers used in the laboratory diagnosis.
5. Give two examples for viral exanthematous fever.
6. Mention two common causes for Megaloblastic Anaemia.
*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0223] FEBRUARY 2023 Sub. Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY &
HAEMATOLOGY)
Q.P. Code: 525065
Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify hypersensitivity reactions and discuss in detail Type III hypersensitivity

reactions.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Steatosis.
2. Klinefelter syndrome.
3. Vitamin C deficiency.
4. Aplastic Anaemia.
5. Multiple myeloma.
6. Steps in healing of wounds.
III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Name four types of chemical carcinogens.

2. Name four Auto-immune diseases.
3. Difference between benign and malignant tumour.
4. Name four Autosomal dominant diseases.
5. Plasmodium falciparum in peripheral blood smear.
6. Sago spleen.

*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0723] JULY 2023 Sub. Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I (GENERAL PATHOLOGY & HAEMATOLOGY)
Q.P. Code: 525065
Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Define Apoptosis. Enumerate the causes of Apoptosis. Discuss in detail about

mechanisms of Apoptosis. Add a note on morphology of Apoptotic cell.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Chemokines.
2. Morphology of infarcts.
3. Gaucher’s disease.
4. Morphology of kidney in systemic lupus erythematosus.
5. Aplastic anemia.
6. Morphology of acute myeloid leukemia.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Barr body.
2. Homer-Wright Pseudo rosettes.
3. Acute Vitamin-A toxicity.
4. Enumerate the oncogenic DNA viruses.
5. Enumerate the opportunistic infections in AIDS.
6. Immune granulomas.
*********
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0224] FEBRUARY 2024 Sub. Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I
(GENERAL PATHOLOGY & HAEMATOLOGY)
Q.P. Code: 525065
Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. 38 / F presented and complaints recurrent hemarthrosis. Discuss the probable

causes and classify the bleeding disorders. Discuss the lab investigation of
the same.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Apoptosis.
2. Fracture healing.
3. Glycogen storage disorders.
4. Thalassemia.
5. Red cell indices.
6. Embolism.
III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Free Radicals.
2. Pathological calcification.
3. Tumour suppressor genes.
4. Barr body.
5. Causes of Thrombocytopenia.
6. Neutrophilia.

*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0824] AUGUST 2024 Sub. Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION
(For the candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I
(GENERAL PATHOLOGY & HAEMATOLOGY)
Q.P. Code: 525065
Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Define Anemia. Write down the classification of Hemolytic anemia and

discuss in detail the molecular pathogenesis, morphology and lab investigation
of beta Thalassemia.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Tumour marker.
2. Pathogenesis and types of Amyloidosis.
3. Mechanism of Apoptosis.
4. Graft rejection.
5. Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation.
6. Viral carcinogenesis.
III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Virchow’s triad.
2. MCV.
3. Fat necrosis.
4. Down’s syndrome.
5. Two examples of Type III hypersensitivity reaction.
6. p53 gene.

*******
 THE TAMIL NADU DR. M.G.R. MEDICAL UNIVERSITY

[MBBS 0325] MARCH 2025 Sub. Code :5065

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATIONS
(For the arrear candidates admitted upto the Academic Year 2018-2019)
SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – PATHOLOGY – I
(GENERAL PATHOLOGY & HAEMATOLOGY)
Q.P. Code: 525065
Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Define Edema. Pathogenesis of different types of Edema with examples.

II. Write notes on: (6 x 4 = 24)

1. Phagocytosis.
2. Pathogenesis of Septic shock.
3. Wilms’ tumor.
4. Von Willebrand disease.
5. Classify AML.
6. Beta thalassemia.

III. Short answers on: (6 x 1 = 6)

1. Morphology of Atherosclerotic plaque.

2. Diseases caused by Blood Transfusion.
3. PAP smear study.
4. Causes of Eosinophilia.
5. Any four autosomal recessive disorders.
6. Difference between benign and malignant tumors.
*********
[KT 542] AUGUST 2008 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. What is Metastasis.
What are the different pathways of spread?
Write in detail about one of the pathways
2. Define anemia.
Discuss etiopathogenesis with blood and bone morrow picture in iron deficiency
anemia.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Free radicals.
2. Wilm’s tumour.
3. Klinefelter syndrome.
4. Oncogenic viruses.
5. Rhinosporidiosis.
6. Ricketts.
7. Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology
8. Leukemoid reaction.
9. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
10. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate.

III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. What are the different types of necrosis?
2. Mention 4 factors influencing wound healing.
3. Fate of thrombi.
4. Enumerate 4 types of chromosomal rearrangements.
5. Mention 2 Examples of tumor suppressor genes.
6. Mention any 4 childhood malignancies.
7. What are red cell indices?
8. Blood picture in magaloblastic anemia.
9. Mention important investigations necessary for diagnosis of Hemophilia.
10. Define Leukemia.
********
[KU 542] FEBRUARY 2009 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. Define and classify oedema? Discuss Aetio-Pathogenesis and pathology of various
types of oedema with examples?.
2. 40 years male H/o chronic fatigue, weight loss since 6 months. O/E pallor, marked
splenomegaly+, laboratory report shows Hb 10 GM%, TC 215000/CMM.
Platelets 4 laks/cmm. Answer the following:
a) What is your diagnosis?
b) What is common genetic abnormality?
c) Blood and Bone Marrow findings to confirm your diagnosis?
d) Prognosis of the condition?
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Chemical mediators of acute inflammation.
2. Thrombo-embolism.
3. Pathological calcification.
4. Trisomy – 21.
5. Immune complex hypersensitivity (Type III) reactions.
6. Laboratory diagnosis of cancer.
7. Von-Willebrand’s disease.
8. Haemolytic disease of newborn.
9. Grading and staging of tumors.
10. Automatic tissue processor.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Difference between exudates and transudate.
2. Microscopic picture of acute appendicitis.
3. Mast cells.
4. Mention four neuclear changes in Necrosis.
5. Significance of casts in urine.
6. Anti-Coagulants.
7. Mention four indications of bone marrow aspiration.
8. Reticulocyte count.
9. Henoch – Schonlein purpura.
10. Gross appearance of Mycetoma foot.
*******
[KV 542] AUGUST 2009 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. Define shock, enumerate types of shock and discuss pathogenesis and
morphological changes in shock.
2. Mention Oncogenic viruses. Describe Oncogenesis by human papilloma virus.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Tumor markers.
2. Amyloidosis.
3. Blood and bone marrow picture in B12 deficiency anaemia.
4. Types of embolism. Write on caisson disease.
5. Leprosy.
6. Evidences of haemolytic anaemia.
7. F A B classification of leukemia.
8. Mechanism of autoimmune diseases.
9. Chemical mediators.
10. Silicosis.

III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Fate of thrombus.
2. F.N.A.C.
3. Modes of spread of tumors.
4. Draw – Megaloblast, Maxicanhat cell, Pessary cell, Macropolycyte.
5. Types of nectrosis with examples.
6. Ketone Bodies.
7. Tests for sickling.
8. Virchow’s triad.
9. Differences between benign and malignant tumors.
10. Bombay blood group.
*******
[KW 542] FEBRUARY 2010 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. Define Oedema. Discuss the pathophysiology of oedema.
Add a note on pulmonary oedema.
2. Define and classify Leukemias.
Describe the blood and bone morrow findings in chronic myeloid leukemia.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Phagocytosis.
2. Haematocrit.
3. Sickle cell.
4. Tumour suppressor genes.
5. Anaphylactic reaction.
6. Down’s syndrome.
7. Metaplasia.
8. Kwashiorkar.
9. Mycetoma.
10. Eosinophilia.

III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Name four causes of fatty liver.
2. State four differences between dry and wet gangrenes.
3. Define atrophy. Give two examples to physiological atrophy.
4. Describe four staining character of amyloid.
5. Microscopic appearance of lepromatous leprosy.
6. Name two opportunistic infections and two neoplasms seen in AIDS.
7. Name two human oncogenic viruses and tumours caused by them
8. Blood components prepared in a blood bank.
9. What is a Reticulocyte? Mention two causes of reticulocytosis.
10. What is cross matching?

*******
[KX 542] AUGUST 2010 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. Define inflammation.
Describe the major events of acute inflammation with a note on defective Leukocyte
function.
2. Enumerate the various carcinogenic agents.
Classify the chemical carcinogens and describe the steps involved in chemical
carcinogenesis.

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Free Radical Injury.
2. Septic Shock.
3. Rickets.
4. Tertiary Syphilis.
5. Proteins in urine.
6. Cardiac edema.
7. Klinefelter syndrome.
8. Type I hypersensitivity reaction.
9. Factors affecting wound healing.
10. Apoptosis.

III. Short Answers Questions: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Sago Spleen.
2. Paraneoplastic syndromes.
3. ESR.
4. Coomb’s Test.
5. Reed Sternberg Cell
6. Hemophilia.
7. Metaplasia.
8. CVC liver.
9. Blood picture in megaloblastic Anemia.
10. CSF in tuberculous meningitis.
*******
[KY 542] FEBRUARY 2011 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. Define Necrosis. Name the different types of necrosis.
Discuss in detail with examples the different types of necrosis.
Differentiate between Necrosis and Apoptosis.
2. A 70 year old women admitted with worsening anemia and pathological fracture of
the Humerus had an ESR of 120mm in 1 hour. Her peripheral smear showed
increased rouleaux formation. Xray of skull showed multiple punched out osteolytic
lesions.
a. What is the most probable diagnosis? Write briefly on the etiopathogenesis of this
disease.
b. Describe the Bone Marrow Changes in this disease.
c. Enumerate the common laboratory investigations for this disease.
d. Enlist the complications of this disease.
II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Role of Arachidonic Metabolites in inflammation.
2. Pathogenesis of Septic Shock.
3. Tumour Metastasis.
4. Mitochondrial Inheritance.
5. Etiopathogenesis of Cystic Fibrosis.
6. Anemia of Chronic Disease.
7. FAB classification of Acute Leukemia.
8. Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic purpura.
9. Transfusion Reaction.
10. Hematocrit.
III. Short Answer Questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Give four examples for pathological calcification.
2. Give four examples for Metaplasia.
3. Mention two differences between exudates and transudate.
4. Mention two renal changes in SLE.
5. Give two examples for trace elements and their deficiency states.
6. Give four causes for iron deficiency anaemia.
7. Mention two important marrow changes in B12 deficiency.
8. Two characteristic difference between Myeloblasts and Lymphoblasts.
9. Mention two pathognomonic features of Hairy cell leukemia.
10. Mention four applications of reticulocyte count.

*******
[KZ 542] AUGUST 2011 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper III – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time : Three hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Essay Questions : (2 x 15 = 30)
1. Define inflammation.
Write in detail about the vascular and cellular changes in inflammation.
2. 40 yrs female c/o loss of weight, huge splenomegaly with peripheral blood white
blood cell count of more than 1 lakh cells/cc
a. What is the probable diagnosis?
b. What are the characteristic peripheral smear findings?
c. What is the course of the disease?
d. What is the chromosomal abnormality involved?

II. Write Short notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)

1. Classify pigments and write about Lipofuschin.
2. Write about outcomes of acute inflammation.
3. Growth factors.
4. Hybridisation techniques to detect genomic alterations.
5. Antibody mediated hypersensitivity.
6. Molecular basis of cancer.
7. Immunology of Leprosy.
8. Primary myelofibrosis.
9. Hemophilia A.
10. Peripheral smear and Bone marrow findings in Multiple Myeloma.
III. Short Answer questions : (10 x 2 = 20)
1. Define metaplasia and give two examples.
2. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome.
3. Mention four X linked recessive disorders.
4. Mention four special stains for Amyloid.
5. Lead and blood and marrow changes.
6. Four infections associated with AIDS.
7. Hamartoma.
8. Prions.
9. Four Systemic effects of inflammation.
10. Hyper IGM syndrome.
*******
[LA 542] FEBRUARY 2012 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Revised (Non-Semester) Regulations
Paper I – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions in the same order.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on :
1. Define shock. Discuss in detail the pathogenesis of septic shock.
Describe the morphology of kidneys and lungs affected by shock. (10 x 1 = 10)
2. 60 yrs male presented with normocytic normochromic anaemia, pathological fracture
femur and proteinura. X ray skull revealed punched out lesions in the calvarium and
peripheral smear studied show rouleaux formation.
a) What is your probable diagnosis.
b) Discuss in detail the molecular pathogenesis, morphology and clinical features of
above said disorder. (5 x 1 = 5)
II. Write notes on : (10 x 1.5 = 15)
1. Turner syndrome.
2. Immune complex mediated hypersensitivity.
3. Differentiation and anaplasia.
4. Viral haemorrhagic fevers.
5. Morphology of leprosy.
6. Morphology of primary myelo fibrosis.
7. Pathogenesis of sickle cell disease.
8. Chronic immune thrombocytopaenic purpura.
9. Free radicals
10. Defects in leucocyte function.
III. Short Answers on : (10 x 1 = 10)
1. Fat necrosis.
2. Heart failure cells.
3. Lines of zahn.
4. Warburg effect.
5. Mott cells.
6. 4 tumors associated with AIDS.
7. Cross matching.
8. Anticoagulants.
9. PSEDO PELGER HUET ANOMALY.
10. Black water fever.
*******
[LB 542] AUGUST 2012 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper I – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time : 180 Minutes Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: Pages Time Marks
(Max.) (Max.) (Max.)
1. Write in detail about carcinogenesis physical, chemical
and biological and also molecular basis of Carcinogenesis. 16 30 10
2. Chronic myeloid leukemia – clinical features peripheral
smear and bone marrow findings and clinical outcome. 8 20 5

II. Write notes on:

1. Air embolism. 3 8 1.5
2. Kline felters syndrome. 3 8 1.5
3. Arthus reaction. 3 8 1.5
4. Morphology of Primary Tuberculosis. 3 8 1.5
5. Fracture healing. 3 8 1.5
6. Sickle cell disease. 3 8 1.5
7. Poycythemia vera. 3 8 1.5
8. Leukemoid reaction. 3 8 1.5
9. Christmas disease. 3 8 1.5
10. Fanconi’s Anemia. 3 8 1.5

III. Short answers on:

1. Warthin finkeldey giant cells. 2 5 1
2. Factors downregulation apoptosis. 2 5 1
3. Gamma – Gandy bodies. 2 5 1
4. Virchow’s traid. 2 5 1
5. Bernard – soulier syndrome. 2 5 1
6. Sago spleen. 2 5 1
7. Two special stain for Amyloid. 2 5 1
8. Howell – Jolly bodies. 2 5 1
9. Tear drop cell. 2 5 1
10. MCV. 2 5 1
*******
[LC 542] FEBRUARY 2013 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper I – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 100 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 15 = 30)
1. Define edema.
Discuss the etiopathogenesis of various types of edema with examples.
2. Define and classify anaemia.
Discuss etiopathogenesis, peripheral smear and bone marrow picture in iron
deficiency anaemia.
II. Write notes on : (10 x 5 = 50)
1. Oncogenic viruses.
2. Anaphylactic reaction
3. Bence jones proteins.
4. Pathologic Calcification
5. Vitamin A Deficiency.
6. Neonatal respiratory distress syndrome.
7. Von Willebrand’s Disease.
8. Granulomatous inflammation
9. Familial hypercholesterolemia.
10. Embolism.

III. Short Answers on: (10 x 2 = 20)

1. Types of necrosis.
2. Factors influencing wound healing.
3. Fate of thrombus.
4. Clinical features of Trisomy 21.
5. Oncofetal antigens.
6. Reticulocyte.
7. Philadelphia chromosome.
8. Reed-Sternberg cell.
9. Tertiary Syphilis.
10. Agranulocytosis.
*******
[LD 542] AUGUST 2013 Sub. Code : 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper I – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code : 524063
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 7.5 = 15)
1. a) 23 yrs female presented with oral ulcers, malar rash photosentivity and non erosive
arthritis involving both knees. Laboratory investigations show persistent proteinuria
and leucopenia. What is your probable diagnosis.
b) Discuss in detail the pathogenesis and morphology of kidney affected by the above
disorder.
2. Discuss in detail the molecular pathogenesis and morphology of Hodgkin lymphoma.

II. Write notes on: (10 x 1.5 = 15)

1. Caseous necrosis.
2. Pathology of Fracture healing.
3. Morphology of Thrombi.
4. Familial hypercholesterolemia.
5. Oncogenic Epstein – Barr virus.
6. Pathogenesis of Amyloidosis.
7. Aetiology and morphology of bone marrow in Aplastic anaemia.
8. Morphology of multiple myeloma.
9. Molecular pathogenesis of Acute myeloid leukaemia.
10. Pathogenesis of disseminated intra vascular coagulation.

III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)

1. Define metaplasia & give 2 examples.
2. Tigered effect.
3. Define Granuloma.
4. Systemic factors that influence wound healing.
5. Warburg effect.
6. Role of Vitamin C in wound healing.
7. Prothrombin time.
8. Megalobast.
9. Rh factor.
10. Auer rods.
*******
[LE 542] FEBRUARY 2014 Sub. Code: 4063

SECOND YEAR MBBS DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper V – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code: 524063
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 7.5 = 15)
1. Define thrombosis, write in detail about pathogenesis, causes, morphology and fate
of thrombus.

2. 40 yr old male presented with h/o fever, vomiting and diarrhoea.

Patient had temperature of 103 degrees F. Weak rapid pulse, hypotension,
tachypnoea, cold, clammy, cyanotic skin. Blood culture gram negative bacterial
infection positive.
(a) What is your diagnosis?
(b) Explain the pathogenesis and morphology.

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 1.5 = 15)

1. Definition and characteristics of types of necrosis.
2. Phagocytosis.
3. Paraneoplastic syndromes.
4. Gaucher’s disease.
5. Hypersensitivity reaction II
6. Morphological changes in apoptosis.
7. Vascular events in acute inflammation.
8. Chemokines.
9. Morphology of infarct.
10. Opportunistic infections in AIDS.

III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)

1. Write any two stem cell niches.
2. Heinz bodies.
3. Types of leprosy.
4. Mention the cause of thrombocytopenia.
5. Bart haemoglobin.
6. Types of wound healing.
7. Two inherited disorders of platelets.
8. Two oncogenic DNA virus.
9. Two tumor suppressor genes.
10. Two examples of acute phase proteins.

*******
[LF 542] AUGUST 2014 Sub. Code: 4063

SECOND YEAR M.B.B.S DEGREE EXAMINATION

Paper V – GENERAL PATHOLOGY AND HAEMATOLOGY
Q. P. Code: 524063
Time: Three Hours Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions.
Draw Suitable diagrams wherever necessary
I. Elaborate on: (2 x 7.5 = 15)
1. a) A 12 year boy weighing 70 kgs, doesn’t play any outdoor games and is
always in front of his play station with lot of snacks besides him.
What is he having? What are the methods to assess it?
b) What is the etiopathogenesis? Enumerate the complications?
2. Define Thrombocytopenia? Classify causes of Thrombocytopenia?
Discuss various tests in evaluating bleeding disorders?

II. Write Notes on: (10 x 1.5 = 15)

1. Define Virchow’s triad?
2. Outcomes of acute inflammation?
3. Caissons disease
4. Morphology of renal changes in SLE
5. P 53
6. Epstein barr virus
7. Leucocyte alkaline phosphatase
8. Hemophilia A
9. Wilms Tumor
10. Amniotic fluid embolism.
III. Short Answers on: (10 x 1 = 10)
1. Russell bodies
2. Mention two sites of biopsy for amyloidosis?
3. Autosomal recessive hematopoietic disorder
4. Special stain to diagnose Gaucher’s disease
5. Fluorescent in situ hybridization
6. Name two trisomy syndromes
7. Neurofibromatosis gene
8. Name two familial cancers?
9. Stages of shock
10. Mention two sites of oncocytomas.

*******
[LG 542] FEBRUARY 2015 Sub.Code :4063

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – GENERAL PATHOLOGY & HAEMATOLOGY

Q.P. Code: 524063

Time: Three hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Classify Hemolytic Anemias. Write in detail about the pathogenesis, blood

picture and clinical features of beta Thalassemia major.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Growth factors
2. Transplant rejection
3. Cystic fibrosis.
4. Hodgkin Lymphoma

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Dystrophic calcification
2. Gaucher’s cell
3. Arthus reaction
4. Chloroma
5. Vitamin C deficiency
********
[LH 542] AUGUST 2015 Sub. Code: 4063

SECOND M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

PAPER V – GENERAL PATHOLOGY & HAEMATOLOGY
Q.P. Code: 524063
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 40 marks
Answer ALL questions
I. Elaborate: (1 x 10 = 10)
1. Define Neoplasia. Write in detail about the molecular basis of cancers.
Add a note on Oncogenes and their mode of activation.

II. Write notes on : (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Pathogenesis of shock.

2. Amyloidosis.

3. Megaloblastic Anemia.

4. Myelofibrosis.

III. Short answers on : (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Acute phase reactants.

2. Le cell.

3. Chronic granulomatous disease.

4. Langerhans cell histiocytosis.

5. Name four Monoclonal Gammopathies.

*******
[LI 542] FEBRUARY 2016 Sub. Code: 4063

SECOND YEAR M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

PAPER V – GENERAL PATHOLOGY & HAEMATOLOGY
Q.P. Code : 524063
Time : Three Hours Maximum : 40 Marks
Answer ALL questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)
1. Define apoptosis. What are the causes of apoptosis?
Write about the biochemical features and mechanisms of apoptosis.
Add a note on dysregulated apoptosis.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Embolism.

2. Stem cells in tissue homeostasis.

3. Myelodysplastic syndrome.

4. Von willebrand disease.

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Role of sirutins in cellular aging.

2. Wilson’s disease.

3. Sea blue histiocytosis.

4. Agranulocytosis.

5. Lead poisoning.

*******
[LJ 542] AUGUST 2016 Sub.Code :4063

M.B.B.S. DEGREE EXAMINATION

SECOND YEAR
PAPER V – GENERAL PATHOLOGY & HAEMATOLOGY

Q.P. Code: 524063

Time: Three hours Maximum: 40 Marks
Answer All Questions
I. Elaborate on: (1 x 10 = 10)

1. Describe the pathogenesis, morphology and clinical features of tuberculosis.

II. Write notes on: (4 x 5 = 20)

1. Gangrene.
2. Blood picture of chronic myeloid leukemia.
3. Disseminated intravascular coagulation.
4. Down syndrome.

III. Short answers on: (5 x 2 = 10)

1. Name four cell derived mediators of inflammation.

2. Differences between benign and malignant tumor.
3. Reed Sternberg cell and its variants.
4. Define hyperemia and congestion.
5. Four opportunistic infections in HIV.

********