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TÀI LIỆU ĐI KÈM LIVESTREAM

LUYỆN ĐỌC ĐIỀN ĐỌC HIỂU – UNIT 1:LIFE STORIES
Theo dõi LIVESTREAM ĐỘC QUYỀN của cô vào lúc
20h30 ngày 11/9 duy nhất trên khóa học PRO 3MPLUS

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase
that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Nowadays, everybody knows Apples and (1) _______ everybody knows that the company was
founded by Steve Jobs, an American inventor and entrepreneur. He is (2) ________ recognized as a
pioneer in the field of microcomputer revolution. He helped design the first Macintosh computer, (3)
________ a small computer graphics company into Pixar, the company behind Toy Story and The Monster
Inc.
His countercultural lifestyle and philosophy was a product of the time and place of his (4) ________.
Jobs was adopted and raised in San Francisco Bay Area during the 1960s. In 1972, Jobs attended Reed
College from which he (5) ________ in next to no time. Jobs co-founded Apple in 1976 in order to sell
Apple I personal computer. At that moment, he might (6) ________ imagine that only a year later the
company tasted impressive victory with Apple II, one of the first highly successful (7) ________ personal
computers. (8) _______, in 1985, following a long power struggle, Jobs was forced out of Apple. After
leaving Apple, Jobs took (9) _______ of its members with him to found NeXT, a computer development
company which was then bought by Apple. The purchase (10) ________ Jobs to become the company's
CEO once again.
Steve Jobs died in 2011 after battling with pancreatic cancer (11) _______ nearly a decade. Millions
first learned of Job's death on a (12) ________ which had been invented by himself.

Question 1. A. most B. almost C. the most D. mostly

Question 2. A. widely B. hardly C. legally D. nationally
Question 3. A. translated B. transferred C. transformed D. transited
Question 4. A. increase B. upbringing C. rising D. grow
Question 5. A. dropped in B. dropped up C. dropped out D. dropped by
Question 6. A. hardly B. truly C. effortlessly D. frequently
Question 7. A. massly-produced B. mass-produced
C. massive-produced D. mass-producing
Question 8. A. Generally B. Frankly C. Fortunately D. Unfortunately
Question 9. A. few B. a few C. a little D. little
Question 10. A. was allowing B. has allowed C. allowed D. had allowed
Question 11. A. for B. since C. during D. of
Question 12. A. devil B. deviation C. deviant D. device

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Born on June 30, 1985 in Baltimore, Maryland, to Fred and Debbie Phelps, the youngest of three
children, Michael Phelps and his sisters grew up in the neighbourhood of Rodger Forge. His father, Fred,
a former all-rounded athlete, was a state trooper and his mother Debbie was a middle-school principal.
When Phelps's parents divorced in 1994, he and his siblings lived with their mother, with whom Michael
grew very close. Even at the age of 7, Phelps was still a little scared to put his head under water, so his
instructors allowed him to float around on his back. Not surprisingly, despite the fact that later he is very
good at butterfly swimming, the first stroke he mastered was not the easily-practised breaststroke but the
backstroke.
At the age of 15, Phelps became the youngest American male swimmer to compete at an Olympic
Games in 68 years. While he didn't win any medals at the 2000 Summer Olympics in Sydney, Australia,
he would soon become a major force in competitive swimming.
In the spring of 2001, Phelps set the world record in the 200-meter butterfly, becoming the youngest male
swimmer in history at the age of 15 years and 9 months. At the 2001 World Championships in Japan, he
then broke his own record with a time of 1:54:58, earning his first international medal. In 2002, Phelps
continued to establish several records including the 100-meter butterfly and the 200-meter individual
medley. The following year, at the same event, he broke his own world record in the 400-meter individual
medley with a time of 4:09.09.
After the London Olympics in 2012, Phelps announced he was retiring from his sport. However, at
the 2016 Olympic Games, he came out of retirement and returned to professional competition. This was
also the event which he won one silver and five gold medals, becoming the oldest individual gold medalist
in Olympic swimming history, as well as the first swimmer to win four consecutive golds in the same
event, the 200-meter individual medley.
Question 1. Phelps's father used to be a comprehensive _________.
A. principal B. trooper C. athlete D. instructor
Question 2. The first style of swimming Phelps was good at is ________.
A. butterfly B. freestyle C. breaststroke D. backstroke
Question 3. He didn't win any medals at the Olympics of ________.
A. 2002 B. 2000 C. 2012 D. 2016
Question 4. At the 2001 World Championships in Japan, he broke the record of _________.
A. 200-meter butterfly B. 100-meter butterfly
C. 200-meter individual D. 400-meter individual
Question 5. The word “consecutive” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. stoppable B. unending C. uninterrupted D. unrestricted
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Theresa May, the second female Britain's prime minister following Margaret Thatcher, revealed in
2013 that she had been given a diagnosis of Type 1 diabetes, a condition that requires daily insulin
injections. Asked later how she felt about the diagnosis, she said her approach to it was the same as
toward everything in her life: “Just get on and deal with it.” That kind of steeliness brought her to center
stage in the aftermath of Britain's vote to leave the European Union and the feuding that erupted in the
Conservative Party over who would succeed David Cameron.

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Ms. May, 59 years old, is the country's longest-serving home secretary in half a century, with a
reputation for seriousness, hardwork and above all, determination. She is one of a growing number of
women in traditionally male-dominated British politics rising to the upper position of leadership.
Born in 1956, Ms. May grew up mainly in Oxfordshire, an only child who was first drawn to the
Conservative Party at age 12. As a conscientious student, she never rebelled against her religious
upbringing and remains a regular churchgoer. Tellingly, her sports hero was Geoffrey Boycott, a solid,
stubborn cricketer who specialized in playing the long game.
Like many other Britain's prime minister including Tony Blair, Sir Robert Peel and Margaret
Thatcher, she won a place at Oxford. But while almost every other political leader got there by way of
Eton College and joined Oxford's hedonistic Bullingdon Club, she attended a state secondary school and
had a more sedate university career. After unsuccessful attempts to be elected to the House of Commons
in 1992 and 1994, she finally became an MP in 1997 general election.
May is known for a love of fashion and in particular distinctive shoes. She even wore leopard-print
shoes to her final Cabinet meeting as Home Secretary in early 2016. However, she has been quite critical
of the media focusing on her fashion instead of her achievement as a politician. May also describes
cooking and walking as primary hobbies, and if someone is raising questions about why walking can be
classified as a hobby, she elaborates in a column for Balance magazine, in which she wrote of her battle
with diabetes.
Question 1. According to the passage, who is the prime minister coming before Theresa May?
A. Tony Blair B. Margaret Thatcher C. Sir Robert Peel D. David Cameron
Question 2. The most prominent characteristic of Theresa May is ________.
A. stubbornness B. seriousness C. determination D. hard work
Question 3. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. British political life is conventionally controlled mainly by men.
B. The number of women in politics is increasing.
C. Conservative Party didn't have to discuss about who would be the next prime minister.
D. Theresa May's toughness was one of the reasons for the Party to choose her for the prime minister
position.
Question 4. Which of the following facts is TRUE about Theresa May?
A. She graduated from Eton College.
B. As a child, she was quite rebellious.
C. She didn't work part time as a university student.
D. She used not to be a home secretary.
Question 5. She first became a member of parliament in _______.
A. 1992 B. 1994 C. 1997 D. 2013
Question 6. Her reason to consider walking as one of her main hobbies is ________.
A. she is quite critical B. it helps her fight diabetes
C. someone asks about it D. it is written on Balance magazine
Question 7. The word “approach” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. means B. advance C. technique D. trick
Question 8. The word “hedonistic” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. ordinary B. luxurious C. economical D. simple

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TÀI LIỆU ĐI KÈM LIVESTREAM

LUYỆN ĐỌC ĐIỀN - ĐỌC HIỂU – UNIT 2
Theo dõi LIVESTREAM ĐỘC QUYỀN của cô vào lúc
20h30 ngày 19/9 duy nhất trên khóa học PRO 3MPLUS

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Exercise 1. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Rapid urbanization can (1) ____ long-term economic, social and environmental promise for
developing countries (2) ____ investments made now in infrastructure, housing and public services are
efficient and sustainable, the World Bank says in a new report.
In the next two decades, cities are (3) ____ to expand by another two billion residents, as people move
in unprecedented (4) ____ from rural areas to pursue hopes and aspirations in cities. More than 90 (5)
____ of this urban population growth is expected to occur in the developing world, (6) ____ many cities
are already struggling to provide basic (7) ____ such as water, electricity, transport, health services and
education.
Report authors note that (8) ____ new urban growth will not take (9) ____ in the “megacities” of the
world e.g. Rio de Janeiro, Jakarta or New Delhi (10) ____ rather in less commonly recognized
“secondary” cities - places like Fushun in China, and Surat in India.
To help policymakers prepare for and manage growth, the report distills lessons (11) ____ from 12
countries across all geographic regions and stages of urbanization. It then translates these global lessons
(12) ____ practical policy advice.
Question 1. A. bring B. carry C. hold D. take
Question 2. A. if B. unless C. whether D. while
Question 3. A. predictable B. predicted C. predicting D. predictions
Question 4. A. amounts B. numbers C. ranges D. sums
Question 5. A. per cent B. percentage C. proportion D. rate
Question 6. A. what B. where C. which D. why
Question 7. A. demands B. needs C. orders D. uses
Question 8. A. almost B. most C. mostly D. nearly
Question 9. A. form B. hand C. place D. time
Question 10. A. but B. nor C. or D. yet
Question 11. A. are learned B. being learned C. learned D. learning
Question 12. A. by B. into C. up to D. up with
Exercise 2. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
The increase in urbanization causes different problems. Air and water pollution are amongst the major
issue we have to tackle.
In the first place, cars, factories and burning waste emit dangerous gases that change the air quality in
our cities and pose threats to our health. Dangerous gases such as carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides
cause respiratory diseases, for instant, bronchitis and asthma. Those are also proved to have long-term
effects on the environment.

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Furthermore, with the increased population, it becomes difficult to manage the waste generated in
cities. Most of the waste is discharged or dumped into rivers or onto streets. The waste pollutes water and
makes it unfit for human consumption. Subsequently, it becomes more and more difficult for city dwellers
to get clean water. Some cities in Africa are unable to provide adequate water supply because most of the
water is lost in pipe leakages. In fact, most city dwellers in developing countries are forced to boil their
water or to buy bottled water, which is very expensive.
There are several actions that could be taken to eradicate the problems described above. Firstly, a
simple solution would be joining community efforts to address problems affecting your city. Ask your
parents, friends and relatives to join in as well. These efforts might include clean-up campaigns, recycling
projects and a signature campaign to ask the government to do something about the situation. A second
measure would be encouraging your teacher to talk about these problems and to discuss how young people
can help to solve them. Finally, writing to local organizations working on these issues for ideas on how
you can contribute to solve them.
Question 13. The word tackle in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. deal with B. make up C. try on D. turn down
Question 14. The word those in paragraph 2 refers to ____.
A. bronchitis and asthma B. carbon dioxide and nitrogen oxides
C. dangerous gases D. respiratory diseases
Question 15. According to the passage, in some cities in Africa ____.
A. people are allowed to dump waste into rivers and on streets
B. people aren't provided enough water due to leaking pipes
C. people have found some solutions to the problems
D. people would rather use boiling water and bottled water
Question 16. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. City problems should be taught and be topic for students to discuss at school.
B. Children must ask for their parent's permission before joining community efforts.
C. Participators might take part in different kinds of projects and campaigns.
D. People can contribute in solving the problems by writing to local organizations working on these issues.
Question 17. Which of the following would serve as the best title for the passage?
A. Environment degradation: Air and water pollution
B. Environmental pollution: Problems and actions
C. Increasing urbanization: Causes and effects
D. Increasing urbanization: Effects and solutions
Exercise 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions.
Buying a house is the single largest financial investment an individual makes. Yet, in India this act is
fraught with risk and individuals depend on weak laws for justice. Occasionally, deviant promoters are
called to account as was the case in the detention of Unitech's promoters. This incident shows up the
fallout of an absence of proper regulation to cover contracts between buyers and real estate promoters. A
real estate bill, which is presently pending in Rajya Sabha, seeks to fill this gap. It has been debated for
over two years and should be passed by Parliament in the budget session.
India is in the midst of rapid urbanization and urban population is expected to more than double to
about 900 million over the next three decades. Unfortunately, even the current population does not have
adequate housing. A government estimate in 2012 put the shortage at nearly 19 million units. If this
shortage is to be alleviated quickly, India's messy real estate sector needs reforms.

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The real estate bill seeks to set standards for contracts between buyers and sellers. Transparency, a
rare commodity in real estate, is enforced as promoters have to upload project details on the regulators'
website. Importantly, standard definitions of terms mean that buyers will not feel cheated after taking
possession of a house. In order to protect buyers who pay upfront, a part of the money collected for a real
estate project is ring-fenced in a separate bank account. Also, given the uncertainty, which exists in India
on land titles, the real estate bill provides title insurance. This bill has been scrutinized by two
parliamentary committees and its passage now brooks no delay.
This bill is an important step in cleaning up the real estate market, but the journey should not end with
it. State governments play a significant role in real estate and they are often the source of problems. Some
estimates suggest that real estate developers have to seek approvals of as many as 40 central and state
departments, which lead to delays and an escalation in the cost of houses. Sensibly, NDA government's
project to provide universal urban housing forces states to institute reforms to access central funding.
Without real estate reforms at the level of states, it will not be possible to
meet the ambition of making housing accessible for all urban dwellers.
Question 18. It can be inferred from the passage that ____.
A. buying house is not a single largest individual investment
B. in India, no one depends on laws for justice
C. the real estate bill does not provide title insurance
D. urbanization in India has increased rapidly
Question 19. According to the passage, which of the following is the pending in Rajya Sabha?
A. NDA government's new scheme B. Universal rural housing programme
C. Real estate bill D. Universal urban housing programme
Question 20. Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage?
A. Current population does not have adequate housing in India.
B. India's real estate sector needs reforms.
C. Real state bill has been scrutinized by two parliamentary committees.
D. Urban population is expected to more than double to about 850 million over the next three decades.
Question 21. According to the passage, what is the source of problem in real estate?
A. Buyers and sellers B. Central governments
C. Market money makers D. State governments
Question 22. The word alleviated in the second paragraph is OPPOSITE in meaning to ____.
A. aggravated B. deaden C. diminished D. relieved
Question 23. The word possession in the third paragraph refers to ____.
A. lease B. need C. proprietary rights D. renting
Question 24. The word escalation in the forth paragraph refers to ____.
A. decrease B. growth C. reduction D. sustainability
Question 25. It is impossible to meet the ambition of making housing accessible for urban dwellers ____.
A. with real estate reforms at state level
B. without support of central government
C. without passing the bill in Rajya Sabha
D. without real estate reforms at the level of states

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TÀI LIỆU ĐI KÈM LIVESTREAM

LUYỆN ĐỌC ĐIỀN - ĐỌC HIỂU ( TIẾP)
Theo dõi LIVESTREAM ĐỘC QUYỀN của cô vào lúc
20h30 ngày 26/9 duy nhất trên khóa học PRO 3MPLUS

Cô Vũ Thị Mai Phương

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.

Every night, almost one billion people go to bed hungry. How can we feed all these (1) ________
people? Farmers all over the world have to content with weather, insects, and natural disasters, which are
capable of (2) ________ crops and ruining years of hard work. And the population is set to rise to nine
billion by 2050. Here are four possible solutions.
GM crops
Proponents of genetically modified crops (GM crops) claim that they will hugely (3) ________ food
production. Scientists have developed drought-resistant and disease-resistant crops, more productive
crops, and crops with increased vitamins. Anti-GM protesters worry (4) ________ health risks and
damage to other plants that grow near the GM crops.
Vertical farming
Another answer could be to grow food in buildings. (5) ________ of vertical farming are suggesting
we construct multistory, climate-controlled farm buildings in the heart of our cities. One indoor hectare
of land would be (6) ________ to above five hectares outdoors, so we could grow year-round crops that
would easily feed whole cities. Opponents point to the cost, the increased energy used and the effect on
farmers.
Eat less meat Others say the solution lies not (7) _______ new technologies, but in eating less meat.
It takes about seven kilos of corn to produce one kilo of beef. That quality of corn will keep more people
(8) ________ than that quality of beef. But this is a message the world doesn't want to hear. Meat
consumption is rising steeply.
Increase aid
Rich countries have far more food than they need and waste vast amount of it - 6.7 million tons a year
in the UK (9) ________. We can afford to send surplus food to people (10) ________ need it. We could
also simply give more money to developing countries, (11) ________ they can buy food. (12) ________
say that this makes people dependent on rich countries and is only a short-term solution.
Question 1. A. undernourished B. unhealthy C. unbelievable D. undeniable
Question 2. A. wasting B. destroying C. killing D. harvesting
Question 3. A. strengthen B. rise C. increase D. enlarge
Question 4. A. about B. to C. with D. on
Question 5. A. Promoters B. Advocates C. Champion D. Spokesmen
Question 6. A. same B. parallel C. alike D. equivalent
Question 7. A. on B. to C. in D. over
Question 8. A. alive B. lively C. vital D. active
Question 9. A. lonesome B. lone C. lonely D. alone
Question 10. A. whom B. which C. who D. what

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Question 11. A. because B. but C. so D. since

Question 12. A. Reviewers B. Critics C. Analysts D. Judges

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Coral reefs are the most diverse of all marine ecosystems. They are full of life, with perhaps one
quarter of all ocean species depending on reefs for food and shelter. This is a remarkable statistic when
you consider that reefs cover just a tiny fraction of the earth's surface and less than two per cent of the
ocean bottom. Because they are so diverse, coral reefs are often called the rainforests of the ocean. Coral
reefs are very important to people. They even provide seventy per cent of the food demands for some
marine species, protection of shorelines, jobs based on tourism (nine out of twelve activities for tourists
in Nha Trang, for example, involve the coral reefs), and even medicines.
Unfortunately, climate change is the greatest global threat to coral reef ecosystems. Scientific
evidence now clearly indicates that the Earth's atmosphere and ocean are warming, and that these changes
are primarily due to greenhouse gases derived from human activities.
As temperatures rise, mass coral bleaching events and infectious disease outbreaks are becoming more
frequent. Additionally, carbon dioxide absorbed into the ocean from the atmosphere has already begun to
reduce calcification rates in reef-building and reef-associated organisms by altering seawater chemistry
through decreases in pH. This process is called ocean acidification.
Climate change will affect coral reef ecosystems, through sea level rise, changes to the frequency and
intensity of tropical storms, and altered ocean circulation patterns. When combined, all of these impacts
dramatically alter ecosystem function, as well as the goods and services coral reef ecosystems provide to
people around the globe.
There are also many things you can do to ensure that you are environmentally conscious when you
visit coral reefs or coastal areas. These include things such as hiring local guides to support the economy,
removing all trash from an area, never touching or harassing wildlife in reef areas, and avoiding dropping
your boat anchor or chain nearby a coral reef.
Finally, stay informed and spread the word! Educate yourself about why healthy coral reefs are
valuable to the people, fish, plants, and animals that depend on them. Your excitement will help others
get involved.
Question 13. Though the coverage of coral reefs on the sea bed is ________, its vital role is undeniable.
A. remarkable B. small C. diverse D. huge
Question 14. _________ of all the ocean species find food and home in the coral reefs.
A. Two per cent B. Seventy per cent C. Twenty-five per cent D. Nine per cent
Question 15. Carbon dioxide from the atmosphere directly caused __________.
A. infectious disease outbreaks B. reef-building
C. sea level rise D. ocean acidification
Question 16. Which of the following statement is NOT true?
A. Coral reefs can be compared to rainforests due to its diversity.
B. The effects of global warming are only on the ecosystems themselves.
C. You can help the coral reefs by educating not only yourself but people around you.
D. Human activities which cause greenhouse gases are major reasons for the climate change.
Question 17. The word “conscious” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. knowledgeable B. curious C. aware D. acknowledgeable

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
The poaching crisis wiping out Africa's elephants is costing the continent's economies millions in lost
tourism revenue, according to a new study. Researchers looked at visitor and elephant data across 25
countries, and modeled financial losses from fewer visitors in protected areas due to the illegal wildlife
trade, which has caused elephant numbers to plummet by more than 100,000 in the last decade. (A)
The study team combined visitor numbers across 164 protected areas in 25 countries in forest and
savannah elephants, and elephant population data from 2009 to 2013, to reach a “per elephant" value in
terms of tourism income.
They concluded that Africa was most likely losing $26m in tourism revenue a year. (B) Around $9m of
that is lost from tourists' direct spending, such as staying at hotels and buying crafts, with the rest through
indirect value in the economy such as farmers and other suppliers supporting the tourist industry.
The study, published in the journal Nature Communications, found that in most cases the revenue
losses were higher than paying for stronger anti-poaching measures to keep elephant populations stable.
(C) Dr. Robin Naidoo, the paper's lead author and , senior conservation wildlife scientist at WWF and his
team found. In the case of central Africa's forest elephants, which are harder for tourists to see and
therefore attract fewer visitors, the costs of protecting them exceed the benefits from tourism. Demand
from south-east Asia has seen the price of ivory triple since 2009 and it is estimated that one elephant is
killed every 15 minutes. (D) Corruption, a lack of resources, and, most importantly, increasingly
sophisticated poachers have hamstrung African countries' efforts to stem the trade.
Naidoo said that the research was not suggesting economic issues should be the only consideration
when protecting elephants, but framing the poaching crisis as a financial one could motivate African
governments and communities.
“It gives an additional reason for some groups of people, who may not necessarily be motivated by
intrinsic reasons for conversation, to engage with biodiversity conservation. It makes it clear to them that
it's not just in the best interests of the world to conserve this stuff, but tangible reasons for a whole different
group," he said.
Question 18. The overall profit that the continent lost a year can be estimated to ________.
A. 25 million USD B. 100,000 USD C. 26 million USD D. 9 million USD
Question 19. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. To get to the conclusion, scientists compared the changes in number of tourists and number of
elephants in 2009.
B. The only reason why illegal poaching is so difficult to stop is corruption.
C. Protecting elephants is for the both the practical and immaterial reasons.
D. There is an argument over the differences in the balance between the loss and the cost to protect the
elephants.
Question 20. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. Across the continent, the amount of money spent on protecting the elephant is smaller than the loss
tourist industry is suffering from.
B. The number of tourists reduces because now it is more difficult for them to see the elephants in the
wild.
C. One reason why elephants are killed in mass volume is from the increasing market of ivory in South
East Asia.
D. Relating poaching to financial benefits can be considered as one of the solutions to the problem.

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Question 21. Which of the positions marked in the passage does the phrase "but the financial argument
did not stack up in all areas,” best fit?
A. (A) B. (B) C. (C) D. (D)
Question 22. The word “plummet” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. fall B. fluctuate C. rise D. stabilize
Question 23. The word “sophisticated” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. simple B. outdated C. advanced D. basic
Question 24. The word “motivate” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. change B. design C. form D. inspire
Question 25. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. Elephant poaching costs African millions in tourism revenue
B. Elephant poaching does more good than harm
C. Elephant poaching brings an opportunity for Africa to change
D. Elephant poaching reduces the number of elephants in Africa

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Millions of people are using cellphones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to
use one. In many countries, cellphones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are
more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected.
The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professional worried. Some
doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile
phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried
about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for
your health.
On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use
mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning
equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss.
He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used
to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of
years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree.
What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines
can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there
is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety
continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often.
Question 1. The most suitable title for the passage could be _____________.
A. Technological Innovations and Their Price
B. The Importance of Mobile Phones
C. Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time
D. Advantages and Disadvantages of Mobile Phones
Question 2. According to the passage, cellphones are especially popular with the youth because ____.
A. they keep the users in alert all the time
B. they are integral in daily communication
C. they are the only effective means of communication
D. they make them look more stylish
Question 3. According to the passage, the changes possibly caused by the cellphones are mainly
concerned with _________.
A. the smallest units of the brain B. the central unit of the brain
C. the structure of the brain D. the long-term memory

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Question 4. The words “negative publicity” in paragraph 2 most likely means ________.
A. information on the lethal effects of cellphones
B. the negative public use of cellphones
C. widespread opinion about bad effects of cellphones
D. constructive ideas about the effects of cellphones
Question 5. The word “their” in the last paragraph refers to ________.
A. mobile phone companies B. mobile phones C. high-tech machines D. radiations

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
REALITY TELEVISION
Reality, television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents unscripted
dramatic or humourous situations, documents actual events and features ordinary people rather than
professional actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or "heightened" documentary. Although
the genre has existed in some form or another since the early year of television, the current explosion of
popularity dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from games to quiz shows
which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan in the 1980s and 1990s (a
modern example is Gaki no Tsukai), to surveillance - or voyeurism - focused production such as Big
Brother.
Critics say that the term "reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows frequently
portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic locations or
abnormal situations, sometimes coach to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers, and with events on
screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.
Part of reality television's appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordinary
situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen women
simultaneously, travelling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television also has the potential
to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent and performance programs such as Pop
Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother participants also reach some degree of celebrity.
Some commentators have said that the name "reality television" is an inaccurate description of several
styles of program included in the genre. In competition-based programs such as Big Brother and Survivor,
and other special-living-environment shows like the Real World, the producers design the format of the
show and control the day-to-day activities and the environment, creating a completely fabricated world
in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically select the participants, and use carefully
designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to encourage particular behaviours and conflicts.
Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids
the word "reality” to describe his shows; he has said, "I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It
really is unscripted drama."
Question 1. In the first line, the writer says “it is claimed” because ___________.
A. he wants to distance himself from the statement
B. he totally disagrees with the statement
C. everybody except the writer agrees with the statement
D. he wants to emphasize that it is his own claim
Question 2. The word “demeaning” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to __________.
A. valueless B. humiliating C. despising D. diminishing

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Question 3. According to the passage, Reality TV appeals to some because ___________.

A. it uses exotic locations
B. it shows eligible men dating women
C. it can turn ordinary people into celebrities
D. it shows average people in exceptional circumstances
Question 4. According to the passage, the program “Pop Idol” __________.
A. is more likely to turn its participants into celebrities than Big Brother
B. turns all participants into celebrities
C. is a dating show
D. is less likely to turn participants into celebrities than Big Brother
Question 5. Producers choose the participants _____________.
A. to make an imaginary world B. on the ground of talent
C. to create conflict among other things D. only for special-living-environment shows
Question 6. The term “reality television” is inaccurate _____________.
A. for talent and performance programs B. for special-living-environment program
C. for all programs D. for Big Brother and Survivor
Question 7. The word “fabricated” in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ________.
A. real B. imaginative C. imaginary D. isolated
Question 8. Which of the following in NOT true according to the passage?
A. Shows like Survivor have good narratives.
B. Mark Burnett thinks the term "reality television” is inaccurate.
C. Reality television has been popular since well before 2000.
D. Japan has produced demeaning TV shows copied elsewhere.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
A POWERFUL INFLUENCE
There can be no doubt (1) ________ that the Internet has made a huge difference to our lives. Parents
are worried that children spend too much time playing on the Internet, hardly (2) ________ doing anything
else in their spare time. Naturally, parents are (3) ________ to find out why the Internet is so attractive,
and they want to know if it can be harmful for their children. Should parents worry if their children are
spending that much time (4) _________ their computers?
Obviously, if children are bent over their computers for hours, (5) _________ in some game, instead
of doing their homework, then soothing is wrong. Parents and children could decide how much use the
child should (6) _________ of the Internet, and the child should give his or her (7) ________ that it won't
interfere with homework. If the child is not (8) _________ to this arrangement, the parents can take more
drastic steps. (9) _________ with a child's use of the Internet is not much different from negotiating any
other sort of bargain about behavior.
Any parent who is seriously alarmed about a child's behavior should make an appointment to discuss
the matter with a teacher. Spending time in front of the screen does not (10) _________ affect a child's
performance at school. Even if a child is (11) _________ crazy about using the Internet, he or she is
probably just (12) _________ through a phase, and in a few months there will be something else to worry
about!

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Question 1. A. at least B. at all C. at length D. at most

Question 2. A. ever B. rarely C. never D. always
Question 3. A. reluctant B. concerned C. curious D. hopeful
Question 4. A. watching B. glancing at C. glimpsing at D. staring at
Question 5. A. puzzled B. absorbed C. interested D. occupied
Question 6. A. cause B. take C. make D. create
Question 7. A. word B. promise C. vow D. claim
Question 8. A. holding B. seeing C. following D. accepting
Question 9. A. Agreeing B. Dealing C. Talking D. Complaining
Question 10. A. possibly B. unlikely C. probably D. necessarily
Question 11. A. absolutely B. more C. enough D. a lot
Question 12. A. going B. experiencing C. travelling D. walking

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Exercise 1. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Why is culture important and how does it answer the question "(1) ____ is cultural identity?"? Culture is
the underlying (2) ____ of traditions and beliefs that help a person (3) ____ to the world around them. It is the
basis (4) ____ any superstitions they may have. It is the aversion to (5) ____ types of meat, or which days you
can work on. Culture gives us a definite starting point when beginning to (6) ____ for our roots. Knowing (7)
____ a person comes from will help to define how they look at their family obligations as (8) ____ as how
they celebrate important milestones in life.
As a person has given up their cultural identity, they (9) ____ can identify themselves with the things that
were (10) ____ the most important things in their lives. They lose direction. As time (11) ____ by and they
continue to forget about their past and their natural traditions, their identity becomes less and less (12) ____.
Question 1. A. How B. Which C. Why D. What
Question 2. A. institution B. foundation C. organization D. principle
Question 3. A. relate B. relating C. related D. to relate
Question 4. A. in B. for C. of D. to
Question 5. A. especial B. special C. specific D. typical
Question 6. A. find B. look C. search D. seek
Question 7. A. by which B. how C. when D. where
Question 8. A. long B. much C. soon D. well
Question 9. A. any longer B. any more C. no longer D. no more
Question 10. A. at once B. once C. one time D. for once
Question 11. A. goes B. flies C. passes D. walks
Question 12. A. pronouncing B. pronounce C. pronounced D.been pronouncing
Exercise 2. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
Modern life is characterized not only by the conveniences made possible by technological advances but
also by greater mobility in search of still greater opportunities. These major life changes, however, expose
individuals to many novelties in a new culture, which are the causes of culture shock. Culture shock is a
process through which most people who enter a new culture pass through before they adjust to life in their
new environment.
Culture shock begins with the honeymoon stage”. This is the period of time when we first arrive in which
everything about the new culture is strange and exciting. Unfortunately, the second stage "rejection stage" can
be quite dangerous because the visitor may develop unhealthy habits (smoking and drinking). This can lead
to the person getting sick or developing skin infections or rashes, which then makes the person feel even more
scared and confused and helpless. This stage is considered a crisis in the process of cultural adjustment and
many people choose to go back to their homeland or spend all their time with people from their own culture
speaking their native language. The third stage of culture shock is called the "adjustment stage”. This is when
you begin to realize that things are not so bad in the host culture. You are becoming stronger by learning to
take care of yourself in the new place. The fourth stage can be called “at ease at last”. Now you feel quite

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comfortable in your new surroundings. You can cope with most problems that occur. You may still have
problems with the language, but you know you are strong enough to deal with them. The last stage of culture
shock, which many people don't know about, is called "reverse culture shock”. Surprisingly, this occurs when
you go back to your native culture and find that you have changed and that things there have changed while
you have been away. Now you feel a little uncomfortable back home. Life is a struggle!
Question 13. Which sentence best explains the main idea of paragraph 1?
A. Culture shock, experienced by people living in a new culture, consists of five basic stages.
B. People immigrate to other countries in search of better opportunities.
C. Modern life is characterized by many technological advances and greater mobility.
D. These major life changes are the causes of culture shock.
Question 14. It is stated that the "honeymoon stage” ____.
A. is involved in developing healthy habits
B. is exciting with the new sights, sounds, language and foods
C. is the initial period of culture shock
D. got its name because everything is new and exciting for the newcomer
Question 15. In paragraph 1, the word novelties probably means ____.
A. things which are new or unusual B. things which are difficult to deal with
C. things which have to do with novels D. things which are very young or recent in age
Question 16. In paragraph 2, the word host probably means ____.
A. the dominant country B. the largest country
C. the newcomer's native country D. the receiving country
Question 17. Which of the following is NOT true according the passage?
A. At forth stage, newcomers have overcome all problems in the new culture.
B. Immigrants may suffer from "reverse culture shock” when going back to native culture.
C. New arrivals in the second stage, "reject” the new culture by returning to their country or binding even
more with other people from their culture.
D. The "rejection stage” is the most difficult stage in the process of cultural adjustment.
Exercise 3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the questions.
In the Native American Navajo nation which sprawls across four states in the American south-west, the
native language is dying. Most of its speakers are middle-age or elderly. Although many students take classes
in Navajo, the schools are run in English. Street sign, supermarket goods and even their own newspaper are
all in English. Not surprisingly, linguists doubt that any native speakers of Navajo will remain in a hundred
years' time.
Navajo is far from alone. Half the world's 6,800 languages are likely to vanish within two generations -
that's one language lost every ten days. Never before has the planet's linguistic diversity shrunk at such a pace.
Isolation breeds linguistic diversity as a result, the world is peppered with languages spoken by only a few
people. Only 250 languages have more than a million speakers, and at least 3,000 have fewer than 2,500. It is
not necessarily these small languages that are about to disappear. Navajo is considered endangered despite
having 150,000 speakers.
What makes a language endangered is not that the number of speakers, but how old they are. If it is spoken
by children it is relatively safe. The critically endangered languages are those that are only spoken by the
elderly, according to Michael Krauss, director of the Alaska Native Language Center, in Fairbanks.
Why do people reject the language of their parent? It begins with a crisis of confidence, when a small
community finds itself alongside a larger, wealthier society, says Nicholas Ostler of Britain's Foundation for
Endangered Languages, in Bath. “People lose faith in their culture” he says. "When the next generation reaches
their teens, they might not want to be induced into the old tradition.” The change is not always voluntary.

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Quite often, governments try to kill off a minority language by banning its use in public or discouraging its
use in school, all to promote national unity. The former US policy of running Indian reservation in English,
for example, effectively put languages such as Navajo on the danger list. But Salikoko Mufwene, who chairs
the Linguistics Department at the University of Chicago, argues that the deadliest weapon is not government
policy but economic globalisation. "Native Americans have not lost pride in their language, but they have had
to adapt to socio-economic pressures" he says. “They cannot refuse to speak English if most commercial
activity is in English."
However, a growing interest in cultural identity may prevent the direct predictions from coming true. ‘The
key to fostering diversity is for people to learn their ancestral tongue, as well as the dominant language' says
Doug Whalen, founder and president of the Endangered Language Fund in New Haven, Connecticut. “Most
of these will ive without a large degree of bilingualism” he says.

Question 18. It is stated in the passage that the number of endangered languages is ____.
A. about 3,200 B. about 6,800 C. at least 3,000 D. fewer than 2,500
Question 19. The word peppered in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ____.
A. randomly separated B. slowly attacked
C. sparsely distributed D. unintentionally controlled
Question 20. According to the passage, endangered languages cannot be saved unless people ____.
A. avoid speaking their dominant language B. grow interest in cultural identities
C. know more than one language D. write in their mother tongue
Question 21. Who thinks that a change of language may mean a loss of traditional culture?
A. Doug Whalen B. Michael Krauss C. Nicholas Ostler D. Salikoko Mufwene
Question 22. The word these in paragraph 5 refers to ____.
A. ancestral tongue B. dominant language
C. growing interest in cultural identity D. the key to fostering diversity
Question 23. Navajo language is considered being endangered language because ____.
A. it currently has too few speakers
B. it is spoken by too many elderly and middle-aged speakers
C. it was banned in publicity by the former US policy
D. many young people refuse to learn to speak it
Question 24. Which statement is NOT supported by the information in the passage?
A. A large number of native speakers fail to guarantee the survival of a language.
B. National governments could do more to protect endangered languages.
C. The loss of linguistic diversity is inevitable.
D. Young people often reject the established way of life in their community.
Question 25. What is the main idea of this passage?
A. To describe how diverse languages are in the past.
B. To explain the importance of persevering endangered languages.
C. To explain why more and more languages disappear.
D. To point out that many languages being in danger of extinction.

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EXERCISE 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
THE EMERGENCE OF MEGACITIES
The urban shift over time has led to the emergence of the megacity - a city' with a population of 10
million or more. New York City and Tokyo were the first (1) _______________ megacities, both (2)
_______________ an urban population of over 10 million by the 1950s. But today they are (3)
_______________ alone in their size. In 2014, there were 28 megacities across the planet -from Sao Paulo,
Brazil to Lagos, Nigeria and London, England to Shanghai. China — and all major global regions except
Oceania are (4) _______________ with megacities.
Most of the megacities in recent years are located in Asia and Africa. In fact, it is where seven of
the eight newest megacities can be found and where 10 of the 12 (5) _______________ megacities in
2030 will be located. From 2010 to 2015, Kinshasa’s population grew (6) _______________ over 23
percent, and today over half of the 11.6 million residents are under 22 years old. A (7) _______________
of factors has led to this growth including migration from rural areas, high fertility rates, and widening of
the city’s boundaries. The population is (8) _______________ almost all support structures in the city (9)
_______________ the threat of food shortages, traffic (10) _______________, and insufficient education
facilities have become an obvious reality.
Question 1. A. knew B. known C. familiar D. acquainted
Question 2. A. touching B. coming C. getting D. reaching
Question 3. A. far from B. far from it C. from far and wide D. so far
Question 4. A. indicated B. marked C. shown D. described
Question 5. A. projected B. aimed C. potential D. arranged
Question 6. A. with B. to C. about D. by
Question 7. A. set B. combination C. mixture D. arrangement
Question 8. A. outrunning B. outgrowing C. outnumbering D. outplaying
Question 9. A. that B. which C. what D. where
Question 10. A. B. combination C. congestion D. control
concentration
EXERCISE 2: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
A TALE OF TWO CITIES: SEOUL AND DHAKA
The city of Seoul, with a population of 10.3 million in 1998, forms part of South Korea's capital
region. As the capital city. Seoul has been at the center of South Korea's remarkable economic
transformation over the last four decades.
In the 1960s. much of South Korea's industrial growth was focused on greater Seoul, which by 1970
had 52 percent of the country's industrial workers. The major contributor to this growth was rural-urban
migration, which accounted for 50 percent of the country's urban increase in the 1960s. This very rapid

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growth of Seoul's population placed pressure on the city's infrastructure, leading to marked growth in new
settlements, increasing traffic congestion, and growing air pollution. This led the government to adopt a
national decentralization strategy in the 1970s that attempted to divert industry to other areas of the
country. New industrial complexes were established in the southeast part of the country. In the 1980s.
continuing efforts were made to decentralize economic activity.
Dhaka's population of 6.5 million is crowded into 360 square kilometers, creating one of the highest
urban densities in the world. Unlike South Korea, Bangladesh has not experienced rapid economic change,
and agriculture remains the major component of GDP and the main source of employment. While general
economic conditions have improved somewhat over the last twenty years. Bangladesh is still a very poor
country.
Dhaka's rate of population growth has declined slightly over the past three decades, but it still remains
among the highest in Asia (4.2 percent annually). The continuing growth reflects ongoing migration from
rural areas to the Dhaka urban region. Recently, the city's population has also grown as a result of the
expansion ot its administrative boundaries, a process that added 1 million people to the city in the 1980s.
Dhaka's growth has not been associated with an expansion of productive employment opportunities in
relatively high wage areas. Instead, there has been growing employment in the low productivity, low-
income sector, such as petty retailing or rickshaw driving.
Question 11. The main reason of Seoul’s population growth in the 1960s was
A. the development of industry
B. remarkable economic transformation
C. rural-urban migration
D. its role as a capital
Question 12. All of the following are the problems that the authorities of Seoul had to deal with
EXCEPT _______________.
A. infrastructure B. rural-urban migration
C. traffic congestion D. housing
Question 13. We can infer from the passage that the reason of the national decentralization strategy
in the 1970s and 1980s in Seoul is that _______________.
A. other regions demanded for industry development
B. there were no industrial complexes in the south
C. it would place pressure on other cities
D. Seoul seemed to be beyond its capacity
Question 14. All of the following are true about Dhaka EXCEPT that _______________.
A. its population always increase steadily
B. its urban growth rate is one the highest in the world
C. people live mainly on agriculture
D. many people live in poverty
Question 15. One of the differences between the urban growth between Seoul and Dhaka is
_______________.
A. rural-urban migration
B. urban boundary extension
C. employment opportunities
D. high urban densities

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EXERCISE 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
FIGHTING BACK AGAINST BULLYING
It is often said that childhood is the most joyful period in a person’s life. This is supposed to be a time
when children can focus on their studies and enjoy their free time with friends. However, these days more
and more children are experiencing a stressful and miserable adolescence due to bullying.
Bullying occurs when one student, or a group of students, uses aggression to harm another child and
try to make them feel bad. This abuse can either be physical, such as pushing or beating another student,
or it could take the form of mental abuse, such as taunting and teasing the student.
Although it may seem harmless to some, studies show that bullying can greatly impact a child’s life
and have long-lasting negative effects. People who have been bullied may experience self-esteem issues
and start to lack confidence in almost everything they do. These traits can make it difficult to manage
relationships and even cause them to have trouble holding down a steady job.
One of the most harmful types of bullying that is on the rise is cyberbullying. The bullied student is
targeted in cruel or threatening e-mails, instant messages, or hateful public posts about them. In many
cases, bullies will post embarrassing pictures of the victim or spread nasty rumours about them through
social media. In some tragic cases, children have even turned to suicide, feeling that they can’t deal with
the humiliation.
If you are being bullied by another student, you don't have to accept it or suffer. There are some steps
you can take to deal with the problem. At first, you may try to ignore the bully, as they will often lose
interest in bothering you if you don't react. If the bullying persists, however, you should tell a trusted adult
as soon as possible. This could be a parent, a family friend, a teacher, a school guidance counselor, or
even the school principal. Until recently, many teachers and school officials turned a blind eye to
bullying, believing that the students would eventually sort it out by themselves. But this mindset has
changed in recent years in light of some of the tragedies that have occurred. If for any reason you feel that
your complaints are not being taken seriously, there are other groups available online who will help you
deal with bullying. By dealing with bullying at an early stage, you can stop it before it gets much worse.
Question 16. What can we infer from the passage?
A. Some of the worst bullies today are adults.
B. Bullying is probably not as serious as you think.
C. Bullying is a natural part of growing up.
D. The issue of bullying has got worse lately.
Question 17. The word “them" in the second paragraph refers to _______________.
A. victims B. parents C. acts of bullying D. studies
Question 18. What does the author suggest that students should do if someone starts to bully them?
A. Tell an adult the first time it happens
B. Start a fight with the bully to make them scared
C. Try not to show too much emotion to the bully
D. Prove to the bully that you have other friends
Question 19. What effects can bullying have on a person?
A. It can make them uncomfortable and feel bad.
B. It can teach them valuable lessons about life.
C. It can help them to develop a better sense of humour.
D. It can drive them to get a better job.

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Question 20. The phrase “turned a blind eye to” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to
_______________.
A. became blind B. ignored C. concerned D. escaped
Question 21. Which of the following sentences defines cyberbullying?
A. It is an organization that stops online bullying.
B. It is a way to bully children over the Internet.
C. It is a way that bullies physically punish their victims.
D. It is a website where students talk about bully problems.
Question 22. Nowadays, the community has _______________.
A. taken notice of the problem of bullying more seriously
B. turned a blind eye to bullying
C. focused on solving cyberbullying alone
D. left the responsibilities for the school to solve the problem

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Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Even before the turn of the century, movies began to develop in two major directions: the realistic and
the formalistic. Realism and formalism are merely general, rather than absolute, terms. When used to
suggest a tendency toward either polarity, such labels can be helpful, but in the end they are just labels.
Few films are exclusively formalist in style, and fewer yet are completely realist. There is also an
important difference realism and reality, although this distinction is often forgotten. Realism is a
particular type, whereas physical reality is the source of all the raw materials of film, both realistic and
formalistic. Virtually, all movie directors go to the photographable world for their subject matter, but what
they do with this material - how they shape and manipulate it- determines their stylistic emphasis.
Generally speaking, realistic films attempt to reproduce the surface of concrete reality with a minimum
of distortion. In photographing objects and events, the Filmmaker tries to suggest the copiousness of life
itself. Both realist and formalist film directors must select (and hence emphasize) certain details from the
chaotic sprawl of reality. But the element of selectivity in realistic films is less obvious. Realists, in short,
to preserve the illusion that their film world is unmanipulated, an objective mirror the actual world.
Formalists, on the other hand, make no such pretense. They deliberately stylize and distort their raw
materials so that only the very naive would mistake a manipulated image of an object or event for the real
thing. We rarely notice the style in a realistic movie; the artist tends to be self-effacing. me filmmakers
are more concerned with what is being shown than how It is manipulated. The camera is used
conservatively. It is essentially a recording mechanism that produces the surface of tangible objects with
as little commentary s possible. A high premium is placed on simplicity, spontaneity, and directness. his
is not to suggest that these movies lack artistry, however, for at its best the realistic cinema specializes in
art that conceals art.
Question 1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Acting styles B. Film plots
C. Styles of filmmaking D. Filmmaking 100 years ago
Question 2. With which of the following statements would the author be most likely to agree?
A. Realism and formalism are outdated terms.
B. Most films are neither exclusively realistic nor formalistic.
C. Realistic films are more popular than formalistic ones.
D. Formalistic films are less artistic than realistic ones.
Question 3. The phrase “this distinction” in the first paragraph refers to the difference between
__________.
A. formalists and realists B. realism and reality
C. general and absolute D. physical reality and raw materials

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Question 4. Whom does the author say is primarily responsible for a style of film?
A. The director B. The actors
C. The producer D. The camera operator
Question 5. The word “It” in the first paragraph refers to _________
A. the photographable world B. their subject matter
C. this material D. their stylistic emphasis
Question 6. The word “Copiousness”in the second paragraph is Closest in meaning to ________
A. abundance B. greatness C. fullness D. variety
Question 7. How can one recognize the formalist style?
A. it uses familiar images B. it is very impersonal
C. it obviously manipulated images D. it mirrors the actual world
Question 8. The word “tangible” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ________
A. concrete B. complex C. various D. comprehensible
Question 9. The word “self-effacing” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to _________
A. modest B. shy C. egocentric D. introverted
Question 10. Which of the following films would most likely use a realist style?
A. A travel documentary B. A science fiction film
C. A musical drama D. An animated cartoon

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of
the questions.
Scientists have developed a new bionic computer chip that can be mated with human cells to combat
disease. The tiny device, smaller and thinner than a strand of hair, combines a healthy human cell with
an electronic circuitry chip. Doctors can control the activity of the cell by controlling the chip with a
computer.
It has long been established that cell membranes become permeable when exposed to electrical
impulses. Researchers have conducted genetic research for years with a trial and-error process of
bombarding cells with electricity in an attempt to introduce foreign substances such as new drug
treatments or genetic material. They were unable to apply a particular level of voltage for a particular
purpose. With the new invention, the computer sends electrical impulses to the chip, which triggers the
cell's membrane pores to open and activate the cell in order to correct diseased tissues. It permits
physicians to open a cell's pores with control.
Researchers hope that eventually they will be able to develop more advanced chips whereby they
can choose a particular voltage to activate particular tissues, whether they be muscle, bone, brain, or
others. They believe that they will be able to implant multiple chips into a person to deal with one problem
or more than one problem.
Question 1. The word “mated” in the first sentence is closest in meaning to ________
A. combined B. avoided C. introduced D. developed
Question 2. The word “strand” in the second sentence is closest in meaning to _________
A. type B. thread C. chip D. color
Question 3. The author implies that scientists are excited about the new technology because ________
A. it is less expensive than current techniques.
B. it allows them to be able to shock cells for the first time.
C. it is more precise than previous techniques.
D. it is possible to kill cancer with a single jolt.

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Question 4. The author states that scientists previously were aware that _____________
A. they could control eel's with a separate computer.
B. electronic impulses could affect cells.
C. electric charges could harm a person.
D. cells interact with each other through electrical charges.
Question 5. The author implies that up to now, the point of applying electric impulse to cells was to
_________ .
A. kill them B. open their walls to introduce medication
C. stop growth D. combine cells
Question 6. The word “triggers” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to _________
A. damages B. causes C. shoots D. assists
Question 7. The word “eventually” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to __________
A. finally B. in the future C. possibly D. especially
Question 8. The word “particular” in the third paragraph is closest in meaning to ________
A. huge B. slight C. specific D. controlled
Question 9. The word “others” in the third paragraph refers to other _________
A. researchers B. chips C. voltages D. tissues
Question 10. The author indicates that it is expected doctors will be able to __________
A. place one large chip in a person to control multiple problems.
B. place-more than one chip in a single person.
C. place a chip directly inside a cell.
D. place a chip inside a strand of hair.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Bees, classified into over 10.000 species, are insects found in almost every part of the world except
the northernmost and southernmost regions. One commonly known species is the honeybee, the only bee
that produces honey and wax. Humans use the wax in making candles, lipsticks, and other products, and
they use the honey as a food. While gathering the nectar and pollen with which they make honey, bees
are simultaneously helping to fertilize the flowers on which they land. Many fruits and vegetables would
not survive if bees did not carry the pollen from blossom to blossom.
Bees live in a structured environment and social structure within a hive, which is a nest with storage
space for the honey. The different types of bees each perform a unique function. The worker bee carries
nectar to the hive in a special stomach called a honey stomach. Other workers make beeswax and shape
it into a honeycomb, which is a waterproof mass of six-sided compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs
in completed cells. As the workers build more cells, the queen lays more eggs.
All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the queen. The male
honeybees are called drones; they do no work and cannot sting. They are developed from unfertilized
eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a queen. The queen must be fertilized in order to lay worker eggs.
During the season when less honey is available and the drone is of no further use, the workers block the
drones from eating the honey so that they will starve to death.
Question 1. Which of the following is the best title for this reading?
A. The Many Species of Bees B. The Useless Drone
C. The Honeybee - Its Characteristics and Usefulness D. Making Honey
Question 2. The word “species” in the first sentence is closest in meaning to _________
A. mates B. varieties C. killers D. enemies

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Question 3. The word “which” in the fourth sentence refers to _________

A. flowers B. fertilizer C. honey D. bees
Question 4. According to the passage, a hive is ___________
A. a type of honey B. a nest
C. a type of bee D. a storage space
Question 5. According to the passage, the drone ____________
A. collects less honey than workers.
B. comes from eggs fertilized by other drones.
C. mates with the queen and has no other purpose.
D. can be male or female.
Question 6. The author implies that __________
A. bees are unnecessary in the food chain. B. drones are completely dispensable.
C. the queen can be a worker. D. drones are never females.
Question 7. According to the passage, honey is carried to the hive in a honey stomach by the _______
A. queens B. drones C. males D. workers
Question 8. In what way does the reading imply that bees are useful in nature?
A. They pollinate fruit and vegetable plants.
B. They make marvelous creations from wax.
C. They kill the dangerous drones.
D. They create storage spaces.
Question 9. All of the following are characteristic of a honeycomb EXCEPT ____________
A. it contains hexagonal sections B. it is made of honey
C. it is made of wax D. it is impermeable
Question 10. The passage implies that bees can be found in each of the following parts of the world
EXCEPT __________
A. Africa B. China C. Europe D. Antarctica

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