JSS 3

1ST TERM
1. ENGLISH LANGUAGE FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3
2. JSS 3 CRS FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
3. JSS 3 PHE FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
4. JSS 3 SECURITY EDUCATION FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
5. JSS 3 MUSIC FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
6. JSS 3 MATHEMATICS FIRST TERM EXAMINATION
7. BASIC TECHNOLOGY FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3
8. AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3
9. BUSINESS STUDIES FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3
10. CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ART FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3
11. CIVIC EDUCATION FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3
12. SOCIAL STUDIES FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3
13. HOME ECONOMICS FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3
14. BASIC SCIENCE FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3

Page 1 of 129
 JSS 3

ENGLISH LANGUAGE FIRST TERM

EXAMINATION JSS 3
FIRST
Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of
the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: ENGLISH LANGUAGE TIME:
2HRS 30MINS CLASS: JSS 3
SECTION A: COMPREHENSION
Read the passage below carefully and answer the
questions in that follow.
ROTIMI AND JULI
The two chief families in Ife were the rich Abiolas and
the Diyas. An old quarrel between these families had
grown to a great height and they were such enemies
that even their followers and servants could not meet
without exchanging fierce words which sometimes
caused blood flow.
Old Lord Abiola gave a great supper, to which many fair
ladies and noble lords were invited. All the beautiful
women of Ife were present and all comers were made
welcome if they were not of the house of Diyas.
At the feast of the Abiolas, Jumai, a lady loved by
Rotimi, son of Lord Diya, was present. Although it was
dangerous for a Diya to be seen in this company, Bello
a friend of Rotimi, persuaded the young Lord to go in a
mask, so that he might see Jumai and compare her with
some of the other lovely women of Ife who (said he)
would make her a seem less beautiful.
Rotimi did not much believe in Bello’s words, yet
because of his love for Jumai, he was persuaded to go.
Rotimi was a faithful lover who often could not sleep for
thinking of Jumai. But she showed little respect for him
and never returned his love. Bello wished to cure his
friend of his love by showing him a variety of other
ladies.

Page 2 of 129
 JSS 3

To this feast of the Abiolas, therefore, young Rotimi

with Bello and their friend Kuti went masked. They were
welcomed by old Abiola himself who told them there
were plenty of ladies for them to dance with. They
began dancing and Rotimi was suddenly struck by
great beauty of a lady who danced there. Her beauty
shone by night like a rich jewel. She was like a white
bird among black stones (he said).
While he was speaking these words of praise, Adele, a
nephew of Lord Abiola, heard him by chance and knew
him by his voice to be Rotimi. Adele stormed in anger
and wanted to strike young Rotimi dead. But his uncle
would not let him do any harm because of respect for
his guests.
When the dancing was finished, Rotimi went to the lady
he has spotted, took her hand gently and called it a
holy place. He told her he was a humble pilgrim and
would kiss it.
‘Good pilgrim’, answered the lady, ‘saints have hands,
which pilgrims may touch, but not kiss.’
‘yes’, said the lady, ‘lips which they must use in
prayers’.
‘O then, my dear saint’ said Rotimi, ‘hear my prayer;
grant it lest I should despair’.
When Rotimi asked her mother was, he discovered that
the lady the lady whose perfect beauty had so greatly
struck him was young Juli, daughter and heir of the
Lord Abiola, the great enemy of Diyas, and to her
unknowingly, he had given his heart. (Adapted from
more tales from shakespeare by Charles and
Mary Lamb)
Questions
1. Why were the Diyas not welcome at the feast hosted
by the Abiolas?
2. What did they wear to the Abiolas’ feast as a
disguise?

Page 3 of 129
 JSS 3

3. Mention three people who disguised to the feast

hosted by the Abiolas.
4. To what did Rotimi compare Juli’s beauty?
5. According to the passage, did Rotimi know Juli’s
family before talking to her.
SECTION B
Choose the correction to complete each of the
following:
1. He doesn’t play the guitar, ________? (a) doesn’t he
(b) does it (c) does he
(d) he does (e) is he
2. You haven’t seen him, ________? (a) have
you (b) haven’t you (c) has he
(d) you have (e) are you
3. The boy laughed, ________? (a) it did (b) didn’t
he (c) doesn’t he (d) he did (e) did
he
4. The man was attacked by a ________ of bees. (a)
pack (b) group (c) swarm
(d) gang (e) school
Best online courses
5. The teacher has given us ________ to do at home. (a)
a work (b) some work (c) work (d) many
work (e) some works
6. Do you still think that you can enjoy ________
without smoking?
(a) yourself (b) yourselves (c)
yourselfs
(d) ourself (e) themselves
7. By the time we ______________ again tomorrow, we
will have finished the assignment
(a) meet (b) meeting (c) met (d) will
met
8. She could dance well ________ she could not sing at
all.
(a) and (b) but (c) for (d) or (e) nor

Page 4 of 129
 JSS 3

9. The woman is an authority ________ powers (a)

at (b) with (c) by (d) on (e) over
10. She was shocked ________ the extent of the
devastation. (a) for (b) at (c) on (d) with (e)
about
11. The man smiled ________(a) heavily (b) soundly (c)
sparingly (d) broadly (e) furiously
12. David was the ________ of the twins (a) smart (b)
smartest (c) smarter
(d) more smart (e) most smartest
13. The prodigal son spent his money ________
(a) patiently (b) sparingly (c)
thoroughly
(d) lavishly (e) wisely
14. The weather was wet and ________
(a) nasty (b) hot (c) foggy (d)
mysterious (e) rowdy
15. Mrs. Olisa is not a good wife. She ________ on her
husband
(a) treats (b) watches (c) cheats (d)
slaps
16. When they got engaged, Adam gave Maryam a
beautiful ________ ring.
(a) entertainment (b) engagement (c)
endowment (d) magic
17. A woman who doesn’t want to get pregnant should
use a ________
(a) contraception (b) contraband
(c) contraceptive (d) pregnancy belt
18. If John is engaged to Rihana, then Rihana is John’s
________
(a) financee (b) fiancé (c) fan (d) best
woman
Choose the phrase that completes the following
sentences
19. James left

Page 5 of 129
 JSS 3

(a) If he is angry (b) because he was

angry
(c) so as he was angry (d) unless he is angry
(e) until he is angry
20. You should leave
(a) so it gets dark (b) when it got dark
(c) before it gets dark (d) where it gets dark
(e) towards the dark
From the list of words lettered A –E, choose the Word or
group of words that is nearly opposite in meaning to
the underlined word.
21. Please ________ in one religion may be
considered profane in another
(a) precious (b) sacred (c) dangerous
(d) special (e) important
22. A notice that a ________ person can read may mean
nothing to an illiterate person
(a) literate (b) scholar (c) student
(d) teacher (e) professor
23. Something that costs very little in foreign money
may be expensive in________ currency
(a) home (b) our (c) national (d)
federal (e) local
24. The soldiers almost starved the prisoners because
they ________ then only once every two days.
(a) fed (b) served (c) cooked (d)
supplied (e) helped
25. The ________ water inside the habour contrasted
with the rough waves outside.
(a) gentle (b) smooth (c) polite (d)
level (e) steady
From the answers lettered A to E, choose the one that
is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.
26. Ayobami and his brother are engaged in
very lucrative business.
(a) easy (b) risky (c) profitable (d)
difficult (e) nice
Page 6 of 129
 JSS 3

27. Well diggers sometimes risk their lives

(a) endanger (b) care for (c) prolong (d)
lose (e) save
28. The dress she is wearing today is quite expensive
(a) costly (b) cheap (c) fine (d)
exorbitant
(e) flamboyant
29. Zuma walked warily across the narrow bridge
(a) cautiously (b) cheaply (c) fine
(d) unwary (e) specialy
30. No matter how long you conceal the truth, it will be
revealed one day.
(a) deny (b) reaffirm (c) uphold (d)
realise (e) hide
31. He wasfired by his employers
(a) sacked (b) shot (c)
condemned
(d) questioned (e) provided with fire
32. Our school was founded many years ago.
(a) discovered (b) known (c)
established
(d) expanded (e) seen
33. His relentless efforts are highly commendable.
(a) determined (b) writing (c) praise
(d) slowly (e) good
34. Aisha was commended for her diligence.
(a) behaviour (b)hardwork (c) seriousness
(d) success (e) effort
35. I cannot just tell if this is fish or meat we are
eating.
(a) distinguished (b) understand (c)
know
(d) narrate (e) discover
Complete each of the following sections with the most
appropriate of option lettered A-E
36. Despite all the ________ that I did, the floor still
remained dirty.
Page 7 of 129
 JSS 3

(a) dusting (b) packing (c) polishing

(d) scrubbing (e) washing
37. At the wedding ceremony the bridegroom watched
the _________ dancing away with excitement (a)
bride (b) fiancé (c) partner (d)
spouse (e) wife
38. My friends are ________.They buy from wholesalers
and sell to individual buyers
(a) hawkers (b) petty traders (c) retail traders
(d) sales-girl (e) sales managers
39. My father brother is my __________
(a) elder brother (b) nephew (c) neice
(d) uncle (e) young father

40. A person who hails prospective passengers into a

vehicle is called a _____
(a) conductor (b) driver (c) help (d)
tout (e) unionist
41. My mother took ill last year but she is ________ now
(a) convulsing (b) convalescing (c)
rehabilitating (d) reviving
42. A writer has to be _______ to vividly describe scenes
that he has never seen before
(a) artistic (b) clever (c) intelligent
(d) imaginative (e) thoughtful
43. The doctor said I was running a temperature, so he
has to measure my ________
(a) blood pressure (b) body heat (c) heart
beat
(d) pulse (e) urine
44. Ada developed a strange mental disorder and has
since been taken to a ________ hospital.
(a) maternity (b) paediatric (c)
psychiatric
(d) optical (e) thopaedic
45. someone who pay or receives money in an office is
called a/an
Page 8 of 129
 JSS 3

(a) cashier (b) finance officer (c) payee

(d) payer (e) accountant
46. The ________ of the two parties show that they have
little to offer
(a) campaign strategies (b)
constitutions (c) manifestation (d)
promotion techniques (e) propaganda
47. What enables a country to know its population?
(a) census (b) concensus (c)
election (d) referendum (e) survey
48. The people who build with stones are called
________
(a) architects (b) glaziers (c) labourers
(d) masons (e) surveyors
49. The meat is not fit for consumption. It is ________
(a) contaminated (b) exposed (c) sour
(d) stinking (e) tough
50. Being the secretary, Olu was asked to prepare the
________for the meeting
(a) addendum (b) agenda (c)
manifesto
(d) memorandum (e)propaganda
TEST OF ORAL
51. /i/ (a) breadth (b) bag (c) heart (d)
reach (e) rich
52. /æ/ (a) bath (b) father (c) laugh (d)
marry (e) serve
53. /ɔ:/ (a) tough (b) sauce (c) sorry (d)
sword (e) watch
54. /ʌ/ (a) came (b) dog (c) gone (d)
horse (e) lawn
55. /e/ (a) come (b) ate (c) girl (d)
vile (e) word

LITERATURE
56. Which of the following literary work use a dialogue
a lot?
Page 9 of 129
 JSS 3

(a) poetry (b) prose (c) fiction (d)

drama
57. A play upon word is called _________
(a) pun (b) simile (c) metaphor (d)
paradox
58. Which of this is common to poem?
(a) rhyme (b) dialogue (c) action (d)
diction
59. Unreal stories are _________stories
(a) fictional (b) non-fictional (c)
didactic (d) false
60. A poem of two lines is called _________
(a) couplet (b) octave (c) sonnet (d)
quatrain

PART B
SESSION ONE.
ESSAY WRITING : Answer only one question from
this session.
Your essay should not be less than 250 words.

1. Write a composition on the preparation of your

favourite food
2. Write a letter to the principal of your school
complaining about the maltreatment of junior
students by senior students.
SESSION TWO : GRAMMAR
Answer all questions in this session.
State whether the underlined word in each of the
sentences below is a noun, pronoun, verb, adjective,
adverb, conjunction or preposition.
Example : David is a neat boy.(Noun)
1. I sleep early.
2. She wore a beautiful dress.
3. He ran faster than everyone else.
4. She put the food on the table.
5. He passed the ball to him.
Page 10 of 129
 JSS 3

Underline the correct verb. Choose from those in

brackets.
1. She (eat/eats) too quickly.
2. These cars (need/needs) new tyres.
3. Her parents (want/wants) to buy a new car for her.
4. The shoes (is/are) under the bed.
5. River Niger (flow/flows) from North to South.
LITERATURE.
Answer all question from this section
Drama : Okedokun Ayoade : Mopelola
1. ‘As to the commitment , they would do their best
knowing fully well that my husband will pay them
well’.
2. who made the statement ?
3. who was the speaker talking to ?
iii. what commitment is the speaker talking about ?
1. where is the speaker ?
v.who is the speaker calling « My husband » ?
prose
the visitor
1. write out the five ways a student can improve
his/her english

JSS 3 CRS FIRST TERM EXAMINATION

FIRST
Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of
the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: C.R.S TIME: 2HRS CLASS: JSS
3
1. Prior to the day of Pentecost, members that
constituted the early church were (a) 120
(b) 1,200 (c) 3000 (d) 4000.
2. On the day of Pentecost, the Apostles were filled
with the Holy Spirit and they all (a) prophesied (b)

Page 11 of 129
 JSS 3

spoke in tongues (c) baptized the converts (d)

preached to the multitudes.
3. ___________yet the most high does not dwell in
houses made with hands_____”
Stephen statements means; God is (a) Omnipotent (b)
Omnipresent (c) Alpha (d) Omega.
1. On the day of ascension, Jesus promised his disciples
(a) peace in the kingdom of God (b) amazing grace
(c) power of the Holy Ghost (d) His abiding physical
presence.
2. Saul was converted on his journey to (a) Samaria (b)
Jerusalem (c) Salamis (d) Damascus.
3. The descent of the Holy Spirit on the day of
Pentecost was prophesied by (a) Amos (b) Joel (c)
David (d) Ezekiel.
4. When Peter was in prison the church (a) appealed to
the authorities (b) lived in fear (c) prayed
ceaselessly (d) fought for his release.
5. Which of the following did not take place on the day
of Pentecost? (a) Tongues of fire rested on each
disciple’s head (b) The Holy Spirit said “Set apart
Paul and Barnabas” (c) A mighty wind came from
heaven. (d) Different tongues were spoken.
6. The coming of the Holy Spirit on the Samaritan by
the laying on of hands means that.(a) God is
Wonderful (b) God is no respecter of races (c) God
can give the Holy Spirit in different ways (d) the Holy
Spirit is for all races.
7. After the resurrection, Jesus made several
appearances for a period of________before his
Ascension. (a)40 days (b) 7 weeks (c) 4 weeks (d) 30
days
8. Jesus gave the apostles the _________to evangelize
the whole world. (a) Great Commandment (b) Great
Commission (c) order (d) Great Authority
9. The promise of the Father was (a) baptism with
water (b) baptism with water and the Holy Spirit (c)
Page 12 of 129
 JSS 3

the coming of the Holy Spirit (d) the Great

Commission.
10. The feast of Pentecost was held _______________
weeks after the Passover. (a) 14 (b) 7 (c) 12
(d) 6
11. The feast of Pentecost was_________ festival. (a) a
restoration (b) a tabernacle (c) a moon (d)
an agricultural.
12. As the Holy Spirit descended on the apostles on
the day of Pentecost they began to (a) heal the sick
(b) speak in tongues (c) pray (d) preach
13. On the day of Pentecost, Peter advised the crowd
to (a) love one another as Jesus had loved them (b)
refrain from eating meat sacrifice to idols (c) repent
and be baptized in the name of Jesus (d) share
whatever they had with one another.
14. The coming down of the Holy Spirit on the day of
Pentecost shows that God never fails in His (a) love
(b) mercy (c) Kindness (d) promise.
15. The effect of the Holy Spirit on the apostles was
that it (a) made them drunk (b) gave
them strength and courage with the work of Jesus (c)
made it possible for them to elect a successor to
Judas.
16. The healing of the cripple at the Beautiful Gate and
the courageous death of Stephen showed the effect
of the (a) Ministry of Jesus (b) ministry of the
apostles (c) outpouring of the Holy Spirit (d) election
of Matthias.
17. When the cripple saw Peter and John enter the
Temple he looked at them expecting them to (a)
heal him (b) give him the Holy Spirit (c) pray for him
(d) give him alms.
18. The Holy Spirit descended on the apostles on the
day of Pentecost. This was _________days after the
Ascension of Jesus. (a) 10 (b)20 (c) 8 (d) 16

Page 13 of 129
 JSS 3

19. The Upper Room where the apostles stayed, was

the place where (a) Jesus was arrested (b) Peter
betrayed Jesus (c) Jesus was tried (d) the last Supper
took place.
20. As the Holy Spirit descended on the apostles on
the day of Pentecost they began to (a) heal the sick
(b) speak in tongues (c) pray (d) preach
21. The apostles saw something like ________in the
shape of tongues resting on each of them (a) stars
(b) scales (c) flames (d) fighting
22. When the Holy Spirit came upon the apostles they
were filled with joy and (a) gladness (b)
kindness (c) humility (d) courage
23. To speak in ‘Other tongues’ means to (a)speak in
different languages (b) acquire a second languages
(c) be under the influence of the Holy Spirit (d)be
under the influence of alcohol
24. Those who have come to Jerusalem to celebrate
the feast of Pentecost heard each of the apostles (a)
preaching in the name of Jesus (b) proclaiming that
Jesus was the Christ (c)preaching in his own
language (d) telling them about the Holy Spirit
25. The charge made against the apostles on the day
of Pentecost was that they were (a) disciples of Jesus
(b) preaching the resurrection from the dead (c)
Galileans (d) drunk
26. To explain the outpouring of the Holy Spirit on the
day of Pentecost. Peter quoted Prophet (a) Joel (b)
Daniel (c) Isaiah (d) Ezekiel.
27. In his speech on the day of Pentecost , Peter
showed that the resurrection of Jesus from the dead
had long been prophesied by (a) Joel (b) Isaiah (c)
Jeremiah (d) David
28. Peter proved that the Pentecost was a fulfillment
of the prophecy of (a)Micah (b) Hosea (c) Amos
(d) Joel (e) Isaiah

Page 14 of 129
 JSS 3

29. Two of the seven deacons who later became

evangelists were (a) Stephen and Nicolaus (b)
Stephen and Nicanor (c) Stephen and Philip (d)
Philip and Nicolans (e)Philip and Nicanor
30. The vision of peter at Joppa was meant to teach
him that (a) Jews were superior to non-Jews (b)
there was no need for Gentiles in the church (c)
Gentiles and Jews had nothing in common (d) in
Christianity here is no racial discrimination
31. After stephen’s martyrdom the evangelist who
took the gospel to Samaria was (a) Peter (b) Philip
(c) John (d)Paul
32. Peter and John were arrested for the second
time by the Jewish authorities because they (a)
healed the lame-man (b) preached in the name
of Jesus (c) performed many signs and wonders
(d)abused the Sanhedrin (e) plotted against the
council
33. From his experience on the road to Damascus.
Saul learnt all the following except that (a)
persecuting the church meant persecuting the
Lord (b) in persecuting the church he was kicking
against the pricks(c) his confidence in Judaism
was misplaced (d)he was specially chosen to preach
to the Gentiles
34. The Apostles were encourage to preach by (a)
the reincarnation of saints (b) their fellowship
and togetherness (c) the indwelling of the Holy
Spirit (d) the continued physical presence of
Jesus € the serious persecution that faced them
35. Which of the following did not characterize the
life of fellowship led by the early church? (a)
members met regularly for prayers and
thanksgiving (b) members devoted themselves to
the apostles teaching (c) members had all
things in common (d) those who sold their
possessions kept part of the proceeds to
Page 15 of 129
 JSS 3

themselves (e) members shared in the problems

of one another
36. Saul could be said to have persecuted Jesus
Christ by (a) mocking Jesus on the day of
pentecost (b) attacking Jesus for disobeying the
laws of Moses (c) opposing the Christians on the
way (d) accusing Stephen (e) condemning the
preaching of the gospel
37. Saul was a native of (a) Paphos (b) Jerusalem
(c) Corinth (d) Galatia (e) Tarsus
38. In the act of the Apostles all the following
were the characteristics of communal living in
the early church except (a) sharing of goods
(b) hiding from Jewish arrest (c) praying
together (d) breaking of bread (e) having
fellowship together
39. The story of Ananias and Saphira was
intended to engender in he early church the
spirit of (a) faithfulness and love (b) tolerance
and humidity (c) honesty and willingness to
sacrifice (d) contentment and leadership (e) self-
reliance and obedience
40. The first Christian Martyr was (a) James (b)
Stephen (c) John (d) Jesus Christ
41. Stephen died courageously when the people
(a) hanged him on the cross (b) stoned him to
death (c) buried him alive (d) lynched him
42. What united all the different members of the
early church was their (a) Jewish descent (b)
patronage of the feast of Pentecost (c)
observance of law of Moses (d) common faith in
Jesus Christ
43. The story fellowship and the type of sharing
which enabled the early Christians to solve their
problems were the fruits of (a) their devotion (b)
their joint efforts (c) super human strength (d)
the Holy spirit
Page 16 of 129
 JSS 3

44. The coming down of the Holy spirit on the day

of Pentecost shows that God never fails in His (a)
love (b) mercy (c) kindness (d) promise
45. Stephen was inspired by …..to preach and argue
successfully with the opponents of Christianity. (a)
Peter (b) Barnabas (c) the Holy Spirit (d) Apostles
46. To explain the outpouring of the Holy Spirit on
the day of Pentecost Peter quoted the prophet (a)
Joel (b) Daniel (c) Isaiah (d) Ezekiel
47. Paul condemned Christianity because he (a)
hated Jesus Christ (b) hated the Apostles (c) was
a Pharisee (d) did not understand it.

THEORY: Answer two Questions

1. Explain why Jesus promised the Holy Spirit to the
disciples.
(1b) State the reactions of the on lookers.
1. State three activities which the early church did
together
(2b) State two reasons why the widows of
Hellenlist murmured.
1. Give three reasons for the arrest of Peter and
John
1. What is Conflict?.

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: C.R.S TIME: 2HRS CLASS: SS
2
1. According to Joseph’s interpretation to Pharaoh’s
dream; the seven empty ears blighted by the east

Page 17 of 129
 JSS 3

wind represented seven years of (a) Famine (b)

Abundance (c) Farming (d) Harvest
2. Moses was born at a period when the Hebrews were
(a) Suffering (b) Increasing (c) Backsliding (d)
Rejoicing.
3. __________ “Who is the Lord, that I should heed to his
voice and let Israel go”? After this statement,
Pharaoh. (a) Engaged Israel into forced labour with
task masters (b) Ordered midwives to kill all males
born to Israelites. (c) Asked Israelites to fetch their
own straws to produce bricks (b) Decreed that
Israelites’ males babies be drowned in the Nile
4. The name Moses means (a) Baptized in water (b)
Abandoned in water (c) Drawn out of water (d)
Thrown into water.
5 After the departure of the Israelites God made
Pharaoh pursue them in order to (a) Force Israel to
return to Egypt (b) Hasten Israel’s journey through the
wilderness (c) make Israel obey Moses (d) get glory
over Pharaoh and his host
6 Deborah, a prophetess who was a judge in Israel
was the wife of (a) Joshua (b) Abijah (c)
Happidoth (d) Sisera.
7 Which of the following rivers flowed out of Eden to
water its garden? River (a) Abana (b)
Pharper (c) Pishon (d) Nile
8 The wife of Moses was called (a) Rebecca (b)
Rachael (c) Zipporah (d) Deborah.
9 When Joseph was sent to his brothers, he met them
pasturing at (a) Hebron (b) Bethel (c)
Beersheba (d) Dothan
10 How old was Joshua before he died? (a) 95 years
(b) 98 years (c) 110 years (d) 111 years.
11 What in the creation account, gave man an edge
over every other creature? (a) Other creatures
were made for man (b) Man alone was created in the

Page 18 of 129
 JSS 3

image of God (c) Man had the rare privilege to dwell in

Eden (d) Satan acknowledge his privilege position
12 What, in the creation account, gave man an edge
over creature? (a) Other creatures were made for man
(b) man alone was created in the image of God
(c) Man had rare privilege to dwell in the Eden (d) Satan
acknowledge his privilege position.
13 At Shechem, God appeared to Abram and told him
that _________ (a) he should continue on his journey
southward (b) he should leave his country and kindred
(c)the land would be given to his descendants (d) in the
land he should build an altar
14 The land, the sea and vegetation were created
on the (a) first day (b) second day (c) third day (d) fifth
day
15 God blessed the seventh day and hallowed it
because it marked the day that he ________ (a)
complete his work of creation (b) handed over the earth
to Adam (c) saw all his created work as perfect (d)
rested from his work of creation
16 which of the following was not part of the
honour done to Joseph when pharaoh made him a ruler
in Egypt? (a) Joseph was made to address the people
(b) The land of Goshen was given to Joseph (c) Joseph
was dressed In garments of the fine linen (d) A gold
chain was put around Joseph’s neck
17 What was Moses reaction when God called him
to liberate his people from Egypt? (a)he was afraid of
being punished for his previous offence (b) His people
would think he was too young to lead them (c)His
people would think he was too young to lead them
(d)His father in- law would not allow him to go
18 God provided water for the Israelites by asking
Moses to strike the rock at the wilderness of (a)
Rephidium (b) Sin (c) Massah (d) Paran

Page 19 of 129
 JSS 3

19 God led the Israelites in the wilderness during

the day in form of (a) fire (b) light (c) cloud
(d) rainbow
20. According to the first creation story the
firmament was created before (a) animals and plants
(b) living creatures (c) sea creatures (c) sea
creatures (d) land, seas and vegetation.

THEORY ANSWER THREE

1. Narrate the story of Joseph in Canaan and indicate
how he came to assume leadership role in Egypt
2. Give any two leadership qualities you find in Joseph.
3. Describe the crossing of the red sea and God’s role
in the episode
4. What two lessons did Israel learn from their
experience there?
5. Outline the circumstance that led to the gift of the
Manna and quails in the wilderness
6. What does this episode reveals of the nature of
God?
7. Describe how Deborah led her people to victory
8. Mention three ways by which women today are
contributing towards national development.
9. What is a covenant?
10. illustrate how God proved to Abraham that he
would honour the covenant

JSS 3 PHE FIRST TERM EXAMINATION

FIRST
TERM
Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of
the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
Subject: PHYSICAL AND
HEALTH EDUCATION Duration: 2HR Class: JSS
3

Page 20 of 129
 JSS 3

OBJECTIVES: Instruction: Answer all questions in

this section
1. _____ is the activities engaged in during leisure hours
to revitalize the body and brain. (a) Physical training
(b) swimming (c) tennis (d) recreation
2. ____________________ are physical exercise designed
to improve strength, flexibility, balance, agility, co-
ordination of the body. (a) Hockey (b) swimming (c)
football (d) gymnastics
3. The decathlon consists of __________________ athletics
events (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
4. _______________ comprises some motor skills, which
build and produce particular effects on particular
part of the body. (a) volley ball (b) basketball (c)
football (d) gymnastics
5. Swimming federation of Nigeria was found in _______
year (a) 1958 (b) 1960 (c) 1950 (d) 1968
6. ______________ is the process of keeping the pool
clean and hygiene at all times. (a) buoyancy (b)
floating (c) pool hygiene (d) pool showering
7. Which of the following skill is not applicable to
swimming? (a) fosbury flop (b) front crawl (c) back
stroke (d) butterfly stroke
8. The following are importance of gymnastics except
_______________ (a) balance diet (b) muscular
strength (c) physical fitness (d) proper use of leisure
time
9. The period between conception and the birth of the
baby is called __________ (a) birth period (b)
gestation period (c) placenta (d) all of the above
10. A swimmer that swims breasting the water is said
to be using __________ (a) back stroke (b) breast
stroke (c) butterfly stroke (d)free style stroke
11. One of the following is odd (a) Ludo (b) Jogging (c)
Draught (d) Ayo game

Page 21 of 129
 JSS 3

12. The process of growing old and reaching the end of

useful life is called __________________ (a) death (b)
ageing (c) birth (d) dementia
13. Which of the following is not gymnastics
equipment? (a) balancing beam (b) shin guard (c)
ring (d) mat
14. One of the importance roles of a child in the family
is ________________ (a) beat their parents (b) to run
errand for parents (c) disobey their parents (d) insult
their parents
15. The pentathlon consists of __________________
athletics events (a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 10
16. Buoyancy in aquatics means ___________________ (a)
ability to swim (b) ability to float with confidence in
water (c) ability to drive (d) ability to play in water
17. Combined events in athletics are ______________ (a)
decalon and octagon (b) pentathlon and decathlum
(c) pentathlon and decathlon (d) octagon and
decathlon
18. Gymnastics can be defined as activities performed
_______ and _______ (a) floor and mat (b) floor and
raised objects (c) ground and sand (d) raised object
and poles
19. Which of this is not an agency for promoting health
education in Nigeria (a) NAFDAC (b) NFF(c) NDLEA
(d) NAHET
20. The following injuries can be sustained in
gymnastics except _____ (a) fracture (b) dislocation
(c) drawn (d) strain
21. Physical education can be defined as the
development of the whole body except ______ (a)
physically (b) mentally (c) spiritually (d) emotionally
22. Which official ensures that all competitors start the
race at the same time? (a) Referee (b) Umpire (c)
Track Judge (d) Starter
Watch live sports online

Page 22 of 129
 JSS 3

23 The heptathlon consists of __________ athletics

events. (a) 10 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 4
24. Hurdle, 1500m, 800m, 400m race are for
________________ events ( a) track (b) field (b) track
and field (d) all of the above
25. ______________ is the responsibility of Federal Road
Safety Corps of Nigeria. (a) to promote health of the
nation (b) to control importation of drug (c) to
provides safety on our road (d) all of the above
26. All physical activities that are performed in the
water are called _______ (a) canoeing (b) boating (c)
aquatics (d) swimming
27.The ability to perform one’s work without undue
fatique and still have enough energy for social life is
_______ (a) social fitness (b) emotional fitness (c)
physical fitness (d) energy fitness
28. Poor officiating results to ______ in sport (a) fair
play (b) violence (c) good play (d) rapport (e)
winning
29. _____________ is the period when a person develops
from child into an adult. (a) puberty (b) adult (c)
older (d) teenage
30.The start of the monthly period (discharge) in girls
mean that ___________ can occur any time (a) breast (b)
pregnancy (c) thin voice (d) menstruation
31._________________ are responsible for developing
conditioning programmes in various sports (a) teaching
(b) coaching (c) sport psychology (d) physical
instructor
32.________________ is the medical attention and care
given to the baby and the mother after delivery (a) pre-
natal (b) post –natal (c) anti natal (d) all of the above
33. The first menstrual cycle of a girl is called
__________________ (a) menarche (b) sexual
reproduction (c) mensis (d) bleeding

Page 23 of 129
 JSS 3

34. The following are sport promoting agencies in

Nigeria except ___________ (a) CDN (b) NFTT (c)
NBF(d) NSHA
35._______________ is a stroke on the back in which
arms stroke alternately with recovery out of the water,
and the leg using a flutter kick. (a) butterfly stroke (b)
breast stroke (c) back stroke (d) all of the above
36. The following are the parts of school health
programmes except ______ (a) school vendors (b)
visitors (c) the teachers. (d) non-teaching staff
37. Which of these statements is not true about first
aid programme? (a) arrest bleeding (b) prevent early
fatigue (c) prevent worst condition (d) safe life (e)
quicken recovery
38.________ is the study of peoples in sport (a)
sport science (b) sport management (c) sport
psychology (d) sport medicine
39. Which of the following is not a branch of physical
education? (a) games (b) aquatics (c) gymnastics (d)
personality
40. 2The following are health implication of female
genital mutilation except ________ (a) infertility (b)
infections (c) suffocation (d) death
41. The proper removal of wastes from an environment
is ________ (a) sewage disposal (b) clean
environment (c) open composite (d) refuse disposal
42. A series of exercises arranged into different
stations as individual goes from one station to
another is known as (a) interval training (b) weight
training (c) circuit training (d) circular training
43. The following are the objectives of recreational
activities except ________ (a) to develop physical
fitness (b) to reduce long life (c) to correct postural
defects (d) to develop skills
44. The main purpose of First Aid is to __________ (a)
save life (b) destroy life (c) construct life (d) observe
life (e) damage life
Page 24 of 129
 JSS 3

45.The scope of health education covers all the

following except _______ (a) sex education (b) drug
education (c) sound education (d) environmental
education
46. __________ is the acquisition of knowledge and skills
foe dealing with emergency (a) accident education
(b) formal education (c) home education (d) safety
education
47. Safety can be defined as _________ (a) free from
school (b) recreation time (c) hospitalism (d) free
from hazard
48.A coach is a person who ______ (a) is responsible for
selecting athletes (b) trains and takes care of athletes
(c) works under a physical educator (d) assist the
referee to decide winner
49.One of the following is not the type of play (a)
forehand (b) singles (c) mixed doubles (d) doubles
50.____________ is contain all the classes of food
(a)nutrition (b) metabolism (c)balance diet (d) energy
51. Which one of the following is not a safety
precautions in contact sports?(a)Ask question when
in doubt (b) Practice skills within your capacity (c)Do
not ask question when in doubt (d)Always follow
instruction
52. Which class of food builds and repairs worn-out
tissues and cells of the body?(a)Fats and oil (b)
Vitamins (c) Carbohydrates (d) Proteins
53.Which one of these is not a benefit of contact
sports? (a)It provides means of recreation (b)It
promote violence (c)It improves mental alertness (d)It
aids physical fitness and flexibility
54.The importance of balance diet are ________________
except (a) it helps to maintain good health (b) it
promotes growth and builds the body tissues. (c) it
provide needed energy for physical exercises (d) it
help the environment clean

Page 25 of 129
 JSS 3

55.The exercise designed to strengthen up the body is

_____________ (a) volley ball (b) basketball (c) football
(d) gymnastics
56._____________ are the activities that are performed in
water (a) aquatic sports (b) water sports (c) aquarium
sports (d) oceanic sports
57.________________ are for both men and women
events in combined event (a) decathlon (b) pentathlon
(c) heptathlon (d) triathlon
58.Which of these is not a basic skill in contact sport?
(a)Tackling (b) Swimming (c)Kicking (d) Dribbling
59.Activities performed without use of apparatus in
gymnastics are called (a) floor activities (b) beam
activities (c) rope activities (d)mat activities
60.. Examples of stunt activities is ____________ (a) cat
spring (b) cartwheel (c)knee balance (d)crab balance
SECTION B:Answer Only Three Questions from
This Section
1. Explain the followings and give each examples
2. Triathlon II. Heptathlon iii.Pentathlon
iv.Decathlon
3. Mention three value in Gymnastics
4. Explain two contribution that harding j. ekperigin
contributed to Nigeria
5. Define the following: i. Gymnastics? Ii. career
6. State four safety precautions in gymnastics
7. Mention the four basic stroke in swimming and
explain one
8. Mention four Nigeria heroes and heroines that
contribute to Nigerian sports development
9. State three safety rules guiding combined events
10. Mention three relevance of family life education
11. Define the following : i. Family life education ii.
Family values iii. Puberty
12. Mention three physical changes in boys and girls
each

Page 26 of 129
 JSS 3

13. State four sports promoting agencies and bodies in

Nigeria
14. What did these acronyms stand for? i. FRSC
ii. NSHA iii. NAHET
15. List four career opportunities in physical and health
education and explain one
16. Mention three consequence of teenage pregnancy

JSS 3 SECURITY EDUCATION FIRST TERM

EXAMINATION
FIRST

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: SECURITY EDUCATION TIME:
2HRS CLASS: JSS 3
1………..is not an agent of government that crime can
be reported to(A)Nigerian Police Force(B)State Security
Service(C)Economic and Financial Crime
Commission(D)Vigilante group
2…………… is not an emergency situation(A)Fire
outbreak(B)Earth quake(C)Flood(D)Malaria fever
3.Which of the following is not an agency that deal with
emergency(A)Police(B)Fire Service(C)Odua People’s
Congress(D)Red Cross
4.Crime means(A)Minor offences that cause
injury(B)Mistakes that bring injury on others(C)Illegal
behaviours punishable by law of the land(D)Behaviours
against the tradition of our elders
5.Unlawful killing or taking of life of another person is
described
as(A)Suicide(B)Kidnapping(C)Murder(D)Vandalization

Page 27 of 129
 JSS 3

6.A major security challenge in Nigeria is

the(A)Examination malpractices(B)Insurgence in the
North East(C)Political crisis(D)Indecent dressing
7.The study of security education is important for these
reason except(A)Promotion of peace(B)Inflicting
hardship on citizens(C)Prevention of havoc(D)Promotion
of national development
8.To prevent crimes,citizens should do the following
except(A)Obeying the law(B)Reporting suspicious
movement in the day or night(C)Reporting suspected
criminals(D)Bribing police not to prosecute criminals
9.All these crimes are very common among youths
except(A)Rape(B)Examintion malpractice(C)Weapon
smuggling(D)Robbery and stealing
10.An act of intentionally taking another person’s
property without permission is called(A)Gang
robbery(B)Armed robbery(C)Theft(D)Tapping
11.The illegal duplication of another person’s literary or
musical work for commercial purpose is
called(A)Piracy(B)Anti-piracy(C)Crime of
duplication(D)Literacy piracy
12.Increase in crime rate in a country will(A)Encourage
more foreign investors(B)Boost the level of economic
activities(C)Drive away foreign investors(D)Increase
government revenue
13.The security agency that fights drug trafficking in
Nigeria(A)NDLEA(B)NAFDAC(C)SSS(D)DSS
14.All these are dangers or effects of pipeline
vandalization except(A)Scarcity of petroleum
products(C)Economic wastes(C)Water
pollution(D)Increase in government revenue
15.All these are true except(A)All crimes carry different
punishment(B)All crimes carry the same
punishment(C)Not all criminals go to jail(D)Police and
criminals are not friends
16.Security agents include all these except(A)A naval
officer(B)A lawyer(C)A police officer(D)An army
Page 28 of 129
 JSS 3

17.Financial crimes in Nigeria are handled by(A)Chief

Justice of the Federation(B)Governor of the Central
Bank(C)Federal ministry of finance(D)Economic and
financial crimes commission
18.One of these is a crime against morality or
victimless crime(A)Prostitution(B)Armed
robbery(C)Arson(D)Theft
19.Which of these has the tendency to commit crimes?
(A)Educated youths(B)Employed youths(C)Uneducated
youths(D)Youths on scholarship abroad
20.Professionals specially trained to maintain law and
order, protect life and property are called(A)The
Police(B)Security agents(C)State Security
Service(D)The military
21.When people in a community are security conscious
one of these will likely happen(A)Increase in sale
guns(B)Reduction in crime rate(C)Increase in crime
rate(D)Increase in number of armed robbers
22.Electoral crime include all these
except(A)Rigging(B)Election result
manipulation(C)Ballot snatching(D)Failure to vote
23.Which of these regions in Nigeria was majorly
affected by Boko-Haram activities?(A)North
West(B)South West(C)North Central(D)North East
24.Which of these is not a good crime prevention
strategy(A)Installation of alarm in a vehicle(B)Building
of fence around a house(C)Leaving your house key with
a stranger(D)Installation of security cameras in a house
25.The immediate intervention of the following always
needed if there is a road accident except(A)The
police(B)National Emergency Management
Agency(C)FRSC(D)The Nigeria Navy
26.A crime means(A)Minor offences that cause
injury(B)Mistakes that bring injury to others(C)Illegal
behaviors punishable by law of the land(D)Behaviours
against the tradition of our elders

Page 29 of 129
 JSS 3

27.The head of Nigeria police in Nigeria is

called(A)Nigeria Police Chief(B)Commander of police
force(C)Inspector General of police(D)National Security
Adviser
28.The study of security education is important for
these reasons expect(A)Promotion of peace(B)Inficting
hardship on citizens(C)Prevention of havoc(D)Promotion
of national development
29.The full meaning of CCTV in relation to security
is(A)Chinese Circuit Television(B)City Circuit
Television(C)Circular Circuit Television(D)Closed Circuit
Television
30.A major security challenge in Nigeria is(A)Oil
bunkering(B)Pipeline vandalism(C)Fulani herdsmen
killings(D)Indecent dressing in public
31.All these have exposed Nigerian youths to crime
except(A)Smart phones(B)Foreign movies(C)Social
media(D)Religious movies
32.To prevent crimes,citizens should do the following
except(A)Bribing police not to prosecute
criminals(B)Obeying the law(C)Reporting suspicious
movement(D)Reporting suspected crime
33.Sale of fake drugs is a crime because(A)It
compounds people’s health problems(B)It makes drugs
too cheap in the market(C)It makes drugs available to
everybody(D)It leads to increase in consumption of
cocaine and heroine
34.Which of the following has the tendency to commit
crimes?(A) Educated youth(B)Uneducated
youth(C)Empolyed youth(D)Youth on scholarship
35.Professionals specially trained to maintain law and
order,protect lives and properties are called(A)The
police(B)Demographer(C)Military man(D)State Security
Service
36.Human trafficking often
involve(A)Beating(B)Starving(C)Prostitution(D)Forced
labour
Page 30 of 129
 JSS 3

37.Deterioration in quality of food is called(A)Food

contamination(B)Food adulteration(C)Food
addiction(D)Food addictive
38.Punishment for food adulteration and contamination
include the following except(A)Loss of license(B)Loss of
employment(C)Commendation(D)Fines
39.Environmental factors that lead to spoilage of food
include the following
except(A)Temperature(B)Humidity(C)Pressure(D)Bacter
ia
40.Which of the following is not a way of avoiding
criminal behavior(A)Early childhood
intervention(B)Government intervention(C)Parents and
guardian support(D)Unemployment
THEORY
ATTEMPTS ONLY THREE QUESTIONS
1.State seven common crimes in Nigeria Society.
1. Highlight three punishments associated with
common crime in Nigeria
2.What is human trafficking? B. State five causes of
human trafficking
3.Define food adulteration B.Suggest three
punishments for food adulteration
4.What is criminal behavior? B. Highlight five
solutions to criminal behavior in Nigeria
5.Write short note on three of the following
(A)Crime(B)Kidnapping(C)Imprisonment(D)Adulteration(
E) Security agents

41.The effective ways to avoid criminal behaviors

are…………………. and…………………. (A)Training and
education(B) Education and socialisation(C)Education
and conflict(D)Training and joblessness
42.Legitimate activities for young people include the
following except(A)Vocational training(B)Volunteeer
work(C) School debate(D)Violence

Page 31 of 129
 JSS 3

Best online courses

43The introduction of foreign materials that makes
drugs preparation impure is called(A)Drug
adulteration(B)Drug contamination(C)Drug
pollution(D)Drug impurity
44.Which of the following is not an environmental
factor that cause
contamination(A)Rodent(B)Heat(C)Humidty(D)Precipitat
ion
45.Ways in which neighbourhood clean up help in
preventing crime include the following
except(A)Removal of looters from
community(B)Removal of abandoned vehicle(C)Care
free attitude(D)Cleanng up of abandoned building
46.Which of the following activities will not help in
reducing crime(A)After school training(B)Part time
work(C)Tutorial class(D)Riot
47.Criminal violence include the following
except(A)Robbery(B)Kidapping(C)Insurgence(D)Tow
fighting
48.Which of the following crime does not affect national
resources(A)Smuggling(B)Money
laundering(C)Looting(D)Human trafficking
49.The following are the causes of illegal bunkering
except(A)Ignorance(B)Get rich quick
syndrome(C)Effective law enforcement agents(D)Poor
governance
50.The purpose of pipeline vandalism is(A)Market
product for government(B)Steal the
product(C)Empower the citizens(D)Refine the product

JSS 3 MUSIC FIRST TERM EXAMINATION

FIRST

Page 32 of 129
 JSS 3

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: MUSIC TIME: 2hrs
CLASS: JSS 3
1.
1. Music is all about combination of (A)balls (B)slates
(C)sounds (D)shirts (E)noises.
2. E.G.B.D.F are the letter names of the lines of the
…… stave. (A) bass (B) treble (C) alto (D) tenor
(E) movable
3. The ………… circles round the fourth line of the
staff and fixes that line as “F” (A) bass clef (B)
alto clef (C) treble clef (D) tenor clef (E) solo clef
4. The musical note with four tails is ………. (A)
minim (B) tails (C) quaver (D) note (E) hemi demi
semi quaver
5. All these are musical instrument except (A) quitar
(B) organ (C) trumpet (D) hand trowel (E) flute
6. Two crotchets added together is equal to a (A)
minim (B) crotchets (C) semibreve (D) quaver (E)
semi quaver
7. When a dot is placed after a note, it ……… (A)
doubles the note (B) increases the note by half of
its value(C) decreases it by half of its value (D)
increases the note by a semitone (E) decreases
the note by a tone.
8. The short extra lines drawn above or below the
staff to accommodate more notes is know as
………. (A) double bar (B) extension (C) pitch (D)
rhythmic (E) ledger
9. The combination of the Treble and Bass staff is
known as ……………. Staff. (A) combined (B)
orchestra (C) great (D) baritone (E) movable
10. …………… lowers a note by one semitone in
pitch. (A) Natural (B) Sharp (C) Flat (D) pause (E)
Dot

Page 33 of 129
 JSS 3

11. The first line of the Treble stave is …………. (A)

G (B) A (C) A (D) E (E) C .
12. Double bar lines in music signifies the ………..
of a piece of music (A) end (B) cadences (C)
beginning (D) middle (E) pitch
13. The song tittle “Aye” was composed by
…………. (A) Davido (B) Wiskid (C) Sunny Nneji (D)
Sir Sina Peters (E)P Square.
14. Rhythm is the ………. (A) length of a note
value (B) movement or flow of musical sounds (C)
volume of musical sounds (D) depth of musical
instruments (E) length of musical chords.
15. ……….. is the Nigerian masked music
exponent. (A) Sunny Ade (B) Ebenezer Obey (C)
T . K . E Phillips (D)Fela Anikulapo Kuti.
(E)Lagbaja.
16. The person who leads the group of player or
singers is called ………. (A) leader (B) choir master
(C) song director (D) conductor (E) choir leader
17. The level of sound is referred to as ………….
(A) triad (B) rhythm (C) pitch (D) octave (E)
interval
18. A double bar line marks the ………… in music
(A) rest (B) sound (C) end (D) note (E) chord
19. How many crotchets are there in a dotted
minim? (A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5. (E) 6
20. The symbol which is written at the beginning
of the staff to determine the letter names of the
lines and spaces is called (A) clef (B) rest (C)
pause (D) sharp (E) natural.
21. The musical note with four tails is ……….. (A)
quaver (B) semiquaver (C)demi semi quaver (D)
minim (E) hemi demi semi quaver.
22. There are……. Musical alphabet(s) (A)1 (B)3
(C) 5 (D) 6 (E) 7.

Page 34 of 129
 JSS 3

23. “Half note” is another name for ……. (A)

quaver (B) minim (C) semibreve (D) crotchet (E)
semibreve.
24. GBDFA are the letter names of the lines of the
…… stave. (A) bass (B) treble (C) alto (D) tenor
(E) movable
25. The letter name of the third line of the treble
stave is (A) B (B) C (C) D (D) E (E) A
 The alphabetical name for Bass clef is (A) C (B) D
(C) E (D) F
(E) G
 Identify the staff which has “D” as its 3rd line (A)
Alto (B) Bass
(C) Soprano (D)
Tenor (E) Treble.
 Which of these notes has 4 beats? (A) Allabreve (B)
Crochet
(C) Minim (D) Quaver (E) Semibreve.
 Sound is produced in a trumpet by being (A) Beaten
(B) Blown
(C) Plucked (D) Shaken (E) Struck.
 Identify a crotchet note among these (A) (B)
(C) (D)
(E)
 Which of these note is called a whole note (A)
(B) (C)
(D) (E)
 Identify the accidental used to raise a pitch of a semi
tone
(A) (B) (C)
(E)
 A quarter note is known as (A) Semibreve (B)Semi
quaver
(C) Minim (D) Crochet
 The…………………….circle round the second line of
the staff and

Page 35 of 129
 JSS 3

fixes the line as “G”

(A) Bass clef (B) Alto clef (C) Treble clef
(D) Tenor clef.
 ……………………placed before a note raises it by a
semitone
(A) Sharp (B) Flat (C) Natural (D)
Rest

 A period Of silence in music is known as (A) Rhythm

(B) Rest
(C) Candence (D) Accidental.
 The sharp, flat and natural sign are know as (A)
Rhythm
(B) Accidental (C) Rest (D) Staff.
38. bass clef is alternatively known as (A) D clef (B) E
clef (C) F Clef (D) G clef.
39.Movement in music is known as (A) Sharp (B)
Flat (C) Rest (D) Rhythm .
40.Two semibreve notes added together equals to
(A) Semibreve (B) Breve (C) Seminote (D) Minim (E)
Quaver.
Provide the correct answers in this segment.
41.In conducting 4/4 time, the hand goes ……………
42. Duet is when ………. Person(s) perform together
43.The technical name of “soh” is ……….
44. Key a Major has……… sharp(s)
45.The term “forte’ means………….
46. The musical notes with a tail is known as………
47.Ekwe (slit drum) is commonly used by ……….. tribe
in Nigeria.
48. The four major voice parts are………..
49………………………. Is the technical name of “ ray”.
50.The accidental sign that decreases a note by a
semitone is…………… 51.Johann
Sebastian Bach is a composer of ……………….. period.
52.Trio means …………
53.The level of sound is referred to as ………….
Page 36 of 129
 JSS 3

54.A double bar line marks the ………… in music .

55.How many quavers are there in a dotted
crotchet?
56.The symbol which is written at the beginning of
the staff to determine the letter names is referred to
as………..
57.When a dot is placed after a note, it ………..
58………… is the technical name “fah” .
59.“whole note” is another name for …….
60.E.G.B.D.F are the letter names of the …… stave
lines.

SECTION
B
Answer any three questions in this section.
1.List and explain five music scores
2.Indicate in the stave the key signature of the
following respectively: G,D,A,E and B.
3.Draw a five octave dummy keyboard with letter
names indicated on it.
4.Give three classifications of western musical
instrument with two examples each
5.Write short notes about the following:i.pitch ii .rhythm
iii. Interval iv. Transposition v.rest.

JSS 3 MATHEMATICS FIRST TERM EXAMINATION

FIRST

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS CLASS: JSS 3
Instruction: In section A (Objective) attempt all
questions while in section B (Theory) attempt No
1 & any other 3 (Three) questions.
SECTION A

Page 37 of 129
 JSS 3

(OBJECTIVE)

 Express 38 as a number in base two. (a) 1001112 (b)

1001012 (c) 1001102 (d) 011101112.
 Simplify 16 x 102. (a) 400 (b) 40 (c) 0.04 (d)
4000
 Solve the equation 6y-2 = 32y-3. (a) 43 (b) 54
(c) -34 (d) 34.
 Five tins of milk cost N250 and 15 tins of milk
cost N750. Find the cost of 25 tins of milk. (a) N1750
(b) N12500 (c) N2500 (d) N1250.
 If T = θ + 273k, find θ if T = 400k (a) 137 (b) 237
(c) 37 (d) 273
1. Find the product of -6, 0.7 and 6 2/3 (a) 28 (b) 27
(c) 20 (d) -28
2. Which is the greatest? 567, 558, 536, 509. (a)
567 (b) 536 (c) 558 (d) 509
3. What percentage of the students were girls in a class
of 64 students and girls are 36 in number. (a)
57.35% (b) 75.0% (c) 56.25% (d) 25%.
4. Solve the equations: 2x + 30 = 14 and hence find
10x (a) -80 (b) 48 (c) -17 (d) -8.
5. The reciprocal of a certain number is 0.08. Find the
certain number. (a) 8.5 (b) 20.5
(c) 15.2 (d) 12.5.
6. Change 1001012 to base 10. (a) 37 (b) 73 (c) 36 (d)
40.
7. What number when divided by -50 will give 12? (a) -
4 (b) 600 (c) 0.25 (d) -600.
8. If a = 5b+8b-5, find the value of a when b = 2. (a) -6
(b) -5 (c) 9 (d) 7.
9. Evaluate 232 – 72, using the method of difference of
two square. (a) 529 (b) 560 (c) 460
(d) 480.
10. The reciprocal of 0.75 is? (a) 43 (b) 13 (c) 34
(d) 23 .

Page 38 of 129
 JSS 3

11. if p = q2+r2, make r the subject. (a) r = ±q2+p

(b) r = ±q2+p2
(c) r = ± q2–p2 (d) r = ± q2–p2 .
12. Calculate the value of 45 x 157 – 45 x 87. (a) -
46 (b) 65 (c) 56 (d) 194.
13. If A = 12 (a + b) h, express h in terms of A, a and
b. (a) h = A2(a+b) (b) 2Aa+b (c) h = A2a+b
(d) 12 A (a+b).
14. The product of (x + 3) and (x -3) is? (a) x2 – 6
(b) x2 + 6x – 9 (c) x2 + 6 (d) x2 – 9.
15. If 2212x = 7124, find x. (a) 18.5 (b) 24.5 (c) 12
(d) 12.2 (e) 56.
16. The product of the square root of 16 and the
square of 9 is? (a) 3240 (b) 324 (c) 1296 (d) 144.
17. Calculate the value of 212 x 125 + 212 x 114 ,
using the BODMAS. (a) 712 (b) 658 (c) 425
(d) 534.
18. Simplify 5 (p-3q) – 4 (p-2q). (a) 7q + p (b) -9p +
23q (c) p-7q (d) p-23q.
19. Factorize 9a2 – 16. (a) (3a + 4) (3a-4) (b) (3a-8)
(3a-8) (c) (4-3a) (4+3a) (d) (3a+4) (3a+4).
20. Factorize completely pq – p – q + 1. (a) (p-q)2 (b)
(1-q) (1+p) (c) (q-1) (p-1) (d) (q+1) (p+2q).
21. Which of the following is a factor of 3xw + 3xz +
yw + yz? (a) x + 3y (b) w + 3z (c) w + z (d) 3x +
3z.
22. Find the amount N500.00 will yield for 1year at 6%.
(a) N930.00 (b) N530.00 (c) N730.00 (d) N630.00.
23. Factorize the expression 1-16x2. (a) (1-8x) (1+2x)
(b) (4x-1) (4x+1) (c) (1+4x) (1-4x) (d) (4x-1) (4x-1).
24. Approximate 0.03457 to 1 Significant figure. (a) 0.0
(b) 0.03 (c) 0.0005 (d) 0.004.
25. Calculate 0.09 x 0.78 correct to 3 decimal places.
(a) 0.070 (b) 0.071 (c) 0.007 (d) 0.0702.
26. A sequence is given by the formula 3n + 2. What
term in the sequence is number 62?
(a) 15th (b) 30th (c) 20th (d) 25th
Page 39 of 129
 JSS 3

27. When 30 is added to a number the result is -18.

Find the number? (a) -38 (b) -20 (c) -48 (d) -60
28. 15cm3 of a metal weighs 127.5g. What is the
weight of 35cm3 of the same metal if the mass of
the metal is directly proportional to the volume? (a)
167.3g (b) 297.5g (c) 203.2g
(d) 132g
29. The reciprocal of a certain number is given as
0.125. Find the number? (a) 10 (b) 8 (c) 5 (d) 11
30. Correct 78532 to one significant figures (a) 79,000
(b) 78,500 (c) 80,000 (d) 78,000
31. Any number which can be expressed as a ratio of
two integers such as a/b if (b ≠ 0) is called a ……
number (a) prime (b) rational (c) natural (d)
composite

1.
3cm 5cm Find the value of x in the
figure. (a) 7cm (b) 2cm (c) 5cm
(d) 4cm
1. xcm
1. 48. It takes 8 men 20 days to harvest a maize
farm , how long would it take 32 men if they work at
the same rate? (a) 10 days (b) 18 days (c) 5 days
(d) 8 days
2. When the sum of 28 and a certain number is divided
by 5, the result is equal to treble the original
number. What is the number? (a) x=2 (b) x= 3 (c)
x=4 (d) x =5
3. 50. Simplify: 4a-(8a-5b)-(-5a+2b)+4 (a) 2a+4b-
3 (b) 6a+8b-5 (c) a+3b+4 (d) 4a-5b+6
 Expand the expression (a-9)2 (a) a2 + 18a + 81
(b) a2 – 18a – 81 (c) a2 + 18a + 8
(d) a2 -18a + 81.
 Expand the expression 5×2 (x – 4). (a) 5×2 –
20×2 (b) 20×2 – 5×3 (c) 5×3 – 20×2 (d) 20×2 +
5×3.
Page 40 of 129
 JSS 3

 Make “d” the subject of the formula in S = n/2

[ 2a + (n-1) d ] (a) d = (s-nt)/t (b) d = (2(s-
nt))/t^2 (c) d = (2(s-an))/(n(n-1)) (d) d = (2s-
2nt)/t
 If p = 2 (3q – 8), find q when p = 14. (a) 15 (b)
5 (c) 36 (d) -5.
 If (2a+5)/2a – 4/5 = 0, find a. (a) -12.5 (b) -
22.5 (c) -15.8 (d) 22.25.
 The reciprocal of 1 2/3 is? (a) 5/3 (b) 3/5 (c)
3/2 (d) (-3)/5 .
 When 27 is divided by the sum of 6 and a
certain number, the result is 3/4 . Find the
number. (a) 30 (b) 10.75 (c) 20 (d) 15.
 Solve the equation 15/(3x-1) = 5. (a) 6 (b)
1 1/3 (c) 1 3/4 (d) -1.8.
 1.54545 in 3 decimal places (a) 1.5 (b) 1.54 (c)
1.545 (d) 1.5454
 Find the square root of 36. (a) ± 6(b) 6 (c) -6
(d) 6.1
THEORY: Answer four questions. No 1 and any
other three.
1a. The sum of three numbers is 30. The middle
number is 5 less than the largest number, while the
smallest number is one-third of the largest number.
Solve for the three numbers.
1. Use long division method to solve for 1001101 ÷ 111

2a. Expand the following.

(i) (3 – 9x) (5 – 4x) (ii) (6x – 5y)2
1. Make x the subject of the formulae in each of the
following.
(i) y = 4x-15 (ii) p = 12 x2y.
3a. It takes 20 men 60 days to complete a building
work. How many days longer would it take 15 men,
assuming that they all work at the same rate?
1. Multiply: 2356 by 1436

Page 41 of 129
 JSS 3

4a. Factorise these expressions (i) x2 +20x + 19

(ii). 6x2 – 3x – 22
1. Give 2 examples of each of the following (i)
rational numbers (ii) irrational numbers (iii)
integers
2. Solve the equations.
(i) 42y-3 – 35 = 0. (ii) 314 =
122(q+2) .

4a. Convert (a) 0.6666… (b) 0.583 into rational

numbers
1. classify with reason the following into rational /
non rational
(i) 0.1259 (ii) 2 (iii) π (iv) e (v)
0.121212… (vi) 0 (vii) – 1 (viii) √11

5a. Express the following binary members as

numbers in base 10.
(i) 10111two (ii) 1101.011two.
1. Express the following to bicimals of 4b.p
(i) 19.23510 (b) 125.38510

6a. If y varies directly as the cube of x and y=125

when x=5, find: (a) formula connecting x and y (b) y
when x=2
1. According to Coulomb’s law of the force F is directly
proportional to the product of charges q and Q and
inversely proportional to the square of distance R
between the two charges. F=40 N, R=16m, q=20
Coulombs and Q= 32 Coulomb. (a) Express F in
terms of the charges and distance R (b) Find the
value of q when F=50N, R=49m and Q=40 Colombs.

BASIC TECHNOLOGY FIRST TERM EXAMINATION

JSS 3
Page 42 of 129
 JSS 3

FIRST

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: BASIC TECHNOLOGY TIME: 1HR
30MINS CLASS: JSS 3
1. _______________ is the process of splitting on cutting
wood into commercial or marketable sizes. (a) Latex
(b) synthetic (c) wood conversion (d) wood
treatment.
2. _______________ is the process of removing excess
water in wood. (a) Wood treatment (b) wood
seasoning (c) wood pressure (d) wood immersion.
3. Wood preservation is the process of prolonging the
life span of wood by applying__________(a)
Preservatives (b) latex (c) synthetic (d) glue
4. We have natural method of wood seasoning and
__________ of wood seasoning (a) Kiln method (b)
furnace method (c) heating method (d) pressure
method.
5. We have tangential sawn method, quarter sawn
method and _____________ methods of wood
conversion. (a) Tangent (b) polygon (c) plain sawn
(d) smooth sawn.
6. _____________ can be defined as excess water in wet
wood (a) mass content (b) carbon consent (c)
manmade consent (d) moisture consent.
7. Any feature that reduces the quality and market
value of timber is called___________(a) seasoning (b)
conversion (c) preservation (d) defects
8. Man – made wood products that vary in size , weight
and structure is called (a) manufactured broad (b)
synthetic broad (c) adhesive broad (d) ceramics
broad.
9. Mixture of two or more metals to forms one metal is
called(a) alloy (b) smelting (c) casting (d) iron – ore.

Page 43 of 129
 JSS 3

10. Ferrous metals contains ____________(a) latex (b)

ceramics (c) thermoset (d) iron.
11.A country with an under – developed technology
make use of _____________(a) Telephone for
communication (b) Fertilizer for farming (c) drying for
preservation of grains (d) refrigerator for preserving
grains.
12. The following are preventive maintenance, except
(a) inspection (b) adjustment (c) repair (d)
lubrication.
13. All these convert electrical energy into mechanical
energy except (a) electric blender (b) table fan (c)
ceiling fan (d) electric pressing iron.
14. Which of the following googles is used when
carrying out are welding?(a) reflective googles (b)
Plain googles (c) dark googles (d) yellow googles
15. Ceramic articles are made from _____________(a)
mud and clay only (b) cement and mud only (c)
cement and glass only (d) cement , mud and clay.
16. Which of the following is a measuring tool?(a)
scriber (b) screwdriver (c) try square (d) mallet.
17. All of these are methods of processing plastic
except (a) calendaring (b) extrusion (c) rolling (d)
vacuum forming
18._______________ is the source of all the metals (a)
iron ore (b) alloy (c) Adhesives (d) abrasives (e)
Briltienes
19. Which of the following drawing instruments is used
for drawing vertical and diagonal (inclined) lines (a)
steel (b) tee – square (c) try square (d) set square
20. The process of doing things with machine is called
(a) advanced process (b0 manual process (c0
mechanized process (d) skilled process
21. A plane is a wood work tool used for
______________(a) smoothening (b) cutting (c)
clamping (d0 filling

Page 44 of 129
 JSS 3

22. All the following are method of applying

preservatives except (a) spraying (b) painting (c)
digging (d) brushing
23. The binding agent in concretes is__________ (a)
cement (b) gravel (c) sand (d) clay.
24. A process of enlarging or reducing the size of
drawing known as_______________(a) free hand
sketching (b) isometric (c) orthographic (d) scale
drawing
25. The following are permanent methods of joining
metals except (a) bolts and nut (b) welding (c)
soldering (d) riveting
26. Which of these instrument can be found for
measuring current, voltage and resistance.(a)
voltmeter (b) multimeter (c)ammeter (d) potentio
meter
27. The following are natural defects in timber, except
(a) insect attack (b) Heart shake (c) knot (d) twist
28. The stock and the blade of a tee – -square form
angle of _______________(a) 30o (b) 60o (c)
90o (d)180o
29.Decidous trees are trees with_____________(a)flat
stem (b) needle like leaves (c)broad leaves (d) ever
green leaves
30. A process of drawing without the aid of any
instrument is called _______________(a) free hand
sketching (b) isometric drawing (c) scale drawing (d)
perspective drawing
31 Which of the following instrument s is used to
measure resistance in electric circuit?(a) ammeter (b)
hydrometer (c) ohmmeter (d) micrometer
32. The unit of current is (a) ampere (b) joules (c)
Newton (d) watts
33. E. M .F means (a) electromotive force (b) electric
movement force (c) e – mail force

Page 45 of 129
 JSS 3

34. All of the following products are made from

ceramics except (a) blocks (b) cups (c) pots (d)
table
35. The instrument used for transfer of measurements
in drawing is called (a) micrometer (b) protector (c)
divider (d) calipers
36. The tee square is used to draw _________ lines (a)
curved (b) inclined (c) vertical (d) horizontal
37. Coniferous trees are also referred to as _______(a)
bark (b) dry (c) fresh (d) soft
38. A professional that is responsible for the
preparation of building plans is _________ (a)
architect (b) Civil engineer (c) clerk of work (d)
quantity surveyor (e) structural engineer.
39. The repair work carried out when equipment has
broken down is called __________maintenance (a)
corrective (b) predictive (c) preventive (d) periodic
40. Metals are basically classified into ___ and ____(a)
ferrous ,non ferrous (b) lustrous,non-lustrous (c)
malleable , ferrous (d) sheet, base.

THEORY :Answer only three questions

Question 5 is compulsory

1a.Explain the following :

1. Wood conversion
2. Wood seasoning
3. Wood preservation
1. Differentiate between natural method and kiln
seasoning
2a.Calculate the percentage moisture content of a
sample of wood that weighs 80kg before and 50kg
after drying.
1. Differentiate between natural defects and artificial
defects.
3a. Explain the following
1. Extraction of metals
Page 46 of 129
 JSS 3

2. Smelting
3. Casting
1. Differentiate between the pinch method and the
potter’s wheel method in processing ceramics
2. Sketch and explain the uses of five workshop hard
tools.
3. Draw this isometric block.
40mm
40mm

20mm 40mm
20mm
60mm
40mm

1. _______________ is the process of splitting on cutting

wood into commercial or marketable sizes. (a) Latex
(b) synthetic (c) wood conversion (d) wood
treatment.
2. _______________ is the process of removing excess
water in wood.(a) Wood treatment (b) wood
seasoning (c) wood pressure (d) wood immersion.
3. Wood preservation is the process of prolonging the
life span of wood by applying__________(a)
Preservatives (b) latex (c) synthetic (d) glue
4. We have natural method of wood seasoning and
__________ of wood seasoning (a) Kiln method (b)
furnace method (c) heating method (d) pressure
method.
5. We have tangential sawn method, quarter sawn
method and _____________ methods of wood
conversion.(a) Tangent (b) polygon (c) plain sawn (d)
smooth sawn.
6. _____________ can be defined as excess water in wet
wood (a) mass content (b) carbon consent (c)
manmade consent (d) moisture consent.

Page 47 of 129
 JSS 3

7. Any feature that reduces the quality and market

value of timber is called___________(a) seasoning (b)
conversion (c) preservation (d) defects
8. Man – made wood products that vary in size , weight
and structure is called (a) manufactured broad (b)
synthetic broad (c) adhesive broad (d) ceramics
broad.
9. Mixture of two or more metals to forms one metal is
called(a) alloy (b) smelting (c) casting (d) iron – ore.
10. Ferrous metals contains ____________(a) latex (b)
ceramics (c) thermoset (d) iron.
11.A country with an under – developed technology
make use of _____________(a) Telephone for
communication (b) Fertilizer for farming (c) drying for
preservation of grains (d) refrigerator for preserving
grains.
12. The following are preventive maintenance ,except
(a) inspection (b) adjustment (c) repair (d)lubrication
.
13. All these convert electrical energy except (a)
electric blender (b) table fan (c) ceiling fan (d)
electric pressing iron.
14. Which of the following googles is used when
carrying out are welding?(a) reflective googles (b)
Plain googles (c) dark googles (d) yellow gooogles
15. Ceramic articles are made from _____________(a)
mud and clay only (b) cement and mud only (c)
cement and glass only (d) cement , mud and clay.
16. Which of the following is a measuring tool?(a)
scriber (b) screwdriver (c) try square (d) mallet.
17. All of these are methods of processing plastic
except (a) calendaring (b) extrusion (c) rolling (d)
vacuum forming
18._______________ is the source of all the metals (a)
iron ore (b) alloy (c) Adhesives (d) abrasives (e)
Briltienes

Page 48 of 129
 JSS 3

19. Which of the following drawing instruments is used

for drawing vertical and diagonal (inclined) lines (a)
steel (b) tee – square (c) try square (d) set square
20. The process of doing things with machine is called
(a) advanced process (b0 manual process (c0
mechanized process (d) skilled process
21. A plane is a wood work tool used for
______________(a) smoothening (b) cutting (c)
clamping (d0 filling
22. All the following are method of applying
preservatives except (a) spraying (b) painting (c)
dipping (d) brushing
23. The binding agent in concretes is__________ (a)
cement (b) gravel (c) sand (d) clay.
24.A process if enlarging or reducing the size of
drawing known as_______________(a) free hand
sketching (b) isometric (c) orthographic (d) scale
drawing
25. The following are permanent methods of joining
metals except (a)bolts and nut (b) welding (c)
soldering (d) riveting
26. Which of these instrument can be found for
measuring current , voltage and resistance.(a)
voltmeter (b) multimeter (c)ammeter (d) potentio
meter
27. The following aare natural defects in timber ,
except (a) insect attack (b) Heart shake (c) knot (d)
twist
28. The stock and the blade of a tee – -square form
angle of _______________(a) 30o (b) 60o (c)
90o (d)180o
29.Decidous trees are trees with_____________(a)flat
stem (b) needle like leaves (c)broad leaves (d) ever
green leaves
30. A process of drawing without the aid of any
instrument is called _______________(a) free hand

Page 49 of 129
 JSS 3

sketching (b) isometric drawing (c) scale drawing (d)

perspective drawing
31 Which of the following instrument s is used to
measure resistance in electric current ?(a) ammeter (b)
hydrometer (c) ohmmeter (d) micrometer
32.The unit of current is (a) ampere (b) joules (c)
newton (d) watts
33. E . M .F means (a) electromotive force (b) electric
movement force (c) e – mail force
34. All of the following products are made from
ceramics except (a) blocks (b) cups (c) pots (d)
table
35. The instrument used for transfer of measurements
in drawing is called (a) micrometer (b) protector (c)
divider (d) calipers
36. The tee square is used to draw _________ lines (a)
curved (b) inclined (c) vertical (d) horizontal
37. Ceniferous trees are also referred to as _______(a)
bark (b) dry (c) fresh (d) soft
38. A professional that is responsible

First Term Examination Agricultural Science JSS 3

First Term Lesson Notes Week 12

First Term Examination JSS 3

Agricultural Science
Time: 2 hours
Instructions: Answer all questions. Write neatly and
clearly.
Section A: Objective Questions
Choose the correct option (a, b, c, or d) for each
question.
1. Which of the following is not a method of soil
conservation?

Page 50 of 129
 JSS 3

a. Terracing
b. Mulching
c. Ploughing
d. Crop rotation
2. Which type of soil is best for growing rice?
a. Sandy soil
b. Loamy soil
c. Clay soil
d. Peaty soil
3. What is the primary purpose of irrigation in
agriculture?
a. To control pests
b. To enhance soil fertility
c. To provide water for crops
d. To prevent soil erosion
4. Which of the following is a leguminous crop?
a. Maize
b. Sorghum
c. Groundnut
d. Cassava
5. Which soil nutrient is most important for plant
growth?
a. Calcium
b. Magnesium
c. Nitrogen
d. Potassium
6. Which type of farming involves raising animals for
food and other products?
a. Horticulture
b. Aquaculture
c. Crop farming
d. Animal husbandry
7. What is the process of adding organic matter to the
soil called?
a. Fertilization
b. Composting

Page 51 of 129
 JSS 3

c. Irrigation
d. Cultivation
8. Which of the following is a common pest in
agriculture?
a. Earthworm
b. Ladybug
c. Grasshopper
d. Honeybee
9. What is the main purpose of crop rotation?
a. To improve soil structure
b. To increase crop yield
c. To reduce soil erosion
d. To control weeds
10. Which of the following practices helps in
conserving water in agriculture?
a. Overhead irrigation
b. Drip irrigation
c. Flood irrigation
d. Sprinkler irrigation
11. What is the primary source of plant nutrients?
a. Water
b. Air
c. Soil
d. Sunlight
12. Which soil type has the highest water retention
capacity?
a. Sandy soil
b. Silty soil
c. Clay soil
d. Loamy soil
13. What is the purpose of using fertilizers in
agriculture?
a. To increase soil acidity
b. To enhance plant growth
c. To reduce soil erosion
d. To kill pests

Page 52 of 129
 JSS 3

14. Which method is used to control soil erosion on

hilly terrain?
a. Contour plowing
b. Crop rotation
c. Drip irrigation
d. Mulching
15. What does mulching help to prevent?
a. Soil erosion
b. Soil compaction
c. Waterlogging
d. Soil salinity
16. Which of the following is an example of a cereal
crop?
a. Beans
b. Wheat
c. Potatoes
d. Tomatoes
17. What is the term for planting different crops in the
same field in different seasons?
a. Intercropping
b. Crop rotation
c. Monoculture
d. Agroforestry
18. Which pest control method involves using natural
predators?
a. Biological control
b. Mechanical control
c. Chemical control
d. Cultural control
19. What type of irrigation system uses tubes to
deliver water directly to plant roots?
a. Flood irrigation
b. Sprinkler irrigation
c. Drip irrigation
d. Surface irrigation
20. What is the primary benefit of using green
manure?
Page 53 of 129
 JSS 3

a. To increase soil acidity

b. To provide organic matter
c. To control pests
d. To improve water retention
21. Which type of soil is most suitable for root crops?
a. Loamy soil
b. Sandy soil
c. Clay soil
d. Silty soil
22. What is the practice of planting trees alongside
crops called?
a. Agroforestry
b. Mixed farming
c. Polyculture
d. Silviculture
23. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using
chemical fertilizers?
a. Long-term soil improvement
b. Risk of soil contamination
c. Enhanced microbial activity
d. Reduced soil erosion
24. Which of the following is not a function of soil?
a. Providing nutrients
b. Storing water
c. Producing energy
d. Supporting plant roots
25. What is the main goal of sustainable agriculture?
a. To maximize profit
b. To ensure long-term soil health
c. To use more chemical inputs
d. To increase land use
26. Which soil component helps with drainage and
aeration?
a. Sand
b. Clay
c. Silt
d. Organic matter
Page 54 of 129
 JSS 3

27. Which of the following methods helps to reduce soil

salinity?
a. Flooding
b. Soil amendment
c. Mulching
d. Crop rotation
28. What is the term for the practice of growing crops
with minimal disturbance to the soil?
a. Conventional tillage
b. No-till farming
c. Intensive farming
d. Deep plowing
29. Which of the following is a benefit of crop
diversification?
a. Increased pest damage
b. Enhanced soil fertility
c. Reduced yield stability
d. Increased soil erosion
30. What is the main purpose of soil testing?
a. To determine soil texture
b. To identify soil contaminants
c. To assess soil fertility
d. To measure soil temperature
31. Which of the following is a major cause of soil
degradation?
a. Organic farming
b. Soil conservation
c. Overgrazing
d. Cover cropping
32. What is the function of earthworms in the soil?
a. Increasing soil acidity
b. Improving soil structure
c. Controlling pests
d. Enhancing soil salinity
33. What does the term ‘pH’ refer to in soil science?
a. Soil texture
b. Soil temperature
Page 55 of 129
 JSS 3

c. Soil acidity or alkalinity

d. Soil moisture
34. Which of the following is a method of controlling
weeds?
a. Crop rotation
b. Cover cropping
c. Mulching
d. All of the above
35. What is the primary benefit of using organic
compost?
a. To increase soil pH
b. To provide plant nutrients
c. To repel insects
d. To improve drainage
36. What is the role of potassium in plants?
a. Root development
b. Leaf growth
c. Flowering and fruiting
d. Disease resistance
37. Which practice helps in conserving soil moisture?
a. Deep plowing
b. Surface mulching
c. Frequent irrigation
d. High fertilization
38. What does the term ‘agroecosystem’ refer to?
a. A natural ecosystem
b. A human-made farming system
c. A type of irrigation system
d. A type of soil
39. What is the effect of soil compaction on plant
growth?
a. Improved root penetration
b. Increased nutrient availability
c. Reduced water infiltration
d. Enhanced microbial activity
40. Which of the following is a source of organic
manure?
Page 56 of 129
 JSS 3

a. Chemical fertilizers
b. Synthetic pesticides
c. Animal dung
d. Soil amendments
41. What is the purpose of using cover crops?
a. To increase soil erosion
b. To enhance soil fertility
c. To reduce soil moisture
d. To decrease crop yield
42. Which practice helps to prevent soil erosion on
steep slopes?
a. Contour plowing
b. Flat plowing
c. Overgrazing
d. Monoculture
43. What is the term for the process of breaking down
plant material into humus?
a. Composting
b. Irrigation
c. Fertilization
d. Cultivation
44. Which of the following is not a method of pest
control?
a. Biological control
b. Mechanical control
c. Organic farming
d. Chemical control
45. What is the purpose of soil drainage systems?
a. To increase soil moisture
b. To prevent waterlogging
c. To enhance soil acidity
d. To improve soil texture
46. Which of the following practices can help in soil
fertility management?
a. Continuous cropping
b. Monoculture

Page 57 of 129
 JSS 3

c. Crop rotation
d. Overgrazing
47. What is the role of calcium in plants?
a. Leaf development
b. Root growth
c. Cell wall strength
d. Flowering
48. What type of soil is best for growing vegetables?
a. Sandy soil
b. Silty soil
c. Clay soil
d. Loamy soil
49. What is the main advantage of using drip
irrigation?
a. Uniform water distribution
b. High water wastage
c. Increased evaporation
d. High cost
50. Which of the following is a practice of organic
farming?
a. Use of synthetic fertilizers
b. Use of chemical pesticides
c. Use of green manure
d. Use of genetically modified seeds
51. What does the term ‘soil texture’ refer to?
a. Soil color
b. Soil structure
c. Proportions of sand, silt, and clay
d. Soil moisture content
52. What is the purpose of using windbreaks in
agriculture?
a. To increase wind speed
b. To prevent soil erosion
c. To improve crop yield
d. To enhance soil salinity
53. Which of the following is a benefit of using
synthetic pesticides?
Page 58 of 129
 JSS 3

a. Environmental sustainability
b. Reduced crop yield
c. Effective pest control
d. Soil health improvement
54. What is the function of magnesium in plants?
a. Photosynthesis
b. Root growth
c. Disease resistance
d. Flowering
55. Which of the following is a method of controlling
soil acidity?
a. Adding lime
b. Adding compost
c. Using pesticides
d. Increasing irrigation
56. What is the main purpose of crop breeding?
a. To increase soil fertility
b. To improve crop yield and resistance
c. To reduce soil erosion
d. To enhance water retention
57. Which practice helps in reducing soil erosion?
a. Deep plowing
b. Cover cropping
c. Overgrazing
d. Continuous cropping
58. What is the main function of nitrogen in plant
growth?
a. Root development
b. Leaf and stem growth
c. Flowering
d. Fruit development
59. What is the purpose of soil conservation practices?
a. To increase soil erosion
b. To maintain soil health and productivity
c. To reduce crop yield
d. To deplete soil nutrients

Page 59 of 129
 JSS 3

60. What does the term ‘soil fertility’ refer to?

a. Soil texture
b. Soil moisture
c. Soil nutrient content
d. Soil color
Section B: Short Answer Questions
Answer the following questions in brief.
1. Define soil erosion and mention two causes.
2. List three methods of controlling soil erosion.
3. Explain the term ‘crop rotation’ and its benefits.
4. What are the advantages of using organic manure
over chemical fertilizers?
5. Describe the importance of pest control in
agriculture.
6. Name three common types of soil and their
characteristics.
7. What is the role of nitrogen in plant growth?
8. Explain how terracing helps in soil conservation.
9. What is the purpose of weeding in crop cultivation?
10. Differentiate between irrigation and drainage.
11. What are the benefits of using green manure in
agriculture?
12. Describe the role of earthworms in soil health.
13. What is the impact of overgrazing on soil quality?
14. Explain the process of composting and its benefits.
15. What is the significance of soil pH for plant growth?
16. How does cover cropping contribute to soil fertility?
17. Define agroforestry and its advantages in
agriculture.
18. Describe the method of contour plowing and its
benefits.
19. What are the effects of soil salinity on crop
production?

Page 60 of 129
 JSS 3

20. Explain the importance of soil testing for farmers.

Section C: Essay Questions
Answer any two of the following questions in
detail.
1. Discuss the impact of soil fertility on agricultural
productivity and describe ways to improve soil
fertility.
2. Explain the different types of irrigation systems used
in agriculture and their advantages and
disadvantages.
3. Analyze the role of government policies in promoting
sustainable agricultural practices in your country.
4. Describe the effects of soil erosion on agricultural
land and discuss methods to prevent it.
5. Discuss the importance of crop rotation in
maintaining soil health and increasing crop yield.
6. Explain the concept of integrated pest management
(IPM) and its benefits in agriculture.
7. Analyze the benefits and challenges of organic
farming compared to conventional farming methods.
8. Describe the role of cover crops in soil conservation
and fertility management.
9. Explain the impact of climate change on agriculture
and discuss adaptation strategies.
10. Discuss the importance of water conservation
practices in agriculture and their effect on crop
production.

Good luck with your examination!

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.

Page 61 of 129
 JSS 3

SUBJECT: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE

CLASS: JSS 3 TIME: 2 HRS

1. The science that deals with the study of crops

and field management is called:
(a) agronomy (b) botany (c) entomology (d)
horticulture
(e) Pathology
2. Which of the following is a dicotyledonous
plant? (a) Cassava (b) pineapple (c) rice
(d) sisal (e) sugarcane
3. The most limiting factor in agricultural
production in Nigeria is. (a) Capital (b) Farm
inputs (c) farm machinery (d) labour (e) land
4. Mechanized land clearing is done by (a) bush
burning (b) caterpillar
(c) Cutlass (d) grader (e) plough
5. An advantage of commercial agriculture is that
it (a) requires small space
(b) Requires skilled labour (c) produces high
returns (d) involves low capital
(e) All of the above
6. The green revolution is an example of
government agricultural (a) extension (b)
policy (c) programme (d) regulation (e)
research
7. The Nigerian land use Act of 1978 puts the
right ownership of land on the
(a) Governor of a state (b) head of the family (c)
head of the society
(d) President of the farmers co-operative (e)
traditional rulers
8. Which of the following crops produces latex?
(a) Mango (b) Rubber (c) Citrus (d) Cassava (e)
Sisal
9. The main reason for establishing game
reserves is to prevent wild-life from (a) being
Page 62 of 129
 JSS 3

poached (b) being hunted periodically (c)

attacking tourists
(d) Becoming extinct (e) none of the above
10. The biotic factor which derives much benefit
from livestock and reduces productivity is a (a)
predator (b) parasite (c) pathogen (d) microbe
(e) Temperature
11. Which of the following groups of crops grow
best in the savanna Zone of West Africa (a)
cotton, millet and groundnut (b) cocoa, kola
and oilpalm (c) cotton, cocoa and guinea corn
(d) banana, rubber and millet (e) shea butter,
cocoa, millet
12. The different between subsidy and loan is
that subsidy (a) is a short term credit while
loan is a long term credit (b) is a medium term
credit while loan is a short term credit (c)
requires a collateral while a loan does not (d)
is not refundable (e) all of the above
13. Which of the following groups comprises oily
crops? (a) Groundnut, jute and cotton (b)
Melon, coconut and sisalhemp (c) Coconut,
cotton and sunflower
(d) Sunflower, rubber and jute (e) Oilpalm,
sunflower and millet
14. Pests of crops that feed by piercing and
sucking include the following EXCEPT: (a) stem
borers (b) aphids (c) cocoa mirids (d) cotton
stainer (e) cassava mealy bug
15. Which of these best describes land in
agriculture? (a) Free gift of nature
(b) Increase value with increase in population (c)
permanently in place
(d) Solid part of the earth’s crust (e) very
important factor of production
16. Which of the following is not a role of
government in agricultural production? (a)
Page 63 of 129
 JSS 3

provision of labour (b) provision of subsidies

(c) building of storage facilities (d) provision
of loans and credits (e) provision of loans
17. Peasant farmers sell almost all their produce
immediately after harvesting because (a)
stored produce lose their quality (b) stored
produce would be lost to pests (c) the prices
offered for stored produce are low (d) the
produce are perishable (e) there are
inadequate storage facilities
18. Which of the following is NOT an agricultural
development programme in Nigeria? (a)
Agricultural Development Project (b) Green
Revolution
(c) National Development for All (d) Operation
Feed the Nation (e) River Basin Development
Authority
19. The major aim of government’s agricultural
programmes in Nigeria include the following
EXCEPT that it (a) encourages cash crop
production (b) ensures quality control and
standards (c) fixes prices of agricultural
commodities
(d) Increases food production (e) increases the
gross domestic product
20. Fibre can be obtained from the following
EXCEPT (a) cotton (b) jute (c) kapok (d) kenaf
(e) sheabutter
21. Wastage of agricultural products during
harvesting period is due to inadequate (a)
agricultural education and extension (b)
agricultural financing (c) implementation of
government policies on agriculture (d) storage
and processing facilities (e) transport facilities
22. Which of the following systems of farming
requires an intensive use of fertilizers? (a)

Page 64 of 129
 JSS 3

Bush burning (b) Crop rotation (c) Mixed

farming
(d) Monocropping (e) Shifting cultivation
23. The provision of farm inputs to farmers by
the government can best be described as (a)
capital (b) credit (c) gift (d) loan (e) subsidy
24. Most agricultural policies do NOT benefit
rural communities because (a) oof lack of
foreign exchange to import the required
expertise (b) of poor implementation (c) there
are inadequate supply of electricity (d) they
aim at benefiting the national economy (e)
they are formulated by non-practising farmers
25. The limiting climatic factor to agricultural
production in Nigeria is
(a) Humidity (b) rainfall distribution (c) soil type
(d) temperature (e) wind
26. The nutrient used mainly for energy
production is (a) carbohydrate
(b) Carotene (c) mineral (d) protein (e) vitamin
27. Which of these crops is wind pollinated? (a)
Cassava (b) Cocoa (c) Coffee
(d) Maize (e) Rubber
28. Which of the following crops is a raw material
for the production of chocolate? (a) Avocado
pear (b) Banana (c) Cocoa (d) Coffee (e)
Kolanut
29. Which of the following is a day-neutral crop?
(a) Cocoa (b) Coffee (c) Maize
(d) Millet (e) Tomato
30. The following are fib e crops EXCEPT (a)
cotton (b) hemp (c) jute (d) rubber (e) sisal
31. Which of the following is NOT a solution to
problems of local farmers?
(a) Rehabilitation of bad roads (b) Subsidizing
crude implements (c) Practising improved

Page 65 of 129
 JSS 3

farming methods (d) Providing credit facilities by

governments
32. The main motive of the farmer in commercial
agriculture is to (a) maximize profit (b)
produce rare crop varieties (c) produce for
family consumption
(d) Increase risk
33. The land tenure system which leads to land
fragmentation is (a) freehold
(b) Inheritance (c) pledging (d) gift
34. Subsistence farming is parctised in West
Africa on land mostly acquired through (a)
pledge (b) donation (c) inheritance (d)
purchase
35. The roles of government in the development
of agriculture in Nigeria include the following
EXCEPT (a) reorganization of the rural
communities
(b) Provision of extension service (c) provision of
feeder roads
(d) Rehabilitation of feeder roads
36. The main reason for governments
enforcement of efficient quarantine laws is to
(a) check the destruction of unproductive
animals (b) attract school leavers into
agriculture (c) give grants to researchers for
agricultural problems
Best online courses
(d) Check and control the inflow of animals and
crops
37. The most important objectives of the farm
settlement scheme is to (a) supply farm tools
to farmers (b) provide subsidy for small scale
farmers
(c) Demonstrate that farming can be profitable
business (d) mechanise agriculture

Page 66 of 129
 JSS 3

38. In which of the following is land used for

agricultural purposes? (a) Forage production
(b) Recreation (c) Mining (d) Road construction
39. Which of the following climatic factor is
primarily necessary for photosynthesis in crop
plants? (a) Wind (b) Light (c) Rainfall (d)
Temperature
40. An example of a biotic factor affecting crop
or animal production is
(a) Predator (b) soil texture (c) soil structure (d)
light
THEORY
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ONLY THREE QUESTIONS
IN THIS SECTION
1a. Define Agricultural Science
1. Enumerate five important of Agriculture
2. State and explain Relationship between
Industry and Agriculture
2a. Define the term Land Tenure System
1. Discuss briefly Land Use Decree
2. In a tabular form, state six differences
between subsistence and commercial agric
3a. State five agricultural programs initiated in
Nigeria
1. Outline five ways by which non-government al
organizations have contributed to the
development of agriculture in Nigeria
2. Suggest two possible solutions to the problem
of poor marketing channel
4a. Define Land
1. Enumerate five uses of Land for agricultural
purpose
c State five factors affecting Land availability
5a. State five roles of science and technology
in agriculture provision
1. Mention one industry that uses each of the
following agricultural produce as raw material
Page 67 of 129
 JSS 3

i Cocoa ii. Rubber iii. Cotton iv.

Groundnut v. Cassava
1. Suggest two possible solutions to the problem
of inadequate finance

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
CLASS: SS 2 TIME: 2 HRS
1. The removal of excess water from the sub-soil
is known as: (a) irrigation (b) drainage (c)
evaporation (d) dehydration (e) hydration
2. The best source of farm power for agricultural
production is (a) human power (b) animal
power (c) mechanical power (d) solar power
(e) electrical power
3. The greatest disadvantage of using a bulldozer
in land clearing is that it (a) removes the
fertile top soil along with the vegetation (b)
makes the soil loose its texture (c) allows the
fast growth of weeds after clearing (d)
increases the incidence of pests (e) all of the
above
4. Which of the following equipment is not used
in farm surveying? (a) Gunters chain
(b) Measuring tape (c) Ranging pole (d) Pick axe
(e) Theodolite
5. Farm surveying is important because it
determines (a) soil fertility (b) size of farm
land
(c) Yield of crops (d) types of implements to use
(e) water level of the soil
6. If a crop is planted at a spacing of 100cm ×
50cm, calculate the plant population required

Page 68 of 129
 JSS 3

for a hectare of farm land. (a) 200 (b) 5, 000

(c) 20, 000 (d) 15, 200
7. A disadvantage of vegetatively propagated
crops is that they (a) do not mature on time
(b) are less resistant (c) do not withstand harsh
conditions (d) lodges very readily (e) B and D
8. The signs of heat in animals include the
following EXCEPT (a) red and swollen vulva
(b) Restlessness and nervousness (c) attempting
to mount other animals (d) increased appetite (e)
mucous discharge from the vulva
9. Cows should not be allowed to eat plenty of
young fresh pasture because they will
(a) develop anthrax (b) develop bloat (c) refuse
to eat concentrate (d) become infested with
worms (e) A and B
10. The recommended spacing for oil palm
cultivation is (a) 9m triangular (b) 9m × 9m (c)
12m × 12m (d) 12m triangular (e) A and B
11. The average gestation period of a sow is
______ days (a) 32 (b) 114 (c) 150 (d) 153 (e)
290
12. Whish of these is a secondary tillage
implement? (a) Chisel plough (b) Disc plough
(c) Mould board plough (e) Planters
13. The following are examples of field machine
EXPECT: (a) bulldozer (b) combined harvester
(c) milking machine (d) planter (e) sprayer
14. High temperature and pressure convert sand
stone to (a) basalt (b) quartzile (c) coal
(d) Limestone (e) biotite
15. Streak diseases of maize is caused by (a)
virus (b) nematode (c) fungus (d) bacterium
(e) protozoan
16. In the carbon cycle, atmospheric carbon (iv)
oxide is replenished by (a) respiration

Page 69 of 129
 JSS 3

(b) transpiration (c) lightning (d) dentrification

(e) A and C
17. The solidification of rock materials from a
molten mass results in the formation of (a)
coal (b) gneiss (c) granite (d) marble (e) shale
18. The following are agents of rock weathering
in the tropics EXCEPT (a) carbonation
(b) glaciations (c) hydration (d) oxidation (e)
temperature change
19. Which of the following statements describes
soil most appropriately? It is (a) composed of
fine stones and silt (b) the major part of the
ground (c) the softest part of the earth (d) the
thin layer of the earth on which plants grow
(e) the topmost cover of the earth’s surface
20. The acidity of a soil can be corrected by (a)
conservation (b) drainage (c) flocculation
(d) Irrigation (e) liming
21. Agricultural soils which are light and allow
moisture to pass through very easily are
generally (a) clayey (b) loamy (c) muddy (d)
sandy (e) silt
22. Microscopic worms living mainly in the soil
are (a) algae (b) bacteria (c) fungi
(d) Nematodes (e) viruses
23. Which of the following is NOT a macro-
nutrient? (a) Calcium (b) Iron (c) Magnesium
(d) Phosphorus (e) Potassium
24. Nitrogen is absorbed by plants in the form of
(a) ammonia (b) nitrates (c) nitrites
(d) Nitrogen dioxide (e) nitrogen oxide
25. The gradual washing away of small particles
of the surface soil is called (a) denudation
(b) Drainage (c) erosion (d) intrusion (e)
inundation
26. Which of the following is an advantage of
irrigation? (a) Accumulates salt (b) Aids weed
Page 70 of 129
 JSS 3

dispersal (c) Breeds vectors and diseases (d)

Helps to build up pest (e) Stabilizes farm
economy
27. The removal of excess water from the soil
surface is referred to as (a) drainage
(b) Evapotranspiration (c) hydration (d) irrigation
(e) transpiration
28. The plough is used on the farm for (a)
stumping and removing weeds (b) scraping
and throwing up the soil (c) scraping and
lumping soil particles together (d) harvesting
forage (e) digging up and turning over the soil
29. Which of the following farm tools can best be
used to harvest groundnuts? (a) Cutlass
(b) Go-to-hell (c) Hoe (d) Pick axe (e) Spade
30. The survey equipment used in determining
the horizontal angles between a references
medium and a desirable point is the (a) cross
staff (b) gunter’s chain (c) measuring tape
(d) Ranging pole (e) theodolite
31. Farm structures help the farmer to achieve
the following aims EXCEPT (a) improving farm
management (b) increasing farm production
(c) increasing the work of farm attendants
(d) Maximizing farm profit (e) reducing wastage
of farm produce
32. Which of the following is NOT a permanent
crop? (a) Cocoa (b) Kolanut (c) Mango (d) Oil
palm (e) Pineapple
33. The term ‘fallowing’ in agriculture means (a)
allowing cattle to graze among crops
(b) Cropping the land with cash crops only (c)
leaving the land without a crop throughout the
cropping season (d) occupying all the land with
crops (e) rotation of crops in a definite order
34. Which of the following farm operations does
NOT use electricity as a source of power?
Page 71 of 129
 JSS 3

(a) Grinding (b) Harvesting (c) Milking (d) Miling

(e) Shelling
35. Rocks formed from molten magma are known
as (a) igneous (b) metamorphic
(c) sandstone (d) schist (e) sedimentary
36. Which of the following soil types contains
particles of diameter size between 0.02mm-
2.0mm? (a) Clay (b) Gravel (c) Sand (d) silt (e)
stone
37. Which of the following is the best agent of
organic matter decomposition in the process
of soil formation? (a) Algae (b) Bacteria (c)
Fungi (d) Liverworts (e) Mosses
38. Nitrogen is supplied by rhizobium to
leguminous plants by (a) changing mineral
salts to ammonia (b) decomposing plant
remains (c) fixing atmospheric nitrogen (d)
incorporating urea into the soil (e) increasing
soil pH value
39. Which of the following is NOT an importance
of irrigation? (a) Cools the soil and the
atmosphere (b) Helps to soften the soil (c)
Makes early planting possible (d) One crop can
be cultivated twice in a year (e) Spreads
diseases and pests
40. The following can be used to drain soil
EXCEPT (a) channels (b) ditches (c) gutters
(d) porous pipes (e) sprinklers
41. Which of the following is NOT associated with
surface irrigation? (a) Check flooding
(b) Mole drain (c) Natural flooding (d) Sprinklers
irrigation (e) Tile
42. In underground drainage (a) ditches are
constructed to remove excess water (b)
ditches are dug from a source of water to the
farmland (c) furrows in which water collects
are made (d) water is pumped through
Page 72 of 129
 JSS 3

underground perforated pipes to crops (e)

Water seeps into the tiles to reach an outlet
where water is disposed
43. Which of these crops is best propagated by
budding? (a) Citrus (b) Ginger (c) Pineapple
(d) Sugar cane (e) Yam
44. The caustic organism of maize rust is (a)
bacterium (b) fungus (c) nematode (d)
protozoan (e) virus
45. The gestation period of a cow is
approximately (a) 483days (b) 423days (c)
383days
(d) 283days (e) 183days
46. Which of the following confers natural
immunity on the young animals? (a)
Administration of antibiotics (b)
Administration of drugs (c) Feeding with
colostrums (d) Sanitation of the animal’s
house (e) Vaccination of the young
47. Which of the following farm animal’s skin can
be used for leather production? (a) Cattle (b)
Duck (c) Fowl (d) Pig (e) Sheep
48. Which of the following factors is considered
the least important for the successful
incubation of eggs? (a) Light (b) Relative
humidity (c) Temperature (d) Turning of eggs
(e) Ventilation
49. When a cockerel is castrated it is called (a)
broiler (b) capon (c) cock (d) layer (e) pullet
50. Which of the following is a micro element?
(a) Calcium (b) Sulphur (c) Phosphorus
(d) Manganese
THEORY
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ONLY THREE QUESTIONS
IN THIS SECTION
1a. Define Farm Surveying b. Describe the
following surveying equipment
Page 73 of 129
 JSS 3

i Ranging pole ii Gunter’s chain

iii Prismatic compass iv Theodolite
1. Outline six factors to be considered in
selecting a site for a farmstead
2a. Define Soil b. List four
components of soil
1. State five characteristics of each of these (a)
Sandy (b) Clay (c) Loamy
3a. State four tractor-couples implements and
discuss the uses of two of the implements
1. Write short notes on each of the following (a)
Tractors, (b) Incubators (c) Sprayers
2. Define Irrigation
4a. Define Nitrogen Cycle
b. Draw the Nitrogen Cycle
1. Explain three functions of Nitrogen
5a. State five macro element and five micro
element
1. List five environmental factors affecting
agricultural production in Nigeria
2. Explain five ways in which rainfall affects agric
production

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
CLASS: SS 3 TIME: 2 HRS
1. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
subsistence Agriculture? (a) Few farmers
usually practice it (b) It is practiced where
capital is not readily available (c) The farmer
does not normally plant cash crops (d) The
farmer grows arable crops to feed self and
family (e) There is no surplus produce for sale
in the market
2. The Green revolution is an example f
government agricultural (a) extension (b)
Page 74 of 129
 JSS 3

policy (c) programme (d) regulation (e)

research
3. The communal land tenure is a system in
which (a) a farmer uses all the land in a
community to secure loan (b) members of a
community use the same land when needed (c)
members of the community are assigned
permanent titles to the land (d) the head of a
community sells or uses the land as desired (e)
the land belongs to the head of the
community
4. When a piece of land is leased to a farmer, the
land is said to be (a) allocated on rent (b)
given as a gift (c) given as subsidy (d)
inherited (e) purchased on loan
5. The Nigerian Land Use Act of 1978 puts the
right ownership of land on the (a) governor of
a state (b) head of the family (c) head of the
society (d) president of the farmers’
cooperative (e) traditional rulers
Use the diagram to answer questions 6 to 8
IV V

III II I

6. On which of the labelled parts can more

weight be added to increase soil penetration
by the implement? (a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV (e) V
7. The part that is kept in touch with the rear end
during operation is labelled (a) I (b) II (c) III (d)
IV (e) V
8. Which of the labelled structures carries out
the function of the share, coulter and mould

Page 75 of 129
 JSS 3

board in a mould board plough? (a) I (b) II (c)

III (d) IV (e) V
9. 4FeO + O2 2Fe2O3
The above equation is chemically called (a)
carbonation (b) hydration (c) hydrolysis (d)
reduction (e) oxidation
10. Fe2O3 + 3H2 O Fe2 O3.3H2 O
In this chemical reaction, haematite is
hydrated into (a) dolomite (b) iron (iv) oxide (c)
lime stone (d) limonite (e) mica
11. Which of these is a secondary rock mineral?
(a) Biotite (b) Orthoclase (c) Pyroxene (d)
Shale (e) Sodium oxide
12. What is the size fraction of coarse sand? (a)
Less than 0.002mm (b) 0.002-0.02mm (c) 0.02-
0.2mm (d) 0.2mm (e) Greater than 2.0mm
13. The soil structure in which aggregates are
arranged like a pillar is ____ structure (a)
blocky (b) crumby (c) granular (d) platy (e)
prismatic
14. The sequential arrangement f various sizes
and groups of individual soil grains in a mass
of soil from top to bottom is (a) clay, silt,, fine
sand, coarse sand, fine gravel, gravel and
stone (b) fine gravel, coarse sand, fine sand,
silt, clay, stone and gravel (c) fine sand, silt,
clay, gravel, coarse sand, fine gravel, and
stone (d) silt, clay, stone, coarse sand, fine
sand, gravel and fine gravel (e) stone, gravel,
fine gravel, coarse sand, fine sand, silt and
clay
15. Which of the following is NOT correct about
forestry land? (a) Disputed land (b)
Established in areas of sparse population (c)
Established where the rate of erosion is low
(d) May be plain and hilly (e) Must not be too
fertile
Page 76 of 129
 JSS 3

16. All these are importance of wild life EXCEPT

the provision of (a) food (b) hides and skin (c)
revenue (d) shelter (e) tourist attraction
17. Silviculture means (a) art of planting crops
and raising of flowers (b) art of planting,
tending and managing forests (c) community
of trees, associated plants and animals (d)
replanting of a forest land after felling
(e) scientific management of economic tree
plants
18. Which of these trees can be regarded as
tropical rainforest specie? (a) Cassia (b) Date
palm (c) Ebony (d) Neem (e) Shear butter
19. Deforestation increases the following EXCEPT
(a) desert encroachment (b) leaching of plant
nutrients (c) loss of organic matter (d)
moisture retention (e) soil erosion
20. To ensure continuous supply of forest
products, the following forest management
techniques are important EXCEPT (a)
afforestation (b) deforestation (c) fallowing (d)
regeneration (e) taungya system
21. Which of these is NOT a factor affecting land
availability and use? (a) Climate (b) Cultural
practices (c) Game reerve (d) Land tenure
system (e) Soil type
22. A farm-stead refers to (a) a home and
production centre (b) a storage centre for farm
products (c) the design and construction of
farm (e) the relative size and plan of farm
23. Which of these factors greatly determines
the type of vegetation prevalent in Nigeria? (a)
Rainfall (b) Sunshine (c) Temperature (d)
Topography (e) Wind
24. The Nigeria vegetation belts can be classified
into ____ and ___ zones (a) forest, savannah (b)
guinea savannah, sudan savannah (c)
Page 77 of 129
 JSS 3

mangrove swamp, fresh water swamp (d)

rainforest, mangrove forest (e) sahel
savannah, sudan savannah
25. Which of these statements is NOT true about
the influence of forests on environment? (a)
Cause local rainfall (b) Expose the soil to
erosion by rain drops (c) Increase soil fertility
(d) Purify the air (e) Reduce evaporation of
soil water
26. The taungya farming system involves
combining (a) arable cropping with forest
management (b) crop production with animal
rearing (c) fish management with forest
management (d) forest management and
animal rearing (e) livestock farming with
forest management
27. The system of combining pasture with crop
production in alternation is called (a)
intercropping (b) interplanting (c) ley farming
(d) mixed farming (e) pastoral farming
28. The system of planting of a long-season crop
first, then followed by a short season crop on
the same farm but the short season crop is
harvested first is called (a) intercropping (b)
interplanting (c) mixed cropping (d) multiple
cropping (e) rotational cropping
29. The chemical used to control damping –off is
(a) acaricide (b) fungiside (c) insecticide (d)
nematicide (e) rodenticide
30. Stemborer and leaf hopper are pests of (a)
cowpea (b) groundnut (c) maize (d) rubber (e)
yam
31. Cercospera leaf spot is a disease of (a) citrus
(b) cocoa (c) groundnuts (d) maize (e) yam
32. Which of the following is NOT a symptom of
rosette disease? (a) Internode becomes

Page 78 of 129
 JSS 3

shortened (b) Leaves curl (c) Leaves turn

yellow (d) Low yield (e) Pod becomes toxic
33. Fusarium oxysporium causes ______ disease.
(a) Bacterial blight (b) bacterial wilt (c)
fusarium blight (d) root knot (e) root rot
34. The brown spots symptom commonly
associated with fungal diseases of crops can
best be observed on (a) flowers (b) fruits (c)
internodes (d) leaves (e) stems
35. The infectious viral disease of poultry is
called (a) aspergilosis (b) coccidiosis (c) fowl
cholera (d) gunboro (e) Newcastle disease
36. A maintenance operation necessary for
availability of fish in a fish pond is (a)
construction of spill way (b) deweeding (c)
impoundment of pond (d) pond inoculation (e)
stocking of pond
37. A young rabbit is called (a) buck (b) dam (c)
doe (d) kitten (e) sire
38 The most glandular portion of the ruminant
stomach where enzymatic digestion takes place
is the (a) abomasums (b) oesophagus (c)
omasum (d) rectum (e) reticulum
39. In the ruminant stomach, the portion where
most of the microbial digestion takes place is
the (a) abomasums (b) oesophagus (c)
omasum (d) reticulum (e) rumen
40. The hormone responsible for the
development of secondary sexual
characteristics and libido in male animal is (a)
oestrogen (b) oxytocin (c) progesterone (d)
relaxing (e) testosterone
41. A mature female pig that has produced
offspring at least once is called (a) doe (b) ewe
(c) gilt (d) lamb (e) mare
42. The process of choosing animals so that they
can be used to produce future offspring is
Page 79 of 129
 JSS 3

termed (a) culling (b) dissemination (c)

identification (d) introduction (e) selection
43. A castrated male sheep is known as (a)
castrate (b) lamb (c) ram (d) steer (e) wether
44. The following are examples of bony fishes
EXCEPT (a) carp (b) herring (c) perches (d)
salmon (e) shark
45. Which of these is NOT a method of
harvesting fish? (a) Draining of ponds (b)
Drenching (c) Electrofishing (d) Impalling (e)
Trapping
46. Which of the following is NOT a requirement
for fish pond water? (a) Colourless appearance
(b) Hot temperature (c) pH of 7 9 (d) Pollution
free (e) slightly alkaline
47. Mating of animals with close genetic
relationship is termed (a) crossbreeding (b)
inbreeding (c) line breeding (d) out breeding
(e) out crossimh
48. The gestation period of a sow is _________ days
(a) 32 (b) 114 (c) 150 (d) 153 (e) 290
49. The common space into which faecal and
unrinogenital tubes open in poultry birds is
called (a) anus (b) cloaca (c) infundibulum (d)
return (e) vagina
50. Chalaza is formed in the (a) infundibulum (b)
isthmus (c) magnum (d) ovary (e) vagina
51. Vitamin E deficiency may lead to (a) dwarfism
(b) goiter (c) infertility (d) perosis
(e) rickets
52. Which of the following is not a digestive
enzymes? (a) Lactase (b) Maltase (c)
Peptidase
(d) prolactin (e) sucrose
53. A major advantage of agricultural loan is that
(a) capital is made available to farmers

Page 80 of 129
 JSS 3

(b) it enhances the social status of the farmers

(c) it is easy to obtain (d) it is interest free (e)
repayment takes many years
54. Which of the following is not a reason for
keeping livestock records? They
(a) are used for determing the number of
consumers
(b) are used for determing the profitability of
the enterprise
(c) are used to determine when to apply
vaccines
(d) can be used for rational agricultural plans
(e) provide information which can be used to
correct management lapses
55. The following are functions of a farm
manager except (a) controlling farm workers
(b) co ordinating the farm activities (c)
organizing sales of farm products
(d) planning farm programme of work (e)
planting of crops and vegetable
56. When granting loans to farmers, the credit
officer should consider mostly the ___________ of
the farmer (a) age (b) consumption needs (c)
experience (d) family size
(e) production and essential needs
57. The different between total assets and total
liabilities of a farm enterprises within a
specified period before taxation is known as
(a) current asset (b) gross profit (c) liability (d)
net profit (e) networth
58. Which of the following is the correct step in
extension teaching? (a) attention
interest Desire conviction action
satisfaction (b) attention interest
conviction desire action
satisfaction (c) interest attention
desire Conviction action
Page 81 of 129
 JSS 3

satisfaction (d) desire interest

attention conviction Action
satisfaction ( e) conviction desire
interest attention
action Satisfation
59. Agricultural extension programme would
succeed in disseminating new ideas to farmers
except if only the programme (a) involve the
support of highly trained extension specialists
(b) involves the people for which the
programme is planned (c) is based on planned
agricultural programmes (d) is based on
research tested on local condition (e) is not
kept flexible to contemporary technology
60. The fundamental objective of agricultural
extension is to improve the efficiency of
farmers by (a) enforcing modern techniques of
farming on them (b) giving them
formal education in farming (c) giving them
loan every year (d) persuading them to apply
improved methods in farming (e) training them
to become extension agents

SECTION B: THEORY
INSTRUCTIONS: ANSWER ONLY THREE
QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
1a. List six advantages of cooperative
societies
1. Enumerate four other sources of agricultural
financing apart from banks and cooperative
societies
2. List four factors of agricultural production
2a. What is “farm subsidy”?
1. Enumerate six objectives of agricultural
extension service
2. List five agencies involved in agricultural
extension programmes in Nigeria
Page 82 of 129
 JSS 3

3. Name five factors affecting the adoption of

new farming ideas and techniques
3a. Define the term land tenure system and
give four examples
1. Discuss briefly land use decree
ii State two (2) advantages and two (2)
disadvantages of the decree
4. Explain briefly four (4) of the following terms
in animal production
a oestrous cycle b heat
period c gestation period
d parturition e colostrums

5. Copy and complete this table:

Name
Crop Preventi
S/ of Pathog Sympto
affect on /
N diseas en ms
ed control
e

Cassa
va
1
mosai
c

Black
2
pod

3 Streak

4 Rosett
e
Page 83 of 129
 JSS 3

diseas
e

6a. What is crop improvement?

i State six advantages of improved crop
varieties over unimproved ones

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: AGRICULTURAL SCIENCE
CLASS: JSS 3 TIME: 2 HRS
SECTION A- OBJECTIVES
1. Which of these will not affect the buying of
rice? (a) personal (b) religion (c) social (d)
cultural
2. _____ is a disease causing organism (a)
pathogen (b) vector (c) endo-parasie (d) tick
3. The aim of advertisement is to ______ (a)
increase the cost of production (b) create
confusion in the mind of consumer (c) lead to
the loss of company product (d) increase the
sales of goods
4. A farm structure where animals are
slaughtered and butchered is known as ___ (a)
abattoir (b) slaughter slap (c) raised platform
(d) animal house
5. The price of agricultural products will be
affected by the following EXCEPT ____ (a)
transportation cost (b) seasonality of product
(c) advertisement of product (d) perish ability
of the product

Page 84 of 129
 JSS 3

6. When products are in direct contact with

packaging, it is a _______ packaging. (a) primary
(b) secondary (c) tertiary (d) universal
7. All these are agricultural products EXCEPT ____
(a) Kenaf (b) cotton (c) rubber (d) plastic
8. The removal of surplus seedling from area
sown with seed is ____ (a) mulching (b)
supplying (c) thinning (d) harvesting
9. The reproductive part of a plant is ____ (a) leaf
(b) seed (c) stem (c) flower
10. The following are farm structures EXCEPT
_____ (a) silo (b) crib (c) rhombus (d) weigh
bridge
11. Which of these animals serve as means of
transportation? (a) pig (b) goat (c) donkey (d)
sheep
12. The removal of surplus seedling from area
sown with seed is _____ (a) mulching (b)
supplying (c) thinning (d) harvesting
13. It has parallel vein leaf, fibrous root; these
are the characteristics of ____ plant. (a)
Monocotyledon (c) cocoa (d) orange
14. The reproductive part of a plant is ____ (a)
leaf (b) seed (c) stem (d) flower
15. The following are farm structures EXCEPT
_____ (a) silo (b) crib (c) rhombus (d) weigh
16. Monocotyledonous crops have the following
characteristics EXCEPT _________ (a) one seed
leaf (b) fibrous root (c) tap root (d) narrow leaf
17. ____ is the process by which green plants
manufacture their food (a0 pollination (b)
photosynthesis (c) ovulation (d) respiration
18. Which of the following farm produce is used
in the clothing industry? (a) Kenaf (b) cotton
(c) sisals (d) jute
19. Stomachs of ruminant animals are divided
into ___ chambers (a) 5 (b) 4 (c) 3 (d) 2
Page 85 of 129
 JSS 3

20. The process of making people aware of the

available agricultural products through radio,
television and newspaper is ___________ (a)
broadcasting (b) announcement (c)
advertisement (d) announcer
21. The process of deliberately keeping or
culturing bees is known as ____________ (a)
bumble bees (b) horticulture (c) ranching (d)
apiculture
22. Which of the following can damage farm
structure constructed with woods? (a)
earthworm (b) termites (c) Eel worm (d) cotton
strainers
23. All building and structures in the farms are
collectively called ____ (a) farm structure (b)
livestock building (c) farms stead (d) farm
building
24. Hunting of animals, gathering of fruits are
traced back to ________ (a) nomads (b) early
men (c) ancestor (d) Oyo empire
25. _____ and _____ are types of agriculture (a)
horticulture and monoculture (b) subsistence
and commercial (c) floriculture and silviculture
(d) horticulture and animal husbandry
26. A pepper plant that grows in a yam plot is
regarded as a ____ (a) crop (b) flower (c) weed
(d) vegetables
27. Cotton is an example of ___ crop (a)
beverages (b) cereal (c) fibre (d) latex
28. Which of the following animals is an example
of succulent feed? (a) bone meal (b) fish meal
(c) hay (d) silage
29. Which of the following animals does not feed
on hay (a) cattle (b) goat (c) horse (d) poultry
30. The separation of agricultural produce into
various sizes and qualities is referred to as ____

Page 86 of 129
 JSS 3

(a) assembling (b) bulking (c) grading (d)

packaging
31. Which of the following is not characteristics
of paper (a) it is easily torn (b) it offers no
barriers to water (c) it is a waste from
pulpwood (d) it is flexible
32. Live animals need the following for
transportation except (a) Open-top lorry (b)
Keepers to accompany them (c) feed bon deck
(d) stacking
33. Constraints to adequate packaging include
the following except (a) cost (b) choice of
materials (c) lack of knowledge about
materials (d) distance to market
34. The slatted wooden boxes for fruits allow for
(a) free circulation air (b) water to enter the
container (c) recycled (d) burnt
35. The knowledge of packaging materials is
essential because each product to be
packsged has its own (a) direction (b) shape
(c) properties (d) size
36. Which of the following is not an objective of
pricing? (a) to achieve profitability (b) to find
out if consumers will be willing to pay that
price (c) to support market position of the
producer (d) to make the market unstable
37. An increase in quantity demanded results in
(a) a decrease in price (b) an increase in price
(c) equilibrium price (d) a supply price
38. Which of the following statements does not
refer to advertisement (a0 it is a form of
marketing communication (b) it is a promotion
for agricultural product (c) it is a mean of
publicizing the success of a farm enterprises
(d) a supply price
39. The inability of a farmer to store his products
during period of high production results in (a)
Page 87 of 129
 JSS 3

low prices (b) high prices (c) changes in price

(d) prices forcast
40. Cost of production is a form of ___ in
producing a commodity (a) sales ( b)
investment n(c) distribution n(d) market
41. The perception most consumers about price-
quality relationship is that a relatively high
price is a sign of ______ (a) good quality (b) bad
quality (c) average quality (d) half baked
quality
42. Prices of agricultural products can be
expressed in the following ways except (a)
currency (b) weight (c) quality (d) degrees
43. For farmers to make profit, the cost of
production must be (a) low (b) high (c)
moderate (d) beneficial
44. Trays could be made of the following except
(a) plastic (b) metal (c) cardboards (d)
polyethylene
45. Fibres are materials needed from the
following products except (a) jute raffia (b)
sisal (c) metal

SECTION B
Answer 4 questions from this section
1. What is Agricultural Science 5mks
2. List and explain five (5) importance of
agriculture 5mks
3. Explain the following: (i) packaging (ii)
branding 6mks
4. List and explain two advantages of
packaging 2mks
5. Explain two disadvantages of
branding 2mks
6. What is advertising? 4mks
7. State and explain three form of
advertising 6mks
Page 88 of 129
 JSS 3

8. List five (5) methods of advertising 5mks

9. What is pricing 5mks
10. State and explain four (4) reasons for
packaging 5mks
11. List and explain five (5) factors of price of
agricultural products 5mks

BUSINESS STUDIES FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS

3
FIRST

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: BUSINESS STUDIES TIME:
2HRS CLASS: JSS 3
SECTION A: INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ALL THE
QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
1. Which of the following documents is issued by a
seller to the buyer whenever goods are damaged or
undercharged? (a) credit note (b) debit note (c) local
purchasing order (d) quotation
2. Which of the following books is handled by a
receptionist? (a) attendance register (b) visitors
book (c) incoming register (d) outgoing
3. An applicant seeking employment in an organisation
should direct his application
to the _______ office. (a) Accounts (b) personnel (c)
production (d) purchasing
4. Clerical duties are BEST performed in ______ (a)
company (b) market (c) ministry (d) office.
5. How many types of office do we generally have?
(a) Five (b) four (c) six (d) two.
6. The following are methods of handling information
in an office except ________ (a) leaking (b)
processing (c) receiving (d) recording
Page 89 of 129
 JSS 3

4. An advantage of sole proprietorship over other forms

of business unit is ______ (a) certificate of trading to
commence business (b) limited number of owners (c)
shares sold to the public (d) small amount of capital
to commence business
5. A form of business unit whose capital is derived
mainly from government is _____ (a) cooperative (b)
public corporation (c) partnership (d) limited liability
company
6. When thinking of setting up a small business,
attention must be paid to the following EXCEPT _____
(a) convenience to customers (b) future expansion
(c) location of business (d) nearness to bank and
post office
7. An office which is run successfully shows that every
member of staff works _____ (a) in the office (b) as a
team in the office (c) individually in the office (d) in
groups in the office
8. Which of the following is not a reward for being
truthful? (a) Bad reputation (b) good reputation (c)
promotion (d) useful suggestion
9. The person that is the sole provider of business
capital and suffers losses alone is called a _____ (a)
partner (b) salesman (c) trader (d) sole proprietor
10. Mrs Omitunde bought stationeries from a bookshop
and pays cash. The book seller will give her _____ (a)
an invoice (b) an order (c) a voucher (d) a receipt
11. The Head of the sales department is _____ (a)
purchases manager (b) sales manager (c) personnel
manager (d) chief marketer
12. An insurance policy that covers accidents on sea is
known as _____ (a) fire insurance (b) life assurance
(c) marine insurance (d) burglary insurance
13. The following are departments in an
organization except _____ (a) purchasing
department (b) sales department (c) production
department (d) organization department
Page 90 of 129
 JSS 3

14. The space allowed at the edge of a document to

make it more attractive is called _____ (a) attraction
(b) margin (c) designs (d) orientation
15. A bookkeeper must possess all the following
qualities except ______ (a) he must write clearly (b)
he must be doubtful in in calculation (c) he must be
intelligent (d) he must be accurate in calculation
16. The minimum member that you can find in
partnership business is ____ (a) two (b) four (c) seven
(d) twelve
17. Creating public awareness about the organization’s
product is the responsibility of ______ department.
(a) personnel (b) production (c) marketing (d)
purchasing
18. The book signed by the people who visit an
organisation is known as _____ (a) visitor’s book (b)
welcome book (c) office book (d) time book
19. Insurer in insurance business is the _____ (a)
insurance company (b) agent of the insured (c)
broker of the insured (d) risk giver
20. An introductory card is another name for _____ (a)
business card (b) quotation form (c) requisition form
(d) inventory form
21. A business with unlimited number of shareholders
is known as _____ (a) sole proprietor (b) private
company (c) partnership (d) public company
22. ______ type of insurance deals with stealing. (a)
burglary (b) comprehensive (c) assurance (d) third
party
23. The method of of classifying files are the
following except ________ (a) chronological (b)
geographical (c) alphabetical (d) sorting
24. Production is said to be _____ (a) changing the
forms of raw materials (b) creation of only services
(c) creation of goods (d) creation of goods and
services so as to satisfy human wants

Page 91 of 129
 JSS 3

25. One of Nigerian international seaport is in _______

(a) Onitsha (b) Kano (c) Ibadan (d) Lagos
26. Petty cash book is used to record ______ (a) bank
transaction (b) minor expenses (c) staff salary (d)
credit sales
27. A place where correspondence is received and
despatched in the office is called ______ (a)
personnel office (b) despatch office (c) registry (d)
Cash office
28. Which office machine is used to hold two or more
papers together? (a) perforator (b) stapler (c) nail (d)
office pin
29. The process whereby documents are kept for
future reference is called _____ (a) bookkeeping (b)
filing (c) banking (d) warehousing
30. The following are expected of
receptionist except _____ (a) dedication to duty (b)
politeness (c) rudeness (d) tolerance
31. Which of the following is not part of business
studies? (a) commerce (b) office practice (c)
bookkeeping (d) mathematics
32. The source document that serve as evidence that
money has been paid is _____ (a) receipt (b) debit
note (c) credit note (d) invoice
33. An office machine used to store data to bring out
information is called _____ (a) printer (b) computer
(c) typewriter (d) scanner
34. Which of these is NOT a traditional means of
communication? (a) town crier (b) telephone (c)
talking drum (d) king heralds
35. An office machine used to destroy unwanted
documents or letters in the office is called? (a)
shredding machine (b) perforator (c) computer (d)
duplication machine
36. Handwritten materials which are ready for
keyboarding are regarded as _____ (a) carbon paper
(b) waste (c) manuscript (d) material
Page 92 of 129
 JSS 3

37. Any activities in which people engaged themselves

in order to earn a living is termed _____ (a)
promotion (b) communication (c) occupation (d)
interest
38. The type of bank which aids business and
individuals in day to day transaction is called _____
bank. (a) central (b) commercial (c) development (d)
industrial
39. Aids to trade are those activities that facilitates
_______ (a) communication (b) buying and selling (c)
advertising (d) consumers
40. The mail clerk must ensure that the person who
receives the letter ______ the despatch book. (a)
tears (b) folds (c) signs (d) sorts
41. Which of the following is not a function of an
office? (a) receiving information (b) recording
information (c) assessing information (d) distorting
information
42. One of the following is the main branch of trade.
(a) home and foreign (b) home and domestic (c)
wholesale and retail (d) hawker and consumer
43. All goods returned to the supplier due to damage
are recorded in _______ (a) sales journal (b)
purchases journal (c) return inward journal (d) return
outward journal
44. The advertising media usually found on strategic
points along major roads and cities are called _____
(a) billboard (b) journals (c) newspaper (d) handbills
45. A document which contains pictorial representation
of goods for sale and their prices is called ____ (a)
invoice (b) price list (c) quotation (d) customer’s
order
46. An envelop sealing machine is most likely to be
found in _____ (a) post office (b) supermarket (c) mail
room (d) principal’s office
47. The industries that turn raw materials into finished
goods is called _____ (a) mining industries (b)
Page 93 of 129
 JSS 3

construction industries (c) coal industries (d)

manufacturing industries
SECTION B
INSTRUCTION: ANSWER ANY THREE (3)
QUESTIONS IN THIS SECTION
1. (a) What is advertising? (b) Outline
eight (8) forms of advertising media.
(c) Explain four (4) importance of advertising.
2. (a) Define transportation. (b) List and
discuss four (4) modes of transportation.
(c) With the aid of diagram, show the flow of
communication
3. (a) Explain the term “communication”.
(b) List three (3) traditional and five (5) modern
means of communication.
(c) Discuss the importance of communication
in business.
4. (a) Define business goal. (b) Explain
four (4) factors that enhances business goal.
(c) Outline four (4) importance of business
goal.
5. (a) Differentiate between consumer awareness
and consumer protection.
(b) Explain four (4) importance of consumer
protection.
(c) List five (5) benefits of lodging complaints.

CULTURAL AND CREATIVE ART FIRST TERM

EXAMINATION JSS 3
Online art courses
FIRST TERM
Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of
the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: CREATIVE AND CULTURAL ARTS CLASS:
JSS 3 TIME APPROVED: 1HR 30MINS

Page 94 of 129
 JSS 3

Section A (answer all questions from this section)

1) Which of these art materials is in one colour a)
Colour b) Crayon c) Charcoal d) Chalk.
2) Motif is _______ a) A unit or singular part of a design
b) dominant theme in art. c).
Main colour used in Textile d) Harmony.
3) The most important function of a poster is to
________ a) Show picture on board b) Show
directional c) Communicate some information to the
public c) Show direction to
read users d) Advertise shoe & bag.
4) Pots are fired in______ a) an oven b) a furnaces c).
a kiln. d). The Kitchen.
5) Which of these elements of art stimulate the sense
of touch. a). Line. b). Colour. c).
Form. d). Texture.
6) Drama is a part of performing art that deals with
_______ a)Sound and body movement.
1. b) Sleeping &performing. c). Drumming & dancing d)
Drawing & painting.
7) The following are materials for crocheting EXCEPT
________ a). Ball of wool. b) A tape
measure c).Crochet hook d) Caustic soda.
8) Another name for ABSTRACT ART is ________ a).
Regular shapes b). Nonrepresentational
shapes c). Geometric shapes d). Nonfigurative
shapes.
9) The painting of sea and ocean is known as _________
a). Landscape. b). Ocean scape c)
Seascape. d). River scape.
10) Another name for calligraphy is ____________ a)
typeface b). Pen lettering. c). Handwriting.
d). Hieroglyphics.
11) What category of people is called artist a)
Everybody b) Painters and sculpture c) Nobody at all
1. d) Creative writers only.

Page 95 of 129
 JSS 3

12) The letters that represent the musical note are

_____ a) First 10 letters b) First 4 letters c)
First 7 letters d) First 12 letters
13) A branch of Art that is connected with appealing to
man’s sense of beauty and emotion is
______a) Graphics art b) Applied art c)Fine art d)
Literary art
14) The following are example of crafts products
EXCEPT ______ a) Embroidery b) Drawing c).
Basket d). Cane chair.
15) A large hall where art works are display and sold to
the public is called _____ a) Studio b)
Museum c) Gallery d) Market.
16) Educative is one of the function of _____ a). Drama
b). Music c). Drawing d). Dance.
17) The study of cultural and creative art deals with .
a) Animals b) Teaching c) Painting d) Humans.
18) The early man wrote and drew on ______a ) His
palm b). Paper c). Outside his cave d). At the
wall of his cave.
19) Letters can be classified into______ a). Romans and
Gothic b). Egyptian and Romans c). Block
and Scripts d). Cap and low.
20) Both capital and small letters are otherwise known
as______ respectively. a). Long and short
case b). Oriental and continental c). Upper and lower
case d). Bold & narrow.
21) Good spellings is essential in lettering for ________
a). Structure design b). Economy of paper
c). Judicious use of space d) Legibility.
22) The oldest of all Cultural art in Nigeria is ______a).
Nok b). Benin c). Ife d). Igbo-ukwu.
23) The method by which fabric are decorated with
thread is _______ a). Stitches b). Knitting c)
Embroidery d). Macramé.
24) Which of the following is an example of
complementary colour? ______ a). Blue & purple b)
Page 96 of 129
 JSS 3

Yellow & purple c). Red& yellow d) Red & purple.

25) A drawing which a human being poses for an artist
to draw is called ________ drawing a)
Nature b). Posing c). Life d). Still life.
26) Water colour painting is best rendered with________
a). Marker b). Sable brush c). Painting
brush d). Bristle brush.
27) If one primary colour is mixed with one secondary
colour , it forms _______ colour a). Tried
b). Tertiary c). Complementary _d). Monochrome.
28) What material is best in painting? a). Clay. b).
Water c). Oil. d). Colour.
29) _______ lettering are drawn or constructed. a). Pen
lettering. b). Script lettering d)
Block lettering d) Constructed.
30) The drawing of house utensils is called ______ a).
General drawing. b). Still life
drawing. c). Nature drawing. d). Life drawing.
31) The arrangement of colour on a chart is called
___________ a). Colour wheel. b)
Format. c). Shapes of colour. d). Sphere.
32) Embroidery is made on __________ a) Drawing
board. b) Leather c) Canvas d)
Cloth.
33) The symbol of Sango deity is identified with ______
a) Cutlass. b). Hammer. c). Axe d). Rod.
34) An artist who either models an object or carves
wood is called a ________ a). Curator. b)
Sculptor. c) Module. d) Carpenter.
35) An object placed in a way to see the top is
_________ a) Below the eye level b) On the eye
level c) Beside the eye level d) Above the eye level.
36) Reading, movement , acting and expression are
the activities involved in ______ a)
Playing b) Rehearsal c) Singing d) drama.
37) Which of the following is not a painter’s tool. a).
Brush. b). Pallet c) colour. d) Squeegee.
Page 97 of 129
 JSS 3

38) Which of the following is associated with BATIK. a)

Developer b) Tool c) Thread d)
Wax.
39) Paper Marche is a medium for _____ a) Sculpture
b). Painting. c). Construction. d) Drama.
40) Canvas is mostly used in _______ a) Textile b)
Ceramics c) Sculpture d) Painting.
41) Soap stone carvings were discovered in the
following towns in Nigeria a) Ekoi and Esie b) Ife
and Benin c) Ibadan and Ogoja d) Lagos and Jos.
42) Nature drawing refers to _______a) Drawing of
Table b) Drawing of Land c)Plant and animal
drawing d) Person drawing.
43) The art of Modelling and Carving is known as
_______ a) Graphics b) Ceramics c) Drawing
d0 Sculpture.
44) _______ is used to preserve wet clay. a) Basket b)
Plate c) Polythene d) Paper.
45) Clay is to sculpture as Chisel is to _______ a)
Drawing b) Sculpture c) Painting d) Drama.
46) _____ and _______ are the main types of
Perspective. a) Linear and Upper b) Angular
and parallel c) Linear and Arial d) Angular and
Horizontal.
47) Carving involves a) Adding b) Chipping and Adding
c) Subtracting d) None of the above.
48) The pre-historic people lived in ______ a) House b)
Store c) Hot d) cave.
49) The word CRAFT simply means _______ a) Portraite
b) Hand work c) Machine product
d)Industrial arts.
50) Ife Art culture is located in ____ state. a)Oyo state
b) Osun state c) Ogun state d) Ibadan.
51) Aina Onabolu was born in which year? A) 1890 b)
1882 c) 1950 d) 1960.

Page 98 of 129
 JSS 3

52) The earliest form of music was ____ a) Nature base

b) Drum base c) Sound base d) Record.
53) Theatre Design is otherwise known as ______ a)
Beauty De) sign b) Photo Design c)

Scenography Design d) Light Design.

54) _____ is the movement of human body, typically
and rhythmic to a musical sound a) Music b)
Sound c) Drama d) Dance.
55) Classical music is rooted in a country called ____ a)
Egypt b) Rome c) Greece d) Nigeria
56) All of these are the component of colour EXCEPT a)
Hue b) Water c) Intensity d) Value.
57) In psychology self control is sometimes called _____
a) Self- regulation b) self confidence c)
Self control d) self evaluation.
58) Which of the following is not a drawing
instrument ?a) Charcoal b) squeegee c) Pen d) Pencil.
59) An object placed in a way to see the top is
_________ a) Below the eye level b) On the eye
level c) Beside the eye level d) Above the eye level.
60) A large hall where art works are display and sold
to the public is called _____ a) Studio b)
Museum c) Gallery d) Market.

Section B (answer 3 questions only)

1) What is Paper Mache

1. b) Explain the process involved in tie dye.

2) List and explain any two types of motifs.

1. b) List any five (5) materials needed for knitting and

crocheting.
3) Define Art Terminologies ?
1. b) Discuss any three way of generating income
through arts.
Page 99 of 129
 JSS 3

4) Construct any 10 ten letters of alphabet.

1. b) List five contemporary Nigerian Artist with their
areas of specialization.
5) Define the concept of Dance.
1. b) Explain any two activities involved in rehearsal.

CIVIC EDUCATION FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS

3
FIRST
Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of
the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: CIVIC EDUCATION TIME:
2HRS CLASS: JSS 3
1. Negative behavior simply means? (a) unjustifiable
behaviors (b) social unacceptable behavior (c) social
unpopular behavior (d) socially accepted behavior
2. Census figure can be used for all the following
except (a) knowing a country population size (b)
planning for the budget (c) knowing the number of a
political party (d) getting aids from international
bodies.
3. All these are principle of rule of law except (a)
principle of a partiality (b) principle of fair hearing (c)
principle of supremacy of the law (d) principle of
right to appeal
4. Human right are normally entrenched in the (a)
political party manifestos (b) constitution (c)
pressure group (d) law report
5. Positive behavior can be encouraged by (a) stealing
public funds (b) rigging elections (c) displaying good
leadership (d) promoting materialism
6. An official trained purposely to count the number of
people during population census is (a) counter (b)
countillor (c) demophy (d) demographer

Page 100 of 129

 JSS 3

7. One of the consequences of lack of cooperation is

(a) conflict (b) oneness(c) understanding (d)
progress
8. The act of doing the same thing without changing is
called (a) integrity (b) commitment (c) consistency
(d) trust.
9. Which of these creates sense of belonging in a
team? (a) Sharing of ideas (b)Selfishness (c) Caring
for each team member (d) Hiding of information
10. Which of these is not a citizen’s right in Nigeria? (a)
Right to life, (b) Right to fair hearing (c) Right to vote
(d) Right to infringe other people’s rights
11. Working together to achieve a common goal for
the good of everyone is also known as (a) Team
work (b) Team spirit (c) Togetherness (d)
Cooperation.
12. Which of these is not true about values? (a) they
dictate our behavior to others (b) they influence our
goals in life (c) they makes us unhappy and
unfulfilled (d) they promotes good relationship in
the society
13. Right to vote during the election is a (a) civil right
(b) voting right (c) democratic right (d) election right
14. Trust is associated with (a) confidence (b) integrity
(c) love (d) religion
15. Which of these is not a negative behavior n(a)
Bunkering (b) forgery (c) African time mentality (d)
Transparency.
16. Dishonesty is manifested through the following
except (a) Impersonation (b) Examination
malpractice (c) constructively criticizing government
(d) Embezzlement of public funds.
17. One of these is a characteristic of honesty (a)
Fraudulence (b) Truthfulness (c) Disloyalty (d) Love
of money.

Page 101 of 129

 JSS 3

18. Which of these is very important for cooperation in

the society (a) Selfishness (b) Unity (c) Dishonesty
(d) Love of money.
19. Which of these is a form of dishonesty? (a) Fighting
in the public (b) Cheating in examination (c)
Disobedience to parents. (d) Failure to help others.
20. The rule of law can be strengthened through (a)
Independence of judiciary (b) High cost of litigation
(c) prolonged prosecution of offenders (d) Immunity
clause in the constitution
21. Relationship can end due to all these except (a)
Death of partner (b) Separation (c) Divorce (d)
Unconditional love.
22. All these are attributes of right attitude to work
except (a) punctuality (b) Commitment (c) Regularity
(d) Independent of judiciary.
23. All these would help in making the rule of law to
work except (a) Fair trial of suspects (b) practice of
separation of power (c) Delayed justice (d)
Independent of judiciary.
24. All these show lack of modesty except (a)
Flamboyant dressing (b) Extravagant life style (c)
Love for one in town mansions (d) Simple lifestyle.
25. A follower who obeys the law made by the leader
for the good of the society is showing the trait of: (a)
Diligence (b) commitment (c) Loyalty (d) Obedience.
26. Which of these is not a method of protecting
human rights? (a) Media coverage (b) Protest match
(c) Hunger strike (d) Street riots.
27. Which of these indicates the true practice of rule of
law in a democratic setting? (a) Independent of the
judiciary (b) Violation of human rights (c) Arbitrary
arrest of opposition party members (d) Non
existence of separation of power.
28. All these are associated with honesty except (a)
Fair of God (b) Loyalty (c) Being reliable (d) Misuse
of funds.
Page 102 of 129
 JSS 3

29. Loving our nation more than other nation is termed

(a) Nepotism (b) Patriotism (c) Fraternity (d)
Favouritism.
30. All these are positive values except (a) Probity (b)
Transparency (c) Conspiracy d) diligence
31.The South Eastern part of Nigeria is occupied
by(A)Hausa(B)Fulani(C)Igbo(D)Yoruba
32.The upper chamber of the legislature at the Federal
level is the(A)House of Assembly(B)House of
Representatives(C)House of common(D)Senate
33.The House of Representatives of Nigeria is made up
of how many members?(A)360(B)109(C)774(D)469
34.The rule of law is also known
as(A)Constitution(B)The judiciary(C)Supremacy of the
law(D)Law abiding
35.How many local government council do we have in
Nigeria?(A)770(B)774(C)744(D)747
36.Lord Lugard amalgamated the Northern and
Southern protectorates of Nigeria
in(A)1940(B)1963(C)1914(D)1917
37.Nigeria became a Republic
in(A)1960(B)1961(C)1962(D)1963
38.A programme and policies of a political party is
called(A)Manifesto(B)Campaign(C)Publicity(D)Rally
39.Which of the following is an obligation of a citizen?
(A)Adjudicating cases(B)Arresting offenders(C)Making
law(D)Voting during election
40.The green colour in the traffic light indicates(A)Be
fast(B)Get ready(C)Go(D)Stop
41.One of the the agencies that ensures obedience to
traffic regulation in Nigeria
is(A)FRSC(B)NAFDAC(C)NDLEA(D)ICPC
42.The Nigeria National flag was designed by(A)Tafawa
Balewa(B)Ernest Shonekan(C)Taiwo Akinkunmi(D)Wole
Soyinka
43…………………. is the last hope of the common
man(A)Executive(B)Legislature(C)Judiciary(D)Press
Page 103 of 129
 JSS 3

44.The Yoruba states in Nigeria belong to which geo-

political zone(A)South South(B)South East(C)South
West(D)North West
45.Good value system can be promoted
through(A)Nepotism(B)Fairness(C)Favouritism(D)Tribali
sm
46.The lower chamber of the Federal legislature is
headed by
a(A)Speaker(B)President(C)Senator(D)Commissioner
47.The Federal Capital Territory(FCT)Abuja has how
many Representative(s)in the upper chamber
legislature in Nigeria(A)One(B)Two(C)Three(D)Four
48.Voter’s registration exercise is normally conducted
by(A)Pressure group(B)Voters registration
agency(C)Political parties(D)An electoral commission
49.The rule of law can be strengthen
through(A)Independence of the judiciary(B)High cost of
litigation(C)Prolonged prosecution of
offenders(D)Immunity clause in the constitution
50.All these are attributes of right attitude to work
except(A)Punctuality(B)Commitment(C)Regularity(D)Inc
onstituency
THEORY
ATTEMPTS ONLY 3 QUESTIONS
1. Define right attitudes to work.
2. State five rewards of right attitude to work.
3. Highlight five consequences of not having the right
attitude to work.
4. State five attributes of the right attitude to work.
5. What is negative behavior?
6. List five effects of negative behavior on the
society
7. Define population census
8. State five importance of national population
census
9. Write short note on the following

Page 104 of 129

 JSS 3

10. Rule of law b. Human rights c. Teaming d.

Collaboration

SOCIAL STUDIES FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3

FIRST
TERM

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
Subject: SOCIAL STUDIES Duration:
2HRS Class: JSS 3
SECTION A
Instruction: Answer all question in this section
1. The group of people related by blood is called……..
A. Family B. Organization C. Member D. Father
2. The process by which government sells its shares in
companies to individual and group is……… A.
Commercialization B. Deregulation C. Import Trade
D. Privatization
3. The buying and selling of goods and service in order
to satisfy human want is called? A. Farming B.
Manufacturing C. Marketing D. Trading
4. The two system of Farming are ……… A. Livestock
and Arable farming B. Mixed and dairy farming C.
Poultry and Fishing farming D. Tradition and
Mechanized farming
5. The conflict between Modakeke and Ife is………..
Type of conflict. A. Inter Communal B. Inter nation
C. Inter Ethnic D. International
6. ………… refer to the connection that exist between
individual and group of society A. Community
member B. Social environment C. Social organization
D. Organization society
Page 105 of 129
 JSS 3

7. The type of marriage performed according to the

tradition and custom of group of people is ………….
Marriage. A. Court B. Customary C. Religion D.
Securities
8. The method of storing things in a refrigerator is
known as ………. A. Killing B. Smoking C. Salting D.
refrigeration
9. One of the following is NOT a primary role of the
family? A. Ensure continued existence of the
community B. Involve in child trafficking C. Provide
for the need of Family D. Take care of the young
ones
10. A person is said to be a ……… when he cannot live
without a particular drug of substance. A. Drug
abuse B. Drug baron C. Drug addict D. Drug
trafficking
11. The habit of self medication is ……….. A. Drug
abuse B. Drug baron C. Drug addict D. Drug
trafficking
12. A place where teaching and learning takes place
called ………. A. Hospital B. Kitchen C. Market D.
School
13. ………. Is a low land between two hills? A. Delta B.
Hill C. Lake D. Valley
14. There are ……… and ………. Classification of
settlement. A. region and urban B. remote and rural
C. rural and rural D. rural and urban
15. Cotton is common in which of these States? A.
Delta B. Enugu C. Kano D. Oyo
16. A situation in which a woman has more than one
husband is …………… A. endogamy B. monogamy C.
polyandry D. polygamy
17. Love, loyal and willingness to serve one’s country
is called…….. A. bravery B. Citizenship C. Patriotism
D. Warmth

Page 106 of 129

 JSS 3

18. ………….. Is the major reason for the amalgamation

of southern and northern Nigeria. A Coat of Arm B.
National Anthem C. National Flag D. National pledge
19. ………….. Is an emblem which shows the unity of
the country and stands for authority and powers?
A. Formal and Informal education B. Junior and
Senior School C. Primary and Secondary School D. 6-
3-3-4 and 6-5-4
20. There are ……… types of environment. A. One B.
Two C. Three D. Four
21. Friendship could be defined as…….. A. a state of
being cruel to others B. a state of being emotionally
attached to someone you like C. a state of fighting
one another D. a state of loving one only things are
good
22. A saying that “culture is dynamic” means ……… A.
Culture has a lot of powers B. Culture is a kind of
dynamism C. Culture does not remain the same D.
Culture and Dynamism are related
23. We can prevent HIV/AID by ……… A. Eating
balance diet B. Not playing together C. Sharing
sharp object D. Use of screened blood
24. ……………. Is a way of improving friendship? A.
Disagreeing with each other B. Exchange of gifts C.
Making trouble D. Quarreling
25. The following factors could destroy friendship
EXCEPT…….. A. Betrayal of trust B. Gossiping C.
Honesty D. Selfishness
26. Permanent separation of husband and wife is
called……… A. Companionship B. Divorce C.
Monogamy D. Polygamy
27. The following are sources of population data
EXCEPT……. A. Birth rate B. Census C. Death rate D.
Wealth rate
28. Agents of socialization does not include ………. A.
Mass Media B. Peer Group C. Police D. Religion
Institution
Page 107 of 129
 JSS 3

29. The institution responsible for the teaching of value

and moral in our society is the ………. Institution A.
economic B. political C. legal D. religious
30. The Nigeria economy is dominated by the export of
……… product. A. chemical B. crude oil C.
agriculture D. engineering
31. The process by which a child acquires language
value and belief is known as. A. specialization B.
integration C. socialization D. civilization
32. Which of the following option shows similarity in
our religion? A. Unity B. Holy land C. Symbols D.
Mode of worships
33. From the option below, indicate one advantage of
a mono company. A. Diversification B.
Deregulation C. Industrialization D. Specialization
34. Chose from the following one that is NOT a main
economic activity. A. Industry B. Education C.
Export D. Farming
35. From the alternative, select one skill necessary
when seeking help. A. Passiveness B. Manipulation
C. Assertiveness D. Shyness
36. Identify from the underlisted, one that is NOT an
effect of gender stereotype. A. Kill initiative B.
Promote gender equally C. Cam limit achievement D.
Encourage unnecessary rivalry
37. Chose from the alternative three voluntary
organizations found in schools. A. Newspaper B.
Internet C. Face book D. Talking Drum
38. Indicate from the alternative three voluntary
organizations found in schools. A. Girls guide,
Rotary club, Inner Wheel B. Boys brigade, Girls
Brigade and Red cross C. Man O’ war, Pirates, and
Sheriff guards D. Red cross, Boys scout and Black
axe
39. The Ibibio in the south-south region of Nigeria call
God……. A. Osalobua B. Tamara C. Oghene D.
Abasi
Page 108 of 129
 JSS 3

40. Chose from the following one that is NOT a

characteristic of a goods goal. A. Achievable B.
Measurable C. No time limit D. Realistic
41. Living peacefully with people of different religion is
called religious….. A. tolerance B. difference C.
Intolerance D. faith
42. Kin relationship that could be traced to father
lineage is known as………. A. partridge B. lineage C.
partlineal D. percentage
43. From the following, indicate one that is NOT a
challenge in Marriage. A. Death B. Faithfulness C.
Quarrels D. Separation.
44. Which of the following is NOT one of the causes of
corruption? A. poverty B. insecurity C. greed D.
contentment
45. Taking drugs more than the prescribed dosage is a
form of …….. Abuse. A. stimulant B. substance C.
drug D. medical
46. Indicate from the underlisted one that is NOT a
function of marriage. A. Security B. Companionship
C. Procreation D. Share of love
47. Select from the underlisted one that is NOT a
characteristic of a secondary social group. A. They
are linked by occupation B. Belong to the, same
family D. Relate intimately with each other
48. A marriage between people of the different ethnic
group is called……..marriage. A. Inter-ethnic B.
inter-states C. different language D. inter tribal
49. All these are dangers for abusing drugs
EXCEPT…….. A. brain damage B. rejection from
family C. health problem D. academic progress
50. Select from the alternative provide, one advantage
of inter-ethnic marriage. A. Promote inter-ethnic
segregation B. interfere with ethnic identity C.
Eliminate ethnic D. Encourage tribalism
51. Chose from the following, one reason why a man is
referred to as a social animal. A. He learn social
Page 109 of 129
 JSS 3

studies B. Man lives in a community C. He acquires

wealth D. He interact with others
52. From the option, identify one document that
guarantee the right of citizen. A. National passport
B. Birth certificate C. Constitution D. National ID card
53. The judgment a person makes of him/herself best
describes…… A. Self esteem B. Decision making C.
Values D. Negotiation
54. From the various ways we express ourselves, pick
out one of the most appropriate from the option
listed. A. Passiveness B. Assertiveness C.
Aggressiveness D. Manipulation
55. From the options, select ways of encouraging
members of the school community. A. Loyalty and
respect B. Discipline and cooperation C. Reward and
Award D. Acceptance and Responsibilities
56. Marriage ceremony based on the law and custom
of the bride is known as…………marriage A.
Customary B. Traditional C. Ordinance D. Religious
57. Choose from option provided the best way to
determine the population a country. A. Voting B.
Registration C. Election D. Census
58. Indicate from the following strategy for achieving
global cooperation. A. Bilateral and multilateral
agreement B. Economic Dependence C. Control of
less developed countries D. Use of Interpol to harass
less developed state.
59. The smallest social unit is ____(a) family (v)
marriage (c) cult (d) group
60. The legal union between a man and a woman to
become husband and wife is know as _____(a)
marriage (b) courtship (c) relationship (d) friendship.
61. Which of these is not a factor responsible for
children and women trafficking in Nigeria
(a) Poverty (b) Greed (c) increase in family value
(d) Ignorance (e) Low value of money

Page 110 of 129

 JSS 3

62. How can one prevent human trafficking?

(a) people should be enligthened on the evil effect of
the act (b) people must be sent to school to know
more about the business (c) law enforcement
personnel must know those involved in the
trafficking (d) job should be created for the
traffickers (e) citizen should
embrace trafficking
63. All are harmful traditional practices except
(a) Female Genital mutilation (b) Late Marriage (c)
son preference (d) widowhood practices (e) killing
of twins
64. One of the basic units of population is
________ (a)
Family (b) agriculture (c) Education (d) house
(e) International trade
65. The factors that are responsible for population
growth are one of the following EXCEPT
(a) birth rate (b) death rate (c) migration (d) per
capital income (\e) immigration
66. The following are the factors that affects high
population EXCEPT
(a) increase in crime rate (b) insufficient food (c)
unemployment (d) inadequate housing (e) high
rate of job opportunities
67. One of the problem of low population growth is
______ (a) inadequate labour
force (b) improved technology and agriculture (c)
rapid development (d) enough money to share (e)
adequate infrastructure
68. What is the objective of family life education
(a) to teach youths how to get married (b) to teach
youth how to make quick money (c) to teach
youth about human development and personal skills
(d) to give youths formal education
69. All are core messages of family life education
EXCEPT (a) human
Page 111 of 129
 JSS 3

development (b) acquisition of personal skills (c)

gender issue and their effect (d) man and his
environment
70. In 1953, Nigeria’s population was put at _______
(a) 40 million (b) 31 million (c) 10 million (d) 50
million (e) 140 million
71. The type of population census in which the officials
only count those who is physically present is _____
(a) auto population census (b) democratic
population census (c) defacto population census
(d) Dejure population census (e) Data Capture
Population census
72. Why do we carry out census?
(a) to know the number of people in the country (b)
to know the physical environment (c) to know
what to export to other countries (d) to know the
number of males in the country
73. The act of love, loyalty and support, one gives to
his country is called________
(a) communism (b) loyalty (c) nationalism (d)
patriotism (e) sectionalism
74. Which of the following is NOT a good condition of
living in a community ? (a) adaption (b)
Cooperation (c) Interaction (d) Intimidation (e)
obedience
75. A group of people living together within a given
area of land is called _______
(a) class (b) community (c) company (d) Crowd
(e) Family
76. The process by which legally contracted marriage
is terminated by a court of law is called (a)
abolition (b) agreement (c) divorce (d) marriage
(e) separation
77. The system of government used by the British in
Nigeria is known as

Page 112 of 129

 JSS 3

(a) association (b) assimilation (c) Indirect rule

(d) parliamentary (e) President
78. The following are the duties of followers EXCEPT
(a) cooperation (b) dedication (c) diligence (d)
disobedience (e) loyalty
79. Which of the following countries has the highest
population in the world?
(a) China (b) South Africa (c) Nigeria (d) Russia
(e) U.S.A
80. The biggest hydro-electric power station in Nigeria
is located at (a) Egbin
(b) Jebba (c) Kaduna (d) Kainji (e) Shiroro
81. The first school in life is the
______ (a) class (b)
church (c) home (d) market (e) Mosque
82. The sharing of information with many people in
many places with the aid of machines is known as
(a) mass communication (b) micro tall radio (c)
telephone (d) btelex (e) telegram
83. The science that deals with population studies is
_______ (a)
demography (b) geography (c) mathematics (d)
sociology (e) statistics
84. Which of the following mineral resources gives
Nigeria the highest foreign exchange
(a) Tin (b) Coal (c) crude oil (d) iron ore (e)
manganese
85. Which of the following is NOT a Nigeria ethnic
group (a) Ijebu (b) Hamite
(c) Itsekiri (d) Jukun (e) Nupe
86. In a democratic era, a leader emerges
mostly (a) decree (b)
election (c) personality (d) royal blood (e) wealth
87. Which of the following symbols is NOT common to
Nigeria (a) National anthem
(b) Nigerian Coat of arms (c) National flag (d)
National Pledge (e) National religion
Page 113 of 129
 JSS 3

88. In what year was the National Youth Service Corps

established? (a) 1971 (b)
1972 (c) 1973 (d) 1974 (e) 1975
89. The type of marriage where a woman marries two
or more husbands is called _______- (a)
hexogamy (b) mongamy (c) polyandry (d)
polygamy (e) waxogamy
90. Leaders and followers should work hand in hand to
achieve the _____ goals of their community. (a)
average (b) common (c) personal (d) political
(e) selfish
91. It rains most in Nigeria in the
(a) North-central (b) North-west (c) South-south
(d) South-east (e) South-West
92. ________ is the definition of Peace
(a) a situation where there is no physical violence,
conflict or war (b) A situation where there is
physical violence, conflict and war (c) A situation
where everybody does whatever he likes (d) A
situation where there is no government.
93. Peace brings all lof these EXCEPT (a)
development (b) peaceful coexistence (c)
integration (d) selfishness
94. How can we promote Peace in Nigeria?(a) By
providing unequal opportunities for all (b) By
providing equal opportunities for all (c) By not
respecting human dignity (d)By allowing
intolerance
95. What is an open conflict. (a) It is a conflict that
leads to war fight etc (b) It is a conflict that does
not come into the open (c) It is struggle for position
or wealth (d) It is conflict over beliefs, values and
morals
96. Which of the following is NOT a type of
conflict? (a) Violent conflict

Page 114 of 129

 JSS 3

(b) non-violent conflict (c) direct conflict (d)

personal conflict
97. These are causes of conflict EXCEPT (a) the desire
to become very rich (b) political factor (c) order
lines (d) aggressiveness
98. Which of the following is NOT acquired during the
process of socialization?
(a) Attitude (b) knowledge (c) Riches (d) Skill
(e) Values
99. The pattern of group behaviour can be changed for
better through ___z
(a) enrichment of the group (b) exemplary
leadership (c) hard punishment for offenders (d)
increase in group membership (e) stratification of
the society
100. Voyage refers to travelling by
__________ (a) air (b)
land (c) rail (d) road (e) sea
101. The confluence river in Nigeria is located in
_______ state (a) Sokoto (b)
Katsina (c) Kogi (d) Kwara (e) Niger
102. Which of these is the positive impact of rural-
urban migration? It can lead to
(a) adequate manpower supply (b) increase in
crime rate (c) overpopulation of the cities
(d) scarcity of food supply (e) too much pressure on
social ammenities
103. Stability in the community can be achieved
through encouraging the citizen to be
(a) deviant (b) disciplined (c) greedy (d) selfish
(e) Tribalistic
104. The following make up the labour force
EXCEPT (a) artisans (b)
engineers (c) labourer (d) students (e) teachers
105. Until October 1960,Nigeria was
under (a)
American Colony (b) British Colony (c) British
Page 115 of 129
 JSS 3

Settlement (d) French Colony (e)

Portuguese colony
106. Speaker is to the House of Representative, as
_____ is to the Senate
(a) Chairman (b) Chief Whip (c) Clerk (d)
Minority leader (e) President
107. Which of the following is the lowest court in
Nigeria? (a) Federal Court of
Appeal (b) High Court (c) Magistrate (d) Sharia
Court (e) Supreme Court
108. The head of the family in Nigeria is
_____ (a)
aunty (b) Father (c) Mother (d) nephew
(e)Uncle
109. Which of the following is a local craft industry
in Nigeria (a) Building industry
(b) Iron and Steel (c) Gold mining industry (d)
Textile Manufacturing industry (e) Weaving and
blacksmthing industry.
110. ________ is one of the means of population
control
(a) family planning (b) killing the people (c)
abortion (d) slave the people
(e) encourage early marriage
111. The difference between immigration and
emigration is ____________ (a) Birth
rate (B) Death rate (c)population census (d)
Next migration
112. The chairman of National Population
Commission of Nigeria is _________
(a) Prof Wole Soyinka (b) Dr. Sumaila Danko
Makama (c) Chief Ken Nnamani (d) Hon. Dimeji
Bankole (e) Dr. John Odey
113. The chairman of Independent Electoral
Commission is _____________ (a) Prof
Maurice Iwu (b) Prof Ataihiru Jega (c) Senator

Page 116 of 129

 JSS 3

David Mark (d) Chief Joseph Sanusi (e) Rajio

Fashola
114. The first Prime-Minister of Nigeria
was (a) Chief Obafemi Awolowo
(b) Dr. Nnamdi Azikwe (c) Dr. Nwafor Orizu (d) Sir
Ahnadu Bello (e) Sir Abubakar Tafawa Balewa
115. __________ is defined as the absence of
disturbances, querelling or breakdown of laws and
order (a) Conflict (b) War (c) Peace (d)
Anarchy (e) None of the above
116. One of the following is a type of
conflict (a) Rulke of lawa (b) Indirect or
structural (c) Aggressiveness (d) class strugle
(e)social justice
117. The National Agency for Prohibition of Traffic
in Persons (NAPTIP) was set up to handle casesof
______ (a) Human trafficking (b) Drug Abuse (c)
Fake Drugs (d) War (e) All of the above
118. Which of these disciplinary measures can
assist to achieve stability in schools student from
airing their view (a) condoling staff
excesses (b) creation communication gap (c)
Discouraging student from airing their views (d)
keeping the students gainfully occupied
(e)making teachers to be strict and authoritarian
119. The headquarters of ECOWAS is
in (a) Addis-
Ababa (b) Abidjan (c) Accra (d) Lagos (e)
Lome
120. Goodluck Jonathan became the President of
the Federal Republic of Nigeria on the
(a) 6th May, 2010 (b) 29th May,2009 (c) 1st
October, 2009 (d) 1st January 2005 (e) 1st May
2009
Best online courses

Page 117 of 129

 JSS 3

SECTION B
Answer Three (3) Questions in this section
1. Define Conflicts?
2. Mention 4 examples of conflicts and explain each
3. Highlight five (5) ways of promoting peace in our
society
4. State five (5) characteristic of low self esteem and
explain
5. a. State five (5) group of cult in our society
6. Mention five (5) cause of cultism in Nigeria and
suggest possible solution
7. Explain five (5) consequence of Harmful Tradition
Practice
8. What is human trafficking?
9. Identify and explain briefly any four (4) factors that
can cause the acts
10. State five (5) harmful traditional practices in your
state.
11. Suggest five (5) ways by which harmful traditional
practices can be stopped in our society.
12. What is population?
13. List 2 basi unit of population census
14. State five (5) consequences of over population
15. What is population census
16. State two importance of population census
17. Identify any three (3) of population census
18. Highlight three (3) reasons for teaching
sex education in schools
19. List and explain briefly 5 ways of promoting peace
in our community

Page 118 of 129

 JSS 3

20. State five effects of conflict in your country.

HOME ECONOMICS FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS

3
Financial news subscriptions
FIRST TERM EXAMINATION

Examination malpractices may lead to a repeat of

the subject or suspensions don’t be involved.
SUBJECT: HOME-ECONOMICS TIME: 1HRS
30MINS CLASS: JSS 3
1. fabrics are made from_____ (a) cotton (b) linen (c)
fibres (d) seams
2. Which of these fabrics is suitable for making night
dresses? (a) cotton fabric (b) silk fabric (c) wool
fabric (d) rayon fabric
3. A sensible person (a) follows current fashion blindly
(b) wears what everyone is wearing (c) wears styles
that suits his/ her figure (c) wears very expensive
items
4. Vertical fashion lines are best for a (a) tall and slim
figure (b) short and stout figure (c) huge and
muscular figure
5. Horizontal fashion lines are suitable for (a) short and
stout figure (b) huge and muscular figure (c) tall
and slim figure (d) small and petite figure
6. The fastest sewing machine is (a) the treadle (b)
singer (c) electric (d) the hand
7. One of the reasons we wear clothes is to _____ (a)
cover our nakedness (b) to make us smile (c) to
make us happy (d) to make us simple
8. To give appearance of height, a short and plum
figure is advised to wear (a) vertical fashion lines

Page 119 of 129

 JSS 3

(b) horizontal fashion lines (c) diagonal fashion

lines (d) drapes and gentiles flares
9. A tall and slim figure should wear (a) contrasting
figures (b) matching colours (c) subtle colours (d)
glaring colours
10. A short and stout figure should avoid (a) very
bright colours (b) dull or grey colours (c) primary
colours (d) intermediate
11. A huge and muscular figure should wear _____ (a)
dark colours (b) glaring colours (c) bright colours
(d) contrasting colours
12. The study of textiles involves ______ (a) the
construction of fibres into fabrics (b) washing of
clothes (c) ironing clothes (d) arrangement of
clothes
13. The tiny hair like structure that is processed into
fabrics is called _____ (a) fibre (b) fabric (c) cotton
(d) yarn
14. _____ is the thread that runs in a lengthwise
direction (a) warp (b) weft (c) selvedge (d) grain
15. Fibres are classified into (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
16. One of these is an example of natural fibre (a)
cotton (b) acetate (c) rayon (d) none of the above
17. Clothes should be aired before they are (a)
washed (b) stored (c) ironed (d) rinsed
18. Clothes should not be stored in a (a) box (b0
wardrobe (c) damp place (d) drawer
19. Which of the following should be removed from
clothes before storage? (a) brooches and pins (b)
collars and cuffs (c) button and zips (d) sleeves and
collars
20. Which of these is a career in home economics?
(a) caterers (b) teaching (c) hotel managers (d) all
of the above
21. Which of these figure is advised to wear vertical
print and V- shape necklines? (a) tall and slim (b)

Page 120 of 129

 JSS 3

short and stout (c) huge and muscular (d) tall and
fat
22. Which of the following builds the muscles? (a)
strengthening exercises (b) aerobic exercise (c)
stretching exercise (d) resting (d) relaxing
23. Protective foods are ______ (a) bananas, cassava
and sweet potatoes (b) rice, maize and lemon (c)
soya beans, yam and lemon (d) oranges, banana
and guava
24. The sensory nerve which goes from the brain to
the eye is called _____ (a) eyeball (b) cornea (c)
optic nerve (d) iris
25. Beef is a good source of _____ (a) carbohydrates
(b) protein (c) vitamin A (d) iron
26. Receiving friends in the home and giving them
foods, drinks etc. is called _____ (a) encouragement
(b) entertainment (c) enjoyment (d) advancement
27. What is first aid? (a) a treatment for an injured
person (b) a treatment given during sleep (c) a
treatment given to an injured person before taking
him to the hospital (d) a treatment given to one self
28. Breast development in girls is_____ (a) always a
sign of puberty (b) a sign of size (c) a sign of class
(d) a sign of illness
29. The process of choosing among alternatives is
called _____ (a) action making (b) decision making
(c) alternating (d) groups
30. In clothing construction, _____ is used to close
openings firmly (a) fastenings (b) buttons (c) belts
(d) ties
31. _____ in clothing construction refers to the physical
shape, size and appearance of an individual (a)
accessories (b) figure (c) dresses (d) dress sense
32. The best paper to use with a water closet is _____
(a) dry leaf (b) tissue paper (c) fresh paper (d) old
leaves of notebooks

Page 121 of 129

 JSS 3

33. _____ are special clothes used for dusting surfaces

and items at home (a) gloves (b) dusters (c)
brooms (d) warp
34. Gathers can be used on the following EXCEPT
_____ (a) shirts (b) arm holes (c) sleeves (d) shorts
35. The monthly flow of blood through the vagina of
every woman of child bearing age is called _____ (a)
puberty (b) menstruation (c) adolescence (d)
adulthood
36. The short span of time which marks the beginning
of sexual maturation is called _____ (a) adolescence
(b) womanhood (c) adulthood (d) puberty
37. The nose is divided into nostrils by a partition
called _____ (a) septum () olfactory nerves (c)
filters (d0 membrane
38. Children can learn violence through _____ (a)
home video and internet (b) home video and class
(c) church an d internet (d) class and church
39. One of the following does not belong to the group
(a) herring- bone stitch (b) stem stitch (c) chain
stitch (d) hemming stitch
40. One of the following is not a sexually transmitted
disease (a) AIDS (b) HIV (c) malaria (d) syphilis
41. The set of teeth located at the front of the jaw are
the _____ teeth (a) canine (b) milk (c) incisors (d)
permanent
42. A treadle machine is operated with _____ (a)
motor (b) foot (c) electric motor (d) hand
43. Which of the following helps to put on and off our
clothes? (a) pleat (b) openings (c) facing (d)
finishes
44. Sexually transmitted diseases are illnesses spread
from one person to another through _____ (a) sexual
contact (b) exchange or greetings (c) dancing (d)
hand shake

Page 122 of 129

 JSS 3

45. Nursing mothers with HIV can pass it to their

babies through _____ (a) hugging (b) handshake
(c) breast milk (d) sleeping
46. Which of the following helps to keep openings in
clothes in position? (a) facing (b) hems (c)
fastenings (d) button holes
47. The way of life of a family is their _____ (a)
lifestyle (b) resources (c) values (d) goals
48. The struggle between two or more people who
disagree is called _____ (a) problem (b) challenge
(c) crises (d) conflict
49. Sleep is defined as _____ (a) a state of exercising
the body (b) an unconscious state of rest (c) a state
of warming up tissues (d) a state of resting or
relaxing but lying down
50. A situation that marks the turning point where
things cease to go on as usual in a family is called
_____ (a) crisis (b) debate (c) conflict (d) problem
51. Darts are made to _____ (a) strengthen a garment
(b) shape a garment (c) disfigure a garment (d)
play a role in garment
52. All these are cleaning agents EXCEPT _____ (a)
detergents (b) polishes (c) paints (d) solvent
53. The person that sees to the smooth running of the
affairs of the home Is the _____ (a) home worker
(b) host (c) home maker (d) guest
54. Modern kitchens usually have drainage for _____
(a) garbage (b) refuse (c) waste water (d) rubbish
55. The joining line made when two or more pieces of
cloth are stitched together is _____ (a) bashing (b)
seam allowance (c) grain line (d) seam line
56. The unpleasant smell that comes from the body is
called _____ (a) complexion (b) sweet smell (c)
odour (d) perfume
57. The simplest and commonly used seam is _____
seam (a) French (b) open (c) lapped (d) run and
fell
Page 123 of 129
 JSS 3

58. The most suitable place or storing a sewing

machine is _____ (a) inside the refrigerator (b)
under the bed (c) beside the sink (d) a well- lighted
place
59. A house in which a family lives is a _____ (a) flat
(b) house (c) home (d) shelter
60. The place for keeping important personal
belongings is called _____ (a) dining room (b)
kitchen (c) bedroom (d) bathroom
61. Cotton fibre is cultivated in the _____ part of
Nigeria (a) eastern (b) western (c) southern (d)
northern
Theory
Answer 3 questions in this section
1. State SIX characteristics of wool
2. Mention FOUR chemicals used to reproduce
regenerated fibres.
3. Mention six types of fabric finishing
4. In a tabular form, State five parts of sewing machine
and their functions.
5. State two types of opening and four types of
fastening.
6. State four methods of arranging fullness on
garments.
7. What is good posture?
8. State four functions of the skin.
9. Mention five parts of the tooth structure.
10. State the laundering process in sequential order.
11. In a sequential order, state the manufacturing
process of cotton.
12. State four (4) reasons for textile study.
13. Mention the elements of design.
14. State the four (4) figure types.

BASIC SCIENCE FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3

Page 124 of 129

 JSS 3

FIRST TERM EXAMINATION JSS 3

TERM
SUBJECT: BASIC SCIENCE TIME: 1HR
30MINS CLASS: JSS 3
ANSWER ONLY THREE QUESTIONS IN THEORY
1. Which of the following is a hard drug? A. cocaine B.
penicillin C.aspirin D.tetracycline
2. Modes of drug abuse include the following except. A
sniffing B. self-injecting . C oral. D. doctor’s
prescription.
3.The following substances are natural drugs except A.
kolanut B. tobacco C.Indian hemp D.paracetamol.
4.Which of the following agencies monitors the
movement of hard drugs in and out of the country? A.
Nigeria immigration service B. federal road safety
corps C. NDLEA D.Nigeria Airways.
5.A trait that appears in successive generation is
called A. recessive Dominant trait Physical trait D.
genotype
6.Family traits are important to all of the following
except in A. intelligence. B. Disease control
C.resenblance D.hunger control.
7.Variation like height and skin colour among members
of the same family that change from one end of the
scale to the other are A. recessive B. Continuous C.
discontinuous. D. Genotype
8. The genetic make-up of an individual can be altered
by A. the environment B. enzymes C. exercise D.
food
9. Which of these is a genetic disease? A. sickle cell
anemia Malaria C. headache D, Kwashiorkor
10.All these are the causes of erosion except A.
Overgrazing B. cutting down of trees C. Making ridges
along the slope. D. Avoid the use of cover crop.
11.All these are methods of preventing erosion except
A.fertilizer application Vegetation C. fabric log D.
tilling
Page 125 of 129
 JSS 3

12.The top layer of soil could be washed away as a

result of A. volcanic action B. tree felling C. grass
planting. D.sand deposit.
13.Trees which help to reduce wind erosion are called
A. wind vane Wind erosion C. wind support D. wind
breaks.
14.Which of the following is an agent of erosion?
A.tree B. Grasses Sun D. wind
15.Soil erosion can be prevented by A.felling tree
B.Preventing bush burning C. Irrigation D.Crop
rotation
16. Cutting down of trees and clearing of forests
indiscriminately is called A. afforestation B.
deforestation C. regulation D. conservation
17.Forests provide life for………… wildlife A. shelter
B.poison C. money D. roads
18……………….. is one of the dangers of deforestation
A.good soil B.good road C.increase in population C.
Extinction of wildlife
19.A set of rules by the government to control
excessive destruction of forestry is known as A. forest
reserve B.forest regulation C.forest destruction D.
forest activities
20. All of these are regulation of on forestry except
A.practising bush burnig B.prohibition of poaching in
reserve areas C.enactment of laws against cutting
of trees D.establisment of forest game reserve
21.Which of the following activities does not cause
desertification? A. indiscriminate cutting of trees
B.bush burning C.road construction D.swimming
22.Which of these statement about desertification is
correct?
1. desertification is the burning of bush B.
desertification is the enrichment of desert into
habitable land C.desertification is the planting of
new seedlings D. desertification is the cutting down
of trees.
Page 126 of 129
 JSS 3

23.Which of these activities is associated with livestock

or animals? A. erosion B.bush burning C.mining D.
overgrazing
24.Where is the ozone layer located in the
atmosphere? A. earth surface B.stratosphere
C.mesophere D. lithosphere
25.Which of the following is not a consequence of the
depletion of ozone layer? A. global warming
B.greenhouse effect C.ice melting and flooding
D.formation of cloud
26.Which of the following is greenhouse gas? A
Chlorine B. Water vapour C. Oxygen D. Sulphur
27.Which of the following is not an importance of ozone
layer? A It purifies the atmosphere of CO2 B.It
releases heat to the earth surface C.It absorbs high
energy radiation from the sun D.It absorbs water
vapour from the earth crust.
28.Which of the following is not a control measure
against the depletion of the ozone layer? A. controlling
the use of chlorofluoro-carbons B.constant bush
burning C.regular servicing of automobiles D.reducing
the rate of bush burning
29.The stratosphere is located about………. Above the
earth surface A.32km-40km B.19km-48km C.16km-
18km D.6km-12km
30.Which of these statements is correct about the
effect of bush burning on farmlands?
A.Water content of the soil increases B. Kills the
bacteria that cause decay on farmlands.
1. Increases soil fertility of farmlands D.Causes rapid
growth of farmland crops.
31.Drugs can be used for …………………….. and
…………………..purposes A.medical, recreational
B.utility, recreational C.medical, utility D.defence,
acceptability

Page 127 of 129

 JSS 3

32.All these are strategies for healthty drug-free life

except A. education B.stayed engaged C.seek councel
D.involve in drug business.
33.Parents traits are transferred to the offsprings
during A.fertilization B.intercourse C.gestation
D.ovulation
34.NAFDAC was established in the year A.January1,
1994 B.Febuary 1, 1994 C.April 1, 1994 D.May
1,1994
35.Which of these is not a way discouraging bush
burning? A.awareness B>enlightment C.government
support D.encourage bus burnig
36.One of these human practices cannot lead to
desertification A.afforestation B.industrialisation
C.farming D.overgrazing
37.The chemical symbol of ozone is A.O B O2 C.O3
D.O4
38.Ozone layer depletion may be controlled by A.tree
planting B.overgrazing C.bush burning D.oil spill
clearing
39.Increase in the earth temperature due to human
activities is known as A. ozone depletion B.global
warming C.climate change D.green house effect.
40.To absorbs excess carbon(iv) oxide from the
atmosphere …………………… are planted A.flowers
B.vegetatables C.trees D.weeds.

THEORY PARTS ( answer three questions only).

1a.State two misuse of herbal medicine(2mk)
1. Describe two adverse effects of drug(2mk)
2. State two functions of (i) NAFDAC (ii) NDLEA(4mk)
3. Write the full meaning of the above
agencies.. (2mk)
2a. Define family trait(1mk)
b.state two significance of family traits to intending
couples(2mk)

Page 128 of 129

 JSS 3

1. State two differences between dominant and

recessive genes(2mk)
state five examples of traits that can be transferred
from parents to offspring.(5mk)

3a.State four activities of man which cause

erosion(2mk)
b.List four methods through which soil erosion can be
controlled.(2mk)
c.List four causes of flooding in your community.(4mk)
d.State four methods of controlling floods.(2mk)

4a.Define deforestation (1mk)

b.State three reasons why people cut down trees(3mk)
c.Name six geographical belts in Nigeria(6mk)

5a.State the location of the ozone layer in the

atmosphere(1mk)
b.State three importance of the ozone layer(3mk)
c.Write three effects or hazards caused the depletion of
ozone layer on the environment(3mk)
1. Explain briefly (1) global warming (11) greenhouse
effect (2mk)

Page 129 of 129