29-06-2025

1015CMD303362250008 MD

PHYSICS

1) For the same angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three different medium A, B and C are
15°, 25° and 35° respectively. In which medium will the velocity of light be minimum ?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) Information insufficient to calculate

2) A vessel is half filled with a liquid of refractive index µ. The other half of the vessel is filled with
an immiscible liquid of refractive index 1.5µ. The apparent depth of vessel is 50% of the actual
depth. The value of µ is

(1) 1.6
(2) 1.67
(3) 1.5
(4) 1.4

3) A light ray is incident at point in a region having three different parallel mediums as shown in
figure. If light ray emerges out of the medium (3) at point B, then angle θ is:

(1) 60°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 37°

4) A diverging beam of light from a point source S having divergence angle α, falls symmetrically on
a glass slab as shown. The angles of incidence of the two extreme rays are equal. If the thickness of
the glass slab is t and the refractive index n, then the divergence angle of the emergent beam is :-
(1) Zero
(2) α
(3) sin–1(1/n)
(4) 2sin–1(1/n)

5) An under water swimmer is at a depth of 12 m below the surface of water. A bird is at a height of
18 m from the surface of water, directly above his eyes. For the swimmer the bird appears to be at a
distance from the surface of water equal to (Refractive Index of water is 4/3)

(1) 24 m
(2) 12 m
(3) 18 m
(4) 9 m

6) A microscope is focussed on a mark on a piece of paper and then a slab of glass of thickness 3 cm
and refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark. How should the microscope be moved to get the
mark in focus again :-

(1) 1 cm upward
(2) 4.5 cm downward
(3) 1 cm downward
(4) 2 cm upward

7) A point source of light is place 4 m below the surface of water of refractive index 5/3. The
minimum diameter of a disc which should be placed over the source on the surface of water to cut-
off all light coming out of water is (μ = 5/3)

(1) 2 m
(2) 6 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 3 m

8) Wavelength of given light waves in air and in a medium are 6000Å and 4000Å respectively. The
critical angle is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) A ray of light AO is incident on the surface of oil. Reflected part of this ray OB and refracted part

OC are mutually perpendicular as shown. Find refractive index of oil.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2

10) A thin Prism P1 with angle 2° and made from glass of refractive index 1.54 is combined with
another thin Prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.36 to produce dispersion without
deviation. The angle of Prism P2 is

(1) 5.33°
(2) 4°
(3) 3°
(4) 1.5°

11) A ray incident at 45° on one refracting surface of a prism of angle 60°, suffers a deviation of 55°.
What is the angle of emergence ?

(1) 95°
(2) 45°
(3) 30°
(4) 70°

12) For a prism, graph between angle of deviation (δ) and angle of incidence (i) will be

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

13) The refractive index of the material of a prism is and the angle of the prism is 30°. One of
the two refracting surfaces of the prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver coating. A beam of
monochromatic light entering the prism from the other face will retrace its path (after reflection
from the silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on the prism is :-

(1) 60o
(2) 45o
(3) 30o
(4) Zero

14) A point object is placed at the centre of a glass sphere of radius 6cm and refractive index 1.5.
The distance of the virtual image from the surface of the sphere is :-

(1) 2cm
(2) 4cm
(3) 6cm
(4) 12cm

15) A convex lens of focal length f produces a virtual image n times the size of the object. Then the
distance of the object from the lens is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) A plano-convex lens of curvature of 30 cm and refractive index 1.5 produces a real image of an
object kept 90 cm from it. What is the magnification?
(1) 4
(2) 0.5
(3) 1.5
(4) 2

17) A particle is executing SHM of time period 4 sec. What time will it take in going from x = 0 to x
= half of the amplitude ?

(1) 1 sec

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) On suspending a mass M from a spring the period of oscillations is T it is cut into n equal

segment on suspending the mass M from one of the segments the time period become then the
value of n will be :-

(1) 9
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) None

19) A simple pendulum has a time period T in vacuum. Its time period when it is completely
immersed in a liquid of density one-eight of the density of material of the bob is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) The plot of velocity (v) versus displacement (x) of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is

shown in figure. The time period of oscillation of particle is :- ​

(1)
s
(2) π s
(3) 2π s
(4) 3π s

21) A body of mass 'm' hangs from three springs, each of spring constant 'K' as shown in the figure.
If the mass is slightly displaced and let go, the system will oscillate with time period :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same frequency as the first overtone of a
closed pipe L metre long. The length of the open pipe will be

(1)

(2) 4L
(3) L
(4) 2L

23) Assertion :- Velocity of sound in dry air is less than velocity of sound in humid air.
Reason :- Molecular weight of dry air is less than that of humid air.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but Reason is true.

24) In a guitar, two strings A and B made of same material are slightly out of tune and produce beats
of frequency 6 Hz. When tension in B is slightly decreased, the beat frequency increases to 7 Hz. If
the frequency of A is 530 Hz, the original frequency of B will be:
(1) 537 Hz
(2) 523 Hz
(3) 524 Hz
(4) 536 Hz

25) A tuning fork with frequency 800 Hz produces resonance in a resonance column tube with upper
end open and lower end closed by water surface. Successive resonance are observed at length 9.75
cm, 31.25 cm and 52.75 cm. The speed of sound in air is :-

(1) 500 m/s

(2) 156 m/s
(3) 344 m/s
(4) 172 m/s

26) A pendulum has period T for small oscillations. An obstacle is placed directly beneath the pivot,
so that only the lowest one quarter of the string can follow the pendulum bob when it swings in the
left of its resting position as shown in the figure. The pendulum is released from rest at a certain

point A. The time taken by it to return to that point is :-

(1) T
(2) T/2
(3) 3T/4
(4) T/4

27) The equation of a wave on a string of linear density 0.04 kg m–1 is given by

.
The tension in the string is :

(1) 6.25 N
(2) 4.0 N
(3) 12.5 N
(4) 0.5 N

28) A sound wave of wavelength 0.40 m enters the tube at S. The smallest radius r of the circular
segment to hear minimum intensity at detector D must be :-
(1) 1.75 m
(2) 0.175 m
(3) 0.93 m
(4) 9.3 m

29) The reading of Ammeter is :-

(1) zero
(2) 1 A
(3) 1.2 A
(4) none of these

30) Select the incorrect statement regarding the shown circuit :-

(1) if R = 5Ω, current through galvanometer is zero.

(2) if R = 20Ω, current through galvanometer is non–zero.
(3) if R = 5Ω, power developed by battery is 80 watt.
(4) if R = 20Ω, power developed by battery is zero.

31) Which of the following options is/are incorrect regarding the below diagram.

(1) I1 = 8 A
(2) I2 = 4 A
(3) I3 = 0
(4) I3 = 8 A

32) Mark the correct option :-

 When the branch of the circuit containing battery is open, then potential difference across the
(1)
terminals of battery is same as emf.
When two terminals of a battery are shorted then potential difference across the terminals of
(2)
battey is zero.
If external resistance of the circuit changes then potential difference across the terminals of the
(3)
battery changes but Emf remains same.
(4) All of the above

33) The potential difference across the terminals of the battery is 9V when a current of 3A is in the
battery from negative to positive terminal. When a current of 2A is in the reverse direction the
potential difference across the battery becomes 12V. The emf and internal resistance of the battery
are respectively :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

34) Assertion :- Two non-ideal batteries are connected in parallel with same polarities on same side.
The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the two emfs.
Reason :- Two non-ideal batteries are connected in parallel, the equivalent internal resistance is
more than either of the two internal resistances.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

35) Figure shows three resistor configurations R1, R2 and R3 connected to 3V battery. If the power
dissipated by the configuration R1, R2 and R3 is P1, P2 and P3 respectively.

(1) P1 > P2 > P3

(2) P1 > P3 > P2
(3) P2 > P1 > P3
(4) P3 > P2 > P1

36) Assertion :- Higher the range, greater is the resistance of ammeter.

Reason :- To increase the range of ammeter, additional shunt needs to be used across it.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

37) Assertion :- In the given circuit if lamp B or C fuse then light emitted by lamp A decreases.

Reason :- Voltage on A decreases

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

38) In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is in its balanced state. The meter bridge wire has a
resistance 0.1 ohm/cm. The value of unknown resistance X and the current drawn from the battery
of negligible resistance is :-

(1) 6 Ω, 5 amp
(2) 10 Ω, 0.1 amp
(3) 4 Ω, 1.0 amp
(4) 4 Ω, 0.5 amp

39) Assertion (A) :- The capacitance of a conductor can be increased by bringing an earthed
conductor close to it.
Reason (R) :- The capacitance of a conductor depends on the presence of other charged bodies in
its surrounding.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

40) In figure an arrangement of three identical capacitors is shown along with a switch S and a
battery B. If the switch S is closed, then the ratio of the energy of the capacitors system in the final

steady state to the initial state is :

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 3 : 2
(4) 3 : 4

41) The force between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C and distance of
separation of the plates d with a potential difference V between the plates, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

The capacitance of a spherical condenser is 1µF. If the spacing between the two spheres is 1mm,
then the radius of the outer sphere is

(1) 30 cm
(2) 6 m
(3) 5 cm
(4) 3 m

43) Three capacitors each of capacity 4µF are to be connected in such a way that the effective
capacitance is 6µF. This can be done by.

(1) connecting them in series

(2) connecting them is parallel
(3) connecting two in series and one in parallel
(4) connecting two in parallel and one in series
44) How many capacitors each of 8µF and 250V are required to form a composite capacitor of 16µF
and 1000V :-

(1) 8
(2) 32
(3) 16
(4) 64

45) Find out the value of net charge that flows through the given circuit :

(1) 40 µC
(2) 20 µC
(3) 120 µC
(4) 60 µC

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) [Xe] 4f14, 5d10, 6s2 - Transition element

(2) [Xe] 4f7, 6d1, 7s2 - Inner transition element
(3) [Xe] 4f14, 5d10, 6s2 6p6, 7s2 - Representative element
(4) [Xe] 4f14, 5d2, 6s2 - d - block elements

2) Match the columns :-

Column-A Column-B
IUPAC Name of element Official symbol

(i) Unnilpentium (a) Mt

(ii) Unniloctium (b) Lv

(iii) Ununhexium (c) Hs

(iv) Unnilennium (d) Db

(1) i-d, ii-c,iii-a, iv-b
(2) i-d, ii-c,iii-b, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-d,iii-a, iv-b
(4) i-a, ii-b,iii-c, iv-d

3) Correct order of Atomic radius :-

(1) Be > Li > B > C
(2) N > O > C > B
(3) P > Si > Mg > Na
(4) I > P > S > Cl

4) Which element having following electronic configurations has minimum ionization potential ?

(1) 1s1
(2) 1s2, 2s2 2p6
(3) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1
(4) 1s2, 2s2 2p2

5) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) The second ionisation enthalpy of oxygen is greater than that of flourine element.
(2) The third ionization enthalpy of phosphorus is greater than that of aluminium.
(3) The first ionization enthalpy of aluminium is slight greater than that of gallium.
(4) The second ionisation enthalpy of copper is greater than that of zinc.

6) Which of the following order is incorrect ?

(1) Ce3+ > Pr3+ > Nd+3 > Pm+3 (Ionic radii)
(2) Na+ > Li+ > Mg2+ > Be2+ (Ionic radii)
(3) F > Cl > Br > I (Ionization energy)
(4) P > S < Cl (Electron affinity)

7) Assertion (A) : First ionization energy for nitrogen is lower than oxygen.
Reason (R) : Across a period effective nuclear charge increases.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of assertion
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true

8) Which one of the following arrangements represent the correct order of electron gain enthalpy
(with negative sign) of the given atomic species.

(1) Cl < F < S < O

(2) O < S < F < Cl
(3) S < O < Cl < F
(4) F < Cl < O < S

9) Which of the following statement is incorrect

(1) Mendelevium is transuranic element

(2) non-metal have high melting and boiling point except boron and carbon
(3) Ga is metallic in nature
(4) Samarium is Lanthanoid

10) Which of following have same number of electron in d-subshell

(1) Zn+2 and Hg+2

(2) Lu and Lr
(3) Co+3, Fe+2
(4) Cu+2 and Zn+2

11) Statement-I: number of element in 5th period is 32

Statement-II: in 5th period all four block s,p, d, f element are present

(1) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

(2) Statement-I and II both are correct
(3) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect

12) In given element number of non-metal are x and number of metalloid are y then x-y is As, Ge, I,
S, B, Gd, Te, Tb, Xe

(1) Three
(2) Zero
(3) Two
(4) One

13) Which of the following not present in pitch blende

(1) Np
(2) Lr
(3) Pa
(4) Ac

14) Select the structure with correct numbering for the IUPAC name of the given compound?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

15) IUPAC name of below given compound is

(1) 2,6-dimethyl hepta-2,5-dienoic acid

(2) Ethyl 2,6-dimethyl hepta-2,5-dienoate
(3) 1-hydroxy-2,6-dimethyl hepta-2,5-dione
(4) All

16) The correct statements about compound A, B and C is/are :-

(1) A and B are Enantiomers

(2) B and C are Diastereomers
(3) A and C are Enantiomers
(4) A and C are Diastereomers

17) Which of the following compound can form meso isomer ?

(1)

(2) CH3CH(Cl)–C2H5

(3)

(4) CH3–CH(OH)–CH(OH)–C2H5

18) Find out the total number of G.I. for the given structure ?
(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 4

19) and are :-

(1) Conformational isomers

(2) Position isomers
(3) Chain isomers
(4) Identical

20) Consider
(A) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–Cl

(B)

(C)

(D)
Correct statement will be

(1) A & B are positional isomer

(2) A & C are chain isomer
(3) B & D are ring chain isomer
(4) C & D are chain isomer

21) (B)
Product (B) is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) products :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) Major product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

24) What is the major product of the following reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) products are :-

(1)

+ CH3 – CH2 – I + CH3 – I

(2)

+ CH3 – CH2 – I + CH3 – I

(3)

(4) None of these

26)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which will react with acetone to give a product containing ?

(1) C6H5–NH2
(2) (CH3)3N
(3) C6H5–NH–C6H5
(4) C6H5–NC

28) Which of the following on treatment with 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide yields the
corresponding alcohol and acid ?

(1)

(2) C6H5CH2CHO
(3) C6H5CHO
(4) CH3CH2CH2CHO

29) Acetone and Acetophenone can be distinguished by

(1) NaHSO3
(2) Fehling's solution
(3) (NH4OH + AgNO3)
(4) Benndict's solution

30) Which of following pair can not be seperate by using NaHSO3 ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

31) Given compound is most reactive for nucleophillic substitution reaction if Z is :-

(1) –CH3
(2) –NO2

(3)

(4) Cl

32) Most reactive towards NaOH is :-

(1)

(2) CH2=CH–Cl

(3)

(4) CH3–CH2–Cl

33)
The reactant 'A' is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

34) Which of the following alcohols will give the positive iodoform test ?

(1)

(2)

(3) C6H5–CH2–CH2OH

(4)

35) CH3NH2 , most basic product is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All equal

36)

relation between (X) & (Y) is :-

(1) Functional group isomers

(2) Metamers
(3) Position isomers
(4) Chain isomer

37) Which of the following compound is most reactive towards nucleophilic attack :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

38) , A and B are :-

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Identical
(4) Position isomers

39) Which is best Nucleophile :-

(1) CH3–O

(2) Ph–O

(3)

(4) F

40) Consider thiol anion ( ) and alkoxy anion ( ). Which of the following statement is correct
?

(1) is less basic but more nucleophillic than

(2) is more basic and more nucleophillic than

(3) is more basic but less nucleophilic than

(4) is less basic and less nucleophillic than

41) Rank the group in order of decreasing leaving group ability :

(i) (ii)

(iii) –OMe (iv)

(1) ii > i > iv > iii

(2) i > ii > iv > iii
(3) iv > i > iii > ii
(4) iv > i > ii > iii

42) The maximum reactive towards the nucleophilic attack is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is

(1) Butan-l-ol
(2) Butan-2-ol
(3) 2-Methyl propan-l-ol
(4) 2-Methyl propan-2-ol

44) , then P is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

45)
Identify product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Father of Indian ecology is

(1) Prof. Ram Deo Mishra

(2) A.G. Tansley
(3) Reiter
(4) Warming

2) Assertion : The productivity of terrestrial ecosystem is more than aquatic ecosystem.

Reason : The number of producers are more in terrestrial ecosystem compare to aquatic ecosystem.

(1) Both Assertion and reason is correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion .
(2) Both Assertion and reason is correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion .
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.

3) Cyamids, commonly known as whale lice, are tiny crustaceans that live on the skin of whales.
Cyamids obtain nutrition from the whale by feeding on dead skin and algae that grow on the whale's
body; it is believed that whales are not helped or harmed by their presence. This type of biological
relationship can best be described as which of the following?

(1) Commensalism
(2) Ammensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Mutualism

4) What is the term for the non-living physical and chemical components of an ecosystem?

(1) Abiotic
(2) Producer
(3) Macro consumer
(4) Micro consumer

5) Of the following habitats, which is the most likely to have the highest amount of biodiversity?

(1) Desert
(2) Tropical rainforest
(3) Deciduous forest
(4) Conifers

6) Which of the following is functional characterstic of ecosystem ?

(1) Sex Ratio

(2) Staratification
(3) lnterspecific interaction
(4) Decomposition

7) Which is the major conduit (source) of energy flow in an terrestrial ecosystem?

(1) Grazing food chain

(2) Detritus food chain
(3) Parasitic food chain
(4) All of the above
8) Which of the following option is correct regarding above diagram?

(1) Wasp pollinating fig - Mutalism

(2) Moth pollinating Yucca - Mutalism
(3) Bee pollinating Orchid - Mutalism
(4) Bee pollinating ophyrx - Commensalism

9) Assertion : The logistic growth model is considered a more realistic one.

Reason : Resources for growth for most animal populations are finite and become limiting sooner or
later.

(1) Both Assertion and reason is correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion .
(2) Both Assertion and reason is correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion .
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.

10) Which of the following statement is not incorrect regarding reproductive fitness of an organism ?

(1) Bamboo breed only once in their lifetime.

(2) Oysters produce a large number of small-sized offspring.
(3) Birds produce a small number of large-sized offspring.
(4) All of the above

11) If the ISR received by the plants is 10,00,000 and food chain in that particular ecosystem is
plants which is predated by deers and those deers are further predated by lion. Calculate the
amount of energy received by the lion considering rest as standard.

(1) 1000
(2) 100
(3) 10
(4) 41

12) Which of the following is not true regarding Mutalism?

In Mycorrhiza , The fungi help the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil
(1)
while the plant in turn provides the fungi with energy-yielding lipids
(2) The female wasp uses the fig fruit only as an oviposition (egglaying) site.
The most spectacular and evolutionarily fascinating examples of mutualism are found in plant-
(3)
animal relationships.
(4) Both 1 and 2

13) Pick the odd one out with respect to there functional position ( trophic level ) in an ecosystem ?
(1) Whale
(2) Ticks
(3) Insectivorous plant while eating insect
(4) Aphids

14) Which of the following option is correct regarding interspecific interaction ?

A. The Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predator (bird) because of a special chemical
present in its body. Interestingly, the butterfly acquires this chemical during its caterpillar stage by
feeding on a poisonous seed.
B. A wide variety of chemical substances that we extract from plants on a commercial scale
(nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium, etc.,) are produced by them actually as defences
against grazers and browsers.
C. In general, herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition than
carnivores.

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only A and C
(3) Only B and C
(4) A, B and C

15) Which of the following are non essential for ecosystem ?

(1) Inorganic materials (CO2, H2O, Light)

(2) Autotrophs (Producers)
(3) Decomposers
(4) Macro consumers

16) Which type of food chain is going in aquatic ecosystem?

(1) Grazing food chain

(2) Detritus food chain
(3) Parasitic food chain
(4) All of the above

17) Statement 1 : In the rocky intertidal communities of the American Pacific Coast the starfish
Pisaster is an important predator. In a field experiment, when all the starfish were removed from an
enclosed intertidal area, more than 10 species of invertebrates became extinct within a year,
because of intraspecific competition.
Statement 2 : Interspecific competition is a potent force in organic evolution.

(1) Both statement are true.

(2) Both statement are false
(3) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(4) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true

18) If on a grasses, large number of insects feed followed by a number of small birds depending on
the insects and large birds eating smaller birds.
Shape of pyramid of number will be

(1) Upright
(2) Inverted
(3) Spindle shape
(4) Pie shape

19) Parasitic flatworms, commonly called flukes, that infect the internal organs of their hosts are in
which of the following classes?

(1) Turbellarians
(2) Trematoda
(3) Cestoda
(4) Nematoda

20) Which of the following is the term for a plant that can be found living on top of another plant but
which obtains its nutrients and water independently?

(1) Parasite
(2) Epiphyte
(3) Lycophyte
(4) Saprophyte

21) Which of the following option is correct regarding the below age sex pyramid for population.

Representing Stable Population where number of pre reproductive are more than reproductive
(1)
individual.
Representing Expanding Population where number of reproductive are more than
(2)
prereproductive individual.
Representing Stable Population where number of reproductive are more than pre reproductive
(3)
individual.
Representing Expanding Population where number of pre reproductive are more than
(4)
reproductive individual.

22) How many of the following is a type of positive interaction?

A.++ B. + 0 C. + – D. – 0 E. – –

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 4
(4) 2
23) Statement 1 : Producers are called transformer in nature.
Statement 2 : They transform solar energy into chemical energy by a process called productivity.

(1) Both statement are true

(2) Both statement are false
(3) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false
(4) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true

24) When two species compete for the same resources and one species is eliminated, the outcome is
referred to as which of the following?

(1) Resource partitioning

(2) lntraspecific competition
(3) Commensalism
(4) Competitive exclusion

25) Assertion : In food web, members of a particular trophic level obtain their food according to
their choice and taste
Reason : In food web , transfer of food energy is multidirectional and from many different
alternative pathway.

(1) Both Assertion and reason is correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion .
(2) Both Assertion and reason is correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion .
(3) Assertion is correct and reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect and reason is correct.

26) How many of the following statment is true?

A. Pyramid of number shows biotic potential of an ecosystem.
B. The pyramids of biomass show the standing crop of ecosystem.
C. Pyramids of energy represent the productivity of ecosystem
D. Pyramid of number in lake ecosystem is spindle shape whereas in ocean ecosystem it is inverted
in shape.

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 2

27) A population growing in a habitat with limited resources show initially a .... A ... phase, followed
by phases of ..... B ..... and ...... C ..... . and finally an ...... D .... .
Fill in the blanks with appropriate option ?

(1) A - lag, B- acceleration, C-deceleration, D-asymptote

(2) A - lag, B- acceleration, C-asymptote, D-deceleration
(3) A - lag, B- deceleration, C-acceleration, D-asymptote
(4) A - asymptote, B- deceleration, C-acceleration, D-lag
28) Which of the following statement is true regarding productivity ?

The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons
(1)
(fresh weight) of the organic matter, productivity of the ocean are only 55 billion tons.
(2) NPP is the available biomass for the consumption to heterotrophs.
(3) Both 1 and 2
(4) Secondary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by phytoplanktons.

29) Which of the following is not a limitation of ecological pyramid?

(1) It does not take into account the same species belonging to two or more trophic levels.
(2) It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature.
(3) It does not accommodate a food web.
(4) Producers are not given any place.

30)

(1) 1 lakh kcal

(2) 1 thousand kcal
(3) 10 thousand kcal
(4) 10 lakh kcal

31) Which of the following is an ectoparasite that temporarily attaches to its host for feeding ?

(1) Wuchereria
(2) Taenia
(3) Leech
(4) Ascaris

32) Which of the following is an example of co-evolution driven by ecological interaction ?

(1) Evolution of lungs in amphibians

(2) Similar wing structures in birds and bats
(3) Development of long proboscis in moths matching flower depth
(4) Disappearance of tail in human ancestor

33) Introducing rabbits in Australia that eat the same food and use the same space for burrows as
native marsupials is what type of species interaction?

(1) Ammensalism
(2) Mutualism
(3) Competition
(4) Predation

34) Which of the following is not the application of PCR?

(1) Detection of HIV in suspected AIDS patient.

(2) Detection of mutations in genes in suspected cancer patients
(3) Amplification of desired DNA segment
(4) Detection of antibodies synthesised against pathogens

35) Statement-I : The Bt toxin protein exist as inactive protoxins but once an insect ingest the
inactive toxin, it is converted into an active form.
Statement-II : The activated toxin binds to the surface of mid gut epithelial cells.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

36) Recombinant therapeutic drugs are preferred over products isolated from non-human sources,
because :-

(1) Recombinant therapeutics are cheaper

(2) Recombinant therapeutics don't induce unwanted immunological responses.
(3) Recombinant therapeutics are easy to produce
(4) Recombinant therapeutics provide permanant cure.

37) Which step proved to be the main challenging obstacle in the production of human insulin by
genetic engineering?

(1) Splitting A & B polypeptide chains

(2) Addition of C-peptides to pro-insulin
(3) Getting insulin assembled into mature form
(4) Removal of C-peptide from mature insulin

38) Which of the following is incorrect about genetically modified crops ?

(1) Enhance nutritional quality of food.

(2) Made crops tolerant to abiotic stress.
(3) Helps to reduce post harvest loss.
(4) Decreases the efficiency of mineral usage by plants.

39) Match column-I with column-II and select the correct answer from the options given below :
 Column-I Column-II

a ELISA i Mobile genetic elements

b Transposons ii Gene therapy

Based on principle of antigen-antibody

c Probe iii
inter action

Single stranded DNA or RNA tagged with

d Retroviral vector iv
a radioactive molecule
(1) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
(2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i)
(3) a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii), d-(iv)
(4) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)

40) α-1 antitrypsin is used to treat :-

(1) Sickle cell anemia

(2) Haemophilla
(3) Emphysema
(4) Removal of blood clots

41) Process of RNA interference was adopted to prevent infestation of:

(1) Meloidegyne incognitia.

(2) Bacillus thuringensis.
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(4) Haemophilus influenza

42) Which enzyme is not related correctly with its functions :

Column-A Column-B
(1) Taq polymerase Synthesis of DNA
Obtaining DNA by lysis of
(2) Chitinase
bacterial cell
Remove nucleotides from
(3) Exonucleases
the ends of DNA
(4) DNA ligase Joining of DNA fragments
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

43) How many of the following are the restriction sites present in pBR322.
Hind II, EcoR V, Hind III, Bam HI, Pst II, PstI, PvU II, Sal I, EcoR I

(1) 8
(2) 7
(3) 6
(4) 9

44)

pBR322 has two antibiotic resistance genes they are:-

(1) Streptomycin and Ampicillin resistance

(2) Chloramphenicol and tetracycline resistance
(3) Tetracycline and Kenamycin resistance
(4) Ampicillin and tetracycline resistance

45) In genetic engineering, the antibiotics may be used :

(1) In selection of recombinants

(2) To keep culture free from infection
(3) To select healthy host cells
(4) To make replication easy

46) Consider the following statement and select the incorrect statement :-

(1) Ori site of vector is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA
(2) Antibiotic resistance genes in vector used are used as a selectable marker
(3) In pBR322 rop gene is used for replication of plasmid
(4) pBR322 is a single stranded, circular and extra chromosomal DNA segment.

47) First clinical gene therapy was performed for which disease ?

(1) Haemophilia
(2) Phenyl alanine hydroxylase deficiency
(3) Tyrosinase deficiency
(4) ADA deficiency

48) Statement-I: In 1997, first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced human protein enriched milk
having human alpha lactalbumin.
Statement-II: Transgenic rabbits are used to test the safety of polio vaccine.
Choose the most appropriate answer from options given below:

(1) Both Statement I and statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

49) Select the incorrect statement for continuous culture system :-

(1) In this used medium is drained out from one side while fresh medium is added from other side.
(2) In this cells are maintained in their physiologically most active lag phase of growth.
(3) It produces larger biomass.
(4) It shows higher yields of desired product.

50) Pomato a somatic hybrid is example of:

(1) Protoplast culture

(2) Meristem culture
(3) Callus culture
(4) Embryo culture

51) Assertion : DNA is a hydrophilic molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes.
Reason : In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made
'competent' to take up DNA.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

52) In the enzyme Hindlll, 'd' refers to

(1) Genus of the source organism

(2) Species of the prokaryotic cell from which the enzyme is isolated
(3) Strain of Haemophilus influenzae
(4) Order of discovery

53) Which technique is used to check the progression restriction enzyme digestion ?

(1) PCR
(2) Gel electrophoresis
(3) Southern blotting
(4) Centrifugation

54) What happens when DNA fragment is inserted in to plasmid pBR322 using enzyme Pvu-I or Pst-
I?
(a) Inactivation of ampR gene
(b) Inactivation of tetR gene
(c) Unable to grow in presence of ampicilin
(d) Unable to grow in presence of tetracycline
(e) Unable to replicate

(1) b and d are correct

(2) a and c are correct
(3) a, c and c are correct
(4) b, d and e are correct

55) In gel electrophoresis, differential mobility of DNA fragments depends upon-

(1) Helical nature of DNA
(2) Double stranded nature of DNA
(3) Charge and size of DNA
(4) Hydrogen bonding between bases

56) The construction of first r-DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a gene encoding
antibiotic resistance with native plasmid of :-

(1) Salmonella typhimurium

(2) E. coli
(3) Yeast
(4) Thermus aquaticus

57) Assertion : Unless one cuts the vector and the source DNA with the same restriction enzyme,
the recombinant vector molecule cannot be created.
Reason : When cut by the same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments have the
complementary of 'sticky ends'.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

58) In the following diagram A,B and C are restriction sites and same DNA molecule is cut by
restriction endonucleases

If both samples are loaded in a single well of gel after restriction digestion then find out correct
band pattern in gel electrophoresis :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

59) Through which method, a recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal
host cell?

(1) Microinjection
(2) Transformation
(3) Electroporation
(4) Gene gun

60) Which one of the following statements is not correct about Rana tigrina?

(1) Body is divisible into the head and trunk.

(2) Three chambered heart with sinus venosus and conus arteriosus is present.
(3) Fertilisation is external and development is indirect.
(4) Frog excretes uric acid and thus is a uricotelic animal.

61) Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about respiration in frogs ?

(1) In water, skin acts as aquatic respiratory organ.

(2) On land, the buccal cavity, skin and lungs act as the respiratory organs.
(3) During aestivation and hibernation, gaseous exchange takes place through skin.
(4) All of these

62) Frogs are different from humans in having :

(1) Open circulation

(2) Hepatic portal system
(3) Renal portal system
(4) Paired cerebral hemispheres

63) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Frogs exhibit sexual dimorphism.
Reason (R) : Female frogs can be distinguished by the presence of vocal sacs and copulatory pads
which are absent in male frogs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
64) Croaking is commonly heard during the breeding season. It is louder in male frogs due to the
presence of a pair of

(1) Vocal cords

(2) Air sacs
(3) Vocal sacs
(4) Air bladder

65) Homo sapiens and Rana tigrina have similar

(1) Number of chambers in heart

(2) Number of cranial nerves
(3) Main excretory product
(4) Special venous connection present between kidney and lower parts of the body

66) Some statements about the reproductive system in frogs are given below :
(A) In females, ureters act as urinogenital ducts.
(B) In males, Bidder's canal is present inside the kidneys.
(C) Male frogs have copulatory pads on the first digit of the hindlimbs.
(D) In males, testes are structurally and functionally connected to kidneys.
(E) In females, there is no functional connection between kidneys and ovaries.
Which of the above statements are incorrect?

(1) A, B and D only

(2) B, C and E only
(3) A and C only
(4) B, D and E only

67) Assertion (A) :- Grafts from just any source - an animal, another primate, or any human beings
can not be made since the grafts would be rejected sooner or later.
Reason (R) :- The body is able to differentiate 'Self' and 'nonself'.
Choose the correct answer from the given options :-

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

68) Assertion :- Alpha interferon is used in treatment of cancer.

Reason :- It activates immune system and help in destroying tumor cells.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

69) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant
withdrawal syndrome if regular dose of drugs is abruptly discontinued.
Statement-II : Withdrawal syndrome is manifested in the form of reckless behaviour, vandalism
and violence.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II are correct

70) Statement-I :- AIDS is a congenital disease.

Statement-II :- HIV is a retro-virus.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is not correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are not correct.
(4) Statement-I is not correct but statement-II is correct.

71) Choose the correct option :-

Active Immunological
(A) (i)
immunity memory
Passive Rheumatoid
(B) (ii)
immunity arthritis
Innate
(C) (iii) Interferons
immunity
Acquired Ready made
(D) (iv)
immunity Antibodies
Auto
(E) (v) Infection
immunity
(1) A-v, B-i, C-ii, D-iv, E-iii
(2) A-i, B-v, C-iii, D-iv, E-ii
(3) A-v, B-iv, C-iii, D-i, E-ii
(4) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-v, E-ii

72) Match the disease in column-A with the appropriate items (prevention/treatment) in column-B
and select the appropriate option :

Column-A Column-B
Mosquito repellant
(a) Amoebiasis (i)
cream
Use only sterilised
(b) Diptheria (ii)
food and water
(c) Cholera (iii) DPT vaccine
Use of oral rehydration
(d) Dengue (iv)
solution and antibiotics

a b c d
(1) ii iii iv i
(2) i ii iii iv
(3) ii iv i iii
(4) ii i iii iv
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) Mark the correct statement :- (a) Yoga has been practised to achieve physical and mental health
(b) Infectious diseases are very common and everyone of us suffers from these at sometime or other
(c) AIDS is an infectious disease (d) Cancer is non-infectious disease (e) Healthy persons bring
economic prosperity

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c, d and e
(3) c and d
(4) a, b, c, d and e

74) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Gametocytes (sexual stages) develop in human RBC

(2) Malaria is caused by plasmodium
(3) Fertilisation of plasmodium gametes take place in salivary gland of mosquito.
(4) Sporozoite is the infective stage for humans.

75) Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells ?

(1) They compete with normal cells for vital nutrients.

(2) They do not remain confined in the area of formation.
(3) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
(4) They show contact inhibition.

76) Given below are the pairs of pathogens and diseases caused by them. Which out of these is not a
matching pair :-

(1) Virus – common cold

(2) Salmonella – typhoid
(3) Microsporum – filariasis
(4) Plasmodium – Malaria

77) Which of the following statement is not correct about typhoid ?

(A) Sustained high fever (39° to 40° F)
(B) Weakness
(C) Stomach pain
(D) Constipation
(E) Headache and loss of appetite
(F) Coughing

(1) A, C, D
(2) D, E, F
(3) A and F only
(4) A, B, C, D, E, F

78) Identify the correct option for given diagram for A, B and C :-

A B C

Antibody
(1) Light chain Heavy chain
binding site

Antigen Constant Variable

(2)
binding site light chain heavy chain

Constant Constant
(3) Epitope
light chain heavy chain

Constant Constant
(4) Paratope
light chain heavy chain
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) Identify the diagram shown below :-

(1) Cannabis Sativa

(2) Datura
(3) Opium poppy
(4) None of these
80) What is the correct about given below-

(1) Depressant
(2) Stimulant
(3) Hallucinogen
(4) Hypnotic

81) Disease which is shown in the figure spreads through?

(1) Contaminated food and water

(2) Using towel of infected individual
(3) The bite by female mosquito vectors
(4) Droplet infection

82) Diagram showing ringworm affected area of skin. Which is not related with disease ?

(1) Microporum
(2) Trichophyton
(3) Epidermophyton
(4) Wuchereria
83) Select incorrect statement about given molecule :

(1) Produces sense of euphoria and increased energy

(2) It is obtained from Papaver somniferum
(3) It is used as painkiller in patients of surgery
(4) Heroin is obtained by acetylation of it

84) Widal test is done for :-

(1) AIDS
(2) Cancer
(3) Typhoid
(4) Phenmonia

85) Which of the following is cause of fever and chills in malaria ?

(1) Haemoglobin
(2) Haemozoin
(3) Hirudin
(4) Haemocyanin

86) Malignant malaria is caused by -

(1) Plasmodium vivax

(2) Plasmodium malaria
(3) Plasmodium falciparum
(4) Plasmodium ovale

87) Common cold differs from pneumonia in, that

Pneumonia is a communicable disease whereas the common cold is a nutritional deficiency

(1)
disease
(2) Pneumonia is a protozoal disease and common cold is non communicable disease
Pneumonia is caused by a virus while the common cold is caused by the bacterium Haemophilus
(3)
influenzae
Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli whereas the common cold affects nose and respiratory
(4)
passage but not the lungs

88) Antigen binding site or paratop is present in antibody between :-

(1) Two heavy chains
(2) Two light chains
(3) Variable region of heavy and light chain
(4) Constant region of heavy and light chain

89) Which one is a effect of nicotine on body :

(1) It stimulate adrenal gland to release catecholamines into blood circulation.

(2) Decreased blood pressure and increase heart rate.
(3) It is not related with oxygen deficiency in the body.
(4) Chewing tobacco is not addictive in nature.

90) Which disease in not correctly matched with its causative organism and insect vector?

(1) Disease- Malaria, Causative organism – A protozoan, Insect- Anopheles

(2) Disease- Filariasis, Causative organism – A nemathelminth, Insect- Culex
(3) Disease- Dengue, Causative organism – A virus, Insect- Aedes
(4) Disease- Chikungunya, Causative organism – A bacteria, Insect- Culex
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 3 2 1 1 2 3 1 3 4 1 2 3 1 4 2 3 4 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 4 3 3 3 3 1 2 2 4 3 4 1 3 3 3 4 3 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 4 3 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 4 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 3 4 2 2 2 3 3 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 3 3 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 3 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 4 1 4 2 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 3 1 1 2 4 2 3 2 4 2 4 4 3 4 4 4 1 2 2
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 4 2 4 3 3 1 2 4 3 3 3 3 4 1 2 3 4 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 2 3 4 1 4 4 2 2 1 1 3 2 2 3 1 1 1 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 2 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 3 1 4 3 4 3 3 2 2 1
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 4 1 3 2 3 4 3 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

u2 =
r → minimum, v2 → minimum

2)
µ = 1.67

3) 1·sin30° = 1·sinθ
θ = 30°

4)

Emergent beam is parallel to incident beam therefore angle between both beam remain same
i.e. α.

5)

6)

Shift =

8)

9) 1 × sin 60° = µoil × sin 30°

µoil =

10) A2 = ; A2 = = 3°
11) Using δ = i + e – A ⇒ 55 = 45 + e – 60
⇒ e = 70°

13)

r2 = 0, r1 = A = 30°
By using snell's law

sin i =

= ⇒ ∠i = 45°

14)

v = – 6cm

15)

m= ⇒n=
nf + nu = f

u= =–

16)

∴ v = 180 cm

18)
19) In vacuum,
Let V be the volume and T be the density of the mass of the bob.
Net downward force acting on the bob in side the liquid = Weight – upthrust

i.e. effective value of g is

So, time period of the bob inside the liquid

21)

22)

23)

24) Guitar string i.e. string is fixed from both ends

Frequency ∝
If tension in B slightly decrease then frequency of B decrease.
If B is 536 Hz, as the frequency decreases, beats with A also decreases.
If B is 524 Hz, as the frequency decreases, beats with A increases.
∴ Original frequency of B will be 524 Hz.

25)

Here λ = 2 (ℓ2 – ℓ1)

where ℓ1 = 9.75 cm, ℓ2 = 31.25 cm
so v = 2n(ℓ2 – ℓ1) = 2 × 800 (31.25–9.75)=344 m/s

26) Time taken by the pendulum to move from A to B and from B to A is .

Time period of oscillation ∝ .

Time taken to complete half the oscillation = .

Total time period of oscillation

27)

⇒
= 6.25 N

28) (for destrustive interference)

(π – 2)r = 0.2
⇒ r = 0.2/(1.14) = 0.175 m

29)

30) If R = 5Ω. Balanced wheat stone bridge therefore current in (G) is zero.
 If R = 20 Ω. Bridge in not balanced therefore
there will be a current through (G)

31)
Req = 2Ω [All 3 resistances are in parallel]

So total current = = 12 Amp.

33) During discharging (deenergizing) of battery the current is from negative terminal to
positive terminal inside the battery.
1st case is for discharging of battery & 2nd case corresponds to charging of battery.
E – Ir = V [For discharging]
E + Ir = V [For charging]
⇒ E – 3r = 9 & E + 2r = 12V

⇒ r= Ω and E = volt

35)
(Req)3 = 1.5Ω

{∵ V = 3 volt}

40) Ui = × V2 And Uf = × V2

or =

41)
 43)
CAB = 6μF

CHEMISTRY

46)

At no. 80 is Hg and it is not consider as a transition element.

47)

Reff. NCERT
(i) 105 ; (ii) 108 ; (iii) 116 ; (iv) 109

48)

NCERT-XI, Part-I, Pg # 82, Para.-3.7.1

49) 1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1. It belongs to IA group which has least ionization potential and it decreases
down the group.

50) IE of Ga > IE of Al

51)

P < S < Cl (Order of E.A.)

52) NCERT (11th) page # 86 (part -I)

53)

ΔHeg = O < S < F < Cl

59)

Numbering should be according to priority of F.G.

 67)

69)

70) + C2H5I + CH3I

71)

77) (1) & (2) both are resonance stabilised

81) X: CH3–CH=CH–CH3 Y: CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

89)

BIOLOGY
91) NCERT Pg. No. # 189

92) Number of producers are more in aquatic as it is Microscopic

93) NCERT-XII, Pg # 201

CYAMIDS +, WHALE O SO COMMENSALISM

94) NCERT Pg. No. # 205 - 206

95) Module

96) NCERT Pg. No. # 206

FUNCTIONAL CHARACTER: PRODUCTIVITY, ENERGY FLOW, DECOMPOSITION I MINERAL
CYCLE

97) NCERT Pg. No. # 210

98) NCERT Pg. No. # 202

99) NCERT Pg. No. # 196

100) NCERT Pg. No. # 196

101) Module

102) NCERT Pg. No. # 201-202

103) Module

104) NCERT Pg. No. # 198-199

CATERPILLAR FEED ON POISONOUS WEED NOT SEED

105) Module

106) NCERT-XII, Pg # 210

Major conduit in aquatic is grazing but all food chain will be present

107) NCERT Pg. No. # 198

108) NCERT Pg. No. # 213

109) NCERT Pg. No. # 200

110) NCERT Pg. No. # 201

111) NCERT Pg. No. # 192

112) NCERT Pg. No. # 197

Positive interaction are those where none of the species should be harm

113) Module
Prodcuers are transducer and process of converting solar energy into chemical energy is
called photosynthesis.

114) NCERT Pg. No. # 199

115) Module
Energy flow is always unidircetional.

116) NCERT Pg. No. # 212, 213

Pyramid of biomass is spindle in option 4 not number.

117) NCERT Pg. No. # 195

118) NCERT Pg. No. # 207

119) NCERT Pg. No. # 214

120) Module
Par is 10 lakh ( plant use 2-10% of par)
Energy at prodcuer level will be 10% - 1 lakh
Energy at primary consumer will be - 10 k (10% law)

121) NCERT Pg. No. # 200

122) NCERT Pg. No. # 201-202

Co evolution interaction is mutalism so for pollination if depth is increase it need to increase is
proboscis

123) NCERT Pg. No. # 199

124)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 183

The correct answer is: 4. Detection of antibodies synthesized against pathogens.
PCR, or Polymerase Chain Reaction, is a powerful technique in molecular biology that allows
us to amplify specific segments of DNA. It's commonly used for:
(1) Detecting very low concentrations of bacteria or viruses (Correct). PCR can amplify
pathogen DNA, making it possible to identify them even when they're present in tiny amounts.
(2) Identifying mutations in genes for patients suspected of having cancer (Correct). PCR is
instrumental in spotting genetic mutations that are associated with cancer.
(3) Amplifying a desired DNA segment (Correct). The main purpose of PCR is to increase the
quantity of specific DNA sequences.
(4) Detecting antibodies synthesized against pathogens (Incorrect). This is because PCR is
designed to detect DNA or RNA, not antibodies. To find antibodies, we typically use methods
like ELISA (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay).

125) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179, 180

126)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 181

Explanation : Why recombinant therapeutic drugs are favoured over those extracted from
non-human sources.
Concept : The concept based on Application of biotechnology in medicine.
Solution : Because recombinant therapeutics are less likely to trigger undesirable immune
reactions.
Final Answer : (2)

127)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 181, 182

128) NCERT, Pg. # 179

129)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 180, 182,183

130) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 184

131)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 165

132) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171, 172

133) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169
PstI, Pvu I, EcoR I, Cla I, Hind III, BamHI, SalI, PvU II are the restriction sites present in
pBR322.

134)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169

136)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169

137)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

138)

NCERT Pg. # 184

139)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 173,174

140)

NCERT Pg. # 178

141) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 170, 171

143)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 168

144)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 169

146)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 164

 147) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 168

149)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171

150) NCERT XI (NEW) Page No. # 80, 82, 83, 84

151) NCERT XI (NEW) Page No. # 82

152) NCERT XI (NEW) Page No. # 82

153) NCERT XI (NEW) Page No. # 81

154) NCERT XI (NEW) Page No. # 81

155) NCERT XI (NEW) Page No. # 83

156) NCERT XI (NEW) Page No. # 82, 83, 84

157)

The correct answer is Option 4.

Analysis:

A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct.

B. Assertion (A): This is true. The immune system of the recipient can recognize the
transplanted tissue as "foreign" and initiate an immune response, leading to rejection. This is
why tissue matching is crucial in organ transplantation.
C. Reason (R): This is also true. The immune system has the ability to distinguish between "self"
(the body's own cells and tissues) and "nonself" (foreign substances like bacteria, viruses, and
transplanted tissues). This self-recognition is a fundamental aspect of the immune response.
D. Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
E. The rejection of grafts is directly related to the body's ability to differentiate between "self"
and "nonself." If the transplanted tissue is recognized as "nonself," the immune system will
mount an attack against it.

Therefore, both the assertion and reason are correct, and the reason provides the correct
explanation for the assertion.

159) NCERT Pg. # (E) 161 (H) 174

167) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 169

168) NCERT Pg No. # 151 (Fig. 8.4)

169) NCERT-XII Pg # 143

173) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 159