13-07-2025

1001CMD303056250001 MD

PHYSICS

1) The unit vector parallel to the resultant of the vectors and :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Which statement is wrong :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) if angle between & is 90°

3) Vectors are shown in figure. Then diagram of is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

4) If the resultant of vectors and is a unit vector along y-axis then the values of p &
q are respectively :–
(1) –3, 5
(2) 3, –5
(3) 3, –3
(4) 5, –5

5) If , then what is the value of

(1)
(2) 0
(3) 1
(4) 2

6) If and and angle between them is 60°, then is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) Which of the following set of three vectors can't produce a zero resultant :-

(1)
, ,

(2)
, ,

(3)
, ,

(4)
, ,

8) =

(1) 0
(2)
(3)
(4) All

9) If then which of the following options can be correct

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) All of the above

10) The value of is :-

(1)

(2) A2 – B2
(3)
(4) zero

11) If vectors and are mutually perpendicular then what is the value of c ?

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) – 4

12) A rocket of mass 5000 kg is set for vertical firing. If the exhaust speed be 1 km/sec, how much
gas must be ejected per sec to given the rocket an upward acceleration of 10 m/sec2 ? (g = 10m/s2)

(1) 20 kg/sec
(2) 1000 kg/sec
(3) 100 kg/sec
(4) 10 kg/sec

13) An object is in equilibrium under four concurrent forces in the direction shown in figure. The
magnitude of and are:-

(1) Zero,
(2) , Zero

(3) ,

(4) Zero, Zero

14) Three blocks of masses 2 kg, 3 kg and 5 kg are connected to each other with light string and are
then placed on a frictionless surface as shown in the figure. The system is pulled by a force F = 10
N, then tension T1 =

(1) 1 N
(2) 5 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 10 N

15) With what force must a man pull on the rope to hold the plank in position if the man weights
60kg? Neglect the weight of the plank, rope and pulley. (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 100 N
(2) 150 N
(3) 125 N
(4) 130 N

16)
If acceleration of B is 2 ms2 find acceleration of A.

(1) 6 m/s2
(2) 3/2 m/s2
(3) 3 m/s2
(4) 2 m/s2

17) In Fig., the pulley P1 is fixed and pulley P2 is movable. If W1 = W2 = 100 N, what is the
angle AP2P1 ? The pulleys are frictionless :-
(1) 30°
(2) 60°
(3) 90°
(4) 120°

18) A monkey of mass 30 kg climbs a rope which can withstand a maximum tension of 360 N. The
maximum acceleration which this rope can tolerate for the climbing of monkey is :-
(g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 2 ms–2
(2) 3 ms–2
(3) 4 ms–2
(4) 5 ms–2

19) A piece of wire is bent in the shape of a parabola y=kx2 (y-axis vertical) with a bead of mass m on
it. The bead can slide on the wire without friction. It stays at the lowest point of the parabola when
the wire is at rest. The wire is now accelerated parallel to the x-axis with a constant acceleration a.
The distance of the new equilibrium position of the bead, where the bead can stay at rest with
respect to the wire, from the y-axis is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A block of mass 2 kg is suspended from a string, is released from a height of 5m as shown in
figure then what will be the impulse when string. Just becomes tight :-
(1) 2 N-s
(2) 0.2 N-s
(3) 20 N-s
(4) 200 N-s

21) The graph shows the force time plot for a particle of mass 0.5 kg. If the particle starts from rest
then its final velocity after 20 ms (milliseconds) is:-

(1) 2.5 m/s

(2) 5 m/s
(3) 10 m/s
(4) 1 m/s

22) Two blocks A (5 kg) and B(3 kg) are connected with a spring (force constant k) and the
combination is pulled by force F = 10 N, as shown, if at any instant acceleration of block A is 4 m/s2,
then acceleration of block B will be : –

(1) 5 m/s2
(2) 10 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 12 m/s2

23) When a beam of light is incident on plane mirror, it is found that a real image is formed. The
incident beam must be :-

(1) Converging
(2) Diverging
(3) Parallel
(4) Formation of real image by plane mirror is imposible

24) Figure shows a plane mirror onto which a light ray is incident. If the incident light ray is turned
by 10° and the mirror by 20°, as shown, then the angle turned by the reflected ray is :
(1) 60° clockwise
(2) 50° clockwise
(3) 30° clockwise
(4) 40° clockwise

25) An observer is moving along the line AB as shown. When image of object O is first visible to
observer, he starts from rest with the acceleration of 2cm/sec2, then the time for which image is

visible to observer is

(1) 3 sec
(2) 9 sec
(3) 12 sec
(4) None of the above

26) At what distance from a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm must an object be placed in order
that an image double its size may be obtained ?

(1) 5 cm only
(2) 15 cm only
(3) either 5 cm or 15 cm
(4) at 10 cm

27) A square card of side length 1 mm is being seen through a magnifying lens of focal length 10 cm.
The card is placed at a distance of 9 cm from the lens. The apparent area of the card through the
lens is :-

(1) 1 cm2
(2) 0.81 cm2
(3) 0.27 cm2
(4) 0.60 cm2

28) A convex mirror of focal length 10 cm is shown in fig. A linear object AB = 5 cm is placed along
the optical axis. Point B is at distance 20 cm from the pole of mirror. Then size of image of AB will be
:-

(1)

(2) 2.5 cm

(3)

(4)

29) A point object is moving towards a concave mirror of focal length 25cm. When it is at a distance
of 20cm from the mirror, its velocity is 5cm/sec. Find velocity of image at that instant :-

(1) 10 cm/sec
(2) 125 cm/sec
(3) 25 cm/sec
(4) 5 cm/sec

30)

A fish at a depth of 12 cm in water is viewed by an observer on the bank of a lake. To what height
the image of the fish is raised ?

(μ = 4/3) :-
(1) 9 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 3.8 cm
(4) 3 cm

31) A ray of light passes through four transparent media with refractive indices µ1, µ2, µ3 and µ4 as
shown in the figure. The surfaces of all media are parallel. If the emergent ray CD is parallel to the

incident ray AB, we must have

(1) µ1 = µ2
(2) µ2 = µ3
(3) µ3 = µ4
(4) µ4 = µ1

32) A microscope is focused on a mark, then a glass slab of refractive index 1.5 and thickness of 6
cm is placed on the mark to get the mark again in focus, the microscope should be moved
(1) 4 cm
(2) 2 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 8 cm

33) A ray of light enters a rectangular glass slab of refractive index at angle of incidence 60°. It
travel a distance of 5 cm inside the slabe and emerges out of the slab. The perpendicular distance
between the incident and the emergent rays it.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 5 cm

34) The image of point P when viewed from top of the slabs will be

(1) 2.0 cm above P

(2) 1.5 cm above P
(3) 2.0 cm below P
(4) 1 cm above P

35) A point source of light is placed 4m below the surface of water of refractive index 5/3. The
minimum diameter of a disc which should be placed over the source on the surface of water to cut-
off all light coming out of water is

(1) 2 m
(2) 6 m
(3) 4 m
(4) 3 m

36) A light ray falls on a square glass slab as shown in the diagram. The index of refraction of the
glass, if total internal reflection is to occur at the vertical face, is equal to :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) Find the velocity of image.

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 0 m/s
(3) 16 m/s
(4) –8 m/s

38) A convergent beam of light is incident on a convex mirror of radius of curvature R as shown in
figure. A real image is formed at a distance 0.4 m from the mirror. The radius of curvature of the

mirror is :

(1) 0.4 m
(2) 1.4 m
(3) 0.8 m
(4) 1.8 m
39) A transparent solid cylinder rod has refractive index of . It is surrounded by air. The incident
angle 'θ' for which the light ray grazes along the wall of the rod is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) The minimum deviation produced by a prism of prism angle 60° is 30°, When placed in air. Then
refractive index of the material of prism:

(1) 2
(2)
(3)
(4) 3

41) A prism of refractive index µ and angle A is placed in the minimum deviation position. If the
angle of minimum deviation is A, then the value of A in terms of µ is :-

(1) sin–1(µ/2)

(2)

(3) 2cos–1(µ/2)
(4) cos–1(µ/2)

42) A horizontal light ray passes through a prism (µ = 1.5) of angle 4°. Further, it is incident on a
plane mirror M, that has been placed vertically. By what angle the mirror is rotated so that the ray

after reflection becomes horizontal?

(1) 1°
(2) 2°
(3) 4°
(4) 8°

43) STATEMENT-1 : The formula connecting u, v and f for a spherical mirror is valid only for
mirrors whose sizes are very small compared to their radii of curvature.
because
STATEMENT-2 : Laws of reflection are strictly valid for plane surfaces, but not for large spherical
surfaces.

(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

44) The image formed after two reflection (first at x then at y) will be :-

(1) Erect and enlarged 2 times

(2) Inverted and enlarged 2 times
(3) Erect and diminished 2 times
(4) Inverted and diminished 4 times

45) A light ray is incident perpendicularly to one face to a 90º prism and is totally internally
reflected at the glass-air interface. If the angle of reflection is 45º, we conclude that the refractive

index n is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY
1) Transition element from Z = 39 to Z = 48 belong to :-

(1) 3d series
(2) 4d series
(3) 5d series
(4) 6d series

2)

Zr and Hf have similar atomic and ionic radii because of

(1) Lanthanoid Contraction

(2) Belonging to same group
(3) Transition Contraction
(4) Diagonal Relationship

3)

Column-I Column-II

A Law of triads 1 Newland

B Law of octave 2 Mendeleev

C Periodic law 3 Moseley

D Modified periodic laws 4 Dobereiner

The correct match of contents in column-I with those in column-II is :
(1) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(2) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
(3) A-4 , B-1, C-2, D-3
(4) A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2

4) Incorrect statement regarding following molecule

(i) HClO (ii) HClO2 (iii) HClO3
and (iv) HClO4 is :

(1) Among (i) to (iv), the strongest acid is (i)

(2) Hybridisation of Cl in all given compounds is sp3
(3) The number of Cl=O bonds in (ii) and (iii) together is three
(4) The number of lone pairs on Cl in (ii) and (iii) together is three

5) Fluorine does not form any polyhalide as other halogens because :

(1) It has maximum ionic character

(2) It has low F - F bond energy (38.5 k cal mol–1)
(3) Of the absence of d-orbitals in the valence shell of fluorine
(4) It brings about maximum covalency in other element
6) Correct match is :

(a) Expanded octet (p) H2SO4

(b) Odd e– molecule (q) NO

(c) Incomplete octet (r) CH4

(d) Complete octet (s) BeH2

(1) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p
(2) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r
(3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r
(4) a-p, b-r, c-q, d-s

7) The incorrect statement among the following is:

(1) 1st I.P. of Al is less than 1st I.P. of Mg.

(2) The 2nd I.P. of Mg is greater than 2nd I.P. of Na
(3) 1st I.P. of Na is less than 1st I.P. of Mg
(4) 3rd I.P. of Mg is greater than 3rd I.P. of Al

8)

Which of the following metal is expected to have the highest third ionization enthalpy

(1) Cr(Z = 24)

(2) V(Z = 23)
(3) Fe(Z = 26)
(4) Mn(Z = 25)

9) Select most endothermic process :-

+
(1) F(g) → F (g)
+
(2) F(s) → F (g)
2+
(3) F(s) → F (g)
+
(4) N(g) → N (g)

10) The electronic configuration of an element is 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s23p4 .The atomic number of element
present just below the above element in periodic table is -

(1) 36
(2) 34
(3) 33
(4) 32

11) Which of the following electron affinity order is not correct?

(1) Be < N < B < O
(2) N < P < Si < S
(3) N < P < C < Si
(4) C+ < B+ < N+ < O+

12) Match the column :-

Column-I Column-II

(A) z = 103 (P) s-block

(B) z = 56 (Q) p-block

(C) z = 108 (R) d - block

(D) z = 84 (S) f-block

(1) A → S ; B → P ; C → R ; D → Q
(2) A → S ; B → Q ; C → R ; D → P
(3) A → Q ; B → P ; C → S ; D → R
(4) A → R ; B → S ; C → P ; D → Q

13) S-1 :- The formation of from is Exothermic, whereas that from O(g) is endothermic
S-2 :- The addition of second electron to a monovalent anion is difficult and experience more
repulsion

(1) S-1 and S-2 both are correct and S-2 is correct explanation for S-1
(2) S-1 and S-2 both are correct and S-2 is not correct explanation for S-1
(3) S-1 correct and S-2 is false
(4) S-1 false and S-2 is correct

14) Match the following

Compound Shape

(A) SF4 (P) Trigonal planar

(B) CH3+ (Q) Folded Square

(C) I3 – (R) Square planar

(D) XeF4 (S) Linear

(1) A→Q, B→P, C→S, D→R
(2) A→P, B→Q, C→R, D→S
(3) A→S, B→Q, C→R, D→P
(4) A→Q, B→P, C→R, D→S

15)

Which of the following molecule has only pπ – pπ bond.

(1) SO3
(2)
(3) POCl3
(4)

16) From the following pairs of ions which one is not an iso-electronic pair ?

(1) O2–, F–
(2) Na+, Mg2+
(3) Mn2+, Fe3+
(4) Cu+, Zn+

17) Which of the following molecule has maximum number of lone pair -

(1) XeF2
(2) SO2
(3) SiF4
–
(4) [BH4]

18)

Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II

A. H–F (i) s–s axial overlapping

B. H2 (ii) p–p axial overlapping

C. Cl2 (iii) p–p lateral overlapping

D. O2 (iv) s–p axial overlapping

Choose the correct match from the option given below -

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

19) Statement-I : At Room temperature, nitrogen exist as N2 (N≡N) whereas phosphorous exist as
P4.
Statement-II : CO2 exist as discrete molecule whereas SiO2 is a network solid not exist as discrete
molecule.

(1) Only statement-I is correct.

(2) Only statement-II is correct.
(3) Both statement are correct.
(4) Both statement are Incorrect.

20) Assertion : NO3– is planar.

Reason : N in NO3– is sp2 and no lone pair at central atom.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

21) Assertion : The electronic structure of O3 is

Reason : Structure is not allowed because octet around 'O' can not be expanded.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Which of the following configuration show transition element :-

(1) [Rn]6d27s2
(2) [Xe]4f75d16s2
(3) [Xe]5d16s2
(4) [Rn]5f76d17s2

23) Which of the following order of ionisation energy is/are correct :

(a) Cl– > F– (b) P > S (c) K+ > Cu+ (d) Cr+ > Mn+
Correct answer is:

(1) b and c only

(2) a and d only
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) b, c and d only

24) Match the following electronic configurations with their properties :

(a) 2s22p6 (i) Smallest atomic radius

(b) 3s23p5 (ii) Highest IP
(c) 3s1 (iii) Largest EA
(d) 2s22p5 (iv) Most Metallic

Correct answer is :
(1) a-(i) b-(iv) c-(ii) d-(iii)
(2) a-(ii) b-(iii) c-(iv) d-(i)
(3) a-(i) b-(iv) c-(iii) d-(ii)
(4) a-(iv) b-(ii) c-(iii) d-(i)

25) Incorrect order of Ionic size is :–

(1) La+3 > Gd+3 > Eu+3 > Lu+3

(2) P3– > S2– > Cl– > K+
(3) K+ > Sc+3 > V+5 > Mn+7
(4) I– > Br– > Cl– > F–

26) Determine the correct order of acidic strength ?

(1) N2O3 > P2O3 > As2O3 > Sb2O3 > Bi2O3
(2) B2O3 < Al2O3 < Ga2O3 < In2O3 < Tl2O3
(3) HOCl < HOBr < HOI
(4) CrO < CrO3 < Cr2O3

27) Select the incorrect statement :-

(1) s-block metal oxides are basic in nature except BeO which is amphoteric.
(2) In general non metal oxides are acidic in nature
(3) In d-block all elements are metals
(4) d-block metal oxides are only basic in nature

28) Which statement is incorrect :-

(1) IP1 of an element can not be higher than IP2

(2) Order of IP1 and IP2 for N & O are not same
(3) The no. of elements in any period are half that of orbitals.
(4) IP of Cl– is numerically equal to EA of Cl

29)

Read the following order

(i) Fe Co Ni Atomic Radius

(ii) Eu < Gd Atomic Radius

(iii) Be < C < N Ionisation Energy

(iv) Be < N < C Electron affinity

How many above order are correct
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 1
(4) 2

30)

Choose the correct statement.

(1) In general more the ionisation energy lower will be electronegativity.

(2) Electronegativity increases means metallic character increases.
(3) In general lower will be the ionisation energy, higher will be reducing property (in gas phase).
(4) Electron affinity order is Se > S < Cl.

31) Which of the following compound does not exist

(1) PCl5
(2) BrF5
(3) OF2
(4) OF6

32) Paramagnetism is exhibited by :-

(1) N2O
(2) Cl2O
(3) ClO2
(4) CO2

33) Which one of the following has highest bond energy ?

(1) C–C
(2) Si–Si
(3) Ge–Ge
(4) Sn–Sn

34)

Which of the following compound does not exist-

(1) PCl5
(2) SF6
(3)
(4) Both (1) and (2)

35) Which is the right structure of XeF4 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) The 'd' orbital involved in the hybridization in the PCl5 molecule is :-

(1) dx2
–y2

(2)
(3) dxy
(4) dxz

37) Match Column-I with Column-II and Column-III and choose the correct option from the given
codes.

Column – I Column–II Column–III

 (No. of lone pairs
(Shape of
Molecule on C.A. and σ
molecule)
bonded pairs)

(A) NH3 (i) 1,2 (p) Bent

(B) SO2 (ii) 1,4 (q) Pyramidal

(C) SF4 (iii) 2,3 (r) T–shape

(D) ClF3 (iv) 1,3 (s) See–Sew

(1) A – (iv, q); B – (ii, p); C – (i, r); D – (iii, s)
(2) A – (iv, q); B – (i, p); C – (ii, s); D – (iii, r)
(3) A – (i, p); B – (iii, s); C – (iv, r); D – (ii, q)
(4) A – (iv, p); B – (i, r); C – (iii, q); D – (ii, s)

38) Compound insoluble in NaOH :-

(1) K2O
(2) Al2O3
(3) BeO
(4) ZnO

39) Which of the following graphs shows correct trends in the size of +3 ions of lanthanides ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

40) In the periodic table correct statement going down in group-17 :-

(1) Reactivity will increase

(2) Electronegativity will increase
(3) Ionic radius will increase
(4) Non-metallic character will increase

41) For the elements B,C,N,F & Si, the correct order of their non-metallic character is :-

(1) B > C > Si > N > F

(2) Si > C > B > N > F
(3) F > N > C > B > Si
(4) F > N > C > Si > B

42) Radius of anion is always greater than its corresponding neutral atom-because of :-

(1) Anion having more electrons than neutral atom

(2) Zeff of anion is less
(3) more e– – e– repulsion in anion
(4) All of these

43) The IUPAC name of the element which is placed after Db105 is the periodic table, will be :-

(1) Un nil pentium

(2) Un un nilium
(3) Un nil hexium
(4) Un nil quadium

44)

Identify correct order according to their mentioned properties.

(1) Mn+2 > Mn+4 > Mn+6 (Ionisation energy)

(2) Li > B > Be (2nd Ionisation energy)
(3) B > Al > Ga > Tl (atomic size)
(4) F > Cl > Br > I (electron affinity)

45) Correct order of IP

(1) Cu < Zn < Zn+1 < Cu+1
(2) Zn < Cu < Cu+1 < Zn+1
(3) Cu < Zn < Cu+1 < Zn+1
(4) Zn < Cu < Zn+1 < Cu+1

BIOLOGY

1) Fill in the blanks :

The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the ___A___ which induce
___B___ uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.

(1) A-parturition, B-strong

(2) A-placenta, B-strong
(3) A-placenta, B-mild
(4) A-mild, B-strong

2) Statement I : LH acts on the sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which helps in
the process of spermiogenesis.
Statement II : FSH acts at the leydig cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens.
Androgens, in turn, stimulate the process of spermatogenesis.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement I is correct and II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and II is correct
(4) Both statements are incorrect

3) Statement-I : The mammary glands are one of the female secondary sexual organ.
Statement-II : After coitus, sperms are transported to the ampulla, where the sperm fertilised the
ovum leading to formation of a diploid zygote.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

4) Which of the following is not correct for semen ?

(1) Normal sperm count in semen is 20 - 120 million per ejaculation.

(2) at least 60 percent sperms must have normal shape and size for normal fertility.
(3) At least 40 percent of normal sperms must show vigorous motility for normal fertility.
(4) pH of semen is 7.35 – 7.50.

5) The ___A___ starts as the zygote move through the ___B___ of oviduct called cleavage toward
the ___C___.

(1) A - mitotic division, B - isthmus, C - uterus

(2) A - uterus, B - isthmus, C - mitotic division
(3) A - isthmus, B - mitotic division, C - uterus
(4) A - mitotic division, B - uterus, C - isthmus

6) How many primary spermatocytes are required to from 2000 spermatids ?

(1) 2000
(2) 500
(3) 1000
(4) None of them

7) Statement-I : The process of fusion of a sperm with an ovum is called fertilisation.

Statement-II : Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simulteneously
to the ampullary region.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

8) The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called......A......and an inner
group of cells attached to......B.......called the........C...........

(1) A-Trophoblast, B-Blastomere, C-Inner cell mass

(2) A-Blastomeres, B-Trophoblast, C-Inner cell mass
(3) A-Trophoblast, B-Trophoblast, C-Inner cell mass
(4) A-Inner cell mass, B-trophoblast, C-Trophoblast.

9) Ejaculation of human males contains about 200-300 million sperms, of which for normal fertility
___B___% sperms must have normal shape & size and at least ___A___% of them must show vigorous
motility.
Find A & B respectively.

(1) 60, 40
(2) 50, 50
(3) 40, 60
(4) 30, 70

10) The wall of the uterus has three layers of tissue. The .........A......membranous
perimetrium........B.........layer of smooth muscle, myometrium and.......C.......layer called
endometrium.

(1) A-External thick, B-middle thick, C-inner glandular

(2) A-external thin, B-middle thin, C-inner glandular
(3) A-external thin, B-middle thick, C-inner glandular
(4) A-external thin, B-middle thick, C-inner non glandular
11) Ovarian stroma is divided into two zones -a peripheral __A__ and an inner __B__.
A and B are respectively.

(1) Cortex, Medulla

(2) Medulla, Cortex
(3) Medulla, Lumen
(4) Cortex, Lumen

12) The Ovulatory phase is followed by the.........X........during which the remaining parts of the
.......Y.........transform as the...........Z.................
Identify 'X', 'Y', 'Z' choose the correct option :-

X Y Z

(1) Luteal phase Secondary follicle Corpus luteum

(2) Luteal phase Graafian follicle Corpus luteum

(3) Secretory phase Graafian follicle Corpus albicans

(4) Follicular phase Tertiary follicle Corpus albicans

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

13) Read the following statements & choose the correct option.
Statement I : In the early phase of pregnancy relaxin is secreted by the ovary.
Statement II : hCG, hPL & relaxin are produced in women only after 6 month of pregnancy.

(1) Only Statement I is not incorrect.

(2) Only Statement II is not incorrect.
(3) Both Statements are correct.
(4) Both Statements are incorrect.

14) __"A"__ acts on the __"B"__ cells and stimulates secretion of some factors which help in the
process of spermatogenesis.

(1) A-LH, B-Leydig

(2) A-FSH, B-Leydig
(3) A-LH, B-Sertoli
(4) A-FSH, B-Sertoli

15) Statement I : Each testis has 250 compartment known as seminiferous tubule.
Statement II : Sperm are produced in seminiferous tubules.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

16) Seminal plasma rich in

(1) Calcium, Fructose, Copper

(2) Glucose, Copper, Certain enzymes.
(3) Only Calcium & Fructose
(4) Fructose, Calcium and Certain enzymes.

17) The __"A"__ originates from the urinary bladder and extends through the penis to its external
opening called __"B"__.

(1) A-ureter, B-Urethral meatus

(2) A-Epididymis, B-Penile meatus
(3) A-Vas deferens, B-Penile meatus
(4) A-Urethra, B-Urethral meatus

18) _ A _ acts at _ B _ and stimulates secretions of two gonadotropins LH and FSH.

A and B are respectively :

(1) GnRH, Anterior Pituitary

(2) GnRH, Hypothalamus
(3) Androgen, Anterior Pituitary
(4) Androgen, Hypothalamus

19) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) : Glandular layer of uterus is called perimatrium.
Statement (II) : The oviducts, uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory ducts.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) Both statement I and statement II are false

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is true.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are true.

20) The_______ undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle

(1) Perimetrium
(2) Myometrium
(3) Endometrium
(4) Germinal epithelium

21) Read the following statements carefully & select the incorrect one :-

(1) The sperm head contains an elongated & compact haploid nucleus.
(2) Movement of tail facilitates sperm motility essential for fertilisation.
(3) Middle piece provide energy for movement of tail.
(4) The middle piece is filled with enzymes that help fertilisation of the ovum.

22) Statement-I : The trophoblast layer gets attached to the endometrium.

Statement-II : Inner mass cells provide protection & stability to embryo.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

23) Read the following statements and choose option having correct statements :-
(a) By the end of the second month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits.
(b) By the end of 24th week the body is covered with fine hair.
(c) The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound through the
stethoscope.

(1) a, b
(2) a, c
(3) b, c
(4) a, b, c

24) If epididymis is removed, then what does happen in a man ?

(1) Sperms have shorter life span.

(2) Sperms travel the pathway in lesser time.
(3) Functional maturation of sperms takes lesser time.
(4) Sperms are incapable for fertilization.

25) The corpus lutum secretes large amounts of......A.......which is essential for.....B......of
the.......C.......

(1) A-Estrogen, B-Implantation, C-Endometrium

(2) A-Progesterone, B-Implantation, C-Endometrium
(3) A-Progesterone, B-Maintenance, C-Endometrium
(4) A-Progesterone, B-Maintenance, C-Myometrium.

26) If male is impotent and female is fertile then what possible assisted reproductive technology is
used for treating the infertility in particular couple?

(1) GIFT
(2) Intrauterine insemination
(3) ZIFT
(4) Embryo transfer

27)
How many of the contraceptive methods in the list given below are barrier method ?

Condoms, Diaphragm, Lactational amenorrhea, Cervical Cap, Pills, IUD, Periodic abstinence, Coitus
interruptus, Depoprovera, Norplant.
(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

28) What is true for Saheli :-

(1) It is oral contraceptive pill taken once in a week

(2) It is developed by CDRI at Lucknow
(3) Non steroidal preparation with very few side effects and high contraceptive value
(4) All

29) Which of the following contraceptive devices also protects against sexually transmitted diseases
?

(1) Condom
(2) Sponge
(3) IUDs
(4) LNG-20

30) Choose the incorrect match pair :-

(1) Multiload 375 Suppress sperm motility

(2) Progestasert Make uterus unsuitable for implantation.

(3) Lippes loop Make cervix hostile to the sperm

(4) CuT Suppress sperm motility

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31)

Match the column.

A- Copper releasing IUD I-Multiload-375

B- Hormonal IUD II- Lippes loop

C-Non medicated IUD III- LNG-20, progestasert

(1) A-I, B-III, C-II
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II (3) A-II, B-III, C-I
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) After invitro fertilization :

(1) Embryo with more than 8 cells are implanted in uterus.

(2) Embryo with more than 16 cells are implanted in ovary.
(3) Embryo with 8-16 cells insert in vagina
(4) Embryo with more than 16 cell is implanted in fallopian tube.

33) How many technologies in the list given below are showing invitro fertilisation :-
GIFT, ZIFT, IUT, AI, IUI

(1) Six
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

34) The Test-tube Baby programme employs which one of the following techniques ?

(1) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)

(2) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(3) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(4) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)

35) Given below are four methods (A–D) and their modes of action (a–d) in achieving contraception.
Select their correct matching from the four options that follow

Method Mode of Action

A. The pill (a) Prevents sperms reaching cervix

B. Condom (b) Decrease sperm motility

C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation

D. Copper T (d) Semen contains no sperms

Matching :-
(1) A – (c), B – (d), C – (a), D – (b)
(2) A – (b), B – (c), C – (a), D – (d)
(3) A – (c), B – (a), C – (d), D – (b)
(4) A – (d), B – (a), C – (b), D – (c)

36)

Match the column-A with column-B, and choose the correct option :-
 Column-A Column-B

(A) Barrier method i Tubectomy

(B) 'Saheli' ii Condoms

Prevents
(C) IUD iii
implantation

(D) Sterilization iv Cu-T

(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-ii, B-iii, C-i, D-iv
(3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

37) Given below are four statements (a-d) regarding assisted reproductive technologies:-
(a) ZIFT - The zygote or early embryo (with upto 8 blastomere) transferred into the fallopian tube
(b) ICSI - A sperm is directly injected into the fallopian tube to form an embryo in the laboratory
(c) IUI - The semen collected either from the husband or healthy donor is artificially introduced into
the uterus
(d) GIFT - Transfer of zygote collected from a donor into the fallopian tube of another female who
cannot produce one but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and development
Which of the above statements are correct:

(1) a & d
(2) b & c
(3) a & c
(4) b & d

38) How many of the following are intra uterine devices-

Vault, Nirodh, Saheli, Lippes loop, Mala-D, Multiload 375, Antara, LNG-20, Norplant, Cu7

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

39) Identify the correct match from the columns I, II and III :-

Column-I
Column-II Column-III
(Contraceptive
(Mechanism) (Example)
method)

Copper releasing (a) Prevent

(A) (i) 'Saheli'
IUDs ovulation

Non steroidal (b) Destroy

(B) (ii) Today
pill sperms

Daily oral (c) Prevent

(C) (iii) MALA-D
pill implantation
 (d) Suppress
Vaginal
(D) sperm (iv) Multiload 375
tablets
motility
(1) A – d – iv, B – a – i, C – c – iii, D – b – ii
(2) A – b – iv, B – c – ii, C – a – i, D – c – iii
(3) A – d – iv, B – c – i, C – a – iii, D – b – ii
(4) A – d – iv, B – a – ii, C – c – iv, D – b – iii

40) Mark the correct statement.

(1) Medical Termination of Pregnacy MTP during first trimester is generally safe
(2) Generally chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years
(3) 'Saheli' is one of most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
(4) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent conception

41) How many days, pregnancy last in dogs, elephants and cats ?

(1) 30 days, 290 days, 60 days

(2) 30 days, 640 days, 60 days
(3) 60 days, 640 days, 65 days
(4) 65 days, 270 days, 30 days

42) Foetal movement starts usually from

(1) II month of pregnancy

(2) III month of pregnancy
(3) IV month of pregnancy
(4) V month of pregnancy

43) Secondary follicle in ovary has-

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Ootid
(4) Antrum

44) In the following structures identify morula and Blastocyst respectively :-

(1) c & e
(2) c & d
(3) b & e
(4) a & d

45) 'Antrum' is a cavity present in :-

(1) Primary oocyte

(2) Secondary oocyte
(3) Secondary follicle
(4) Tertiary follicle

46) Secretion of following gland helps in lubrication of penis -

(1) by a
(2) by b
(3) by c
(4) by a and b mainly

47) Select the option which correctly identifies the structure marked as 'X' along with it's correct

function :-

(1) Chorion – forms major fetal part of placenta.

(2) Allantois – forms many small blood vessels.
(3) Amnion – secretes fluid which prevents dessication of embryo.
(4) Yolk sac – first hematopoetic structure of embryo.

48) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Placenta act as structural and functional unit between developing foetus and
maternal body.
Statement-II : Placenta is connected to the foetus through an umbilical cord.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

49) Placenta act as endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like :-

(1) hCG, hPL, estrogens, progestogens

(2) Relaxin, inhibin, prolactin, Oxytocin
(3) Prolactin, oxytocin, estrogens, progestogens
(4) hCG, hPL, prolactin, oxytocin

50) Which of the following is not included in the female external gentilia ?

(1) Hymen
(2) Clitoris
(3) Infundibulum
(4) Labia majora

51) Given below are two statements :-

Statement-I : The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually
observed during the fifth month.
Statement-II : The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound
carefully through the stethoscope.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :-

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

52) The reproductive cycle in the female primates is called :

(1) Oestrus cycle

(2) Menstrulal cycle
(3) Nitrogen cycle
(4) Menopause

53) Which of the following is not a component of female external genitalia.

(1) Mons pubis

(2) Labia majora
(3) Clitoris
(4) Breast

54) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Oxytocin is the main parturition hormone.
Reason (R) : Oxytocin acts on uterine myometrium and stimulates vigorous contractions in smooth
muscles leading to expulsion of foetus through the birth canal.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

55) In Cleavage, newly formed cells are known as :

(1) Daughter cells

(2) Blastomeres
(3) Zygote
(4) Spermatid

56) The secondary spermatocytes undergo second meiotic division to produce four equal

(1) Spermatogonia
(2) Spermatids
(3) Primary spermatocytes
(4) Polar bodies

57) Which of the diploid cell produces first haploid cells during spermatogenesis.

(1) Spermatogonia
(2) Primary spermatocyte
(3) Secondary spermatocyte
(4) Spermatids

58) Stage of meiotic division oogonia cells are temporarily arrested is :-

(1) Prophase-I
(2) Metaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-I
(4) Telophase-I

59) The embryo with 8-16 blastomere is called

(1) Zygote
(2) Morula
(3) Blastocyst
(4) Trophoblast

60) The external thin membranous layer of uterus wall is called -

(1) Endometrium
(2) Myometrium
(3) Perimetrium
(4) Mons pubis

61) Several mammary ducts join to form a wider -

(1) Mammary alveoli

(2) Mammary tubule
(3) Mammary ampulla
(4) Lactiferous duct

62) A tiny finger like structure which lies at the upper junction of the two labia minora is -

(1) Clitoris
(2) Hymen
(3) Mons pubis
(4) Glans

63) The anterior structure of sperm head is covered by a cap like structure is called

(1) Acrosome
(2) Mitochondria
(3) Nucleus
(4) Both 2 and 3

64) The placenta facilitate the supply of..................to the embryo :-

(1) Oxygen
(2) Carbon dioxide
(3) Excretory material
(4) All of the above

65) In human beings, menstrual cycles ceases around _____A_____ of age; that is termed as
_____B_____.

(1) A - 50 years, B - Menarche

(2) A - 14 years, B - Menarche
(3) A - 50 years, B - Menopause
(4) A - 14 years, B - Menopause

66) The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called :

(1) Coelom
(2) Scrotum
(3) Prostate
(4) Penis

67) The seminiferous tubules of the testis open into the -

(1) Epididymis
(2) Vas deferens
(3) Rete testis
(4) Ureter

68) In human being Ist sign of growing foetus noted in which month :-

(1) After three month of pregancy

(2) After one month of pregnancy
(3) After 7 days of fertilisation
(4) End of pregnancy

69) Corpus luteum is formed during

(1) Follicular phase

(2) Proliferative phase
(3) Luteal phase
(4) Bleeding phase

70) First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called :-

(1) Menopause
(2) Menarche
(3) Spermiation
(4) Capacitation

71) The region outside the seminiferous tubule which contain small blood vessels, interstitial cells
and immunologically competent cells is present called:-

(1) Perivitelline space

(2) Peritesticular space
(3) Interstitial space
(4) Inguinal space

72) The seminal plasma along with the sperms constitute the

(1) Sebum
(2) Semen
(3) Serum
(4) Smegma

73) Which of the following cell during gametogenesis is normally diploid ?

(1) Spermatogonia
(2) Spermatid
(3) Secondary spermatocyte
(4) Spermatozoa

74) In humans, which of the following undergoes meiosis II ?

(1) First polar body

(2) Second polar body
(3) Secondary oocyte
(4) Both (1) and (3)

75) Acrosome of sperm is formed form:

(1) Nucleus of spermatid

(2) Centrosome of spermatid
(3) Mitochondria of spermatid
(4) Golgi complex of spermatid

76) Spermiogenesis occur in which stage :-

(1) Spermatogonia → Spermatid.

(2) Spermatogonia → Primary spermatocyte.
(3) Spermatid → Spermatozoa.
(4) Primary spermatocyte → Sec spermatocyte.

77) The genetic material of a sperm is found in its:

(1) Head
(2) Middle part
(3) Neck
(4) Tail

78) How many sperms and ova will be produced by 100 primary spermato cyte and 400 primary
oocytes ?

(1) 400 sperms and 100 ova

(2) 400 sperms and 400 ova
(3) 100 sperms and 100 ova
(4) 100 sperms and 400 ova

79) Which is a secondary sex organ is female ?

(1) Ovary
(2) Uterus
(3) Testes
(4) Epididymis

80) In uterus, endometrium proliferates in/response to

(1) Relaxin
(2) Oxytocin
(3) Progesterone
(4) Oestrogen

81) Which is not a natural method of contraception ?

(1) Coitus interruptus

(2) Periodic abstinence
(3) Vasectomy
(4) Lactational amenorrhoea

82) Weekly oral pills for females are :-

(1) Mala-D
(2) Mala-N
(3) Saheli
(4) Gossypol

83) In which technique, fertilisation occurs inside the body of female ?

(1) Z.I.F.T
(2) I.U.T.
(3) I.C.S.I
(4) G.I.F.T

84) Which is not an IUD ?

(1) Lippes loop

(2) LNG-20
(3) CuT
(4) Vaults

85) Identify the incorrect match:

(1) Saheli – Non steroidal pill

(2) Female condom – Barrier method of contraception
(3) Multiload 375 – Non-medicated IUD
(4) Progestasert – Hormone releasing IUD

86) The following refers to schematic representation of oogenesis.

Identify A to E correctly.

(A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Puberty

(1)
(D) Adult reproductive life (E) Childhood
(A) Foetal life (B) Birth (C) Childhood
(2)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life
(A) Adult reproductive life (B) Birth
(3)
(C) Puberty (D) Childhood (E) Foetal life
(A) Birth (B) Childhood (C) Foetal life
(4)
(D) Puberty (E) Adult reproductive life

87) Given below is a flow chart showing ovarian changes during menstrual cycle. Identify hormones

A, B and C responsible for the events shown:

[A] [B] [C]

(1) FSH Estrogen LH

(2) LH Estrogen Progesterone

(3) GnRH LH Progesterone

(4) FSH LH LH
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

88)

Identify the hormones A, B, C and D from the graph by observing their concentrations in blood
during the menstrual cycle of a female:
 A B C D

(1) FSH Progesterone Estrogen LH

(2) FSH Estrogen LH Progesterone

(3) FSH LH Progesterone Estrogen

(4) LH Estrogen Progesterone FSH

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) Study the cycle shows below and select the option which gives correct words for all four blanks

A, B, C, D :-

A B C D

(1) Foetus Zygote Morula Gastrula

(2) Zygote Morula Blastocyst Gastrula

(3) Embryo Blastocyst Gastrula Cleavage

(4) Zygote Morula Gastrula Cleavage

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

90) Following is diagrammatic sectional view of ovary with labelled parts A, B, C and D. Find out the
incorrect identification of the labelled part and its description.

Structure Identification Description Function

About 60,000-80,000 left in each

(1) A Primary follicle
ovary at puberty

(2) B Secondary follicle Contains primary oocyte

Mature
(3) C Graafian follicle
follicle containing secondary oocyte

Developed by the activity of

(4) D Corpus luteum LH, secrete mainly progesterone
and some amount of estrogen
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 4 1 1 3 1 3 2 3 4 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 1 3 2 3 1 4 2 4 4 2 2 4 2 1 2 3 4 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 2 1 3 1 3 2 2 4 3 2 4 1 1 1 4 4 1 4 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 3 2 1 1 4 3 1 3 4 3 1 3 3 2 2 1 2 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 4 3 2 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 3 1 1 2 1 3 3 3 1 2 4 4 4 4 4 1 3 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 4 2 4 4 3 2 2 4 1 3 1 1 3 2 3 3 3 1 3 1
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 1 1 4 3 4 4 1 3 4 2 4 4 2 2 2 1 2 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 1 1 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 1 3 4 3 1 2 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 3 3 4 4 3 2 4 2 2 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) =
=

2)
It is not necessary it always zero.

3)

4)

a unit vector along y-axis

(3 + p) = 0 –4 + q = 1
p=–3 q=5

5)

θ = 90°
= 2 × sin 45°

6)

=
=

7)

|A – B | ≤ R ≤ |A + B|

8)

Polygon Law

9)

By addition Law of vector

10)
=

11)
2+c–6=0
c–4=0
c=4

12)

= 100 kg/ sec.

13)
F2 cos 30° = 4 + 4 cos 60°

=4+2

4 sin 60° + F1 = F1 sin 30°

F1 = 0

14)

Fext = mT × a
10 = 10 × a
a = 1 m/s2
T1 = (3 + 5) × a
= 8N

15)

N + T = 60 g ……(1)

→ 37 = N ……(2)
From eq (1) and (2)
37 + 7 = 60g
47 = 60g
T = 15g

16)
2T × a – 3T × 2 = 0
2Ta = 6T
a = 3 m/s2

17)
W1 = W2 T = W1
System is in equilibrium
2T cos θ = W2
2W1 cos θ = W2
2 cos θ = 1

cos θ = ⇒ θ = 60°
2θ = 120°

18)
T – mg = ma
360 – 300 = 30 × a
60 = 30 × a
a = 2 m/s2
19)

tan θ = ……(1)
y = kx2

tan θ = 2kx ……(2)

from (1) & (2)

2kx =

x=

20)
Just released vi = 0
vf = = = 10 m/s

= 2(10 – 0) = 20 N-S

21)
Area under F-t graph gives ΔP

ΔP = × 50 × 20 + 100 × 20
= 500 + 2000 = 2500 gm/s
But time in milli second
∴ ΔP = 2500 × 10–3
ΔP = 2.5 m/s
m × vf = 2.5

vf =

22)
fs = 5 × 4 = 20

23)

24) Due to 10° clockwise rotation of incident ray, reflected ray turns by 10° anti-clockwise,
Due to 20° clockwise rotation of the mirror, reflected ray turns by 40° clockwise. Hence, net
rotation is 30° clockwise.

25)

x = 27 × 3 = 81 cm

s = ut = at2

81 = 0 + × 2 × t2
t2 = 81 ⇒ t = 9 sec
26) m = +2 =

m = –2 =

27) AI = m2 A0 = 100 × 1 mm2

28)

VB =

image of length =

29)

V1 = – m2 V0

=–

=–
= – 25 × 5 = – 125 cm/sec

30)

31)

μ 4 = μ1
(same medium)

32) Question explanation: When a glass slab is placed over an object, the apparent position
of the object shifts due to refraction.

Concept: Apparent depth shift occurs in denser mediums like glass.

Formula:
 Calculation:

Final answer: Option 2-2 cm

Question level: Easy

33) Question Explanation:

We need to calculate the perpendicular distance between the incident and emergent rays.

Concept: Snell's Law: n1sinθ1 = n2sinθ2, where n is the refractive index and θ is the angle.
Subscript 1 refers to one medium and subscript 2 to the other.
SOLUTION:

Formula: Snell's Law: n1sinθ1 = n2sinθ2 Trigonometry: sinθ = , cosθ =

Calculation:
1. Given:

A. Refractive index of glass (n2) =

B. Refractive index of air (n1) = 1
C. Angle of incidence (θ1) = 60ο
D. Distance traveled inside the slab (d) = 5 cm

Apply Snell's Law to find the angle of refraction (θ2):

1 × sin60ο = × sinθ2

= × sinθ2

sinθ2 =
2. θ2 = 30ο
Find the angle between the incident ray and the refracted ray inside the slab (let's call it α):
3. α = θ1 − θ2 = 60ο − 30ο = 30ο
4. Visualize a right triangle inside the slab:

A. The hypotenuse of this triangle is the distance the light travels inside the slab (d = 5 cm).
B. The angle between the hypotenuse and the longer side (parallel to the slab's surface) is α =
30ο.
C. Let 'x' be the perpendicular distance we are looking for. This is the side opposite to the angle
α.

Use trigonometry to find 'x':

sin α =

sin 30∘ =

=
5. x = = 2.5 cm
Answer:

Option (2) cm

34) The two slabs will shift the image a distance

Therefore, final image will be 1 cm above point P.

35)

36)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks us to find the minimum index of refraction of a
square glass slab such that a light ray entering it at an angle of 45° from air will undergo
total internal reflection when it hits the vertical face inside the glass.

Underlying Concept: The problem involves the concept of refraction of light and total
internal reflection. When light passes from one medium to another, it bends according to
Snell's law. Total internal reflection happens when light tries to move from a denser medium
to a rarer one at an angle greater than the critical angle, causing the light to reflect
completely inside the denser medium.

Relevant Formulas: Snell's law: where and are refractive indices

and , are the angles of incidence and refraction respectively.

Critical angle relation: when total internal reflection occurs from a medium of
refractive index to .

Step-by-Step Calculation: Step 1: The light ray enters the glass slab at to the horizontal
surface.
Step 2: At the vertical face inside the glass, the ray's angle to the vertical must be at least the
critical angle to get total internal reflection. This means the incident angle inside the glass
at the vertical face is .

Step 3: Use Snell's law at the air-glass interface: where

is the refractive index of glass.

Step 4: Since , we get:

Step 5: From the critical angle condition: and

Step 6: Substitute into the Snell equation:

Step 7: Square both sides:

Step 8: Solve for :

Step 9: Take the square root:

Tips and Tricks: Use the relation to simplify the trigonometric

expression. Also, recall that total internal reflection happens only when light goes from a
denser to a rarer medium.

Common Mistakes: Confusing the angle of incidence and refraction inside the glass slab.
Forgetting to apply the critical angle condition correctly at the vertical face. Using sine
instead of cosine when applying the angle complementary identity.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Options that do not match fail to satisfy the
condition for total internal reflection at the vertical face. Some other choices might arise from
arithmetic errors or incorrect application of trigonometric identities.

37)

VI = 2 × 4 – 8 = 0

38) The object is virtual as can be seen from the figure.

∴ PO = u = 0.2, v = –0.4
=

⇒
f = 0.4
∴ R = 0.4 × 2 = 0.8 m

39)

40)

41)

42)

δ = (μ – 1) A
= (1.5 – 1) × 4
= 2°
Mirror rotated by 1° would given a deflection of 2° by which the ray becomes horizontal.

43) Question Explanation: To find out correct statement as per given question.
Concept : validation of laws of reflection and mirror formula.

Formula :
Solution :

Statement-I mirror formula , valid for small mirrors, because of paraxial rays do not
produce aberration, for large mirror this is not application.
Statement-I Correct
 Statement-II Laws of reflection and valid for all reflecting surface depends on position of
normal incorrect.
Final Answer : option (3)

44)

⇒ v1 = –40 cm

∴ m1 =
also u2 = 40 – 15 = 25

⇒ v2 = –150 cm

m2 =

Mnet = m1 × m2 =
(Image is erect enlarged two times)

45)

i > θc
sin i > sin θc

sin 45° >

μ>

CHEMISTRY

46)

NCERT Pg. No. # 81

47)

Lanthanoid Contraction

48)

NCERT Pg. No. # 75

49)

NCERT Pg. No. # 88

50)

NCERT Pg. No. # 98

51)

NCERT Pg. No. # 99

52)

IP2

53)

Mn+2 has d5 stable

54)

NCERT Pg. No. # 87

55) Answer - option (2)

Explanation -
Let's analyze the given electronic Configuration.
Concept -
The element just below Sulfur in group 16 is Selenium (Se), which is in the 4th period
So The atomic number of Selenium is 34

56)

C+ B+ N+ O+
IP B < C < O < N
EA B+ < C+ < O+ < N+

57)

NCERT Pg. No. # 76

58)
O– has more es– – es– repulsion.

59) NCERT 11th Pg #116, Table-8.4

60)
sp2, 1pπ – pπ

61)

NCERT Pg. No. # 84

62)

XeF2 has 9 lone pair.

63)

NCERT Pg. No. # 116

64)

Large size P and Si form less stable π bond.

65) sp2, planar

66)

NCERT Pg. No. # 105

67)

Generated by Allie

Problem Statement: The question asks which given electron configurations correspond to
transition elements. In simpler terms, it wants us to identify which atoms have electrons in
their d orbitals in such a way that they are considered transition metals, excluding inner-
transition elements like lanthanoids and actinoids.

Underlying Concept: Transition elements are defined as elements whose atoms or common
ions have an incomplete (n-1)d subshell. These elements generally fall in the d-block of the
periodic table. Inner-transition elements, which involve filling of f orbitals (lanthanoids and
actinoids), are not counted as traditional transition elements despite sometimes having d
electrons.

Tips and Tricks: Remember: Transition metals have partially filled d orbitals but are not
lanthanoids or actinoids (which fill f orbitals). Checking the noble gas core and counting d
electrons can quickly identify the element's block.

Common Mistakes: Confusing inner-transition elements (lanthanoids/actinoids) with

transition metals because they contain electrons in f orbitals. Assuming all elements with d
electrons are transition metals, neglecting the incomplete d subshell criterion.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect?: Configurations with f-electrons ([Xe] 4f⁷ and [Rn]
5f⁷) belong to lanthanoids and actinoids, which are inner-transition elements, so they are not
counted as d-block transition metals. Although they have d electrons, their primary electron
filling occurs in f orbitals.

68)

(i) Cl– F–
EA Cl > F
IP Cl– > F–
(ii)
Cr+ Mn+
d5 > d 6
IP Cr+ > Mn+

69)

NCERT Pg. No. # 87

70)

Ionic size in 4f - series decreases from left to right.

La3+ > Eu3+ > Gd3+ > Lu3+

71)

Acidic strength α EN

72)

d-Block metal oxide are acidic basic and amphoteric.

73)

Number of element in any period are double of orbitals.

 74)

Eu > Gd

75)

76)

Explanation

A. The central atom's ability to expand its octet depends on the availability of d-orbitals and
the electronegativity of the surrounding atoms. Oxygen is highly electronegative and
small, limiting its ability to be a central atom with a high coordination number.

Concept

A. Oxygen has no d-orbitals in its valence shell. It can expand its octet only to a limited
extent, primarily forming a maximum of two bonds in stable compounds with highly
electronegative elements like fluorine. While OF₂ is a known stable compound, OF₆
would require oxygen to have an oxidation state of +6 and form six bonds, which is not
energetically feasible due to the lack of d-orbitals and steric hindrance.

Answer option 4, (OF₆).

77)

NCERT Pg. No. # 101

78)

B.E ∝ strength of overlapping

79)

Due to steric repulsion not exist.

80)

XeF4 square planar

81)

NCERT Pg. No. # 120

82)

NCERT Pg. No. # 112

83) Explanation : Compound insoluble in NaOH

Concept : acid dissolve in base

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :
NaOH (basic in nature) it can dissolve acidic/amphoteric oxide.
K2O (basic oxide) it is not dissolve in NaOH
Hence, the correct answer is option (1).

84) Asking for: Which of the following graphs shows correct trends in the size of +3 ions of
lanthanides
Concept: Lanthanide contraction, ionic radii, periodic trends.
Formula: N/A, but understanding the concept of lanthanide contraction.
Solution/Explanation:
1. Lanthanides: The lanthanide series consists of elements from lanthanum (La) to lutetium
(Lu).
2. Lanthanide Contraction: As we move across the lanthanide series, the effective nuclear
charge increases due to the poor shielding of 4f electrons. This leads to a gradual decrease in
the ionic radii of the L n^ 3- ions.
3. Trend: The size of L n3+ ions decreases from L a3+ Lu3+
4. Correct Graph: The graph that shows a gradual decrease in ionic size from La3+ to is the
correct representation. Ln3+
Analyzing the Options:
• Option 1: Shows an increase in ionic size, which is incorrect.
• Option 2: Shows a decrease in ionic size, which is correct.
• Option 3: Shows a linear increase in ionic size, which is incorrect,
• Option 4: Shows a V-shaped trend, which is incorrect.
Therefore, the correct graph is the one that shows a gradual decrease in ionic size from La to
Lu
Answer:
Option: 2
.

85) NCERT Pg # 88

86)
I.P = F > N > C > B > Si
Non- metallic = F > N > C > B > Si
character

87) NCERT Pg.# 84, Ist para

 88)

Concept : the knowledge of the iupac nomenclature periodic table in chemistry should be .
Explanation :
The element that comes after Dubnium (Db, atomic number 105) in the periodic table is
Seaborgium (Sg, atomic number 106). The IUPAC systematic name for element 106 is
Unnilhexium (Unh), which corresponds to the name 'Un nil hexium'.
Determine the IUPAC name for Seaborgium, which is Unnilhexium (Unh).
Final Answer :Unnilhexium

89)

(i) Li+ Be+ B+

1s2 2s1 2s2
IP2 Be < B < Li
(ii) I.E ∝ +ve O.S.

90)

I.E. Cu < Cu+ Cu+ > Zn+

+
Zn < Zn
Cu < Zn
So. I.E. Cu < Zn < Zn+ < Cu+

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT, Pg. No. # 54

92)

NCERT, Pg. # 31, 32

93) NCERT XII Pg. # 55

94) Module No. # 8

95) NCERT Pg. # 52

96) Module No. # 8, Pg. No. # 40

97) NCERT XII Pg. # 57

98) NCERT XII Pg. # 53

99) NCERT Pg. # 48 [E]
NCERT Pg. # 35 [H]

100) NCERT XII Pg. # 46

101) NCERT Page No. 44 (E), 32 (H)

102) NCERT XII Pg. # 51

103) NCERT Pg. # 37

104) NCERT Pg. # 47, 48(E) ; 51(H)

105) NCERT Pg # 23

106)

Fructose, Calcium and Certain enzymes.

107) NCERT Pg. # 43(E), 47(H)

108) NCERT Page No. # 31(E)/34(H)

109) NCERT Page No. # 29,30(E)/32(H)

110) NCERT Page No.#30(E)/32(H)

111) NCERT-XII Pg. # 32

112) NCERT Pg. # 52, 53

113)

NCERT Pg. # 38

114)

Question Explanation :
What is the effect on sperm function or fertility if the epididymis is absent?

Concept :
 This question is based on Male reproductive system.

Solution :
The correct answer is option 4.

A. The epididymis is crucial for functional maturation, storage, and transport of sperms.
B. Without it, sperms do not mature properly and become incapable of fertilization, even though
they may still be produced in the testes.

Hence,
Option (4) is correct : Sperms are incapable for fertilization.

115) NCERT XII Pg. # 51

116) Intrauterine insemination (IUI) Correct. IUI is a procedure where sperm (obtained
through a donor or sperm bank) is directly placed into the uterus, bypassing the male's
impotence. Since the female partner is fertile, IUI is a viable option. Correct Answer:

Option 2: Intrauterine insemination (IUI)

IUI is the most appropriate option when the male is impotent, and the female is fertile. It can
be performed with sperm from a donor.

117) Question Is Asking:

A. To identify and count the contraceptive methods that are characterized by minimal to no
adverse side effects on the user's health.

Solution Explanation:

A. Lactational amenorrhea: Natural method; generally few side effects, but dependent on
consistent breastfeeding.
B. Periodic abstinence: Natural method; no direct physical side effects.
C. Coitus interruptus: Natural method; no direct physical side effects.
B. Methods with "almost no side effects":
A. Lactational amenorrhea
B. Periodic abstinence
C. Coitus interruptus

Answer:
The correct answer is option 2: THREE.

118)

Solution:

Option 1: Oral contraceptive pill once in a week

This is correct.
Option 2: Developed by CDRI (Central Drug Research Institute)
This is correct..
Option 3: Non-steroidal preparation with very few side effects and high contraceptive value
This is correct. Option 4: All
This would be correct

119)

Question Is Asking:

● Which contraceptive device offers protection against both pregnancy and sexually
transmitted diseases (STDs).

Solution Explanation

● Condoms are barrier methods that physically prevent the exchange of bodily fluids, thus
offering protection against STDs.

● Other methods like sponges offer some very limited protection, but not reliably.

● IUDs and hormonal methods like LNG-20 do not provide any protection against STDs.

● Therefore, the condom is the correct answer.

Answer:
The correct answer is option 1: Condom.

120)

Question Asking About:

The question presents four pairs matching contraceptive methods with their modes of action.
You need to identify the pair that is incorrectly matched.

Solution and Correct Answer:

Let's analyze each pair:

A. (3) Lippes loop - Make cervix hostile to the sperm: This is an incorrect match. Lippes
loop is a non-hormonal IUD that primarily works by causing a foreign body reaction in the
uterus, which prevents sperm from reaching the fallopian tubes. It doesn't specifically make
the cervix hostile to sperm.

Correct Answer:
Option 3 (Lippes loop - Make cervix hostile to the sperm) is the incorrect match.

121)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 44

122) NCERT-XII, Pg.# 48

123) Solution :

A. ZIFT (Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer) and IUT (Intra Uterine tranfer) involve in vitra
 fertilization, where fortilization occurs outside the body. GIFT, AI and IUI involve in vivo
methods.

Final Answer : option (3) Two

124) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 64

125)

Question Asking About:

Match each method with its correct mode of action.

Solution and Correct Answer:

Let's analyze each method and its mode of action:

A. A. The pill: The pill contains hormones that primarily prevent ovulation (c).
B. B. Condom: Condoms act as a barrier, preventing sperm from reaching the cervix (a).
C. C. Vasectomy: Vasectomy involves cutting or blocking the vas deferens, so the semen
contains no sperm (d).
D. D. Copper T: Copper T (IUD) decreases sperm motility and viability (b).

Final Answers:
A – (c), B – (a), C – (d), D – (b)

126) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 44, para–3.2(E),

Pg. # 50, para–3.2(H)

127)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 48

128) NCERT - Pg # 60

129) NCERT XII Page # 60 (E), 67 (H)

130)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 45,46

131) NCERT(XII) Pg# 54 (E), 58 (H)

132)

Question Explanation: Foetal movement starts usually from ?

Concept : Pregnancy and Embryonic development.
Solution : The first movement of foetus are usually observed during the fitty month.
Final Answer : option (4). V month of pregnancy

133) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 52 (E) 57(H) , Fig. (3.11)

134) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 52 (E), 57 (H)

135)

Question Explanation: 'Antrum' is cavity present in ?

Concept : Gametofenens
Solution : The secondary follicle soon transforms into a tertiary follicle which is characterised
by a fluid filled cavity called Antrum.
Final Answer : option (4). Tertiary follicle

136) NCERT Pg. # 27, 28

137) NCERT Pg. # Fig. 2.12, 37 (E), 41 (H)

138) NCERT Pg. # 37 (E), 41 (H)

139) NCERT Pg. # 37 (E), 41 (H)

140) NCERT Pg. # 30

141) NCERT Pg. # 38 (E), 42 (H)

142) NCERT Pg. No. # 33

143) NCERT Pg. # 30

144) NCERT Pg. # 38 (E), 42 (H)

145) NCERT Pg. No. # 36

146) NCERT Pg. No. # 31

147) NCERT Pg. No. # 31

148) NCERT, Pg. # 32

149) NCERT, Pg. # 36

150) NCERT Pg. No. # 30

151) NCERT Pg. No. # 31

152)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 30

153) NCERT Pg. No. # 32

154) NCERT Pg. # 37

155) NCERT, Pg. # 35

156) NCERT Pg. No. # 26

157) NCERT Pg. No. # 27

158)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 38

159) NCERT Pg. # 35

160)

NCERT-XII Pg. # 33

161)

NCERT Pg. # 27

162)

NCERT-XII Pg#32

163) NCERT Pg. # 31,33

164)
NCERT Pg. # 33

165)

NCERT Pg. # 32
Module-7, Pg. No. 17

166) NCERT Pg. 47

167)

NCERT(XII) Pg#48 Para:3.3

168)

NCERT Pg. # 32,33

From each primary spermatocyte 4 sperms formed. So from 100 primary spermatocyte 400
sperm form. Each primary oocyte from 1 ova so 100 primary oocyte form 100 ova.

169) NCERT Pg. # 44, Para-3.2

170)

NCERT Pg. # 34

171) NCERT Pg. # 34,35

172) The correct answer is 3. Saheli.

Saheli is a weekly oral contraceptive pill for females. It is a progestogen-only pill, meaning it
contains only progestin and no estrogen.

173)

What the Question Is Asking:

A. Asks which assisted reproductive technology (ART) technique involves fertilization

occurring within the female's body.

Solution/Explanation:

A. GIFT is the only option where the gametes (sperm and ovum) are placed into the
fallopian tubes, allowing fertilization to occur naturally within the female's reproductive
tract
 B. Correct Answer is option (4)

C. Therefore the correct answer is option 4: G.I.F.T.

Difficulty Level: Easy.

174)

NCERT XIIth Pg # 60

175)

Question Asking About:

The question asks you to identify the pair that is incorrectly matched.

Solution AND CORRECT ANSWER:

3. Moultilad 375 – Non-medicated IUD:
This is an incorrect match. Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD, meaning it is medicated
with copper.

Therefore, the incorrect match is 3. Multiload 375 – Non-medicated IUD.

176)

NCERT-XIIth Pg. 33

177)

NCERT-XII Pg#34

178) NCERT(XII) Page#50/54(H) Fig:3.9

179)

NCERT Pg. # 36,37

180)

NCERT Pg. # 33,34,35