VER - 11

PGP-CET 2014
Question Booklet Version No. PGP-CET- 2014 Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. No.

11
Answer Sheet No.
(Write this number on your (Write this number on your
Answer Sheet) Answer Sheet)

Day and Date : Sunday, 10th August, 2014 Duration: 1 hour 30 Minutes.
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 11.30 a.m. Total Marks : 100

This is to certify that, the entries of PGP-CET Roll Number and Answer Sheet
Number have been correctly written and verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

Instructions to Candidates

1. This question booklet contains 100 Objective Type Questions (Single Best Response
Type).
2. The question paper and answer Sheet are issued to examinees separately at the beginning
of the examination session.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the
candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and
Answer Sheet and make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. The candidate must
sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
5. Read each question carefully.
6. Determine the correct answer from out of the four available options given for each
question.

7. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this •, for answering a particular question, with
Black ink ball point pen in the answer sheet provided to you.
8. Each answer with correct response shall be awarded one (1) mark. There is NO Negative
Marking. If the examinee has marked two or more answers or has done scratching and
overwriting in the Answer sheet in response to any question, or has marked the circles
inappropriately, mark/s shall NOT be awarded for such answer/s.
9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
10. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet.
Rough work should not be done on the Answer Sheet.
11. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Question Booklet and
Answer sheet is to be returned to the Invigilator. Confirm that both the Candidate and
Invigilator have signed on question booklet and answer sheet.
12. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the examination session is over.

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 VER - 11

PGP-CET 2014

1. The nerve supply of Abductor Policis Brevis is …

A. Superficial branch of ulnar B. Deep branch of ulnar
C. Median D. Radial
2. Rotation at Atlantoaxilal joints is by …
A. Sternocleidomastoid B. Semispinalis Capitis
C. Scalenus anterior D. Superior oblique
3. Hemiplegia may occurs with lesion of which part of Internal Capsule?
A. Anterior limb B. Posterior limb
C. Retrolentiform part D. Sublentiform part

4. Propulsion in walking is chiefly by…

A. Gastrocnemius and Soleus B. Tibialis Anterior
C. Peroneus Longus and Brevis D. Lumbricals

5. Anterolateral cordotomy is done to reduce the pain in the right leg because it interrupts …
A. Left dorsal column B. Left lateral spinothalamic tract
C. Right lateral spinothalamic tract D. Corticospinal tract
6. Cerebellar lesion produces all of the following EXCEPT.
A. Past pointing B. Decomposition of movement
C. Intention tremor D. Babinski sign
7. Regular exercise
A. Increases insulin resistance B. Decreases sympathetic tone
C. Inhibits osteoblastic activity D. Decreases neovascularisation in the heart
8. Positive work is done by a muscle when …
A. An object is lifted from the ground B. Load of the object is more than tension
C. An object is lowered on to the ground D. Lengthening contraction occurs

9. The protein moiety of an enzyme is known as …

A. Holoenzyme B. Apoenzyme
C. Coenzyme D. Cofactor

10. β – oxidation of fatty acids is associated with a sequential removal of…

A. Acetyl CoA B. Malonyl CoA
C. Propionyl CoA D. Butyryl CoA

11. If the forces acting upon a body at rest tend to restore it to its original position after it has been
displaced, the body is said to be in ……………………..
A. Stable equilibrium B. Unstable equilibrium
C. Unbalance equilibrium D. Neutral equilibrium

12. The following muscles help to maintain the correct angle of pelvic tilt in kneeling position…
A. Extensors of the Lumbarspine and B. Extensors of the Hip and the flexors of
Flexors of the Hip lumbar spine
C. Flexors of the knee and flexors of the D. Extenors of knee and Extensors of Hip
Hip
13. When muscle strength or co-ordination is inadequate to perform a movement an external force
is applied to compensate for the deficiency is known as …
A. Resisted Exercises B. Assisted – Resisted Exercises
C. Assisted Exercises D. Free Exercises

14. The mechanical advantage is the ratio of the weight to the effort which is NOT seen in on one of
the body levers…
A. First order B. Second order
C. Third order D. Fourth order

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15. Lattissimus dorsi and Pectorals major as adductors work strongly to maintain one of the
following starting position…
A. Standing B. Lying
C. Kneeling D. Hanging
16. The following substance is used in gel form in hydrocollator pack …
A. Quartz B. Sand
C. Bentonite D. Porcelain
17. Compared to alternating current, the shock with direct current is…
A. Less severe B. More severe
C. More fatal D. More devasting
18. The relationship between wavelength and frequency for electromagnetic wave is…
A. Direct B. Complimentary
C. Fluctuating D. Inverse
19. Most apparatus used in physiotherapy department is plugged into mains supply of …
A. 240 milliampere B. 240 volt
C. 100 volt D. 400 milliampere
20. Unit of capacitance is …
A. Volt B. Ohm
C. Microfarad D. Coulomb

21. This nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug is a selective COX-2 Inhibitor…

A. Piroxicam B. Ibuprofen
C. Diclofenac D. Celecoxib

22. This loop diuretic induces ototoxicity more often than other loop diuretics…
A. Furosemide B. Ethacrynic acid
C. Bumetanide D. Torsemide

23. “Nutmeg” appearance of liver is seen in:

A. Acute hepatitis B. Liver cirrhosis
C. Chronic passive hepatic congestion D. Fatty liver

24. Most frequently and severely involved joints in rheumatoid arthritis are…
A. Knees B. Interphalangeal
C. Elbows D. Sacroiliac

25. During first week of fever, enteric fever is best diagnosed by…
A. Widal test B. Stool culture
C. Blood culture D. Urine culture

26. Primary mediator of anaphylaxis is…

A. Prostaglandin B. Serotonin
C. Leukotriene D. Platelet activating factor

27. The memory that holds information received from the sensory register for upto about 30
seconds…
A. Semantic Memory B. Long Term Memory
C. Short Term Memory D. Episodic Memory

28. Estimation of serum levels is essential in treatment with…

A. Imipramine B. Chlorpromazine
C. Lithium D. Haloperidol
29. Tens stands for…
A. Transcutaneous electrical nerve B. Transdermal electric nerve stimulation
simulation
C. Transelectro electrical nerve D. Transmitted electric nerve stimulation
stimulation

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30. Periosteal pain can arise with excessive doses of …

A. Shortwave diathermy B. Ultrasound
C. Microwave diathermy D. Interferential current therapy
31. The following technique is used for superficial heating in shortware diathermy…
A. Contraplanar B. Coplanar
C. Crossfire D. Cable

32. Poldine methyl-sulphate is used in the following condition to treat…

A. Neurogenic pain B. Inflammatory condition
C. Idiopathic hyperhidrosis D. Wound healing
33. In iontophoresis, polarity of active electrode depends on…
A. Type of pain B. Type of ions
C. Area to be treated D. Source of pain
34. Total energy supplied by ultrasound machine is measured in…
A. Joules B. Hertz
C. Watts D. Ohms

35. The following ion is used to treat calcification of supraspinatus tendon…

A. Salicylate B. Acetate
C. Magnesium D. Chloride
36. The muscles work concentrically from the position in which they are fully stretched to a
position in which they are partially contracted is described as…
A. Full Range of Motion B. Inner Range of Motion
C. Outer Range of Motion D. Middle Range of Motion

37. During last 30 degrees of extension of knee in open kinematic chain …

A. Tibia medially rotates on femur B. Tibia laterally rotates on femur
C. Femur medially rotates on Tibia D. Femur laterally rotates on tibia
38. Toe-hyperextension about 50-60 degrees is required in the following phase of gait cycle …
A. Heel strike B. Foot flat
C. Mid-stance D. Toe-off
39. The metatarsal break distributes weight across the metatarsal heads during…………. Phase of
gait cycle.
A. Heel strike B. Foot flat
C. Midstance D. Heel off
40. The flexion of the spine is limited by all of the following EXCEPT
A. Interspinous ligament B. Inter transverse ligament
C. Anterior longitudinal ligament D. Posterior longitudinal ligament
41. “Use of maximal contraction from stronger component of movement pattern to a weaker
component” is a technique used in Neuro muscular Facilitation Therapy…
A. Hold – Relax B. Slow Reversal
C. Re-inforcement D. Manual Contact

42. The function of the carpo-metacarpal joints of the fingers is primarily to contribute to the …
A. Flexion movement B. Extension movement
C. Hollowing of the palm D. Opening of the palm

43. Monitoring of patients in shock include all the following EXCEPT

A. Glasgow coma scale B. Pulse pressure
C. Urine output D. Central venous pressure
44. Development of muscle necrosis and renal failure in patients of crush injuries can be arrested
by…
A. Early debridement B. Early revascularization
C. Early fasciotomy D. Early amputation

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45. SYME’S amputation is considered as …

A. Cone bearing amputation B. End- bearing amputation
C. Conical amputation D. None of the above

46. Fixed flexion deformity of hip can be measured by…

A. Thomas’ test B. Lasegue’s test
C. FABER test D. Finkelstein’s test

47. In fracture of middle third shaft humerus, the nerve at maximum risk of injury is…
A. Ulnar nerve B. Median nerve
C. Radial nerve D. Axillary nerve

48. Codman’s triangle and ‘sun-ray’ appearance are characteristic radiological feature of …
A. Ewing’s sarcoma B. Giant cell tumour
C. Osteochondroma D. Osteogenic sarcoma

49. Hemiplegia is commonly associated with infarction of the area of distribution of the…
A. Anterior cerebral artery B. Middle cerebral artery
C. Posterior cerebral artery D. Anterior communicating artery

50. Which of the following statements about Brown Sequard syndrome is true…
A. Ipsilateral loss of temperature B. Contralateral loss of pain
C. Bilateral segmental signs D. Contralateral loss of vibration

51. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy, is a disease of….

A. Neuromusculat junction B. Disuse atrophy due to muscle weakness
C. Sarcolemmal protein D. Muscle contractile protein
52. Which of the following is NOT included in Jone’s Major criteria …
A. Pancarditis B. Chorea
C. Subcutaneous nodules D. High ESR
53. All of the following drugs useful in the treatment of a patient with acute bronchial Asthma,
EXCEPT.
A. Salbutamol B. Ipratropium
C. Montelukast D. Hydrocortisone

54. The control of Diabetes Mellitus is best Monitored by:

A. Serum glucose B. Post prandial blood glucose
C. HbA2C D. HbA1C
55. Important features of true labour pain are all EXCEPT
A. Lightening B. Show
C. Dilatation and Effacement of cervix D. Bulging of membranes during uterine
contraction

56. The following is NOT a feature of platypelloid pelvis…

A. Anteroposterior diameter is short B. Transverse diameter (Bituberous) is
narrow
C. Pubic Arch is very wide D. Capacity is inadequate

57. The most effective reversible contraceptive is…

A. IUCD B. Condom
C. Combined OC pill D. Post coital pill

58. A normal end feel for elbow flexion is …

A. Soft B. Firm
C. Hard D. Spring block

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59. The following is indicated by the strength duration curve…
A. Level of denervation B. Proportion of denervation
C. Pathology of denervation D. Time of denervation

60. A six minute walk test is …

Gold standard for exercise testing B. Distance limited test
A.
Submaximal test D. Symptom limited test
C.

61. Claw hand is indicative of the following nerve lesion …

A. Median at the wrist B. Ulnar at the wrist
C. Radial at the radial groove D. Median at the elbow

62. The chronaxie of innervated muscle would be…

A. 0.1 msecs B. 3 msecs
C. 30 msecs D. 100 msecs

63. In COPD X-ray, an abnormal increase in the amount of air within the lung tissue is termed as…
A. Hyperinflation B. Overinflation
C. Hypercapnea D. Hyperreactivity

64. The following uses physical handling technique and key points of control directed at supporting
body segments and assisting the patient in achieving active control ...
A. Neuro developmental treatment B. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
C. Neuromuscular stimulation technique D. Sensory stimulation technique
65. In nerve conduction studies of sensory nerve, the conduction of stimulus is considered to be
antodromic, it it is in the direction of…
A. Proximal to distal B. Distal to proximal
C. On either side of the stimulus D. To and fro

66. Work produced per unit of time, or the product of strength and speed is muscle …
A. Endurance B. Power
C. Movement D. Shortening
67. Presence of a minor lesion of the tested muscle or tendon during resisted isometric testing will
be seen as following finding…
A. Strong and painless B. Strong and painful
C. Weak and painless D. Weak and painful

68. The following test is used to examine inflammation of the tendons of abductor pollicis longus
and extensor pollicis brevis by stretching these structures…
A. Tennis elbow B. Homan
C. Finkelstein D. Bunnel-littler

69. Cauda equina lesions are ……………….. injuries.

A. Upper motor neuron B. Lower motor neuron
C. Posterior cord D. Central cord
70. ………………. is bony enlargement of the distal interphalangeal joint, characteristic of
osteoarthoritis .
A. Heberden’s nodes B. Hemosiderin’s nodes
C. Raynaud’s nodes D. Swan-neck’s nodes

71. A condition characterized by a loss of bone mass throughout the skeleton, predisposing patients
to fractures…
A. Osteopenia B. Osteoporosis
C. Ototoxic D. Osteoscope

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72. In foot prostheses, ‘SACH’ stands for …
A. Solid ankle cushion heel B. Semi ankle cushion heel
C. Solid ankle comfort heel D. Semi ankle comfort heel

73. A device used to provide support or to straighten or to correct a deformity is…

A. Prosthesis B. Orthosis
C. Sling D. Calliper

74. The following should be avoided in treating individuals with RA during the acute stage of
inflammation to avoid any stimulation of collagenase activity leading to further destruction of
joints…
A. Superficial heating modalities B. Tens modality
C. Deep heating modalities D. Cold modalities

75. The sensation that a part of the body that has become desensitized or has been amputated is still
there is known as…
A. Phantom pain B. Phantom limb
C. Phantom sign D. Phantom phobia

76. The following tonal abnormality is seen when basal ganglia is affected.
A. Rigidity B. Atonia
C. Spasticity D. Hypotonia

77. Frontal lobe lesion mainly affects…

A. Vision B. Speech
C. Hearing D. Behaviour
78. Inability to relax and difficulty in initiating movement are indication to use
A. Hold relax B. Rhythmic initiation
C. Contract relax D. Rhythmic rotation
79. The following index specifically measures the degree of assistance required by an individual on
10 items of mobility and self care ADL…
A. Barthel B. Kartz
C. Functional D. Independence

80. Inability to carry out willed purposeful movements is called as…

A. Agnosia B. Anosognosia
C. Apraxia D. Prospagnosia

81. In multiple sclerosis, Uthoff’s symptom is an adverse reaction to following…

A. Cold B. Heat
C. Pressure D. Pain

82. Decreased motor response especially to a specific stimulus is…

A. Hypokinesia B. Bradykinesia
C. Akinesia D. Hypalgia
83. Tongue deviation and furrowing is seen in the following nerve paralysis…
A. Glossopharyngeal B. Hypoglossal
C. Vagal D. Laryngeal

84. The following is the first and cardinal sign of Parkinson’s disease …
A. Intention tremor B. Akinesia
C. Resting tremor D. Pass pointing

85. The following is the best choice of therapy in Parkinsonism…

A. Rhythmic stabilization B. Slow reversal
C. Hold relax D. Rhythmic initiation

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86. The first ECG evidence of acute myocardial infarction is marked…
A. Depression of ST segment B. Absence of P wave
C. ‘QS’ pattern D. Elevation of the ST segment

87. Target Heart Rate for 60% training intensity using Heart Rate reserve formula for a 60 year old
person with Heart rate of 80 beats \ Minute at Rest is …
A. 96 beats \ Minute B. 110 beats \ Minute
C. 128 beats \ Minute D. 160 beats \ Minute
88. This mode of ventilator gives pre-set number of breaths each minute and in-between allows
patient to breathe for himself…
A. Controlled ventilation B. Intermittent mandatory ventilation
C. Synchronized intermittent Mandatory D. Continuous positive airways pressure
ventilation
89. The postural deformity after a throcoplasty will be seen as …
A. Shoulder up & hip down on operated B. Shoulder down & hip up on operated side
side
C. Shoulder up & hip down on D. Shoulder down & hip up on unopperated
unoperated side side

90. The Trapezius muscle assists in ………………. expansion of the chest.

A. Anterior B. Posterior
C. Lateral D. Superior

91. This is a complex Exocrine congenital disease hallmarked by nutritional deficits, contributing to
impaired growth and development of a child…
A. Bronchial Asthma B. Lung Abscess
C. Cystic fibrosis D. Pulmonary tuberculosis
92. Obesity related cardiopulomonary dysfunction gives rise to…
A. Alveolar Hyperventilation syndrome B. Alveolar Hypoventilation syndrome
C. Alveolor – Bronchial hypoventilation D. Tracheo – Bronchial Hypoventilation
syndrome syndrome
93. VO2 max declines with age at a rate of between ………………. ml/kg/min per year in men.
A. 0.10 – 0.20 B. 0.20 – 0.30
C. 0.40 – 0.50 D. 0.50 – 0.60
94. One of the following is the most common and complex problem that occurs after tracheostomy
…
A. Atelectasis B. Crusting
C. Bedsores D. Deep Vein Thrombosis

95. This is useful in the assessment and management of patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease …
A. Treadmill Test B. Shuttle Run Test
C. Six Minute walk Test D. Cooper Run Test
96. “Action taken prior to the onset of disease, which removes the possibility that a disease will
ever occur” is the definition of…
A. Primordial prevention B. Primary Prevention
C. Secondary prevention D. Tertiary Prevention

97. Following is NOT a characteristic of “indicators of health”

A. Validity B. Reliability
C. Feasibility D. Reality

98. According to the Setpoint Theory, the preset level of body weight is controlled by an internal
mechanism located within…
A. Thalamus B. Pineal body
C. Hypothalamus D. Pituitary gland

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99. Following is the correct order “cardinal movements” by the fetus during labor…
A. Flexion-descent-internal rotation- B. Engagement -descent-Flexion - internal
extension-engagement-external rotation-extension- -external rotation
rotation
C. Extension-descent- engagement – D. External Rotation – internal rotation-
flexion-internal rotation – external flexion – engagement – extension- descent
roatation.

100. Siderosis is caused by …

A. Coal dust B. Silica dust
C. Iron dust D. Asbestos dust

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ROUGH WORK

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