[Practice Test-02 | Lakshya NEET 2.
0 (2025) | 25/08/2024]
Reproductive Health (Complete Chapter)
SECTION-(IV) (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION-A 157. Given below are two statements.
151. In India, marriageable age for boys is __X____ and Statement I: Natural methods of contraception work
girls is __Y____ respectively. on the principle of avoiding chances of ovum and
Choose the option which fill the blanks correctly. sperms meeting.
(1) X-21, Y-18 years
Statement II: In IVF, fertilisation takes place
(2) X-15, Y-14 years
(3) X-15, Y-18 years outside the body in almost similar conditions as
(4) X-18, Y-21 years that in the body.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
152. Which of the following is a copper releasing intra most appropriate answer from the options given
uterine device (IUDs)? below.
(1) Cu7 (2) LNG - 20 (1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(3) Cervical caps (4) Vaults incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
153. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. correct.
Assertion A: Vasectomy has no effect on the sexual (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
life of male. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
Reason R: Male can ejaculate normally but there incorrect.
will be no sperms in semen.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 158. How many technologies in the list given below
correct answer from the options given below.
involves in-vivo fertilisation?
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true. GIFT, ZIFT, IUT, AI, IUI
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) Five (2) Three
explanation of A. (3) Two (4) One
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
159. Which of the following cannot be detected in a
154. The full form of GIFT is: developing foetus by amniocentesis?
(1) germ cell internal fallopian transfer. (1) Sex of the foetus
(2) gamete inter fallopian transfer. (2) Down syndrome
(3) gamete intra fallopian transfer. (3) Jaundice
(4) gamete internal fertilisation transfer. (4) Klinefelter syndrome
155. The given below diagram represent which of the 160. Match the List-I with List-II.
following process?
List-I List-II
(A) RCH (I) Venereal diseases
(B) CDRI (II) Central Drug Research
Institute
(C) VD (III) World Health
Organisation
(D) WHO (IV) Reproductive and Child
(1) Vasectomy (2) Tubectomy Health Care
(3) MTP (4) IUT Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
156. Which of the following step occurs in ZIFT?
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(1) Transfer of ovum into the fallopian tube.
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(2) Transfer of zygote into the fallopian tube.
(3) Transfer of zygote into the uterus. (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(4) Transfer of embryo into the cervix. (4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
161. Read the following statements. 166. Match the List-I with List-II.
A. Contraceptive method should always be List-I List-II
undertaken in consultation with qualified (A) Diaphragms (I) Inhibit ovulation
medical professionals. (B) Contraceptive (II) Suppress fertilising
B. Contraceptives are not regular requirements pills capacity of sperms
for the maintenance of reproductive health. (C) Intra uterine (III)Absence of
C. Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams are devices menstrual cycle
usually used along with barriers to decrease and ovulation
their contraceptive efficiency. following
parturition
D. Saheli is a steroidal pill.
(D) Lactational (IV) Cover the cervix
E. LNG-20 is a type of hormone releasing IUD.
amenorrhea blocking the entry
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
of sperms
options given below.
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) Only A and B are incorrect.
below.
(2) Only B and C are incorrect.
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(3) Only C and D are incorrect.
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(4) Only A and E are incorrect. (3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
162. Which of the following method of contraception has
maximum chances of failure? 167. Read the following statements w.r.t periodic
(1) Lactational amenorrhea abstinence.
(2) Vasectomy A. The couple should abstain from coitus from
(3) Condoms day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle.
(4) IUDs B. 10th to 17th day of the cycle is the period, when
the chances of fertilisation are low.
163. Chances of fertilisation are very high during C. This prevents the chances of union of male
and female gametes.
_________.
Choose the option which fills the blank correctly. D. It is a barrier method of contraception.
(1) fertile period Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below.
(2) infertile period
(1) Only A and B are correct.
(3) sterile period
(4) menstruation period. (2) Only B and C are correct.
(3) Only C and D are correct.
(4) Only A and C are correct.
164. Lactational amenorrhea is effective only up to a
maximum period of how many months after 168. The emergency contraceptives could be used to
parturition? avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or casual
(1) Two unprotected intercourse within:
(2) Four (1) 72 hours of coitus.
(3) Six (2) 124 hours of coitus.
(3) 148 hours of coitus.
(4) Eight
(4) 112 hours of coitus.
165. Which of the following contraceptive device is inserted
169. Contraceptive pills are very effective with lesser side
by the doctor or trained nurse in the uterus through the effects used by females. They work by;
vagina? (1) inhibiting gestation.
(1) Diaphragm (2) inhibiting implantation.
(2) Cu-T (3) altering the quality of cervical mucus to
(3) Condom prevent or retard the entry of sperms.
(4) Vaults (4) both (2) and (3)
170. Given below are two statements. 175. The ‘ART’ in which the semen collected either
Statement I: Inability to conceive or produce from the husband or a healthy donor are artificially
children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual introduced into the uterus is:
cohabitation is called infertility. (1) intra uterine transfer.
Statement II: STIs are a major threat to a healthy (2) intra uterine insemination.
society. (3) inter uterine insemination.
In the light of the above statements, choose the (4) intra cytoplasmic sperm injection.
most appropriate answer from the options given
below. 176. Use of which of the following contraceptive device or
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is method has increased in recent years due to its
incorrect. additional benefit of protecting the user from
contracting STDs and AIDS?
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(1) Vasectomy (2) Coitus interruptus
correct.
(3) Condoms (4) IUDs
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are 177. Saheli was developed by:
incorrect. (1) AIIMS, Delhi.
(2) IICB, Kolkata.
171. Surgical method for contraception work on which (3) SGPGI, Lucknow.
of the following grounds? (4) CDRI, Lucknow.
(1) Blocking gamete transport.
(2) Blocking gamete production. 178. Though all persons are vulnerable to STDs, their
(3) Altering biochemical nature of gamete. incidences are reported to be very high among person
(4) Destroying gamete permanently. in the age group of:
(1) 12-18 years. (2) 40-50 years.
172. MTP (The Medical Termination of Pregnancy) (3) 21-35 years. (4) 15-24 years.
amendment Act, was enacted in:
179. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in-
(1) 2017. (2) 2000.
vitro is assisted by a reproductive technology called:
(3) 1997. (4) 2012.
(1) GIFT. (2) ZIFT.
(3) ICSI. (4) ET.
173. Primary steps that can be taken towards attaining
reproductive health are:
180. Slogan “Hum Do Hamare Do” aim at:
A. counselling and creating awareness about (1) raising of marriageable age.
reproductive organs. (2) family planning.
B. safe and hygienic sexual practices. (3) immunisation.
C. creating awareness about STDs. (4) economic growth.
D. ban on MTP and amniocentesis.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 181. Choose the correct option that explain the
options given below. prevention of STDs.
(1) A and B only (1) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple
(2) B and C only partners.
(3) A, B and C only (2) Always try to use condoms during coitus.
(4) A, B, C and D (3) In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified
doctor for early detection and get complete
174. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as treatment if diagnosed with infection.
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: (4) All of these
Assertion A: Cu-T and Cu-7 provide contraception.
Reason R: Cu ions released by them increase 182. Which of the following sexually transmitted
diseases is not completely curable?
sperm motility.
(1) Chlamydiasis (2) Gonorrhoea
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Genital warts (4) Genital herpes
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is true but R is false. 183. HIV can be transmitted from one person to other by:
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) sharing of injection needles and surgical
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct instruments with infected person.
explanation of A. (2) transfusion of blood.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (3) placental transfer.
explanation of A. (4) all of these
184. The ‘family planning’ programmes are currently in 189. In India, population crossed 1.2 billion in May
operation under the popular name: 2011. The probable reasons for this are, decline in;
(1) RCH programmes. A. maternal mortality rate.
(2) ART programmes. B. infant mortality rate.
(3) MTP programmes.
C. number of people in reproducible age.
(4) test tube baby programmes.
D. death rate.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
185. ‘Nirodh’ is a popular brand of:
options given below.
(1) contraceptive pill for the female.
(1) A and B only
(2) IUDs for female.
(2) A, B and C only
(3) condoms for females.
(3) A, B and D only
(4) condoms for males.
(4) A, B, C and D
SECTION-B
190. Which of the following options is correct about the
186. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
function of IUDs?
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) They alter the spermatogenesis.
Assertion A : The government laid a statutory ban
(2) They increase phagocytosis of sperms within
on amniocentesis for sex-determination to legally
uterus.
check decreasing menace of female foeticides.
(3) They make cervix hostile to egg.
Reason R : In amniocentesis, some of the amniotic
(4) They promote ovulation.
fluid of the developing foetus is taken to analyse
the foetal cells and dissolved substances.
191. The following given diagram represents;
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct (1) subcutaneous implants.
explanation of A. (2) pills.
(3) diaphragm.
187. Which of the following part of the male (4) vaults.
reproductive system is cut and tied during the
sterilisation procedure? 192. The programmes called as 'family planning' were
(1) Epididymis (2) Vas deferens initiated in which year in India?
(3) Vasa efferentia (4) Rete testis (1) 1951 (2) 1976
(3) 1971 (4) 1987
188. Given below are two statements.
193. Match the List-I with List-II.
Statement I: Medical termination of pregnancy
List-I List-II
(MTP) is also known as induced abortion.
Statement II: According to the WHO, (A) Hormone (I) Progestasert
releasing IUDs
reproductive health means a total well-being in all
(B) Copper releasing (II) Multiload 375
aspects of reproduction.
IUDs
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(C) Non-medicated (III) Lippes loop
most appropriate answer from the options given
IUDs
below.
(D) Barrier method (IV) Cervical caps
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
for females
incorrect.
(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is Choose the correct answer from the options given
below.
correct. (1) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. (2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are (3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
incorrect. (4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
194. Which of the following is an ideal contraceptive for 198. Read the following statements about MTP.
the females who want to delay pregnancy and /or A. Intentional or voluntary termination of
space children? pregnancy before full term is called medical
(1) Barrier method termination of pregnancy.
(2) Intra uterine devices B. It is used to get rid of unwanted pregnancies
(3) Oral contraceptive pills due to casual unprotected intercourse.
(4) Surgical method C. Majority of the MTPs are performed illegally
by unqualified quacks.
195. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of D. MTPs are safe during the third trimester.
E. Government of India legalised MTP in 1992.
____X____ starting preferably within the first
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
____Y____ of menstrual cycle.
options given below.
Choose the option which fill the blanks correctly.
(1) Only A and B are correct.
X Y
(2) Only B and E are correct.
(1) 21 days 5 days
(3) Only A, B and D are correct.
(2) 5 days 21 days (4) Only A, B and C are correct.
(3) 21 days 7 days
(4) 7 days 21 days 199. Which of the following statements is incorrect
regarding implants?
196. A method in which the male partner withdraws his (1) It contains progestogens or combinations of
penis from the vagina just before ejaculation so as estrogen and progesterone.
to avoid insemination is known as: (2) It is effective for longer period as compared to
(1) barrier method. pills.
(2) coitus interruptus. (3) They are used by both males and females.
(4) All of these
(3) lactational amenorrhea.
(4) periodic abstinence.
200. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
197. Early symptoms of the most of the STDs are: Assertion A: Hepatitis-B is a sexually transmitted
A. itching in genital region. disease.
B. slight pain in genital region. Reason R: It can be spread through unprotected
C. swelling in genital region. sexual contact.
D. pelvic inflammatory disease. In the light of the above statements, choose the
E. still births. correct answer from the options given below.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (1) A is true but R is false.
options given below. (2) A is false but R is true.
(1) A and B only (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) A, B and C only explanation of A.
(3) D and E only (4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
(4) A, B, C and D only explanation of A.
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