ENDOCRINOLOGY

1. Dynamic tests in endocrinology indirectly participating in maintaining

performed when hypofunction is blood pressure, is called (aldosterone).
suspected are called Stimulatory.
12. The hormone aldosterone causing
2. Dynamic tests in endocrinology sodium reabsorption and potassium
performed when hyperfunction is secretion, indirectly participating in
suspected are called Suppressive. maintaining blood pressure, is secreted
in the (adrenal cortex - zona
3. Based on the level of the control glomerulosa).
system involved, we distinguish three
types of endocrinopathies: primary, 13. Reduced secretion of adrenal cortex
secondary, and tertiary. hormones leads to (Addison's disease -
primary hypocorticism).
4. Endocrinopathy in which the disorder
is in the endocrine gland itself (thyroid, 14. Increased secretion of adrenal
adrenal, gonads) is called Primary cortex hormones leads to (Cushing's
endocrinopathy syndrome - primary hypercorticism).

5. Endocrinopathy in which the disorder 15. The two hormones secreted in the
is at the level of the pituitary is called adrenal medulla are (1): glucocorticoids
(secondary) endocrinopathy. and aldosterone

6. Endocrinopathy in which the disorder 16. Most endocrine system hormones

is localized in the hypothalamus is are regulated by (1): negative feedback
called (tertiary) endocrinopathy. mechanism

7. The basic hormone analyses in the 17. The hormone stimulating

evaluation of amenorrhea include contractions of smooth muscles in the
determining (1): FSH, LH, TSH, PRL, and uterus is (1): oxytocin
pregnancy test
18. Which of the following is not a
8. The release of the seven hormones function (effect) of adrenaline (1):
secreted in the anterior pituitary is control of nerve impulses
controlled by (1): hypothalamus
19. Reduced secretion of cortisol can
9. The function of the posterior pituitary cause the development of (1):
is to (1): store and release hormones Addison's disease

10. Hormones released in response to 20. Long-term use of glucocorticoids

stress are (1): PRL, ACTH, growth can result in (1): osteoporosis
hormone
21. The most common pituitary tumor is:
11. The hormone secreted in the ______________________ adenoma
adrenal cortex causing sodium
reabsorption and potassium secretion,
22. If the size of the pituitary tumor is 32. Inability of the pituitary gland to
up to 10 mm, it is called: stop growth hormone production after
_______________ microadenoma growth is completed results in (1):
acromegaly
23. If the size of the pituitary tumor is
over 10 mm, it is called: 33. Therapeutic modalities in the
_______________ macroadenoma treatment of acromegaly are: (circle the
correct answer) (1): Surgery,
24. The diagnosis of prolactinoma is radiotherapy and medical therapy with
made based on (1): clinical somatostatin analogs
presentation, prolactin level
measurements, and pituitary 34. Signs of hypogonadism are: (circle
morphology the correct answer) (1): child-like
genitalia, eunuchoid body shape, high
25. Pharmacological therapy for voice and sparse body hair
hyperprolactinemia is performed by
using: Dopamine agonist - 35. Clinical manifestations of growth
bromocriptine hormone deficiency in adults are: (circle
the correct answer) (1): increase in
26. Clinical manifestations of adipose tissue, poor quality of life,
prolactinoma are (1): dry mouth, poor lipid profile and loss of muscle
polyuria, polydipsia and bone tissue

27. List three clinical manifestations of 36. Diabetes insipidus represents (1): a
prolactinoma: headaches, galactorrhea, disorder of the neurohypophysis due
menstrual cycle disturbances, infertility to ADH deficiency

28. Acromegaly is: a disease caused by 37. Morphological evaluation of thyroid

persistent hypersecretion of growth gland diseases includes (1): ultrasound
hormone characterized by examination of the thyroid gland,
enlargement of acral parts of the body scintigraphy of the thyroid gland
(nose, ears, feet, hands)
38. Morphological evaluation of thyroid
29. To diagnose acromegaly, the gland diseases includes (2): ultrasound
following hormone analyses are examination of the thyroid gland and
necessary (1): growth hormone, IGF-1 scintigraphy of the thyroid gland

30. Which hormone analyses are 39. Thyroiditis represents (1)

necessary to diagnose acromegaly (1): inflammation of the thyroid gland.
growth hormone, IGF-1
40. Thyroiditis can be (3) acute,
31. Clinical manifestations of subacute, and chronic.
acromegaly are (1): enlargement of
acral parts of the body (nose, ears, feet, 41. The main division of thyroid goiters
hands) is (2): diffuse and nodular
42. Hashimoto's thyroiditis represents 52. Therapy for differentiated thyroid
(1): Chronic inflammation of the carcinomas is (1): surgical
thyroid gland
53. How are differentiated thyroid
43. Patients at increased risk of carcinomas treated (1): surgically (total
developing Hashimoto's thyroiditis thyroidectomy)
include all EXCEPT (1): individuals with
type 2 diabetes 54. After total thyroidectomy, (1):
permanent substitution with thyroid
44. All the following statements about hormones
Hashimoto's thyroiditis are true EXCEPT
(1): it is accompanied by a disorder of 55. Which of the listed thyroid
parathyroid function carcinomas has the best prognosis (1):
papillary
45. Criteria for subacute thyroiditis are
(1): painful sensitivity of the thyroid 56. The function of the parathyroid
gland, positive biohumoral glands is (1): to maintain calcium
inflammatory syndrome, decreased concentration in the blood
radioactive iodine fixation*
57. When calcium is elevated and
46. Criteria for subacute thyroiditis are phosphate is decreased in the serum, it
(circle the correct answer) (1): painful is most often a consequence of (1):
sensitivity of the thyroid gland, primary hyperparathyroidism
positive biohumoral inflammatory
syndrome, decreased radioactive 58. Diagnostic criteria for primary
iodine fixation hyperparathyroidism are (1): elevated
calcium and PTH, decreased
47. Basic hormonal analyses in thyroid phosphorus
status evaluation include determining
(1): TSH, fT4 59. Primary hyperparathyroidism is:
a condition of chronic hypercalcemia
48. The best test for thyroid function resulting from increased and
screening is (1): *TSH* uncontrolled secretion of PTH due to
hyperfunction of one or more
49. Which antibodies confirm chronic parathyroid glands
autoimmune thyroiditis (1): anti-TPO
Ab 60. Symptoms and signs of
hypocalcemia are (circle the correct
50. Markers of autoimmune processes answer) (1): tetany, paresthesias,
in thyroid diseases are (circle the extended ST interval on ecg, spasms.
correct answer) (1): anti-TPO Ab, anti-
TSH r Ab and anti-TG Ab 61. In medullary thyroid carcinoma, (1):
*б) calcitonin
51. Hashimoto's thyroiditis represents:
chronic autoimmune inflammation of 62. The tumor marker elevated in
the thyroid gland medullary thyroid carcinoma is (1):
calcitonin
63. Secondary osteoporosis occurs in (1): 73. Myxedema coma represents (1): an
hyperparathyroidism, hypercortisolism, urgent condition defined as acute
hyperthyroidism, hypogonadism, decompensation of hypothyroidism
diabetes
74. Clinical signs of myxedema coma are
64. The treatment for (1): decreased mental function,
hyperparathyroidism is (1): surgical hypoventilation, hypothermia,
removal of the parathyroid glands bradycardia

65. All the listed organs can be affected 75. A characteristic ECG finding in
in multiple endocrine neoplasia type 1 hypothyroidism is the following (1): low
(MEN1) EXCEPT (1): kidney voltage, sinus bradycardia

66. MEN 1 (Wermer's syndrome) 76. The management approach for

includes (1): hyperplasia or adenoma of patients with pre-existing
parathyroid, pancreas, and pituitary hypothyroidism who become pregnant
is (1): Continuation of substitution
67. MEN 2a includes (1): medullary therapy, determination of thyroid
thyroid carcinoma, status, and subsequent adjustments of
pheochromocytoma, substitution therapy based on test
hyperparathyroidism results*

68. MEN 2b includes (1): medullary 77. Differential diagnosis of

thyroid carcinoma, hypothyroidism in older individuals
pheochromocytoma, mucosal neuroma includes (3): Chronic renal insufficiency,
Psychiatric disorders, Pernicious
69. Risk factors for the occurrence of anemia, Congestive heart failure
hypothyroidism are (circle the correct
answer) (1): Female sex, obesity, age 78. Causes of primary hypothyroidism in
older than 50, thyroid surgery and adults include (1): autoimmune-
irradiation of back region. induced gland atrophy

70. Hypothyroidism in newborns is 79. Which of the following is NOT

called (1): cretinism included in the symptoms of
hyperthyroidism (1): Increased
71. The introduction of substitution likelihood of falling asleep
therapy with levothyroxine in primary
hypothyroidism is accompanied by 80. Grave's disease can cause all EXCEPT
gradual increase in dose. (1):
а) Exophthalmos
72. Precipitating factors for the onset of б) Heat intolerance
myxedema coma include (circle the в) Generalized edema
correct answer) (1): exposure to cold, *г) Bradycardia*
hypoglycemia
81. Grave's disease is (1): The most
common cause of hyperthyroidism
82. Precipitating factors for the onset of 92. Adrenal cortex insufficiency is also
thyrotoxic crisis include (circle the called (1): Addison's disease -
correct answer) (1): Therapy with I131, hypocorticism
KKS, discontinuation of antithyroid
drugs 93. The most common causes of
Addison's disease are (1): autoimmune,
83. Thyroid storm (Thyrotoxic crisis) is TB
(1): an urgent condition defined as
acute decompensation of 94. Skin hyperpigmentation and buccal
hyperthyroidism mucosa occur in (1): Addison's disease

84. Thyrotoxic crisis is treated with (1): 95. ACTH stimulation test is used for the
high doses of thyrostatic agents, diagnosis of (1): Adrenal insufficiency
rehydration, iodine preparations, beta- (Addison's disease)
blockers, corticosteroids
96. Basic hormone analyses in adrenal
85. The most severe adverse effect of evaluation include determining (1):
thyrostatic therapy is (1): cortisol, ACTH
agranulocytosis
97. Clinical manifestation of secondary
86. List two most important adverse hypocorticism includes (1): hypotension,
effects of thyrostatic therapy (2): shock, hypoglycemia, vomiting, fatigue,
Agranulocytosis and toxic hepatitis patient does not have dark skin and
mucous membrane pigmentation
87. Which antibodies are determined to
assess the activity of hyperthyroidism 98. Symptoms and clinical signs for
(1): anti TSH At chronic primary hypocorticism
(Addison's disease) include (circle the
88. List therapeutic modalities in the correct answer) (1): adynamia,
treatment of hyperthyroidism (3): hypotension, hypoglycemia, weight
Surgery, Radioactive iodine therapy, loss
Pharmacological-drug therapy with
thyrostatics 99. In case of fever, vomiting, diarrhea,
or infection, the dose of Hydrocortisone
89. Which medications are used to in patients with hypocorticism should
reduce symptoms in hyperthyroidism be (1): increased
(2): Beta-blockers and sedatives
100. How should the dose of
90. Which of the following is used in the hydrocortisone be adjusted in patients
diagnosis of Addison's disease (1): with hypocorticism in case of fever,
morning cortisol vomiting, diarrhea, or infection (1):
doubled - increased
91. Adrenal cortex insufficiency is also
called (1): Addison's disease 101. Hypocorticism - Addison's disease
is treated (1): with hydrocortisone
permanently
102. Addison's disease is treated (1): sodium chloride, 5% glucose, and
substitution therapy - hydrocortisone intravenous hydrocortisone

103. The duration of treatment for 113. In the therapy of Addisonian crisis,
Addison's disease is (1): permanently- it is necessary to administer (circle the
lifetime correct answer) (1): 0.9% sodium
chloride, intravenous hydrocortisone
104. Suspicion of hypocorticism exists if and 5% glucose
there is (circle the correct answer) (1):
skin hyperpigmentation and buccal 114. Polyglandular autoimmune
mucosa syndrome type 1 includes (1):
hypoparathyroidism, Addison's disease,
105. Biochemical analysis disorders mucocutaneous candidiasis, type 1
expected in patients with acute primary diabetes
adrenal insufficiency include (1):
acidosis, hyperkalemia, hypoglycemia 115. Polyglandular autoimmune
syndrome type 2 includes (1):
106. In patients with acute primary hypoparathyroidism, Addison's disease,
adrenal insufficiency, blood pH hypothyroidism, type 1 diabetes
indicates acidosis
116. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
107. In patients with acute primary represents: a disorder where there is
adrenal insufficiency, potassium level is partial or complete deficiency of one of
increased the enzymes in the cortisol synthesis
pathway
108. In patients with acute primary
adrenal insufficiency, and blood glucose 117. Which laboratory analyses should
is decreased be done when suspecting
pheochromocytoma (1):
109. Clinical manifestation of catecholamines in 24-hour urine
hypocorticism includes (1): hypotension,
shock, hypoglycemia, vomiting, fatigue 118. Specify which laboratory analyses
should be done when suspecting
110. Addisonian crisis is characterized pheochromocytoma (1):
by (circle the correct answer) (1): catecholamines in 24-hour urine
hypotensive shock, hypoglycemia,
electrolyte imbalance, nausea, 119. The most common localization of
vomiting, abdominal pain, hypotension pheochromocytoma is (1): medulla of
dehydration due to vomiting and the adrenal glands
osmotic diuresis
120. The symptomatology of
111. Adrenal (Addisonian) crisis is pheochromocytoma includes (1):
accompanied by (1): low cortisol levels sweating, pallor, tachycardia,
hypertension
112. Treatment of Addisonian crisis
involves the administration of (1): 0.9% 121. The symptomatology of
pheochromocytoma includes (circle the
correct answer) (1): sweating, pallor, glands or in other parts of the
tachycardia, hypertension sympathetic nervous system

122. The most common localization of 130. A tumor of chromaffin cells that
pheochromocytoma is (1): medulla of secretes catecholamines in sympathetic
the adrenal glands ganglia is called: Paraganglioma

123. Differential diagnosis when 131. Primary hyperaldosteronism is

suspecting pheochromocytoma includes characterized by (1): suppressed renin,
(1): hyperthyroidism, panic syndrome, increased aldosterone, diastolic
anxiety, cardiac diseases hypertension, hypokalemia

124. What comes into consideration 132. Primary hyperaldosteronism is

when suspecting pheochromocytoma in characterized by (circle the correct
the differential diagnosis (circle the answer) (1): diastolic hypertension,
correct answer) (1): Panic attack, hypokalemia, suppressed renin,
Thyrotoxicosis, Hypoglycemia, Angina, elevated aldosterone
Hyperventilation, Abstinence
syndrome (ethylism), Posterior cranial 133. Pharmacological therapy for
fossa tumor primary hyperaldosteronism involves
the use of (1): Spironolactone
125. The "tens rule" in
pheochromocytoma denotes (circle the 134. Pharmacological therapy for
correct answer) (1): benign (90%) and primary hypercortisolism involves the
malignant (10%), unilateral (90%) and use of (1): Ketoconazole
bilateral (10%), adrenal medulla (90%)
and extramedullary (10%) 135. A patient is admitted with
suspicion of Cushing's syndrome.
126. Pheochromocytoma represents (1): Physical examination is expected to
a tumor of chromaffin cells that reveal (1): buffalo hump, moon face,
secretes catecholamines in the medulla acne, purple striae
of the adrenal glands
136. Which of the following is most
127. Pheochromocytoma is: a tumor of useful for screening for Cushing's
chromaffin cells that secretes syndrome (1): Dexamethasone
catecholamines in the medulla of the suppression test
adrenal glands
137. Clinical manifestations of Cushing's
128. Paraganglioma represents (1): a syndrome include (circle the correct
tumor of chromaffin cells that secretes answer) (1): purple stretch marks,
catecholamines in sympathetic ganglia facies lunata, hypertension,
redistribution of fat tissue (centripetal
129. Extra-adrenal pheochromocytoma obesity)
- paraganglioma is: a tumor of
chromaffin cells of neuroectodermal 138. The diagnostic test for
origin that secretes catecholamines hypercortisolism is (1): Dexamethasone
located in the medulla of the adrenal test
 tolerance (2): elevated fasting glucose
139. Symptoms of Cushing's syndrome and impaired glucose tolerance
include all EXCEPT (1): hair loss
151. Impaired glucose tolerance
140. Which of the following conditions denotes a glycemia at 120 minutes
is caused by prolonged exposure to during OGTT with 75g glucose of 7.8-
elevated cortisol levels? (1): Cushing's 11.1 mmol/L
syndrome
152. The quality of glycemic control is
141. Differential diagnosis when assessed based on (1): glycemia values
suspecting hypercortisolism includes and HbA1c
(circle the correct answer) (1): Acute
diseases, Iatrogenic causes, Chronic 153. The parameter of retrograde
alcoholism, Depression, Obesity glycemic control for the previous 2 to 3
months is called: Glycosylated
142. The key pathophysiological hemoglobin HbA1c
disturbance in type 2 diabetes is (1):
insulin resistance 154. Glycosylated hemoglobin HbA1c
represents: a parameter of retrograde
143. The diagnosis of type 1A diabetes glycemic control for the previous 2 to 3
is confirmed by the presence of (1): months
anti-GAD antibodies
155. What HbA1c value is
144. Glucagon test is used for (1): recommended as a target in diabetes
assessment of pancreatic endogenous therapy (1): <7%
reserve
156. Metabolic syndrome represents
145. The test for diagnosing diabetes is the association of (circle the correct
(1): oral glucose tolerance test answer) (1): central obesity,
hyperuricemia, TA>130/85 mmHg,
146. The test for diagnosing diabetes is increased triglycerides, decreased HDL,
called: OGTT - oral glucose tolerance blood glucose >5.6mmol/L or some
test disorder of glucose tolerance

147. LADA represents (1): late-onset 157. The association of central obesity,
autoimmune diabetes of adults hyperuricemia, and any 2 of 4 (elevated
fasting glucose or impaired glucose
148. LADA represents (1): late-onset tolerance, BP >130/85 mmHg, elevated
autoimmune diabetes of adults triglycerides, decreased HDL) represents
(1): Metabolic syndrome
149. The diagnostic criterion for
diabetes mellitus in OGTT with 75g of 158. Criteria for Polycystic Ovary
glucose is (1): glycemia higher than Syndrome (PCOS) are (1): hirsutism,
11.1 mmol/L in 120 minutes of OGTT hyperandrogenism, amenorrhea

150. "Prediabetes" includes the

following impairments of glucose
159. List the criteria for Polycystic Ovary 169. Specify the drug that is the first-
Syndrome (PCOS) (3): hirsutism, line therapy in treating Type 2 Diabetes
hyperandrogenism, amenorrhea (1): Biguanides - Metformin

160. Evaluation of hirsutism should start 170. Specify the types of insulin therapy
with determining (1): OGTT with in Type 1 Diabetes (2):, conventional
insulinemia, daily profile of cortisol, intensified insulin therapy, continuous
testosterone, FSH, LH subcutaneous insulin infusion

161. Hirsutism represents (1): excessive 171. Specify which insulins can be
hairiness of male pattern in women administered intravenously (1): human
insulins of rapid and short action
162. Hirsutism occurs in (2): Polycystic
ovary syndrome (PCOS) and congenital 172. Types of therapy in type 2 diabetes
adrenal hyperplasia (CAH) are (1): dietary regimen, oral
antidiabetics, combined therapy,
163. Symptoms of polycystic ovary various forms of insulin therapy
syndrome (PCOS) may include all
EXCEPT (1): loss in body mass 173. Specify the types of therapy in type
2 diabetes (3): dietary regimen, oral
164. Women with polycystic ovary antidiabetics, combined therapy,
syndrome (PCOS) are at increased risk various forms of insulin therapy
for all of the following EXCEPT (1):
pregnancy 174. Characteristics of modern therapy
with insulin analogs include (circle the
165. Insulin resistance represents (1): correct answer) (1): better glycemic
reduced sensitivity of peripheral profile, less hypoglycemia, faster onset
tissues to insulin of action

166. Indications for insulin use in 175. The hormonal response to

diabetes via external portable insulin hypoglycemia is (1): relative
pump include (1): pregnancy, unstable insulinopenia, surge of catecholamines,
form of diabetes, incipient cortisol, glucagon, growth hormone
nephropathy, diabetic foot
176. Counterregulatory hormones (to
167. What are the indications for insulin insulin) in hypoglycemia are (1): cortisol,
use in diabetes via an external portable glucagon, catecholamines
insulin pump (circle the correct answer)
(1): unstable form of diabetes, 177. Specify which are
incipient nephropathy, diabetic foot, counterregulatory hormones (to insulin)
pregnancy in hypoglycemia (circle the correct
answer) (1): cortisol, glucagon,
168. Specify the basic model of insulin catecholamines, ACTH, prolactin
therapy in Type 1 Diabetes (1):
conventional intensified insulin 178. Endocrine hypoglycemias occur (1):
therapy* in insulinoma and pancreatic beta cell
hyperplasia
179. Unrecognized hypoglycemias occur 188. The strategy for primary
due to impaired counterregulatory prevention of diabetes complications
hormone response of (1): glucagon and includes (1): glycemic control, blood
adrenaline pressure control, lipid control, weight
management
180. When a patient being treated for
diabetes presents symptoms such as 189. Diabetic ketoacidosis,
disturbances in vision, altered hypoglycemia, hyperglycemic
consciousness, weakness, dizziness, nonketotic state, and lactic acidosis are
headache, this indicates (1): (circle the correct answer) not included
neuroglycopenic symptoms in in (1): Microvascular complications of
hypoglycemia diabetes, Chronic complications of
diabetes, Microvascular complications
181. When a patient being treated for of diabetes
diabetes presents symptoms such as
sweating, trembling, hunger, nausea, 190. When a patient registers a blood
pallor, palpitations, this indicates (1): glucose level >44 mmol/L,
adrenergic symptoms in hypoglycemia osmolality >350 mmol, dehydration,
altered consciousness, it is acute
182. Missed meal, excessive insulin complication of diabetes -
dose, impaired counterregulatory hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state
hormone response in individuals with
diabetes are the most common causes 191. Symptoms such as decreased
of (1): hypoglycemia in diabetes appetite, nausea, weakness, polydipsia,
polyuria in individuals with diabetes
183. When a patient is unconscious, indicate the presence of (1): diabetic
hypoglycemia is treated with (2): ketoacidosis
intravenous glucose solution or
glucagon ampoule 192. When biochemical analysis of a
intravenously/subcutaneously, and if patient reveals hyperglycemia,
the patient is conscious, give the ketonuria, acidosis, it is an acute
patient a meal rich in carbohydrates complication of diabetes - diabetic
ketoacidosis
184. Medications from the group of oral
hypoglycemics that most commonly can 193. During treatment of ketoacidosis,
cause hypoglycemia are (1): when blood glucose falls below 14
sulfonylurea preparations mmol/L, it is necessary to initiate
therapy with GIK (Glucose, insulin,
185. Clinically, insulin manifests as (1): potassium)
*в) postprandial hypoglycemia*
194. Microalbuminuria represents
186. Insulin is (1): a tumor of the excretion of (1): 30 to 300 mcg of
endocrine islets of the pancreas albumin in a 24-hour urine

187. Insulin represents a tumor of (1): 195. Chronic microvascular

__________________endocrine islets complications of diabetes are (1):
of the pancreas retinopathy and nephropathy
196. Specify what are microvascular
chronic complications of diabetes (3): 205. If there is hyperlipidemia, which
Retinopathy, nephropathy, diseases should be ruled out (1):
polyneuropathy hypothyroidism, nephrotic syndrome

197. Macrovascular complications of 206. Secondary hyperlipidemias occur in

diabetes are (1): coronary artery (circle the correct answer)(1): uremia,
disease, peripheral vascular disease, alcoholism, diabetes, hypothyroidism,
cerebrovascular disease gout, nephrotic syndrome

198. Autonomic neuropathy in diabetes 207. Which endocrine disorders are

includes (1): gastropathy, erectile accompanied by secondary obesity
dysfunction, orthostatic hypotension (circle the correct answer)(1):
hypogonadism, hypopituitarism,
199. Autonomic neuropathy in diabetes hypothyroidism, hypercortisolism,
includes (circle the correct answer) (1): Metabolic syndrome X, Polycystic
gastroenteropathy, erectile ovary syndrome
dysfunction, orthostatic hypotension
208. The frequency of malignant
200. When biochemical analysis of a diseases is higher in obese patients
patient reveals hyperglycemia, (circle the correct answer)(1): colorectal,
ketonuria, blood pH below 7.2, gallbladder, pancreas, endometrium,
bicarbonates below 15 mmol/L, ovaries, breast, prostate
diagnostic criteria for diabetic
ketoacidosis are satisfied. 209. The two groups of disorders
encompassing complications of obesity
201. In the treatment of diabetic are (2): metabolic and reproductive
ketoacidosis, the following therapeutic
measures are necessary (circle the 210. Antibodies that are specific to a
correct answer)(1): insulin particular disease are: Match the
compensation, fluid compensation, correct answers with each sub-question
correction of electrolyte and acid-base (write the correct combinations):
imbalance 1. type 1 diabetes A) anti-TPO Ab
2. hyperthyroidism B) anti-adrenal Ab
202. Medications used in the treatment 3. autoimmune thyroiditis C) anti-TSH
of diabetic ketoacidosis are (2): insulin, rec. Ab
bicarbonates, potassium, rehydration 4. hypoadrenalism D) anti-GAD Ab
(1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C)
203. The clinical picture of diabetic
ketoacidosis includes (3): acetone 211. Diagnostic tests for the listed
breath, Kussmaul breathing, diagnoses are: Match the correct
hyperglycemia, brain edema answers with each sub-question (write
the correct combinations):
204. When a patient is unconscious, 1. type 2 diabetes A) anti-TPO Ab
dehydrated, with rapid breathing, and 2. hypercortisolism B) ACTH stimulation
acetone breath, it is most likely (1): test
diabetic ketoacidosis 3. autoimmune thyroiditis C) OGTT
4. hypoadrenalism D) dexamethasone 2. hyperglycemia, ketonuria, reduced
suppression test blood pH and bicarbonates B) thyrotoxic
(1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B) crisis
3. hypotension, shock, hypoglycemia C)
212. Match the correct answers with ketoacidosis
each sub-question (write the correct 4. acute decompensation of
combinations): hyperthyroidism D) myxedema coma
1. Hypoadrenalism A) Conn's syndrome (1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B)
2. Hypercortisolism B) Cushing's
syndrome
3. Hyperaldosteronism C) Hashimoto's
thyroiditis
4. Chronic autoimmune thyroiditis D)
Addison's disease
(1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C)

213. Match the correct answers with

each sub-question (write the correct
combinations) for the following urgent
conditions in endocrinology:
1. diabetes mellitus A) Addisonian crisis
2. hypothyroidism B) thyrotoxic crisis
3. hypoadrenalism C) ketoacidosis
4. hyperthyroidism D) myxedema coma
(1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B)

214. Match the correct answers with

each sub-question (write the correct
combinations):
1. hypothyroidism A) polyuria,
polydipsia, polyphagia
2. hyperthyroidism B) Sweating, tremor,
hunger, nausea, pallor, palpitations
3. hypoglycemia C) Fatigue, weakness,
cold intolerance, weight gain
4. diabetes mellitus D) Loss of body
mass, palpitations, increased appetite
(1-C, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D)

215. Circle the incorrectly paired terms

(1): calcitonin - thyroid gland

216. Match the correct answers with

each sub-question (write the correct
combinations):
1. acute decompensation of
hypothyroidism A) Addisonian crisis