CURRENT AFFAIRS

TEST SERIES
(Prelims 2023)

(CTS-1)
(JANUARY 2022)

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T.B.C.: SU-CTS-2023
Test Booklet Series
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER-I A
CURRENT AFFAIRS- JANUARY 2022
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks : 200

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
1. With reference to Imaging X-ray Polarimetry 3. Consider the following statements with respect
Explorer (IXPE), sometimes seen in the news, to D-SIBs in India:
which of the statements given below are not 1. The D-SIB framework requires the Reserve
correct? Bank to disclose the names of banks
1. It is world’s first commercial fully flexible designated as D-SIBs starting from 2015.
quantum based software satellite. 2. D-SIBs banks are not mandated with
2. It can be reprogrammed in orbit for data additional Common Equity Tier 1
transmission and secure communications. requirement as a percentage of their Risk
3. It is a joint effort between NASA and the Weighted Assets.
Italian Space Agency to study the solar 3. The failure of any of D-SIBs can lead to
wind from high solar latitudes. systemic and significant disruption to
4. It is launched on a Falcon 9 rocket into orbit essential economic services across the
600 kilometers above Earth’s equator. country.
Select the correct answer using the code given Which of the statements given above is/are
below. correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

4. Which of the following statements are not

2. With reference to Quito Adjustment, consider
correct?
the following statements:
1. African Cheetah are classified as critically
1. It has raised the target under the Kigali
endangered and found in the African
Amendment to avoid 1.5°C of global
continent only.
warming by 2100.
2. Unlike African Cheetah, which is smaller
2. It has projected to cut production and
and slender in built, Asiatic Cheetah are
consumption of climate change-inducing
slightly bigger build and have sturdy legs.
Hydrofluorocarbons by more than 80
3. Cheetah is the only large carnivore that got
percent over the next 30 years.
completely wiped out from India mainly due
3. It aims to strengthen enforcement
to over- hunting and habitat loss.
mechanisms in response to an unexpected
4. The Southern African cheetahs are found to
rise in global emissions of the banned
be ancestral to all the other cheetah lineages
chemical trichlorofluoromethane.
including those found in Iran.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code given
correct?
below:
(a) 3 only
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only

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5. Consider the following statements: 7. With respect to Arbitration in India, consider
1. In the 2018 All India Tiger Enumeration, the following statements:
the largest contiguous tiger population in the 1. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
world was found in the Sundarban National is largely based on American Common Law
Park. and UNCITRAL Model Law on
2. Global Tiger Recovery Programme aims International Commercial Arbitration, 1985.
doubling the wild tiger population by 2022. 2. The Amendment Act of 2019 provides for
3. Apart from the tiger counts, the 5th All the establishment of an Arbitration Council
India Tiger Estimation exercise includes of India.
data on the elephants and the gaurs. 3. The Amendment Act of 2019 allows
Select the correct answer using the code given unlimited scope for challenging the awards.
below: Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(a) 1 and 3 only not correct?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None of the above
6. With respect to suspension of a Member of a
Legislative Assembly (MLA), consider the 8. Consider the following statement with respect
following statements: to the structure and composition of Child
1. If a MLA is absent from the House without Welfare Committees:
permission for more than forty five days, 1. The State Government shall by notification
his/her seat may be declared vacant by the in the Official Gazette constitute for every
House. city, one or more Child Welfare
2. As per the Representation of People Act Committees.
1950, the bye-election for filling any 2. The Committee shall consist of a
vacancy has to be conducted within six Chairperson, and four other members of
months from the date of occurrence of such whom at least two shall be a woman and
vacancy. another, an expert on the matters concerning
3. Supreme Court has ruled that withdrawal of children.
a MLA under Rule 53 can only be done in 3. Child Welfare Committees have the
case the member’s conduct was “grossly Ministry of Health and Family Welfare as
disorderly”. their nodal Ministry.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 only (c) 2 only
(d) 3 only (d) None of the above

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9. Consider the following statement with respect to 11. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, which of the
General Network Access (GNA), often heard of in following statements given below is/are
the news:
correct?
1. GNA is a non-discriminatory access to the
1. It is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in
intra-State transmission system for an
the Eastern Ghats region of Andhra Pradesh.
estimated maximum injection and for a
consumer to draw for a specified period. 2. The Red Sander is classified as
2. GNA is beneficial for both the generator as ‘endangered’ category in the IUCN Red List
well as the end consumer. 2021.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 3. The global e-auction of seized red senders is
correct?
prohibited as per foreign trade policy.
(a) 1 only
Select the correct answer given below using the
(b) 2 only
correct code:
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
10. Consider the following statement with respect to (c) 1 and 3 only
Sugar Development Fund, sometimes heard of in
(d) 1 and 2 only
the news:
1. It is presently used to grant loans to the sugar
mills for facilitating the rehabilitation and 12. Which of the following statements with respect
modernization. to the Whale Shark are correct?
2. The loans are provided at a concessional rate 1. It is a keystone species in marine
of 2% below the prevailing bank rate). ecosystems.
3. The Sugar Development Fund functions under
2. It is distributed widely across tropical and
the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers’
warm temperate seas.
Welfare.
4. NABARD is the nodal agency for the purpose 3. The Andhra coast has the maximum density
of disbursement, follow-up and recovery of of whale shark population in the Indo-
SDF loans. pacific region.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
correct?
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
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13. With this reference to ‘the living root bridges’ of 16. With reference to Indian State of Forest Report
Meghalaya consider the following statements: (ISFR) 2021, consider the following statements:
1. Recently, it has been included in the 1. For the first time ISFR 2021 has made an
UNESCO’s World Heritage Site. assessment of forest cover in the Tiger
2. It is like a suspension bridge formed by Reserves and Lion conservation area of
guiding the pliable roots of the rubber fig tree. India.
3. It is believed that the Khasi community had
2. For the first time ISFR 2021 has made an
started the living root bridge tradition in
estimation of Above Ground Biomass at
Meghalaya.
pan-India level.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
3. For the first time a high-reAnswer satellite
(a) 1 and 2 only
data was used for Forest survey 2021.
(b) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(c) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
14. Consider the following statements with respect to
the Anamalai Tiger Reserve (c) 1 and 3 only
1. Recently, there was synchronous display of (d) 1, 2 and 3
light by several lakhs of fireflies in this tiger
reserve. 17. Consider the following statements with respect
2. This tiger reserve is mainly comprises of to Stockholm Convention on Persistent
semi-evergreen and evergreen forest. Organic Pollutants (POPs):
3. The major problem faced in this tiger reserve 1. The Stockholm Convention is a global
is the operation of interstate Sandalwood treaty to protect human health and
smugglers.
environment from POPs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Union government has ratified all the
correct?
chemicals listed under the Stockholm
(a) 3 only
Convention on POPs.
(b) 2 only
3. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986,
(c) 1 and 3 only
prohobits import and export of all the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
chemicals listed as POPs under Stockholm
Convention.
15. The ‘Chang Chenmo River’ is sometimes seen in
the news is tributary of which one of the Which of the statements given above are
following river? correct?
(a) The Brahmaputra River (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) The Teesta River (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) The Siyom River (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) The Shyok River (d) 1, 2 and 3

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18. With respect to Zero budget natural farming 20. With reference to Unnat Jyoti by Affordable
(ZBNF), consider the following statements: LEDs for All (UJALA) scheme, consider the

1. Unlike Green Revolution’s methods of following statements:

agriculture, ZBNF is a method of 1. It is world’s largest zero subsidy domestic

chemical-free agriculture. lighting programme.

2. The scheme has contributed in reduction
2. The only limitation of zero budget natural
in CO2 emission.
farming is it does not promote
3. It is a flagship scheme of the Environment
intercropping.
ministry.
3. The State of Sikkim aims to become
Which of the statements given above is/are
India’s first State to practise 100 per cent
correct?
natural farming by 2024.
(a) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 1 and 3 only
correct?
(c) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 21. With reference to hate speech, consider the
(d) 1 and 3 only following statements:
1. The hate speech is legally defined through
19. Consider the following statements: various legislation’s.

1. Biofilms are communities of 2. Section 153A and 505 of Indian Penal

Code IPC deal with inflammatory
microorganisms that attach to each other
speeches and expression that seeks to
and to surfaces and are able to act as
punish hate speech.
barriers to antibiotics.
3. MP Bezabaruah committee and Rajiv
2. Microorganisms that form biofilms
Gauba committee were made to proposals
include bacteria, fungi and Virus.
related to hate speech.
Which of the following statements given above
Which of the above mentioned statement is/are
is/are correct: correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 3 only

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22. Recently, Project Himank was in news. What 24. The minerals are termed strategic due to the
is it? limited availability of substitutes and their
demand in the high technology products such
(a) It is a project to count the length of all the
as hybrid cars, wind turbine magnets and
peaks in the Himalayan region.
defence equipments. Which of the following is
(b) It is a project to keep lines of the strategic minerals?
communication open throughout the year 1. Antimony
in Ladakh sector. 2. Nickel
(c) It is a project to measure the albedo level 3. Copper

of the glaciers in the Himalayan region. 4. Graphite

5. Zinc
(d) It is a project to create railway
Select the correct answer using the code given
connectivity in the Ladakh region.
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
23. With reference to Internet, consider the (b) 3, 4 and 5 only
following statements: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
1. Web 1.0 was the era of centralisation, in (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
which a huge share of communication
25. With reference to inner line permit, consider
takes place on closed platforms owned by
the following statements:
handful of organisations.
1. ILP is an official travel document or
2. Web 2.0 was the era of decentralized open permit granted to outsiders for travel to
protocols in which most online activity protected areas for a limited period.
involved navigating through individual 2. ILP is required by tourists to visit the the
web pages. region under this regime.

3. Web 3.0 refers to the decentralized online 3. It was introduced by the British under the
Bengal eastern frontier regulation (BEFR)
ecosystem based on blockchain which
of 1873.
aims to create a level of transparency in
4. Currently, ILP regime is applicable in
user control data and transaction. Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland
Which one of the above mentioned statements and Mizoram.
is/are correct? Which of the above mentioned statements
(a) 1 and 2 only is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) All of these

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26. Consider the following statements about 29. Dams are temples of modern India. In this
Pangong Tso Lake: context, consider the following statements:
1. It is the world’s highest salt water lake. 1. India is the third largest dam owning
2. 1/3rd of the Pangong Lake lies in China
nation in the world after USA and China.
and the other 2/3rd in India.
2. Out of the total dams in India, over 75%
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct? of these are more than 20 years old.
(a) 1 only 3. Kallanai dam, Tamilnadu is the oldest
(b) 2 only dam in the world still in use.
(c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the above given statements is/are
(d) None of these correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
27. In the context of Indian history, consider the
(b) 1 and 3 only
following statements about Rani velu
Nachiyar: (c) 2 and 3 only
1. Rani Velu Nachiyar was the first queen to (d) All of these
wage war against the East India Company.
2. She formed an alliance with Hyder Ali
30. With reference to NISAR Mission. Consider the
against the British in 1780.
following statements:
3. She established the first non-governmental
press in Kerala. 1. NISAR (synthetic aperture radar) refers
Which of the above mentioned statements to a technique for producing high-
is/are correct? resolution images.
(a) 1 and 2 only 2. It will detect movements of the planet’s
(b) 1 and 3 only surface as small as 0.4 inches over areas
(c) 2 and 3 only
about half the size of a tennis court.
(d) All of these
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
28. With reference to ethanol, consider the
following statements: (a) 1 only
1. India is third largest ethanol consumer in (b) 2 only
the world. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. Ethanol is colourless liquid that has a high
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
octane number.
3. India aims to achieve 20% ethanol
blending with petrol by 2025. 31. Recently, Spanggur Lake was in news. The
Which of the above mentioned statements lake lies in:
is/are correct? (a) Uttarakhand
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) Ladakh

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32. Recently, the term Aquamation was in news. It 34. With reference to Chilika Lake, consider the
refers to: following statement:
(a) It is a process to dispose a body through
1. It is the largest brackish water lake in
immersion of body in mixture of water
India and the Asia, and the world’s second
and a strong alkali in a pressurised metal
cylinder and heated to be around 150 largest lagoon.
degree Celsius. 2. Fishing cat named the ambassador of
(b) It is a process to dispose a body through Chilika Lake.
immersion of body in mixture of water
3. Nalaban Island, a notified bird sanctuary
and a strong acid in a pressurised metal
is located within the lake.
cylinder and heated to be around 150
degree Celsius. 4. Irrawaddy Dolphins are the flagship
(c) It is a process to dispose a body through species of this lake.
immersion of body in mixture of water Which of the given above statements is/are
and a strong alkali in a pressurised metal
correct?
cylinder and heated to be around 150
degree Fahrenheit. (a) 1 and 3 only
(d) It is a process to dispose a body through (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
immersion of body in mixture of water (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
and a strong acid in a pressurised metal
(d) All of these
cylinder and heated to be around 150
Fahrenheit.
35. In context of environment, consider the
33. With reference to Jagannath temple, consider following:
the following statements:
1. Point Calimere W.S
1. The temple was constructed in 12th
2. Simlipal W.S
century by the Ganga Dynasty.
2. It is also called as White pagoda. 3. Gahirmatha marine W.S

3. It is a part of the ‘Char Dham’ pilgrimage. 4. Nalaban W.S

4. It is also a part of UNESCO World Which of the following is correct if someone
heritage site. go from North to South?
Which of the above given statements is/are
(a) 4-2-3-1
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2-3-4-1

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (c) 3-2-4-1

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 4-3-2-1
(d) All of these
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36. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya 38. With reference to clouded leopards, consider the
Yojana, consider the following statements: following statements:

1. It provides cover of 5 lakh per individual in 1. They majorly inhabit low elevation evergreen
the family for secondary and tertiary care rainforests.
hospitalisation. 2. They are the state animal of Himachal
2. The beneficiaries are identified through Socio Pradesh.
Economic Caste Census (SECC).
3. They are only found in Southeast Asia and
3. The individuals are allowed to go only public
Himalayas.
empanelled hospitals in India.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are
4. The benefits of the scheme are portable across
correct?
the country.
(a) 2 only
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are
(b) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 4 only 39. Consider the following:

1. Raids
37. Consider the following:
2. Sample collection for test
1. Waste tyres
3. Soil health
2. Used Automobile parts
4. Anti-locust work
3. Electronic items

4. Plastic
5. Property rights

5. Foam materials Which of the above mentioned application is

Which of the following items are under extended possible through use of drones?
produce responsibility (EPR)? (a) 2 and 3 only
(a) 3 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 4 and 5 only

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40. With reference to minorities in India, consider 42. With reference to budget, consider the
the following statements: following statements:

1. The term ‘minority’ is defined under 1. All budget calculations start with the real

Article 29 of the Constitution. GDP.

2. Under National commission for Minorities 2. Nominal GDP is a derived metric from
inflation.
Act 1992, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs,
Which of the above mentioned statements
Buddhist, Jains and Zoroastrians are
is/are correct?
classified as minority.
(a) 1 only
3. The linguistic and religious minority are
(b) 2 only
determined by taking state as a unit and
(c) Both 1 and 2
not by taking into consideration the
(d) Neither 1 and 2
population of whole country as a whole.
Which of the above mentioned statements
43. With reference to Aadhaar enabled payment
is/are correct?
system (AePS), consider the following
(a) 1 and 2 only
statements:
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. It is a banking model which allows online
(c) 3 only interoperable financial inclusion
(d) 1 and 3 only transaction PoS (micro ATM) through
business correspondents.

41. The river serves as a boundary between India 2. Currently, AePS enabled ATM’s cash

and Nepal. It is also known as Sharda. withdrawal limit is 10,000 per transaction.

Recently, government approved MoU between 3. Every BC is required to be attached to a

specific bank branch designated as the
India and Nepal for the construction of bridge
base branch.
over this river.
Which of the above mentioned statements
The river referred in the above passage is:
is/are correct?
(a) Kosi
(a) 1 only
(b) Mahakali
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) Ghagra
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Gandaki (d) 1, 2 and 3

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44. With reference to Business correspondents (BC), 47. He was awarded Nobel Prize for his work in
consider the following statements: genetic code. He was also credited with the
1. Nurturing and monitoring of Self Help construction of the world’s first synthetic gene.
Groups/ Joint Liability Groups He also contributed to science of polymerase
2. Sale of micro insurance/ mutual fund chain reaction (PCR) test which is used to
products/ pension products detect virus like SARS-CoV-2.
3. Recovery of principal / collection of interest The Indian scientist described in the above
4. Creating awareness about savings and other passage is:
products (a) Jagdish Chandra Bose
5. Debt counselling (b) C.V Raman
Which of the above mentioned activities are (c) Hargobind Khorana
performed by BCs?
(d) Satyendra Nath Bose
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
48. With reference to Helium-3, an isotope of
(c) 3 and 5 only
element helium, consider the following
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
statements:
1. It has the potential to be used as fuel in
45. Sea Dragon-22 is a multilateral antisubmarine
nuclear fusion.
warfare exercise. The countries participating in this
2. It is abundantly available on earth but it is
exercise are:
very difficult to harness it for the nuclear
(a) Australia, India, U.S.A, Japan
fusion reaction.
(b) Singapore, Canada, India, South Korea
Which of the given above statements is/are
(c) China, South Korea, Japan, Russia
correct?
(d) USA, Canada, U.K, Australia
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
46. With reference to Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and
Spiritual heritage augmentation Drive (PRASHAD) (c) Both 1 and 2
scheme, consider the following statements: (d) Neither 1 and 2
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which focus
on developing and identifying pilgrimage sites 49. In context of elections, consider the following
all over India with respective state statements about Model code of conduct
governments. (MCC):
2. PRASHAD scheme is launched by Ministry 1. The MCC is operationalised from the next
of Culture. day of announcement of scheduled
3. It aims to create world class infrastructure election date till the results are announced.
development of the sites comes under it. 2. It is enforceable by law.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are not
Which of the above mentioned statements is
correct?
are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1,2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 and 2
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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
50. With reference to Asian Infrastructures 53. With reference to World trade organisation
Investment Bank, consider the following (WTO), Consider the following statements:
statements: 1. There is no definition of developed and
1. It aims to improve social and economic developing countries according to WTO.
outcomes in Asia. 2. India’s per capita income is less than
Bangladesh.
2. India is one of the founding member of
3. According to WTO, Bangladesh has least
the bank.
developed Country (LDC) status.
3. India holds 7.8% voting share which is
Which of the given above statements is/are
second largest after China.
correct?
Which of the given above statements is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 54. Renewable energy certificate (REC) was
introduced in 2010, is a market based
51. Which of the following countries have the instrument which ensure compliance of
capability to build aircraft carriers? Renewable purchase obligation (RPO) has
following features:
(a) USA, UK, France, Australia
1. 1 REC is equal to 1 KWh (KiloWatt hour)
(b) India, China, Australia, Russia
produced from renewable energy.
(c) India, France, UK, Russia
2. REC is divided into two categories solar
(d) USA, China, Russia, Australia RECs and Non-solar RECs.
3. Solar Power accounts for more than 50%
52. The shipping lane connectivity was envisioned of the total registered capacity.
between Andaman and Nicobar (A&N) and 4. States such as Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra,
one port. It is 90 Nautical miles away from Rajasthan and Gujarat accounts for more
Andaman and Nicobar islands. It is also than 50% share of total registered
important for surveillance and monitoring of capacity.
maritime traffic. Which of the above mentioned features are
correct?
The port mentioned in passage refers to:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) Hambantota port
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) Sabang port
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Sittwe port
(d) All of these
(d) Tanjung Priok port
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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
55. The term “Digital embossing technology” 57. The term ‘Xenotransplantation’ was recently in
(DET) was recently in news. This refers to: news. This refers to:
(a) The technology is used for mapping land (a) The transplantation or implantation into
records that can be used for longer periods dying tissues of trees from trees of other
of time. varieties.
(b) The technology is used for high speed (b) The transplantation or implantation of new
cloning of enemy satellites that can be set of DNA into human recipient from
used for longer periods of time. another human.
(c) The technology is used for high speed (c) The transplantation or implantation into
additive manufacturing that can be used humans recipient, a water regulating
for longer periods of time. artificial machines.
(d) The technology is used for high speed (d) The transplantation or implantation into
production of maps that can be used for humans recipient of organs from a non-
longer periods of time. human animal source.

56. In context of Indian history, consider the 58. With reference to World Economic Forum’s
following statements about Adi Global risk report 2022, consider the following
Shankararacharya: statements:
1. He was born in Majuli Island, Assam. 1. Climate Action Failure
2. He played a significant role in the revival 2. Debt crisis in large economies
of Hinduism. 3. Extreme Weather
3. He postulated Vishishtadvaita Advaita, 4. Digital inequality
which refers to singularity between 5. Biodiversity loss
individuals and Brahman. Which of the above mentioned statements are
Which of the given above statements is/are among the top five Global risk under the
correct? report?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 5 only
(c) 3 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
59. Recently, “Desulfovibirio vulgaris” was seen in 62. Consider the following Statements:
news. It is: 1. SpaceX’s internet satellite network
(a) It is a bacteria used as Bio-cleaning agent operates in low-Earth orbit at an altitude
used for cleaning monuments.
of 340-450 km above Earth’s surface.
(b) It is a fungus used as Bio-cleaning agent
2. China’s Space Station will operate at
used for cleaning jewellery.
550km above the Earth’s surface in LEO.
(c) It is a fungus used as Bio-cleaning agent
used for cleaning monuments. 3. Both the U.S. and China are parties to the
(d) It is a bacteria used as Bio-cleaning agent Outer Space Treaty, which is formally
used for cleaning jewellery. known as the ‘Treaty on Principles
Governing the Activities of States in the
60. With reference to Brahmos, consider the Exploration and Use of Outer Space.
following statements: Which of the given above statements is/are
1. It is the fastest cruise missile in the world. correct?
2. It works on ‘fire and forget’ principle.
(a) 1 and 2 only
3. It has air-breathing ramjet propulsion
(b) 2 only
system, for fuel-efficiency & supersonic
speed. (c) 3 only
Which of the above mentioned statements (d) 1 and 3 only
is/are correct?
(a) 2 only 63. Consider the following Statements regarding
(b) 1 and 2 only Quantum Entanglement:
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. It is the physical phenomenon that occurs
(d) 1, 2 and 3
when a pair or group of particles is
generated and they interact in such a way
61. Consider the following statements regarding
that the quantum state of each particle of
ARIIA 2021:
the pair or group cannot be described
1. It is an initiative by the Ministry of
Education which is implemented by independently of the state of the others.
AICTE and the Ministry’s Innovation 2. Quantum entanglement is one of the
Cell. peculiarities of quantum mechanics, which
2. Its major objective is to systematically makes phenomena such as quantum
rank all major higher educational teleportation and super-dense coding
institutions and universities in India. possible.
Which of the Statements given above is/are
Which of the given above statements is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
64. Which of the following Statements regarding 66. With reference to e-RUPI consider the
Tardigrades is/are correct? following statements:
1. They are found in terrestrial, marine, and 1. It is a Quick Response (QR) code or SMS
freshwater environments from the Arctic string-based e-voucher, which is delivered
to the Antarctic, including great depths to the mobile of the users.
and altitudes. 2. It connects the sponsors of the services
2. The grub-like, eight-legged animals can with the beneficiaries and service
come back from being dried out to a providers in a digital mode without any
lifeless husk for decades. physical interface.
3. The system has unique feature of pre-paid
3. They are microscopic, multicellular, and
and post-paid nature and hence, assures
one of the most durable forms of life on
timely and flexible payment to the service
planet Earth.
provider without the involvement of any
Which of the given above statements is/are
intermediary.
correct?
Which of the above mentioned statement is/are
(a) 1 and 2 only
correct?
(b) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
65. Consider the following Statements regarding
Solid-State Battery: 67. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Solid-state lithium-metal battery replaces Food Fortification:
the polymer separator used in 1. It is defined as the practice of deliberately
conventional lithium-ion batteries with a increasing the content of essential
solid-state separator. macronutrients so as to improve the
2. The advantages of the solid-state battery nutritional quality of the food supply and
technology include higher cell energy to provide a public health benefit with
density, lower charge time, ability to minimal risk to health.
undertake more charging cycles and 2. As per study it may lead to adverse
thereby a longer life, and improved safety. impacts on health and livelihoods such as
Which of the Statements given above is/are not Hypervitaminosis and toxicity.
correct? Which of the above mentioned statements
is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
68. With refers to Census of India, consider the 70. With reference to SARFAESI Act, consider the
following statements: following statements:
1. The responsibility of conducting the
1. Only immovable assets are covered per
decennial Census rests with the Office of
under SARFAESI Act.
the Registrar General and Census
Commissioner, India under the Ministry of 2. All NBFCs are also covered under the act.
Home Affairs, Government of India. 3. All Cooperative Banks that are established
2. The Census is one of the most credible
under State law or Multi-state level societies
sources of information on the Urbanization,
come within the ambit of the Act.
Fertility, and Mortality, Language and caste
among others. Which of the Statements given above is/are not
Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 3 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1 and 3 only

69. Consider the following Statements regarding

71. With reference to MPs and MLAs in India,
Rythu Bandhu scheme:
consider the following statements:
1. To apply under the scheme and to make the
1. The constitution says that house can declare
cut, the farmer should have been a resident
of Telangana state and must own farming a seat vacant on a member’s absence
land. without permission for a period of 60 days.
2. The scheme is applicable for all the small 2. The quorum to constitute a sitting of the
and marginal farmers. House is one-tenth of the maximum strength
3. 5,000 per acre and per season is provided to
of the house.
every farmer under the Rythu Bandhu
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are
Scheme.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

correct? (a) 1 only

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) All of these

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
72. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan 74. With reference to recently released India state of

Anna Yojana PM-GKAY, consider the following forest report (ISFR) 2021, consider the following
statements:
statements:
1. It is the 16th report released by Forest
1. It provides for free foodgrains to migrants
survey of India.
and poor.
2. India is the only country that publish the
2. It provides for 5 kg free wheat/rice per forest assessment biennially.
month to all the poor and migrants. Which of the above mentioned statements is/are

3. Currently, the act is implemented in Phase correct?

V. (a) 1 only

(b)2 only
Which of the Statements given above is/are not
(c) Both 1 and 2
correct?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

75. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 only 1. Very dense forest (tree canopy density of
(d) 2 and 3 only 70% or above).
2. Moderately dense forest (tree canopy
density between 40% to 70%).
73. It was the first port that was developed after
3. Open forest (tree canopy density between
India got independence. It is also a tidal port
10% to 40%).
famous for exporting grains and importing oil. It
4. Scrub forest (tree canopy density less than
is one of the highest earning ports in the country.
10%).
It is largest port by volume of trade. Which of the above mentioned type of forest are
The port referred in the passage is: categorised as ‘forest’ under the Indian state of

(a) Paradip Port forest report?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) Visakhapatnam Port
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Kandla Port
(d) All of these

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
.76. With reference to trade agreements, consider the 78. With reference to olive Ridley turtle, consider the
following statements: following statements:
1. In free trade agreement, a positive list is 1. They are the smallest sea turtles of the
maintained for products on which the two world.
partners have agreed to provide free access.
2. They are the most abundant of all sea turtles
2. In preferential trade agreement, or negative
found in the world.
list of products and services is maintained
3. In India, they are only found along the
by the negotiating countries on which the
eastern coast.
terms of PTA are not applicable.
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are
Which of the above mentioned statements are
correct? correct?

(a) 1 only (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

77. With reference to political parties in India, 79. The term ‘Khoisan’ was recently in news. It refers
consider the following statements: to:
1. Any party seeking registration has to submit
(a) They are known to be the tribe from Nilgiri
an application to the Commission within a
hills.
period of 15 days following the date of its
(b) They are known to be the first people to
formation.
inhabit South Africa.
2. The registration of all political parties is
governed by the provisions of Section 29A (c) They are known to be the first people to

of the Representation of the People Act, inhabit Kazakhstan in Central Asia.

1951. (d) They are known to be the tribe from Khasi
3. All parties registering with the EC has to be hills.
allotted the status of either a ‘state party’ or
a ‘national party’. 80. Excellence in design for greater efficiencies
4. E.C has power to register political parties. (EDGE), a green building certification system
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are focused on making buildings more resource
correct? efficient is created by which of the following?
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(a) Global environment Facility
(b) 2 only
(b) International finance Corporation
(c) 2 and 4 only
(c) International Monetary Fund
(d) 1 and 3 only
(d) Greenpeace International

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
81. The C2S program refers to which of the following 85. India’s first climate hazards and vulnerability
domain: Atlas of India was recently launched for the first
(a) High quality engineers to startups School time by:
(a) Germanwatch
Education to vulnerable children.
(b) Indian meteorological department (IMD)
(b) School Education to vulnerable children.
(c) Indian institute of Tropical Meteorology
(c) Comprehensive Answer to plastic waste
(IITM)
management. (d) Department of Science and technology
(d) Corporate social responsibility (CSR) (DST)
initiatives in health sectors.
86. With reference to Siachen glaciers, consider the
82. ‘Inequality kills’ report is released by: following statements:
1. It is the world’s highest and coldest
(a) Greenpeace
battlefield.
(b) Concern worldwide
2. It is the world’s largest non-polar glacier
(c) Oxfam and it delineates Central Asia from the
(d) Organization for poverty elevation and Indian subcontinent.
development 3. It is the part of western Karakoram Range
with nearly 76 kilometres in length.
83. With respect to Thiruvalluvar, consider the Which of the above mentioned statements is/are
correct?
following statements:
(a) 1 only
1. He is known for his work Tirukkural, a
(b) 1 and 3 only
collection of couplets on politics, love,
(c) 2 only
ethics and matter concerning economics.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It is considered to be an important text of
Kannada literature. 87. With respect to National Commission for Safai
Which of the above mentioned statements are Karamchari, consider the following statements:
correctly matched? 1. It is a statutory body established in 1993 as
(a) 1 only per the provision of NCSK Act 1993.
(b) 2 only 2. It is permanent body that gives
recommendations to the government
(c) Both 1 and 2
regarding specific programs for welfare of
(d) Neither 1 and 2 safari karamchari.
3. It has the power of Civil Court.
84. Biodiver Cities by 2030 initiative, is led by: Which of the above mentioned statements is/are
(a) World Economic Forum not correct?
(b) UNFCCC (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) United Nation Environment Programme
(c) 3 only
(d) Global footprint Network
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
88. With reference to Non fungible tokens (NFTs), 91. With reference to Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan,
consider the following statements: consider the following statements:
1. It is one of the kind asset in the digital world 1. He was a Pathan from Khyber
that can be bought or sold like any other Pankhtunkhwa and also called as ‘Frontier
piece of property. Gandhi’.
2. The risk of replication is a major concern 2. He supported division of British India into
for non- fungible tokens. Pakistan and India.
3. Income from NFTs are liable to be taxed at 3. He was the first non-Indian to receive
30%. honour of Bharat Ratna.
Which of the above mentioned statements are Which of the above mentioned statements is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of these (d) 1, 2 and 3

89. With reference to Circum-pacific belt, consider 92. With reference to moisture content (MC) limit for
the following statements: wheat and rice by FCI, consider the following
statements:
1. It is home to about 75% of the world’s
volcanoes. 1. At present, farmers have to take a price cut
on MSP when selling wheat stocks above
2. About 90% of the world’s earthquake occur
the 12 per cent limit to FCI.
here.
2. Stocks with above 14 per cent moisture are
Which of the above mentioned statements are
rejected.
correct?
Which of the above mentioned statements are
(a) 1 only
correct?
(b) 2 only
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(d) Neither 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 and 2
90. With reference to Indian renewable energy
development agency (IREDA), consider the
93. With reference to Konyak tribe, consider the
following statements: following statements:
1. It is a public financial institution under the 1. It is the largest tribe in Nagaland.
Companies Act 1956.
2. The term ‘Konyak’ is believed to have been
2. It is registered as Non- banking financial derived from the words ‘Whao’ meaning
company (NBFC). ‘head’ and ‘Nyak’ meaning ‘black’
3. It lies under ‘Mini Ratna’ category. translating to ‘men with black hair’.
Which of the above mentioned statements are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
94. Consider the following statements regarding NPT: 96. Consider the following statements:
1. It is an international treaty whose objective 1. The term open source refers to something
is to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons people can modify and share because its
design is publicly accessible.
and weapons technology, to foster the
2. Git Hub is the world’s largest open-source
peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to
developer community platform where users
further the goal of disarmament.
upload their projects and code for others to
2. Presently, it has 190 member states
view, edit, and tweak.
including India and China. Which of the Statements given above is/are
3. It requires countries to give up any present correct?
or future plans to build nuclear weapons in (a) 1 only
return for access to peaceful uses of nuclear (b) 2 only
energy. (c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the Statements given above is/are (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 97. Consider the following Pairs:

(b) 2 and 3 1. Seasonal Unemployment: It is an

unemployment that occurs during certain
(c) 1 and 3
seasons of the year.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Structural Unemployment: It is a category
of unemployment arising from the mismatch
95. With reference to Living root bridges, consider between the jobs available in the market and
the following statements: the skills of the available workers in the
market.
1. They are Ficus elastica-based suspension
3. Frictional Unemployment: This refers to the
bridges with intense tropical rainforest of
time lag between the jobs when an
Meghalaya.
individual is searching for a new job or is
2. These bridges are grown by indigenous
switching between the jobs.
Garo tribes over the time period of 15 to 30 4. Vulnerable Employment: This means,
years. people working informally, without proper
Which of the above mentioned statements is/are job contracts and thus sans any legal
correct? protection.

(a) 1 only Which of the Pairs given above is/are correct?

(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) Neither 1 and 2
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
98. With reference to Collective Security Treaty 100. Which of the following statements related to the
organisation (CSO). Consider the following Treaty on Prohibition of Nuclear weapons
statements: (TPNW) and Non- Proliferation Treaty (NPT) is
1. It is an intergovernmental military alliance not correct?
that started through ‘Tashkent Pact’. (a) TPNW prohibits the non-nuclear-weapon States
2. Uzbekistan and Turkmenistan are recent forsake the option of developing nuclear
members of CSTO. weapons, while in the NPT State Parties develop,
Which of the following statements given above test, produce, manufacture, otherwise acquire,
is/are not correct? possess or stockpile nuclear weapons outright,
(a) 1 only comprehensively, for all States Parties,
(b) 2 only irrespective of whether they possess nuclear
(c) Both 1 and 2 weapons.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) TPNW is focused on prohibition of the use of
nuclear weapons, while the NPT is focused on
99. With reference to Asian Infrastructure the transfer, manufacture and acquisition of these
Investment Bank (AIIB). Consider the following weapons.
statements:
(c) TPNW complements and supports the NPT's
1. It is a multilateral development bank with a
nuclear disarmament and non-proliferation
mission to improve social and economic
objectives to pursue negotiations on effective
outcomes in Asia only.
measures for nuclear disarmament, receive the
2. China is the largest shareholder followed
by Russia and India. transfer of or control over nuclear weapons or
other nuclear explosive devices directly or
3. The regional members hold 75% of the
total voting power in the Bank. indirectly.
Which of the statements given above is/are not (d) None of the above
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

*****

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CURRENT AFFAIRS
TEST SERIES
(Prelims 2023)

(CTS-1)
(JANUARY 2022)
(Solutions)

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
1. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: The Eutelsat Quantum is is world’s first commercial fully flexible
quantum based software satellite and NOT the IXPE
● Statement 2 is not correct: No it cannot be reprogrammed into orbit unlike the Eutelsat.
● Statement 3 is not correct: It is dedicated to studying the polarization of X-rays coming from
objects like exploded stars and black holes not NOT solar winds.
● Statement 4 is correct: IXPE launched Dec. 9 on a Falcon 9 rocket into orbit 370 miles (600
kilometers) above Earth’s equator.

2. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is not correct: In 2018, the Quito Adjustment is the adjustment made to the Montreal
Protocol which aims high to avoid 1°C of future warming not 1.5 °C by 2100.
 Statement 2 is not correct: This provision, to cut projected production and consumption of climate
change-inducing hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) in refrigerators, air conditioners and related products
by more than 80 percent over the next 30 years was already got approved in the Kigali Amendment,
which has enter into force on 1 January 2019. The Quito Adjustment is not related to it.
 Statement 3 is correct: The Quito Adjustment to the Montreal Protocol agreed in 2018 in Quito at
the Thirtieth Meeting of the Parties enters into force on 21 June 2019. In this, the decision to
strengthen enforcement mechanisms of this accord in response to an unexpected rise in global
emissions of the banned chemical trichlorofluoromethane or CFC-11 was adopted.

3. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The State Bank of India, ICICI Bank, and HDFC Bank continue to be
identified as Domestic Systemically Important Banks (D-SIBs. These aforementioned banks have
been identified as D-SIBs as per the RBI’s D-SIB framework issued on July 22, 2014. The D-SIB
framework requires the Reserve Bank to disclose the names of banks designated as D-SIBs
starting from 2015.
● Statement 2 is not correct: D-SIBs banks have been prescribed additional Common Equity Tier
(CET) 1 requirement as a percentage of their Risk Weighted Assets. The additional CET1
requirement will be in addition to the capital conservation buffer. In case a foreign bank having
branch presence in India is a Global Systemically Important Bank (G-SIB), it has to maintain
additional Common Equity Tier 1 capital surcharge in India as applicable to it as a G-SIB,
proportionate to its Risk Weighted Assets in India.
● Statement 3 is correct: According to the central bank, D-SIBs are financial institutions that are
large enough where they cannot be allowed to fall.
o A failure of any of these banks can lead to systemic and significant disruption to essential
economic services across the country and can cause an economic panic. As a result of their
importance, the government is expected to bail out these banks in times of economic distress to
prevent widespread harm.

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 CURRENT AFFAIRS TEST SERIES-2023 | TEST-1
4. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 and 2 are not correct: African Cheetah is classified as Vulnerable under Appendix I of
CITES and found in African continent only (Northwest Africa, East Africa and Southern Africa).
● Statement 3 is correct: Cheetah happens to be the only large carnivore that got completely wiped
out from India, mainly due to over-hunting and habitat loss.
● Statement 4 is correct: Cheetahs from Southern Africa have the maximum observed genetic
diversity among extant cheetah lineages, an important attribute for a founding population stock.
Moreover, the Southern African cheetahs are found to be ancestral to all the other cheetah
lineages including those found in Iran. Hence, this should therefore be ideal for India’s
reintroduction programme.

5. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: In the 2018 exercise, the largest contiguous tiger population in the
world was found in the Western Ghats
● Statement 2 is correct: According to the St. Petersburg Declaration on Tiger Conservation (2010),
TRC agreed to Global Tiger Recovery Programme (GTRP) which envisages doubling the wild
tiger population by 2022.
● Statement 3 is correct: Apart from the tigers even the elephants and gaurs are being counted
as part of the 5th All India Tiger and Mega Herbivore Enumeration. Reason: Given that 90%
of the area occupied by elephants and tigers is common, and once estimation methods are
standardised, having a common survey can significantly save costs.

6 Answer: D
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is not correct: As per Article 190 (4) of the Constitution, “If for a period of sixty
days a member of a House of the Legislature of a State is without permission of the House absent
from all meetings thereof, the House may declare his seat vacant.”
 Statement 2 is not correct: Under Section 151 (A) of The Representation of the People Act,
1951, “a bye-election for filling any vacancy… [In the House] shall be held within a period of six
months from the date of the occurrence of the vacancy”. This means that barring exceptions
specified under this section, no constituency can remain without a representative for more than six
months.
 Statement 3 is correct: The court agreed with the MLAs’ contention that the suspension has to
follow the procedure laid down in Rule 53. It said that Rule 53 only provides for the withdrawal of
a member for the remainder of the day or in case of repeat misconduct in the same session, for the
remainder of the session.
The court said that as per this rule, withdrawal of a member can only be done in case of the
member’s conduct being “grossly disorderly”.

7. Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The said Act of 1940 was predominantly founded on the English
Arbitration Act of 1934 and remained on the statue book for the next more than half a century.

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Statement 2 is correct: Proposed notification of the establishment of Arbitration Council of India
(ACI) for grading of arbitral institutes in the country.
Statement 3 is not correct: The grounds for challenge to arbitral awards clarified to convey that the
scope of challenge is intended to be limited. This would enable finality to arbitral awards.

8. Answer: D
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is not correct: For the Children in need and care of protection, State Government
may, by notification in Official Gazette, constitute for every district or group of districts,
specified in the notification, one or more Child Welfare Committees for exercising the powers in
relation to child in need of care and protection under this Act.
 Statement 2 is not correct: The Committee shall consist of a Chairperson and four other members,
of whom at least one shall be a woman and another, an expert on matters concerning children. The
Committee shall function as a Bench of Magistrates.
 Statement 3 is not correct: Ministry of Women and Child Development is the nodal Ministry.

9. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is not correct: GNA is a non-discriminatory access to the inter-State transmission
system for an estimated maximum injection and for a consumer to draw for a specified period. This
is in keeping with the concept of “one nation, one grid”. This is expected to benefit the power
generator and consumer, who now are dealing with challenges of transmission too.
 Statement 2 is correct: In the current scenario if short term/ medium/PX transactions are curtailed
it results in significant bottling up of generation and distress to discoms. While GNA is beneficial
to the generator, it also benefits the consumer. A consumer is not worried about where the supply
will come from and what energy source it will come from. The quantum contracted for will be
transmitted to the consumer. In the power sector, the States play an important role.

10. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: Sugar Development Fund (SDF) was established in the year 1982,
through an act of Parliament. It is being utilized presently to grant loans to the sugar mills for
facilitating the rehabilitation and modernization/ Bagasse based co-generation power projects/
production of anhydrous alcohol or ethanol from alcohol/ conversion of existing ethanol plant
into Zero Liquid Discharge (ZLD) plant and development of Sugar cane.
 Statement 2 is correct: The loans are provided at a concessional rate of 2% below the prevailing
bank rate).
 Statement 3 is not correct: It functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and
Public Distribution.
 Statement 4 is not correct: IFCI Ltd. has been acting as the nodal agency of the Government of
India (GOI) since inception of the Sugar Development Fund (1986) for the purpose of
disbursement, follow-up and recovery of SDF loans sanctioned to private sugar factories for
modernization-cum-expansion, setting-up of bagasse based cogeneration power projects,
manufacture of ethanol from alcohol/molasses, zero liquid discharge (ZLD) distillery projects,
case development schemes, etc.

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11. Answer: D
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: It is an Indian endemic tree species, with a restricted geographical range in
the Eastern Ghats of India. The species is endemic to a distinct tract of forests in Andhra Pradesh.
 Statement 2 is correct: It was classified as ‘near threatened’ in 2018. But now Red Sanders
(Red Sandalwood) has fallen back into the ‘endangered’ category in the International Union for
Conservation of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List 2021.
 Statement 3 is not correct: The global e-auction of seized red senders is not prohibited as per the
Foreign Trade Policy. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) gives
an in-principle approval for the auction. And the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
approves export permission. However, the government, due to the outbreak of the pandemic, could
not conduct the auction as the global players demand physical verification of the stock.

12. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 and 2 are correct: The whale shark (Rhincodon typus) is the largest fish on Earth
and a keystone species in marine ecosystems.
o The presence of whale sharks indicates the availability of plankton and the overall health of the
oceans. It can grow to a length of approximately 18 metres and weigh as much as 21 tonnes.
o Although distributed widely across tropical and warm temperate seas, limited information
is available on the population trends of this species, especially along the Indian coastline.
 Statement 3 is not correct: During 2012-13 and found that the highest number of Whale Shark
sightings after Gujarat coast were near the waters of Lakshadweep. In India, Gujarat has the
maximum density of whale shark population in the Indo-pacific region.

13. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is not correct:, At present, there are about 100 known living root bridges grown over
the period of 10 to 15 years across 72 villages of Meghalaya, which highlights the symbiotic
relationship between people and nature. Recently it has been included in the tentative list of
World Heritage Sites of the UNESCO.
 Statement 2 is correct: At present, there are about 100 known living root bridges grown over the
period of 10 to 15 years across 72 villages of Meghalaya. A living root bridge is like a suspension
bridge formed by guiding the pliable roots of the rubber fig tree ( Ficus elastica ) across a
stream or river and allowing the roots to grow and strengthen over time.
 Statement 3 is correct: Living Root Bridges, found in over 70 villages in Meghalaya highlighting
the socio-cultural, social and botanical links among people and nature. It is believed that the Khasi
community had started the living root bridge tradition.

14. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Though the mass congregation of fireflies has been recorded a few times
in ATR, synchronised lighting by several lakhs of fireflies was reported this year. Lack of
lights, night tourism, habitation and vehicle movement could be reasons for the large population of
fireflies in ATR.

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● Statement 2 is not correct: In Anamalai Tiger Reserve, there are five forest types as follows:
1. Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
2. Semi Evergreen Forest
3. Grass Land Vegetation
4. Moist Deciduous Forest
5. Montane Green Shola Forest.
● Statement 3 is correct: The major problem faced in the Anamalai Tiger Reserve is the
operation of interstate Sandalwood smugglers, Ganja cultivators, Poachers, etc., These problems
are being effectively tackled through functioning of 37 Anti-Poaching Camps located in the interior
and vulnerable areas.

15. Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Chang Chenmo River or Changchenmo River is a tributary of the Shyok
River, part of the Indus River system. It is at the southern edge of the disputed Aksai Chin region and
north of the Pangong Lake basin. The source of Chang Chenmo is near the Lanak Pass in the Chinese-
administered region of Kashmir. Note: River Siyom is a right tributary of the Brahmaputra.

16. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 correct: In the present ISFR 2021, FSI has included a new chapter related to the
assessment of forest cover in the Tiger Reserves, Corridors and Lion conservation area of
India. In this context, the decadal assessment of change in forest cover within Tiger Reserves,
Corridors and Lion conservation area helps in assessing the impact of conservation measures and
management interventions that have been implemented over the years.
● Statement 2 is correct: A new initiative of FSI has also been documented in the form of a
chapter, where the ‘Above Ground Biomass’ has been estimated. FSI, in collaboration with
Space Application Centre (SAC), ISRO, Ahmedabad, initiated a special study for estimation of
Above Ground Biomass (AGB) at pan-India level, using L- band of Synthetic Aperture Radar
(SAR) data.
● Statement 3 is not correct: According to the Environment and forest Ministry, the survey used
mid-reAnswer satellite data, followed by “rigorous ground truthing” and information from other
sources. The accuracy level achieved in the current assessment is significantly high. The accuracy
of forest cover classification has been assessed 92.99%. The accuracy of classification between
forest and non-forest classes has been assessed 95.79% against internationally accepted accuracy of
classification of more than 85%.

17. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty to protect human health
and environment from POPs, which are identified chemical substances that persist in the
environment, bio-accumulate in living organisms, adversely affect human health/ environment and
have the property of long-range environmental transport (LRET). Exposure to POPs can lead to
cancer, damage to central & peripheral nervous systems, diseases of immune system, reproductive
disorders and interference with normal infant and child development. POPs are listed in various

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Annexes to the Stockholm Convention after thorough scientific research, deliberations and
negotiations among member countries.
● Statement 2 is correct: Union Cabinet, in 2021, approved the Ratification of seven chemicals
listed under the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). The Cabinet
has also delegated its powers to ratify chemicals under the Stockholm Convention to the Union
Ministers of External Affairs (MEA) and Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) in
respect of POPs already regulated under the domestic regulations.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) had
notified the 'Regulation of Persistent Organic Pollutants Rules, on March 5, 2018 under the
provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The regulation inter alia prohibited the
manufacture, trade, use, import and export seven chemicals namely (i) Chlordecone, (ii)
Hexabromobiphenyl, (iii) Hexabromodiphenyl ether and Heptabromodiphenylether (Commercial
octa-BDE), (iv) Tetrabromodiphenyl ether and Pentabromodiphenyl ether (Commercial penta-
BDE), (v) Pentachlorobenzene, (vi) Hexabromocyclododecane, and (vii) Hexachlorobutadiene,
which were already listed as POPs under Stockholm Convention.

18. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: It was originally promoted by Maharashtrian agriculturist and Padma
Shri recipient Subhash Palekar, who developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green
Revolution’s methods driven by chemical fertilizers and pesticides and intensive irrigation. Zero
budget natural farming (ZBNF) is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from
traditional Indian practices.
o Instead of commercially produced chemical inputs, the ZBNF promotes the application of
jeevamrutha — a mixture of fresh desi cow dung and aged desi cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour,
water and soil — on farmland. This is a fermented microbial culture that adds nutrients to the
soil, and acts as a catalytic agent to promote the activity of microorganisms and earthworms in
the soil.
o A similar mixture, called bijamrita, is used to treat seeds, while concoctions using neem leaves
and pulp, tobacco and green chillis are prepared for insect and pest management.
● Statement 2 is not correct: Zero budget natural farming (ZBNF) promotes soil aeration, minimal
watering, intercropping, bunds and topsoil mulching and discourages intensive irrigation and deep
ploughing.
● Statement 3 is not correct: In June 2018, Andhra Pradesh rolled out an ambitious plan to
become India’s first State to practise 100% natural farming by 2024. ZBNF is against vermin-
composting, which is the mainstay of typical organic farming, as it introduces the the most
common composting worm, the European red wiggler (Eisenia fetida) to Indian soils.

19. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Biofilms are communities of microorganisms that attach to each other
and to surfaces and are able to act as barriers to antibiotics.
● Statement 2 is correct: Microorganisms that form biofilms include bacteria, fungi and protists.
Researchers have shown for the first time that certain viruses are capable of forming
complex biofilm-like assemblies, similar to bacterial biofilms.

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o These extracellular infectious structures may protect viruses from the immune system and
enable them to spread efficiently from cell to cell. "Viral biofilms" would appear to be a major
mechanism of propagation for certain viruses. They are therefore emerging as new and
particularly attractive therapeutic targets.
o Moreover, the recent finding that the human T-cell leukemia virus type 1 (HTLV-1)
encases itself in a carbohydrate-rich adhesive extracellular ‘cocoon’, which enables its efficient
and protected transfer between cells, unveiled a new infectious entity and a novel mechanism of
viral transmission. These HTLV-1 structures are observed at the surface of T cells from
HTLV-1-infected patients and are reminiscent of bacterial biofilms. The virus controls the
synthesis of the matrix, which surrounds the virions and attaches them to the T cell
surface. It is proposed that, similar to bacterial biofilms, viral biofilms could represent
‘viral communities’ with enhanced infectious capacity and improved spread compared
with ‘free’ viral particles, and might constitute a key reservoir for chronic infections.

20. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: In a short span, the programme has evolved to be world’s largest zero
subsidy domestic lighting programme that addresses concerns like high electrification cost and
high emissions that result from inefficient lighting.
● Statement 2 is correct: The programme also resulted in massive energy savings. As of today,
47,778 Million kWh per annum energy has been saved. 9,565 MW of peak demand has been
avoided, along with 3,86 crore tonnes of reduction in CO2 emission.
● Statement 3 is not correct: Ministry of Power has successfully completed seven years of distributing
and selling LED lights under its flagship UJALA programme. It is being implemented by the
Electricity Distribution Company and Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL).

21. Answer: B
● Statement 1 is not correct: There is no specific legal definition of hate speech.
● Statement 2 is correct: Section 153 and five not five of Indian Penal Code IPC deal with
inflammatory speeches and expression that seeks to punish hate speech.
● Statement 3 is not correct: Bezabaruah committee are made to propose to look into the issues of
people from North India living in different parts of India.

22. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Project Himank: In 1985, the project came into existence and was entrusted with the vital task of
the construction of the road infrastructure in Ladakh.
o The Project Himank has been at the forefront of road, airfields and bridge construction activities
both along the Line of Control with Pakistan and the Line of Actual Control with China.
o At present, it is looking after the construction of more than 1,700 km of road network and
maintenance of Leh and Thoise airfields.
● Important passes under the Project Himank: Umling La (19,300 feet), Chang La (17,300 feet),
Marsimik la (18,300 feet) and Tanglang La (17,552 feet).
o The “Mountain Tamers” as they are called, had never been deterred by inhospitable terrain,
hostile weather conditions and freezing temperatures in attaining the laid down goals and
targets.
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23. Answer: B
Explaination:
 Statement 1 is not correct: Web 1.0 was the era of decentralized open protocols in which most
online activity involved navigating through individual web page
 Statement 2 is not correct: Web 2.0 was the era of centralisation, in which a huge share of
communication takes place on closed platforms owned by handful of organisations.
 Statement 3 is correct: Web 3.0 is an overarching concept that refers to the next phase of the
internet's evolution, one that's defined by decentralization and user sovereignty, along with an
incredible deepening of the experiences and utility that humans derive from the online world.
Difference between Web 1.0, Web 2.0, and Web 3.0:
Web 1.0 Web 2.0 Web 3.0
Mostly Read-Only Wildly Read-Write Portable and Personal
Company Focus Community Focus Individual Focus
Home Pages Blogs / Wikis Live-streams / Waves
Owning Content Sharing Content Consolidating Content
WebForms Web Applications Smart Applications
Directories Tagging User Behaviour
Page Views Cost Per Click User Engagement
Banner Advertising Interactive Advertising Behavioural Advertising
Britannica Online Wikipedia The Semantic Web
HTML/Portals XML / RSS RDF / RDFS / OWL

24. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option (c) is correct: Strategic minerals are Antinomy, Molybdenum, Borates, Nickel,
Chromium, Cobalt, Silver, Copper, titanium, Diamond, Tungsten, Vanadium, Germanium, Lithium
and rare earth metals.
● Critical mineral: Rare-earth elements (REE), gallium (Ga), indium (In), tungsten (W), platinum-
group elements (PGE) including platinum (Pt) and palladium (Pd), cobalt (Co), niobium (Nb),
magnesium (Mg), molybdenum (Mo), antimony (Sb), lithium (Li), vanadium (V), nickel (Ni),
tantalum (Ta), tellurium (Te), chromium (Cr) and manganese (Mn).
It is a critical mineral (A mineral is labelled as critical when the risk of supply shortage and associated
impact on the economy is relatively higher than the raw materials)

25. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document issued by the
Government of India to allow inward travel of an Indian citizen into a protected area for a limited
period. It is obligatory for Indian citizens from outside those states to obtain a permit for entering
into the protected state.
● Statement 2 is not correct: Foreigners need a protected area permit to visit tourist places which
are different from the inner line permits needed by domestic tourists.
● Statement 3 is correct: The document is an effort by the government to regulate movement to
certain areas located near the international border of India. This is an offshoot of the Bengal
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Eastern Frontier Regulations, 1873, which protected Crown’s interest in the tea, oil and elephant
trade by prohibiting “British subjects” from entering into these “Protected Areas” (to prevent them
from establishing any commercial venture that could rival the Crown’s agents). The word “British
subjects” was replaced by Citizen of India in 1950.
● Statement 4 is correct: Manipur is the fourth state after Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and
Mizoram where the ILP regime is applicable. Lakshadweep - Issued by the government of
Lakshadweep. Inner line permit is mandatory for entering in to this island territory.

26. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Pangong Lake, situated at a height of almost 4,350m, is the world's
highest saltwater lake.
● Statement 2 is not correct: One-third of the Pangong Lake lies in India and the other two-third in China.
● Value addition: It is not part of industry were basin area and a geographically a separate
landlocked river basin.
o India claims a contested area of the lake which is divided into eight fingers. Pangong Lake,
situated at a height of almost 4,350m, is the world’s highest saltwater lake.
o Its water, which seems to be dyed in blue, stand in stark contrast to the arid mountains
surrounding it. Extending to almost 160km, one-third of the Pangong Lake lies in India and the
other two-thirds in China.
o Pangong Lake, one of the most famous lakes in Leh Ladakh, derives its name from the Tibetan
word, “Pangong Tso”, which means “high grassland lake”.
o Pangong Lake is also known to change colors, appearing blue, green and red at different times.

27. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct: Rani Velu Nachiyar was the first queen to fight against the
British colonial power in India. Nachiyar formed an army and sought an alliance with Hyder
Ali with the aim of launching a campaign against the East India Company in 1780.
● When Velu Nachiyar found the place where the EIC stored some their ammunition, she arranged a
suicide attack on the location, blowing it up.
● She is known by Tamils as Veeramangai. She was the princess of Ramanathapuram and the only child of
Raja Chellamuthu vijayaragunatha Sethupathy and Rani Sakandhimuthal of the Ramnad kingdom.
● Rani Velu Nachiyar was trained in war match weapons usage, martial arts like Valari, Silambam
(fighting using stick), horse riding and archery.
● She was a scholar in many languages and she had proficiency with languages like French, English
and Urdu.
● She married the king of Sivagangai, with whom she had a daughter. When her husband,
Muthuvaduganathaperiya Udaiyathevar, was killed by British soldiers and the son of the Nawab of
Arcot, she was drawn into battle. She escaped with her daughter and lived under the protection of
Palayakaarar Kopaala Naayakkar at Virupachi near Dindigul for eight years.
● Frustrated by the joining of forces against him, the Nawab ordered that Velu Nachiar and Marudhu
Brothers were permitted to return to Sivaganga and rule the country subject to payment of Kist to
the Nawab. Abiding by this Order, Rani Velu Nachiar accompanied by Marudu brothers and
Vellachi Nachiar entered Sivaganga.
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● An agreement was reached where by Rani Velu Nachiar was permitted to govern the Sivaganga
Country and Chinna Marudu, the younger was appointed her minister and the elder Vellai Marudu
as the Commander-in-chief. Thus the widow Queen Velu Nachiar succeeded her husband in
1780.The Queen Velu Nachiar granted powers to Marudhu Brothers to administer the country in
1780.
● Rani Velu Nachiyar was the first queen to fight for the freedom from the British in India. She
granted powers to the Marudu brothers to administer the country in 1780. Velu Nachiyar died a
few years later,on 25 December 1796.
● Statement 3 is not correct: C.M.S Press was the first printing press in Kerala. It was established
in 1821 by Rev. Benjamin Baily, a British missionary

28. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: According to International Energy Agency (IEA), India will surpass
China as the third largest ethanol consumer by 2026.
● Statement 2 is correct: Ethanol has a higher octane number than gasoline, providing premium
blending properties. Minimum octane number requirements for gasoline prevent engine knocking
and ensure drivability. Ethanol, also known as ethyl alcohol, is a colorless flammable
liquid that has a pungent taste
● Statement 3 is correct: To achieve India’s commitment to net zero emission by 2070, the 20%
target of ethanol blending with gasoline changed from 2030 to 2025.
● The country’s target of 20 per cent ethanol blending in petrol (E20) by 2025 can play a key role in
reducing the crude oil imports and bolstering India’s energy independence. India currently blends
approximately 8.5 per cent ethanol with petrol.

29. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The Dam Safety Bill (2019) was passed by the Lok Sabha on 2ndAugust
2019. After China and USA, India is the 3rd largest dam-owning nation in the world.
Statement 2 is not correct: There are around 5,700 large dams in the country, of which about 80% are
already over 25 years old. Nearly 227 dams that are over 100 years old are still functional.
Statement 3 is correct: Kallanai dam, Tamil Nadu is the oldest dam in the world still in use.
● Distribution of medium, large and total reservoirs in India
Medium Large Total Storages*
States
Number Area (ha) Number Area (ha) Number Area (ha)
Tamil Nadu 9 19,577 2 23,222 8,906 358,740
Karnataka 16 29,078 12 179,556 4,679 437,291
Andhra Pradesh 32 66,429 7 190,151 2,937 458,507
Orissa 6 12,748 3 119,403 1,442 198,198
Gujarat 28 57,748 7 144,358 711 286,230
Rajasthan 30 49,827 4 49,386 423 153,444
Bihar 5 12,523 8 71,711 125 96,695
Uttar Pradesh 22 44,993 4 71,196 66 334,840

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Madhya Pradesh 21 169,502 5 118,307 32 460,384

Kerala 8 15,500 1 6,160 30 29,635
West Bengal 1 4,600 1 10,400 6 15,732
Northeast 2 5,835 - - 6 8,074
Himachal Pradesh - - 2 41,364 3 41,564
Maharashtra - 39,181 - 115,054 - 273,750
Haryana - - - - 4 282
Total 180 527,541 56 1,140,268 19,370 3,153,366

30. Answer: C
Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: SAR (Synthetic aperture radar) refers to a technique for producing high-
resolution images. It will scan globe every 12 days over course of its three-year mission to give an
“unprecedented” view of the planet. NISAR mission is scheduled for launch in 2023 from Satish
Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, into a near-polar orbit. NISAR is optimised for studying hazards
and global environmental change and can help manage natural resources better and provide information
to scientists to better understand the effects and pace of climate change. It will scan the globe every 12
days over the course of its three-year mission of imaging the Earth’s land, ice sheets and sea ice to give
an “unprecedented” view of the planet.
Statement 2 is correct: It will detect movements of the planet’s surface as small as 0.4 inches over
areas about half the size of a tennis court. NASA will provide one of the radars for the satellite, a high-
rate communication subsystem for science data, GPS receivers and a payload data subsystem.

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31. Answer: D
Explanation:
Spanggur Lake: It is also known as Maindung Co is brackish lake south of Pangong Tso lake. It is a
saltwater lake in Rutog County in the Tibet Autonomous Region of China, close to the border with
Ladakh. To the west of the lake lies the Spanggur Gap, and to the north is the Pangong Tso.

32. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Option (a) is correct: It is considered as an environmentally friendly frameless way to dispose of
a body.
● About the process: The process is also called as water cremation, green cremation or
chemical cremation. With aquamation, or “alkaline hydrolysis”, the body of the deceased is
immersed for three to four hours in a mixture of water and a strong alkali, such as potassium
hydroxide, in a pressurised metal cylinder and heated to around 150C.
o The process liquifies everything except for the bones, which are then dried in an oven and
reduced to white dust, placed in an urn and handed to relatives.
o Like human composting, a technique of composting bodies with layers of organic material like
leaves or wood chips, aquamation is still authorised only in certain countries.
o First developed in the early 1990s as a way to discard the bodies of animals used in experiments,
the method was then used to dispose of cattle during the mad cow disease epidemic.
o In the 2000s, US medical schools used aquamation to dispose of donated human cadavers,
before the practice made its way into the funeral industry, Olson wrote in a 2014 paper.

33. Answer: A
Explanation:
● About Jagannath Temple: The Jagannath Temple at Puri is one of the most revered Vaishnava
sites of worship in India.
o Statement 1 is correct: One of the oldest Hindu temples to still be in use, its main shrine was
built by Anantavarman of the Chodaganga dynasty in the twelfth century. The deities
within the shrine, however, are believed to be much older and are associated with the great
mythical ruler of the Satya-yuga, King Indrayumna, nephew of Lord Ram.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Jagannath Temple is located in Puri which is in Odisha state and
also known as the 'White Pagoda' of India.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Char Dham: It is the four most famous Hindu pilgrimage circuit in
India which are believed to be the abodes of Hindu gods.
o Located in the four directions of India, the circuit consists of four sites - to the north is
Badrinath, to the west is Dwarka, to the south is Rameshwaram and to the east is Puri. Puri,
popularly known as the Jagannath Dham, is one of the Char Dhams of India.
o Adi Sankaracharya, during his travels across the length and breadth of India, founded four
mathas (monasteries) as seats of Hindu religion at these four places- the Sringeri matha on the
Sringeri hills in the south, the Sharada matha on the Dwaraka coast in the west, the Jyotir matha
at Badrinath in the north, the Govardhan matha at Puri in the east.
o Each of the four dhams is a site of old temples and religious monuments, with one most
important temple as its distinguishing attraction.

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o At Badrinath the famous temple is Badrinath Temple and the presiding deity is Shri Badrinath
(Vishnu).
o At Rameshwaram the famous temple is Rameshwaram Temple and the presiding deity here is
in the form of a Linga with the name Sri Ramanatha Swamy.
o At Puri the temple is known as Lord Jagannath Temple and the presiding deity is Lord
Jagannath. He is present together with His elder brother Balabhadra and His sister Subhadra.
o At Dwarka the main temple is,The temple of Dwarkadheesh (Lord Krishna), also known as
Jagat Mandir.
o Statement 4 is not correct: Sun Temple, Konark is the only UNESCO World heritage site from
Odisha.

34. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Chilika Lake is a brackish water lake and a shallow lagoon with estuarine
character spread across the districts of Puri, Khurda and Ganjam in the state of Odisha in eastern
India.
● Statement 2 is correct: The fishing cat will be the ambassador of Chilika Lake, the largest
brackish water lagoon in Asia and India’s oldest Ramsar Site, which is being dubbed as an
important step towards conservation of the vulnerable species
● Fed by 52 rivers and rivulets, the water spread area of Chilika varies between 900 to 1165 sq.
km. during summers and monsoon respectively.
● Shape: The pear shaped lagoon is about 64.5 km. long and its width varies from 5 to 18 km. It is
connected to the Bay of Bengal by a 32 km long and 1.5 km wide channel that mostly runs parallel
to the Bay separated by a narrow spit whose width varies between 100 m to several kilometres.
● Division of lagoon: The lagoon can be broadly divided into four ecological sectors based on
salinity and depth, namely the southern zone, the central zone, the northern zone and the outer
channel.
● Statement 3 is correct: A number of islands are present in the lagoon: The prominent among
which are Krushnaprasad, Nalaban, Kalijai, Somolo and Birds Islands.
● A survey of the fauna at Chilika by the Zoological Survey of India in 1985-87 recorded over 800
species in and around the lagoon. The list includes a number of rare, threatened and endangered
species including the Barakudia limbless skink.
● Statement 4 is correct: The Irrawaddy dolphin is one of the flagship species inhabiting
the Chilika Lake. The species in India is also protected under the Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972,
CITES (Appendix-l) and IUCN Red List as “endangered.”

35. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Simlipal W.S: It is situated in the northern part of Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district. Geographically, it
lies in the eastern end of the eastern ghat. It was declared a biosphere reserve by the Government
of India in June, 1994. It has been part of the UNESCO World Network of Biosphere
Reserve since 2009.
 Gahirmatha marine W.S: The Odisha's Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary is known as the world's
largest rookery (colony of breeding animals) of sea turtles.

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 Nalaban W.S: The Nalabana bird sanctuary is located on Nalabana Island in the Chilika lagoon
area in Odisha.The Nalabana Bird Sanctuary is the core area of Chilika
 Point Calimere: The arrival of flamingos from far flung areas has started at Point Calimere, one
of the popular destinations in the State for the winged visitors.It is located in Nagapattinam district
of Tamil Nadu spreads across an area of 30 sq.km and comprises sandy coastal, saline swamps and
thorn scrub forests around the backwater. It is a protected area (Wildlife Sanctuary) and a
Ramsar site.

36. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: It provides cover of 5 lakh per family for secondary and tertiary care
hospitalisation.
● Statement 2 is correct: The beneficiary families under Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan
Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) have been identified from the Socio Economic Caste Census
(SECC) of 2011 on the basis of select deprivation and occupational criteria across rural and urban
areas.
● Statement 3 is not correct: The individuals are allowed to go public and private empanelled
hospitals in India.
● About the scheme: Ayushman Bharat, a flagship scheme of Government of India, was launched as
recommended by the National Health Policy 2017, to achieve the vision of Universal Health
Coverage (UHC).
o This initiative has been designed to meet Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) and its
underlining commitment, which is to "leave no one behind."
o Ayushman Bharat is an attempt to move from sectoral and segmented approach of health service
delivery to a comprehensive need-based health care service.
o This scheme aims to undertake path breaking interventions to holistically address the healthcare
system (covering prevention, promotion and ambulatory care) at the primary, secondary and
tertiary level.
● Ayushman Bharat adopts a continuum of care approach, comprising of two inter-related
components, which are -
o Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs)
o Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY).
 Statement 4 is correct: The benefits under AB-PMJAY are portable across the country.
37. Answer: B
Explanation:
India first introduced EPR to manage electronic-waste in 2012. It extended EPR to plastic
manufacturers after the Plastic Waste Management Rules 2016 (PWMR) were notified in 2016.
● EPR draft notification was released by MoEFCC for waste tyres.

38. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Throughout its range, the clouded leopard spends most of the time in the
tropical evergreen rainforests but can also be found in dry tropical forests and mangrove swamps.
It has been found at relatively in low elevation evergreen rainforest.
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● Statement 2 is not correct: Clouded leopard is the state animal of Meghalaya.
● Statement 3 is correct: Clouded Leopard prefers grassland, shrubs, subtropical and dense
tropical forest up to a height of 7,000 feet occurring from the Himalayan foothills through
mainland Southeast Asia into China.
● In India, it occurs in Sikkim, northern West Bengal, Meghalaya subtropical forests, Tripura,
Mizoram, Manipur, Assam, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.
Value addition: Their IUCN status is vulnerable and different from snow leopard which is the state
animal of Himachal Pradesh
● The clouded leopard is more at home in the trees than on the ground and can move nimbly through
the dense forests of Southeast Asia and the eastern Himalayas.
● The exact numbers of this secretive cat are not known but they are believed to be in decline due to
habitat loss and poaching.

39. Answer: D
Explanation:

40. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: The term ‘minority’ is not defined in the Constitution.
● Statement 2 is correct: Muslims, Sikhs, Christians, Buddhists, Jain and Zorastrians (Parsis)
have been notified as minority communities under Section 2 (c) of the National Commission for
Minorities Act, 1992. As per the Census 2011, the percentage of minorities in the country is about
19.3% of the total population of the country.
● Statement 3 is correct: In TM Pai case, 2002, S.C held that the linguistic and religious minority
are determined by taking state as a unit and not by taking into consideration the population of
whole country as a whole.

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● Some articles in the Indian Constitution which openly or silently speak about the rights and
privileges of minorities in India.
● According to Article 14 of the Indian constitution, we need to prohibit unequal treatment and we
should demand such laws which can afford equal treatment. Article 14(1) states Equality Before
Law which states that if anyone irrespective of the Prime Minister or a common man does an act
which is not legally justified then law treats everyone the same and gives the same responsibilities.
The example of this is the Lady Justice who is blind-folded that means everyone is at the same
pedestrian before the law.
● There are 2 Articles under cultural and educational rights: In the Indian Constitution – Article
29 and Article 30. Article 29 of the Constitution states the protection of interests for minorities. Its
clause (1) states that any group living within the jurisdiction of India is entitled to preserve and
promote its own language, script or literature and culture. Clause (2) of it prohibits denial of
admission to educational institutions which are aided by the state on the ground of race, caste,
religion or language protection.
● Article 38: It ensures that the state to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of people
permeated by justice- social, economic and political and to minimise inequalities in income, status,
facilities and opportunities.
● Article 39: It states free legal assistance and equal justice of various dimensions. It directs the state
to secure livelihood for all the citizens, equitable distribution of material properties for the common
good. It also gives provision for the prevention of concentration of wealth, equal pay for equal
work and for giving opportunities, facilities to the children for the development.
● Article 46: It is about Gandhian principles. It provides that the state may take necessary action to
promote educational and economic advancement of the weaker sections of the people and to
protect them from social injustice and exploitation.
● Article 347: It provides power to the President to officially recognize a language, which is being
spoken by the substantial population.
● Articles 331, 333, 334, 336 and 337 have the special provisions of guaranteeing representation of
Anglo Indians in Union and State legislatures.
● Article 350(B): It gives provision for appointing a
Special Officer for linguistic minorities.

41. Answer: B
Explanation:
Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) between India and
Nepal to build a bridge over the Mahakali River at
Dharchula in Uttarakhand.
The countries have agreed to sign a Memorandum of
Understanding (MoU) for the same.

42. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: The budgetary
calculations start with the nominal GDP.
● Statement 2 is not correct: The real GDP is a derived metric.
● Value addition: Real GDP = Nominal GDP- Inflation rate

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43. Answer: (d)
● Statement 1 is correct: AePS: It is a bank led model which allows online interoperable financial
inclusion transaction at PoS (MicroATM) through the Business correspondent of any bank
using the Aadhaar authentication. AePS allows you to do six types of transactions.
● Statement 2 is correct: Cash withdrawal from micro ATMs of AePS has a limit of Rs 10,000
per transaction. Transactions via AePS have become very popular, especially since the onset of
the pandemic
● Statement 3 is correct: With a view to ensuring adequate supervision over the operations and
activities of the BCs by banks, every BC is required to be attached to and be under the
oversight of a specific bank branch designated as the base branch.
● The only inputs required for a customer to do a transaction under this scenario are:-
o Bank Name
o Aadhaar Number
o Fingerprint captured during enrollment.
● Objectives0o
o To empower a bank customer to use Aadhaar as his/her identity to access his/ her respective
Aadhaar enabled bank account and perform basic banking transactions like cash deposit, cash
withdrawal, Intrabank or interbank fund transfer, balance enquiry and obtain a mini statement
through a Business Correspondent
o To sub-serve the goal of Government of India (GoI) and Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in
furthering Financial Inclusion.
o To sub-serve the goal of RBI in electronification of retail payments.
o To enable banks to route the Aadhaar initiated interbank transactions through a central
switching and clearing agency.
o To facilitate disbursements of Government entitlements like NREGA, Social Security pension,
Handicapped Old Age Pension etc. of any Central or State Government bodies, using Aadhaar
and authentication thereof as supported by UIDAI.
o To facilitate inter-operability across banks in a safe and secured manner.
o To build the foundation for a full range of Aadhaar enabled Banking services.
● Banking Services Offered by AePS
o Cash Deposit
o Cash Withdrawal
o Balance Enquiry
o Mini Statement
o Aadhaar to Aadhaar Fund Transfer
o Authentication
o BHIM Aadhaar Pay
● Other Services offered by AePS:
o eKYC o Tokenization
o Best Finger detection o Aadhaar Seeding Status
o Demo Authorization

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44. Answer: D
Explanation:
BCs are permitted to perform a variety of activities which include
● Identification of borrowers, collection and preliminary processing of loan applications including
verification of primary information/data
● Statement 1 is correct: Processing and submission of applications to banks, promoting, nurturing
and monitoring of Self Help Groups/ Joint Liability Groups, post-sanction monitoring, follow-up
of recovery.
● Statements 2 and 3 are correct: They can also attend to collection of small value deposit,
disbursal of small value credit, recovery of principal / collection of interest, sale of micro
insurance/ mutual fund products/ pension products/ other third party products and receipt and
delivery of small value remittances/ other payment instruments.
● Statements 4 and 5 are correct: Creating awareness about savings and other products, education
and advice on managing money and debt counselling

45. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Countries participating are Australia, India, USA, Japan, Canada and South Korea. This drill is
hosted by the US Navy annually. It is high-end multinational exercise. This year, the US Navy had
sent in two P-8A Poseidon aircraft.
● Indian Navy & Agreements: There has been a focus on having more and bilateral logistics
agreements, Information sharing agreements, as well as bilateral agreements with friendly navies.
● Also, there is an exchange of white shipping information; activities related to transnational maritime
based threats; and information on naval and military assets of adversarial countries and more.

46. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: It is a central sector scheme which focus on developing and
identifying pilgrimage sites all over India with respective state governments.
● Statement 2 is not correct: PRASHAD scheme is launched by Ministry of Tourism.
● PRASHAD scheme was launched by the Ministry of Tourism in the year 2014-15 for integrated
development of identified pilgrimage and heritage destinations.
● The scheme aimed at infrastructure development such as entry points (Road, Rail and Water
Transport), last mile connectivity, basic tourism facilities like Information/ Interpretation Centers,
ATM/ Money exchange, eco-friendly modes of transport, area Lighting and illumination with
renewable sources of energy, parking, drinking water, toilets, cloak room, waiting rooms, first aid
centers, craft bazars /haats/ souvenir shops/ cafeteria, rain shelters, Telecom facilities, internet
connectivity etc.
● The project for “Development of Guruvayur” under the scheme was approved by the Ministry of
Tourism with the cost or Rs. 45.36 crores in March 2017.
● The component of scheme: ‘Tourist Facilitation Centre’ has been successfully completed with the cost
of Rs. 11.57 Crores. Other components of the projects are the CCTV Network Infrastructure, Tourist
Amenities Centre and Multi Level Car Parking. The CCTV Network has already been completed.

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● Statement 3 is not correct: The Ministry of Tourism launched the PRASAD scheme that aims
at integrated development of pilgrimage destinations in a prioritised, planned, and
sustainable manner in order to provide a complete religious tourism experience.

47. Answer: C
Explanation:
In the 1950s, it was established that genetic information is transferred from DNA to RNA, to protein.
One sequence of three nucleotides in DNA corresponds to a certain amino acid within a protein. How
could this genetic code be cracked? After Marshall Nirenberg discovered the first piece of the puzzle,
the remainder of the code was gradually revealed in the years that followed. Har Gobind Khorana
made important contributions to this field by building different RNA chains with the help of
enzymes. Using these enzymes, he was able to produce proteins. The amino acid sequences of these
proteins then solved the rest of the puzzle. Khorana has also made significant contributions to the
science of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) tests used today to detect the SARS-CoV-2 infection.

48. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Helium-3 (He3) is gas that has the potential to be used as a fuel in
future nuclear fusion power plants.
● Statement 2 is not correct: Helium-3 is abundantly available on Moon.
Value addition: India’s Chandrayaan-2 moon mission will search for deposits of helium-3 and its
potential for mining.
49. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: The MCC is operationalised from the day of announcement of
scheduled election date till the results are announced.
● Statement 2 is not correct: It is not enforceable by law.
● Value addition: As per the Election Commission of India, the model code of conduct was first
observed during the 1960 polls.
● Historically, the credit of giving the idea of a model code of conduct for political parties should go
to the State of Kerala, which adopted, for the first time, a code of conduct for observance for
Political Parties during the general election to the State Legislative Assembly in February 1960.
● It is clarified that the provisions of MCC and related instructions of the Commission issued from
time to time shall also apply to the content being posted on the internet, including social media
websites, by candidates and political parties.”

50. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The ASEAN Socio Cultural Community (ASCC) aims to enhance the
quality of life of ASEAN citizens and promote sustainable developments in the region.
● Statement 2 is correct: AIIB began operations in 2016 with 57 founding Members (37 regional
and 20 non-regional). India is one of the founding member of the bank.
● Statement 3 is not correct: India holds 7.6% voting share which is second largest after China’s
26.5%.

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● By the end of 2020, we had 103 approved Members representing approximately 79 percent of the
global population and 65 percent of global GDP.
● In 2018, AIIB was granted Permanent Observer status in the deliberations of both the United
Nations General Assembly and the Economic and Social Council, the two development- focused
principal organs of the global body.

51. Answer: C
Explanation:
Countries with aircraft carrier building capabilities includes India, USA, UK, China, Russia, France
only.
● India’s only active aircraft carrier is INS Vikramaditya. And another one, INS Vikrant is under
construction with 76% indigenous content at Cochin Shipyard.

52. Answer: B
Explanation:

53. Answer: D
● Statement 1 is correct: There is no definition of developed and developing countries according to
WTO. Each member announce their own status of ‘developed’ and ‘developing’, and it can also be
challenged by other members.
● Statements 2 and 3 are correct: The concerns are raise as India’s per capita income is less than
Bangladesh, however, WTO consider Bangladesh has least developed Country (LDC).
Value addition: WTO relies on UN classification for recognising LDC status which is reviewed every
three years.
54. Answer: B
● Statement 1 is not correct: REC is equal to 1 MWh (MegaWatt hour) produced from renewable
energy.
● Statement 2 is correct: REC is divided into two categories solar RECs and Non-solar RECs.
● Statement 3 is not correct: Wind Power accounts for 58% of the total registered capacity. Solar
power account for 21% share.
● Statement 4 is correct: States such as Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Gujarat accounts
for 73% share of total registered capacity.
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55. Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: The digital embossing technology is a technology which eliminates the need for
printing plates, moulds, chemicals, and solvents, emitting no pollutants or waste and reduces overall
energy usage.
● This innovative technology has been introduced, designed and implemented first time in India by
National Atlas & Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO) functioning as the Attached Office
of the Department of Science & Technology.
● The maps produced using this technology is not only useful for high-speed production of the
maps but can also produce Braille Maps that can be used by more people for years together.
● It has been experienced that the maps produced with earlier technology has lost its readability and
feeling experience within a very short span of time.
● In this regard, it is also to mention that feedback from experts and students of the Braille
community has encouraged and motivated us to prepare the low-cost state-of-art product in terms
of reduction of volume of the atlas, enhancement of the readability features, ease of carry the maps
and atlas etc.

56. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: He was born in Kaladi Village, Kerala.
● Statement 2 is correct: Adi Shankaracharya, a great exponent of Hinduism in 8th century was a
top philosopher and theologian whose works have a strong impact on the doctrine of Advaita
Vedanta and infused new spirit and strength in Hinduism all across the world. In the short span of
32-years life, he founded four Mathas (Monasteries), high seats of worships, which are believed to
have helped in the historical development, revival and preservation as also propagation of
Hinduism.
● Statement 3 is correct: He postulated Advaita, which refers to singularity between individuals and
Brahman.
● He composed 72 devotional and meditative hymns like Soundarya Lahari, Sivananda Lahari,
Nirvana Shalkam, Maneesha Panchakam.
● He also wrote 18 commentaries on the major scriptural texts including the Brahma Sutras, the
Bhagavad Gita and 12 major Upanishads.
● He also authored 23 books on the fundamentals of the Advaita Vedanta philosophy which expound
the principles of the non-dual Brahman. These include Viveka Chudamani, Atma Bodha, Vaakya
Vritti, Upadesa Sahasri, among others.
● Considered to be an incarnation of Lord Siva, Sri Shankara lived only a short life span of 32 years.
There are many inspiring legends about him.
● Four Maths – Char Dhams – established by Shankara
● During his travels across the length and breadth of India, he established four maths (ashrams) to
unify the scattered and diverse groups of Sannyasis. Four maths were established, about 700 AD, in
four different corners of India. He selected four of his senior-most disciples to head each of these
maths.
● Each of these maths was assigned the task of maintaining and preserving for posterity, one of the
four Vedas (the main scriptures of Hinduism) and a Maha Vakya.

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● Shankaracharya reorganised all the Sannyasis in India into ten main groups (the Dasanami
Sannyasa Tradition) allocated to different maths.
● Historical and literary evidence also exist which prove that the Kanchi Kamakoti Mutt at
Kancheepuram, in Tamil Nadu, was also founded by Shankaracharya.
Chatur Dhams
Direction South India West India North India East India
Place Sringeri Dwaraka Badrinath Puri
Math Name Sringeri Math Sarada Math Jyotir Math Govardhan Math
Acharya Sureswara Hastamalaka Trotaka Padmapada
Veda Yagur Sama Atharva Rik
Mantra Aham brahmāsmi Tattvamasi Ayamātmā brahma Prajñānam
brahma
Sanyasa Order Saraswati, Bharati, Puri Tirtha, Ashrama Giri, Parvata, Sagara Vanam,
Aranyam

57. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option (a) is correct: Xenotransplantation involves the transplantation or implantation into
humans recipient of organs/tissues/cells from a non-human animal source.
● US surgeons have successfully implanted a heart from a genetically modified pig in a 57-year-old
man, a medical first that could one day help solve the chronic shortage of organ donations.
● Three genes that would have led to rejection of pig organs by humans were knocked out, as was a
gene that would have led to excessive growth of pig heart tissue.
● Six human genes responsible for human acceptance were inserted into the genome, for a total of
10 unique gene edits.

58. Answer: B
Explanation:
● The 17th edition of Global Risks Report from the World Economic Forum reveals how the top five
risks facing the world over the coming decade are all environmental.
● Top Global risk: Climate action failure, extreme weather, biodiversity loss, natural resource
crises and human environmental damage rank as the top risks over the next 5-10 years.
● Top India’s risk: Widespread youth disillusionment and digital inequality are among the top five
risks for India, according to a report. The other three risks are fracture of interstate relations, debt
crisis, and failure of technology governance.
59. Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: D vulgaris or Desulfovibrio vulgaris: It is commonly found in aquatic
environments, soil, and animal intestine. It is a sulfur-reducing bacteria. So it can be used as bio-
cleaning agent, to clean monuments facing stains due to acidic rains, which had sulfur (SO2).
● Bio-cleaning technology is based on the use of safe environmental microorganism like bacteria
Archaea, eukaryotes for cultural heritage restoration.
● Desulfovibirion vulgaris bacteria was first used by US based researchers in 1980s to clean a
monument.
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● Bio-technologies have been able to resolve a range of problems on various artistic materials
(including monumental stone, wall paintings, marble statues, etc.) and to combat diverse artistic
pathologies (such as the bio removal of organic substances, black crusts, and mineral salts) by
using different cultures of viable bacteria.
● Sulphate-reducing bacteria like Desulfovibrio, Desulfuricans and Desulfovibrio vulgaris; nitrate-
reducing bacteria like Pseudomonas stutzeri, and others.

60. Answer: D
Explanation:

61. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: It is an initiative by the Ministry of Education. Implemented by AICTE
and the Ministry’s Innovation Cell.
● Statement 2 is correct: Objective: To systematically rank all major higher educational institutions
and universities in India.
Value addition: ARIIA ranking will inspire Indian institutions to reorient their mind-set and build
ecosystems to encourage high quality research, innovation and entrepreneurship.
o More than quantity, ARIIA will focus on quality of innovations and will try to measure the real
impact created by these innovations nationally and internationally.
o ARIIA rankings will also set tone and direction for institutions for future development for
making them globally competitive and in forefront of innovation.
62. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: SpaceX’s internet satellite network. It operates at 550km above the
Earth’s surface in LEO, which is increasingly getting crowded. The firm has deployed about 1,900
Starlink satellites.
● Statement 2 is not correct: The new multi-module Tiangong station (China’s Space Station) is set
to be operational for at least 10 years. The space station will operate in low-Earth orbit at an
altitude of 340-450 km above Earth’s surface.
● Statement 3 is correct: Both the U.S. and China are parties to the Outer Space Treaty, which is
formally known as the ‘Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration
and Use of Outer Space, including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies’.
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63. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 correct: It is the physical phenomenon that occurs when a pair or group of particles is
generated and they interact in such a way that the quantum state of each particle of the pair or
group cannot be described independently of the state of the others.
o In this quantum mechanical phenomenon, the quantum states of two or more objects have to
be described with reference to each other, even though the individual objects may be spatially
separated.
o This leads to correlations between observable physical properties of the systems.
o Albert Einstein dismissed this idea as a ‘spooky action’.
● Statement 2 is correct: Quantum entanglement is one of the peculiarities of quantum mechanics,
which makes phenomena such as quantum teleportation and super-dense coding possible.

64. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Tardigrades are found in terrestrial, marine, and freshwater environments
from the Arctic to the Antarctic, including great depths and altitudes.
o They can withstand extreme radiation, sizzling heat, the coldest temperatures of the universe,
and decades without food.
o Also known as water bears or moss piglets, they are capable of surviving temperatures as high
as 150° Celsius and as low as minus 272° Celsius albeit for a few minutes.
● Statement 2 is correct: The grub-like, eight-legged animals can come back from being dried out
to a lifeless husk for decades, withstand near zero pressure in outer space and the crushing depths
of the Mariana Trench.
● Statement 3 is correct: They are microscopic, multicellular, and one of the most durable forms of
life on planet Earth.

65. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Solid-state lithium-metal battery replaces the polymer separator used in
conventional lithium-ion batteries with a solid-state separator.
o The lithium metal anode is more energy-dense than conventional anodes, which allows the battery
to store more energy in the same volume, according to the company.
● Statement 2 is correct: The advantages of the solid-state battery technology include higher cell energy
density (by eliminating the carbon anode), lower charge time (by eliminating the need to have lithium
diffuse into the carbon particles in conventional lithium-ion cells), ability to undertake more charging
cycles and thereby a longer life, and improved safety.

66. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: It is a cashless and contactless method for digital payment. It is a Quick
Response (QR) code or SMS string-based e-voucher, which is delivered to the mobile of the users.
o The users will be able to redeem the voucher without needing a card, digital payments app, or
internet banking access, at the service provider.
● Statement 2 is correct: It connects the sponsors of the services with the beneficiaries and service
providers in a digital mode without any physical interface.
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o The mechanism also ensures that the payment to the service provider is made only after the
transaction is completed.
● Statement 3 is not correct: The system is pre-paid in nature and hence, assures timely payment to
the service provider without the involvement of any intermediary.
Value addition: Different from Virtual Currency-In effect, e-RUPI is still backed by the existing Indian
rupee as the underlying asset and specificity of its purpose makes it different to a virtual currency and puts it
closer to a voucher-based payment system.
o Issuing Entities & Beneficiary Identification: The one-time payment mechanism has been
developed by the National Payments Corporation of India on its Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
platform, in collaboration with the Department of Financial Services, Ministry of Health & Family
Welfare, and National Health Authority.

67. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: According to the World Health Organisation (WHO), food
fortification is defined as the practice of deliberately increasing the content of essential
micronutrients so as to improve the nutritional quality of the food supply and to provide a public
health benefit with minimal risk to health.
o It can be noted that biofortification differs from conventional food fortification in that
biofortification aims to increase nutrient levels in crops during plant growth rather than
through manual means during processing of the crops.
● Statement 2 is correct: A group of scientists and activists have warned the Food Safety and
Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) of the adverse impacts of Food Fortification on health
and livelihoods.
● Hypervitaminosis: Hypervitaminosis is a condition of abnormally high storage levels of vitamins,
which can lead to various symptoms such as over excitement, irritability, or even toxicity.
o Recent studies published in the medical journal Lancet and in the American Journal of Clinical
Nutrition which show that both anaemia and Vitamin A deficiencies are overdiagnosed, meaning that
mandatory fortification could lead to hypervitaminosis.
68. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The responsibility of conducting the decennial Census rests with the
Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India under the Ministry of Home
Affairs, Government of India.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Census is one of the most credible sources of information on the
following:
o Demography.
o Economic Activity.
o Literacy and Education.
o Housing & Household Amenities.
o Urbanization, Fertility, and Mortality.
o Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
o Language.

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Value addition: “Rig-Veda”reveals that some kind of population count was maintained during 800-600
BC in India.
o Arthashastra by ‘Kautilya’ written in the 3rd Century BC prescribed the collection of population
statistics as a measure of state policy for taxation.
o During the regime of the Mughal king Akbar, the administrative report ‘Ain-e-Akbari‘ included
comprehensive data pertaining to population, industry, wealth and many other characteristics.
o NPR different from Census: The objective of the NPR is to create a comprehensive identity
database of every usual resident in the country and it is “mandatory for every usual resident of
India to register in the NPR.”
o While similar data is collected through Census, according to Section 15 of the Census Act,
1948, all individual level information collected in Census is confidential and “only aggregated
data are released at various administrative levels.”
o The NPR was first compiled in 2010 and updated in 2015 and it already has a database of 119
crore residents.
o Usual resident: A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has
resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that
area for the next 6 months or more.

69. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: To apply under the scheme and to make the cut, the farmer should have
been a resident of Telangana state and must own farming land.
● Statement 2 is correct: The scheme is applicable for small and marginal farmers; however,
commercial farmers are excluded from the scheme.
● Statement 3 is correct: 5,000 per acre and per season is provided to every farmer under the Rythu
Bandhu Scheme.
● Value addition: Also, farmers who till rented land are excluded from under this scheme.
o Rythu Bandhu is based on anticipated input expenditure for each acre of land and there is no
restriction on the number of acres owned by a farmer. PM-KISAN only provides support to
the family and not to the farm units.
o The Rythu Bandhu scheme has also come in from criticism from several quarters, with one of
the major ones being that it ignores the plight of landless or tenant farmers.
70. Answer: A
● Statement 1 is not correct: Any asset, movable or immovable assets are covered per under
SARFAESI Act.
● Statement 2 is not correct: NBFCs with assets size of 100 crore or more are eligible NBFCs
under the Act.
● Statement 3 is correct: S.C held that all Cooperative Banks that are established under State law or
Multi-state level societies come within the ambit of the Act.
Value addition: The provision of this Act apply to outstanding loans above 1 lakh which are
classified as NPAs.
o Only secured creditors (loans backed by mortgage) can take possession of collateral security in
case of default.
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71. Answer: A
● Statement 1 is correct: Article 190 of the constitution says that house can declare a seat vacant on
a member’s absence without permission for a period of 60 days.
● Statement 2 is not correct: The quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is one-tenth of the
total number of Members of the House under Article 100(3) of the Constitution.
Value addition: Supreme Court has said that the assembly cannot suspend a member beyond 59 days
as it will punish the whole constituency and set a dangerous precedent.

72. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana (PM-GKAY) is a scheme as
part of Atmanirbhar Bharat to supply free food grains to migrants and poor.
● Statement 2 is not correct: It provides for 5 kg free wheat/rice per month to beneficiaries
registered under the National food security Act (NFSA). This means that every poor household
would get nearly double the normal quantity of ration.
● Statement 3 is correct: Phase-I and Phase-II of this scheme was operational from April to June,
2020 and July to November, 2020 respectively. Phase-III of the scheme was operational from May
to June, 2021. Phase-IV of the scheme during July-November, 2021 and Phase V from December
2021 till March, 2022. Currently, the act will be implemented in Phase V till March.

73. Answer: D
Explanation:
Option (d) is correct: Kandla in Kuchchh was the first port developed soon after Independence to
ease the volume of trade on the Mumbai port, in the wake of loss of Karachi port to Pakistan after the
Partition. Kandla is a tidal port.

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74. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: It is the 17th Report released by Forest survey of India.
Statement 2 is correct: India is the only country that publish the forest assessment biennially. They are
conducted once in two years so that they can observe significant changes that may not be possible if
done yearly.

75. Answer: A
Explanation:
The Forest Survey of India (FSI) classifies forest cover in 4 classes:
1. Very Dense forest: All lands with tree cover (including mangrove cover) of canopy density of
70% and above.
2. Moderately dense forest: All lands with tree cover (including mangrove cover) of canopy density
between 40% and 70%.
3. Open forests: All lands with tree cover (including mangrove cover) of canopy density between
10% and 40%.
4. Mangroves: Mangroves have been separately classified because of their characteristic tone and
texture and unique ecological functions.
5. The other classes include: scrub and non-forest. According to survey, scrubs are not categorised
as forest.

76. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: Free Trade Agreement: A free trade agreement is an agreement in
which two or more countries agree to provide preferential trade terms, tariff concession etc. to the
partner country.
o Here a negative list of products and services is maintained by the negotiating countries on
which the terms of FTA are not applicable hence it is more comprehensive than preferential
trade agreement.
o India has negotiated FTA with many countries e.g. Sri Lanka and various trading blocs as well
e.g. ASEAN.
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● Statement 2 is not correct: Preferential Trade Agreement: In this type of agreement, two or
more partners give preferential right of entry to certain products. This is done by reducing duties on
an agreed number of tariff lines.
o Here a positive list is maintained i.e. the list of the products on which the two partners have
agreed to provide preferential access. Tariff may even be reduced to zero for some products
even in a PTA. India signed a PTA with Afghanistan.
● Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement: Partnership agreement or cooperation
agreement are more comprehensive than an FTA. CECA/CEPA also looks into the regulatory
aspect of trade and encompasses and agreement covering the regulatory issues. CECA has the
widest coverage.
o CEPA covers negotiation on the trade in services and investment, and other areas of economic
partnership. It may even consider negotiation on areas such as trade facilitation and customs
cooperation, competition, and IPR.
o India has signed CEPAs with South Korea and Japan.
● Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement: CECA generally covers negotiation on
trade tariff and TQR rates only. It is not as comprehensive as CEPA. India has signed CECA with
Malaysia.
● Framework agreement: Framework agreement primarily defines the scope and provisions of
orientation of the potential agreement between the trading partners.
o It provides for some new area of discussions and set the period for future liberalisation. India
has previously signed framework agreements with the ASEAN, Japan etc.
● Early Harvest Scheme: An Early Harvest Scheme (EHS) is a precursor to an FTA/CECA/CEPA
between two trading partners.
o For example: An early harvest scheme of RCEP has been rolled out. At this stage, the
negotiating countries identify certain products for tariff liberalization pending the conclusion
of actual FTA negotiations.
o An Early Harvest Scheme is thus a step towards enhanced engagement and confidence
building.

77. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is not correct: According to the Election Commission, any party seeking
registration has to submit an application to the Commission within a period of 30 days
following the date of its formation as per guidelines prescribed by the Commission in exercise of
the powers conferred by Article 324 of the Constitution of India and Section 29A of the
Representation of the People Act, 1951.
● Statement 2 is correct: The registration of all political parties is governed by the provisions of
Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
● Statement 3 is not correct: All political parties must register themselves with the EC.
However, not all parties that are registered with the EC are 'recognised' by it.
● Statement 4 is correct: In India, the Election Commission currently only has the power to
register parties, not to de-register them.
Value addition: As per existing guidelines, the applicant is asked to publish a proposed party name in
two national daily newspapers and two local daily newspapers, and provide two days for submitting
objections, if any, with regard to the proposed registration of the party before the Commission within 30
days from the publication. The notice for publication is also displayed on the website of the Election
Commission.
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● Criteria for recognition of national and state party: Not all parties registering with the EC can
be allotted the status of either a ‘state party’ or a ‘national party’ by default. There are several
conditions that the Commission follows to classify these parties.
● Criteria for state party: According to the EC, “a political party shall be treated as a recognised
political party in a state, if and only if either the conditions specified in Clause (A) are, or the
condition specified in Clause (B) is fulfilled by that party.
o As per clause (A), a party should be engaged in political activity for a continuous period of five
years; and has, at the last general election in that state to the house of the people, or, as the case may
be, to the Legislative Assembly of the state, returned- either ( i ) at least one member to the house of
the people for every twenty-five members of that House or any fraction of that number from that
state; or (ii) at least one member to the Legislative Assembly of that state for every thirty members
of that assembly or any fraction of that number.“
o Clause (B) states that the “total number of valid votes polled by all the contesting candidates set up
by such party at the last general election in the state to the house of the people, or as the case may be,
to the Legislative Assembly of the state, is not less than six per cent of the total number of valid
votes polled by all the contesting candidates at such general election in the state.”
● Criteria for recognition of national party: For recognition of a ‘national party’ if a political party
is treated as a recognised political party in four or more states, only then will it be recognised as a
`national party’ throughout the whole of India, but it will only be continued to be categorised as
one as long as that political party continues to fulfill the conditions for recognition in four or more
states on the results of any subsequent general election either to the house of the people or to the
Legislative Assembly of any state.

78. Answer: A
Explanation:
● IUCN status: Their IUCN status is vulnerable.
● Government initiative: There are several initiatives to protect olive Ridley turtles such as
operation Olivia cooperation Sabe Kurma, etc.
● Common Name: Olive Ridley – named for its olive green coloured shell
● Scientific Name: Lepidochelys olivacea
● Statement 1 and 2 are correct: They are the smallest sea turtles of the world.They are the most
abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
● Diet: Have powerful jaws that allow for an omnivore diet of crustaceans (such as shrimp & crabs),
mollusks, tunicates, fish, crabs, and shrimp.
● Habitat: Generally found in coastal bays and estuaries, but can be very oceanic over some parts of
its range. They typically forage off shore in surface waters or dive to depths of 500 feet (150 m) to
feed on bottom dwelling crustaceans.
● Nesting: Nest every year in mass synchronized nestings called arribadas (Spanish for “arrival”).
Only the Kemp’s ridley also nests this way. Nests 2 times each season. An average clutch size is
over 110 eggs which require a 52 to 58 day incubation period.
● Range: The olive ridley inhabits tropical and subtropical waters of the Pacific, Indian and Atlantic
Oceans.
● Threats to Survival: Direct harvest of adults and eggs, incidental capture in commercial fisheries
and loss of nesting habitat are the main threats to this species.
● Population Estimate*: 800,000 nesting females.
● Statement 3 is not correct: They have been found along west coast also.

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79. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option (b) is correct: The Khoisans are known to be the first people to inhabit South Africa
is made up of two different communities who practised similar cultures and spoke the same
languages – the Khoikhoi, who were nomadic farmers, and San, who were hunter-gatherers.
● The community was derogated by the European settlers with names like Bushmen and Hottentots.
According to a research paper by Shula Marks, ‘Khoisan Resistance to the Dutch in the
Seventeenth and Eighteenth Centuries’, the Khoisans were called uneducated, “of inferior intellect
and culture”, “thievish and not to be trusted” and unassimilable.
● The scientists, after studying the genetic variation among the DNA of more than 3,000 Africans for
over a decade, found that the San were the most genetically diverse group which means that the
San were the oldest population of humans in South Africa and on Earth.
● Sarah Tishkoff of the University of Pennsylvania, told The Independent that the project found
modern Africans had the most diverse DNA of all racial groups in the world, confirming the idea
that “Africa is the birthplace of humanity”.

80. Answer: B
Explanation:
● EDGE: An innovation of International Finance Corporation (IFC), is a green building
certification system focused on making new residential and commercial buildings more resource-
efficient. EDGE is comprised of a web-based software application, a universal standard and a
certification system.
o It is one of the most cost-effective ways to incorporate energy and water saving options into
homes, hotels, hospitals, offices and retail spaces.
● Criteria: Projects that achieve a 20 percent projected reduction in use of energy, water and
embodied energy in materials compared to conventional buildings are eligible for EDGE
certification.
o Certification is offered at a modest cost by GBCI in order to validate project achievement for
financial and community stakeholders.
o Poised to jumpstart green building in a fast, simple and affordable way, the EDGE
software assesses the most cost-effective ways to incorporate energy and water saving options
into new residential and commercial buildings.
o EDGE presents the business case for green building in rapidly urbanizing areas, making green
building attainable and acting as an important intervention tool in combating climate change.
● Green building certification Inc (GBCI) administers EDGE certification in nearly 120 countries
around the world is the exclusive certification provider for all EDGE buildings in India.
81. Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is correct: Ministry of Electronics and Information (MeitY) has invited applications from
micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs), startups, academia, research and development (R&D)
organisations under the Chips to Startup (C2S) programme.
● The government had announced the C2S programme targeting to train 85,000 engineers in
the area of Very Large-Scale Integration (VLSI) and Embedded System Design along with

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the development of 175 Application-Specific Integrated Circuits (ASICs) and working
prototypes of 20 SoCs and IP Core repository over a period of five years.
● This will be a step towards leapfrogging in the Electronics System Design & Manufacturing
(ESDM) space by way of inculcating the culture of SoC/System Level Design at bachelors, masters
and research level, and act as a catalyst for the growth of startups involved in the fabless design.

82. Answer: C
Explanation:
Option (c) is correct: About the report: Oxfam International has released a report titled Inequality
Kills which talks about how the wealth is accumulated among few persons and the rest of the
people live under distress and poverty.
● Income inequality: The latest press release by Oxfam International on January 17, 2022, states
that since the COVID-19 pandemic, the world’s ten richest men have doubled their fortunes while
incomes of 99 per cent of humanity fell.
● Poverty Estimates: According to the press release, the world's ten richest men have more than
doubled their wealth from $700 billion to $1.5 trillion, which is at a rate of $15,000 per second or
$1.3 billion per day in the first two years of the pandemic.
o However, more than 160 million people were pushed into poverty during this time.
● Death due to inequality: Oxfam says that inequality contributes to the death of at least 21,000
people each day, or one person every four seconds.
o The top 1% have captured nearly 20 times more of global wealth than the bottom 50% of
humanity since 1995.
o If the life expectancy of Black Americans were the same as White people, then 3.4 million Black
Americans would have been alive today, and it was already 2.1 million before COVID-19.
● Environment deterioration: Talking about the harm done to the environment, 20 of the wealthiest
billionaires emit 8000 times more carbon than the poorest 1 billion.
● What Does The Report Say About India: The report discussed India's governance structures that
promote wealth accumulation by a few and fail to provide safety nets to the rest of the population.
o As per the report, the number of Indian billionaires grew to 142 in 2021 from 102 in 2020. It
was when the share of the bottom 50 per cent of the population in national wealth was just 6
per cent.
o And India's top 10 per cent had around 45 per cent of the country's total national wealth in
2020.

83. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Among Tamils, poet and philosopher Thiruvalluvar is regarded as a
cultural icon. His most popular work is Thirukku a , which is basically a collection of couplets
on politics, ethics, economy, and love. To honour his contribution, the Tamils observe
Thiruvalluvar Day either on January 15 or 16 as a part of Pongal celebrations.
● Previously in the 1930s, Thiruvalluvar Day was celebrated either on May 17 or May 18 but in
recent years, it is observed in January. And this year, it is celebrated on January 15.
● Dedicated temples: In the early 16th century, a temple was built within the Ekambareswarar
temple complex in Mylapore and it was dedicated to Thiruvalluvar. Hence, locals believe that he
was born in Mylapore, underneath the tree that is situated within the temple complex.
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● Thiruvalluvar’s primary work is Thirukkural, which has 1330 couplets (kurals). These kurals are
divided into 133 sections of 10 couplets each, and further, the text is divided into three parts –
Teaching on dharma, artha, and kama meaning, virtue, wealth, and love.
● Statement 2 is not correct: The text is considered an exceptional and widely cherished work of
Tamil literature.

84. Answer: A
Explanation:
● The Biodiver Cities by 2030: Transforming cities’ relationship with nature report, released in
January 2022, provides a vision for cities of the future that place nature at the heart of decision-
making and infrastructure investments.
● Objective: The initiative uses artificial intelligence and crowdsourcing technologies through the
Forum’s Strategic Intelligence and Uplink platforms, collecting up-to-date online content and
building a community of innovators and entrepreneurs to address the world’s most pressing
challenges on nature and cities.
● The Biodiver Cities Up Link Challenge: It showcases successful Answers that contribute to
advancing the global transition to Biodiver Cities by 2030 and help connect them to
opportunities that can scale and accelerate their impact.
● The Transformation Map on Biodiver Cities: It is a living knowledge tool that explores
the Biodiver Cities concept and key issues related to it. It gives access to content, publications and
the latest research and analysis from leading institutions and media around the world. It also allows
interaction with other topics of interest and current affairs while screening the interconnections
between Biodiver Cities and other insight areas.
● The Biodiver Cities by 2030 initiative is convened in collaboration with the World Economic
Forum and the Government of Colombia.

85. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Option (b) is correct: The Climate Hazards and Vulnerability Atlas of India: It is developed
by the scientists at Climate Research and Services (CRS) office of the India Meteorological
Department (IMD).
o The atlas features extreme rainfall, drought, coldwave, heatwave, dust storms, hail storm,
thunderstorm, cyclones, snowfall, lightning, winds and fog.
o The hazards and vulnerability values have been calculated utilising the Met department’s
historical climate data. Each weather phenomenon’s month-wise hazard levels posed to the
respective district has been enlisted in this one-of-its-kind atlas.
o In all, 640 maps are available in the online atlas. The atlas provides a range of vulnerability
with risks ranging from nil, low, moderate, high and very high categories for every Indian
district.
● Department of science and technology: The report titled ‘Climate Vulnerability Assessment for
Adaptation Planning in India Using a Common Framework’, which identifies the most vulnerable
states and districts in India with respect to current climate risk and key drivers of vulnerability, was
released by DST.

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● The National climate vulnerability assessment report released today has identified Jharkhand,
Mizoram, Orissa, Chhattisgarh, Assam, Bihar, Arunachal Pradesh, and West Bengal as states
highly vulnerable to climate change. These states, mostly in the eastern part of the country, require
prioritization of adaptation interventions.

86. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Siachen glaciers is the world’s highest and coldest battlefield.
● Statement 2 is not correct: It is the world’s second largest non-polar glacier and it delineates
Central Asia from the Indian subcontinent.
● Statement 3 is not correct: It is the part of eastern Karakoram Range with nearly 76 kilometres in
length.
● Value addition: World’s largest non-polar glacier is Fedchenko glacier, Tajikistan.
o Saltoro Ridge at 23,000 feet is part of Siachen glacier.
o It is the source of Nubra River (a tributary of shyok).

87. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 2 is not correct: No, the National Commission for Safai Karamcharis is a temporary
non-statutory body which is given extension, usually of three years, from time to time.
● Statements 1 and 3 are not correct: No, the Commission is a non-statutory body working under
the aegis of Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment. Being a non-statutory body, it does not
enjoy the powers of civil court as is the case with other statutory bodies like National Commission
for Minorities, National Commission for Women etc.
● The Commission do not have any regional offices. However, under “The Prohibition of
Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013” the following States have
their own State Commissions for Safai Karamcharis or any such other body designated for the
purpose:
o Delhi
o Uttar Pradesh
o Uttarakhand
o Madhya Pradesh
o Rajasthan
o Maharashtra
o Karnataka
o Chattisgarh (State SC Commission has been designated)
o Punjab (Safai Karamcharis Welfare Board)
● The Commission shall perform the following functions:-
o Recommend to the Central Government specific programmes of action towards elimination of
inequalities in status, facilities and opportunities for Safai Karamcharis.
o Study and evaluate the implementation of the programmes and schemes relating to the social
and economic rehabilitation of Safai Karamcharis; and scavengers, in particular.
o Programmes or schemes in respect of any group of Safai Karamcharis
o Decisions, guidelines or instructions, aimed at mitigating the hardships of Safai Karamcharis

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o Measures for the social and economic upliftment of Safai Karamcharis
o The provisions of any law in its application to Safai Karamcharis; and take up such matters
with the concerned authorities or with the Central or State Governments
o To study and monitor the working conditions, including those relating to health, safety and
wages of Safai Karamcharis working under various kinds of employers including
Government, Municipalities and Panchayats, and to make recommendations in this regard.
o Make reports to the Central or State Governments on any matter concerning Safai
Karamcharis, taking into account any difficulties or disabilities being encountered by Safai
Karamcharis
o Any other matter which may be referred to it by the Central Government.
● With the enactment of “The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and Their
Rehabilitation Act, 2013”, the mandate and scope of the Commission has also been enlarged. As
per Section 31(1) of the said Act, the Commission shall perform the following functions, namely:-
o To monitor the implementation of the Act.
o To enquire into complaints regarding contravention of the provisions of the Act, and to convey
its findings to the concerned authorities with recommendations requiring further action.
o To advise the Central and the State Governments for effective implementation of the
provisions of the Act.
o To take suomotu notice of matter relating to non-implementation of the Act.
o The RBI-DPI Index continues to demonstrate significant growth in adoption and deepening of
digital payments across the country.

88. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: NFTs are “one-of-a-kind” assets in the digital world that can be bought and
sold like any other piece of property, but which have no tangible form of their own. The digital
tokens can be thought of as certificates of ownership for virtual or physical assets.
● Statement 2 is correct: NFTs cannot be replicated or equated with an asset that is similar, because
every non fungible tokens asset is unique on its own. Some malicious agents can impersonate
famous NFT artists and sell fake NFTS in their names. The other prominent non-fungible tokens
risks and challenges related to cybersecurity and fraud include copyright theft, replication of
popular NFT's or fake airdrops, and NFT giveaways.
● Statement 3 is correct: Income from transfer of virtual digital assets such as crypto, NFTs will be
taxed at 30%.
o No deduction, except the cost of acquisition, will be allowed while reporting income from
transfer of digital assets.
● Fungibility: It is a characteristic of a good or a commodity where each unit is interchangeable and
indistinguishable from another. Fungible items can be exchanged because what defines them is
their value itself and not any unique set of properties.
89. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Circum pacific belt: The circum Pacific belt also known as the Ring of Fire is the path along the
Pacific Ocean which is approximately 40 thousand kilometres long with around 452 volcanoes.
o It is a horseshoe shaped seismically active belt of earthquake, volcanoes and tectonic plates
boundaries.
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 Statement 1 is correct: The Pacific ‘Ring of Fire’ or the Circum-Pacific Belt, is an area along
the Pacific Ocean that is characterized by active volcanoes and frequent earthquakes.
● It is home to about 75% of the world’s volcanoes – more than 450 volcanoes. Also, about 90%
of the world’s earthquakes occur here.
● Statement 2 is correct: High earthquake zone: Around 90% of the earthquakes occur in this
region as this belt contains the epicentre of many earthquakes occurring due to tectonic movement.
● Large numbers of tectonic plates: The Circumpacific belt surrounds several tectonic plates like
the pacific plate, Philippines, cocos and Nazca plates.
o Many of these plates are sub ducting plates under the continental plates they border.

90. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) is a Mini Ratna (Category – I)
Government of India Enterprise under the administrative control of Ministry of New and
Renewable Energy (MNRE).
● Statement 1 is correct: Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) was
established on 11th March, 1987 as a Public limited Government Company under the Companies
Act, 1956 and it promotes, develops and extends financial assistance for Renewable Energy
and Energy Efficiency/Conservation Projects.
● Statements 2 and 3 are correct: IREDA is also registered with RBI as Non-Banking Financial
Company (NBFC). IREDA has been conferred the status of Mini Ratna Category-I by the
Government of India in June 2015.
91. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Ghaffar Khan was a champion of women's rights and nonviolence. He
became a hero in a society dominated by violence; notwithstanding his liberal views, his
unswerving faith and obvious bravery led to immense respect. Throughout his life, he never lost
faith in his non-violent methods or in the compatibility of Islam and nonviolence. He recognized as
a jihad struggle with only the enemy holding swords. He was closely identified with Gandhi
because of his non-violence principles and he is known in India as the 'Frontier Gandhi'.
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● Statement 2 is not correct: Khan strongly opposed the proposal for the Partition of India into the
Muslim-majority Dominion of Pakistan and the Hindu-majority Dominion of India, and
consequently sided with the pro-union Indian National Congress and All-India Azad Muslim
Conference against the pro-partition All-India Muslim League
● Statement 3 is correct: In 1987 Khan was awarded the Bharat Ratna Prize, the highest Indian
honour that can be given to civilians. He was the first non-Indian to receive this honour. He died in
Peshawar in 1988 and was laid to rest in Jalalabad, Afghanistan, according to his wishes.
o The Frontier Gandhi had such a positive impact on the whole region that a ceasefire was
declared during the civil war in Afghanistan for one day so that Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
could be buried. This demonstrates the esteem in which he was held.

92. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statements 1 and 2 are correct: At present, farmers have to take a price cut on MSP when selling
wheat stocks above the 12 per cent limit to FCI. Stocks with above 14 per cent moisture are
rejected. If the proposal is promulgated, wheat stocks with moisture content above 12 per cent will
not be procured even with a price cut.
● Value addition: The ideal moisture content in wheat may be reduced to 12 per cent from 14 per
cent and in paddy to 16 per cent from 17 per cent, according to the discussions between the Union
Ministry of Consumer Affairs and Food and Public Distribution and the Food Corporation of India
(FCI), which procures food grains from farmers on a minimum support price (MSP).
o After harvesting, wheat absorbs moisture while rice loses it. On an average, wheat contains
15 to 22 per cent moisture on harvest. Farmers have to dry their produce after harvesting and
even at mandis before procurement.
o Other provisions being discussed are reducing foreign matter in wheat crop to 0.50 per cent
from 0.75 per cent and in paddy to 1 per cent from 2 per cent.

93. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Konyak are the largest tribe, followed by Ao, Tangkhul, Sema, and
Angami in Nagaland.
o Other Naga tribes include Lotha, Sangtam, Phom, Chang, Khiemnungam, Yimchungre,
Zeliang, Chakhesang (Chokri), and Rengma.
● Statement 2 is correct: The term ‘Konyak’ is believed to have been derived from the words
‘Whao’ meaning ‘head’ and ‘Nyak’ meaning ‘black’ translating to ‘men with black hair’.
o They can be grouped into two groups, namely ‘Thendu’, which means the ‘Tattooed Face’ and
‘Thentho’, meaning the ‘White face’.
● Habitat: Reside mostly in the Mon district also known as ‘The Land of The Anghs’, they are also
found in some districts of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam and Myanmar.
o In Arunachal Pradesh, they are known as the Wanchos (‘Wancho’ is a synonymous term for
‘Konyak’).
o Ethnically, culturally, and linguistically the Noctes and Tangsa of the same neighbouring state
of Arunachal Pradesh, are also closely related to the Konyaks.
● Festivals Celebrated: The three most significant festivals were Aolingmonyu, Aonyimo and
Laoun-ongmo.

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o Aolingmonyu is celebrated in the first week of April after sowing of seeds, and this marks the
beginning of a new year. Its religious significance is to appease God for a prosperous harvest.
o The Aonyimo is celebrated in July or August after the harvest of the first crops such as maize
and vegetables.
o The Laoun-ongmo is a thanks-giving festival and is celebrated after all agricultural activities
are completed.

94. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: The NPT is an international treaty whose objective is to prevent the spread
of nuclear weapons and weapons technology, to foster the peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and to
further the goal of disarmament.
● Statement 2 is not correct: The treaty was signed in 1968 and entered into force in 1970.
Presently, it has 190 member states. India is not a member.
● Statement 3 is correct: It requires countries to give up any present or future plans to build nuclear
weapons in return for access to peaceful uses of nuclear energy.
● Value addition: It represents the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of
disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
o Nuclear-weapon states parties under the NPT are defined as those that manufactured and
exploded a nuclear weapon or other nuclear explosive devices before 1st January, 1967.
● India’s Stand: India is one of the only five countries that either did not sign the NPT or signed but
withdrew later, thus becoming part of a list that includes Pakistan, Israel, North Korea, and South
Sudan.
o India always considered the NPT as discriminatory and had refused to sign it.
o India has opposed the international treaties aimed at non-proliferation since they were
selectively applicable to the non-nuclear powers and legitimised the monopoly of the five
nuclear weapons powers.

95. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Living root bridges are Ficus elastica-based suspension bridges within
dense tropical rainforests of Meghalaya in the North-Eastern Indian Himalayas (25° 30' N and 91°
00' E). Ranging in span from 15 feet to 250 feet.
● Statement 2 is not correct: These bridges are grown by indigenous Khasi tribes over the time
period of 15 to 30 years.
Vision: Ficus plant specie plays a keystone role in the local ecology and is used for rainforest
regeneration in the tropics. Ficus elastica based living root bridges offer an exemplary model for
sustainable community based infrastructure solution, which ensures forest regeneration and remediation
of the soil, water and air. We envision precise scientific analysis, improvement and propagation of the
living root bridge technology for a statewide rural connectivity, conservation, education and livelihood
project. Implementation of this initiative will alleviate the nexus between poverty, population explosion
and environmental degradation in North East India, and create a unique precedent for living plant based
grassroot infrastructure solutions, which engage all stakeholders (local communities, scientists and
government authorities) in an inclusive, participatory and non-hierarchical manner.

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96. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Meaning of Open-Source: The term open source refers to something
people can modify and share because its design is publicly accessible.
o The platform uses the software Git, which was created in 2005 by Linus Trovalds, the
developer of the open-source operating system Linux, to track changes in a set of files and for
coordination in software.
● Underlying Principles: Open-source projects, products, or initiatives embrace and celebrate
principles of
o Open exchange,
o Collaborative participation,
o Rapid prototyping,
o Transparency,
o Meritocracy, and
o Community-oriented development.
● Open-Source Software: Open source software (OSS) is software that is distributed with its source
code, making it available for use, modification, and distribution with its original rights.
o Source code is the part of software that most computer users don’t ever see.
o It’s the code computer programmers manipulate to control how a program or application
behaves.
o OSS typically includes a licence that allows programmers to modify the software to best fit
their needs and control how the software can be distributed.
o The idea of making source code freely available originated in 1983 from an ideological
movement informally founded by Richard Stallman, a programmer at MIT.
o Examples of Linux, Mozilla Firefox, VLC media player, SugarCRM, etc.
o Closed Source or Proprietary Software: Closed source software is software that holds the
source code safe and encrypted.
● Statement 2 is correct: Git Hub is the world’s largest open-source developer community platform
where users upload their projects and code for others to view, edit, and tweak.

97. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Definition: Unemployment occurs when a person who is actively searching for employment is
unable to find work.
o Unemployment is often used as a measure of the health of the economy.
o The most frequent measure of unemployment is the unemployment rate, which is the number
of unemployed people divided by the number of people in the labour force.
o National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) defines employment and unemployment on the
following activity statuses of an individual:
o Working (engaged in an economic activity) i.e. 'Employed'.
o Seeking or available for work i.e. 'Unemployed'.
o Neither seeking nor available for work.
o The first two constitute the labour force and unemployment rate is the percent of the labour
force that is without work.

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● Unemployment rate = (Unemployed Workers / Total labour force) × 100
● Types of Unemployment in India:
o Disguised Unemployment: It is a phenomenon wherein more people are employed than actually
needed.
 It is primarily traced in the agricultural and the unorganised sectors of India.
o Pair 1 is correctly matched: Seasonal Unemployment: It is an unemployment that occurs during
certain seasons of the year.
 Agricultural labourers in India rarely have work throughout the year.
o Pair 2 is correctly matched: Structural Unemployment: It is a category of unemployment arising
from the mismatch between the jobs available in the market and the skills of the available workers
in the market.
 Many people in India do not get jobs due to lack of requisite skills and due to poor education
level, it becomes difficult to train them.
o Cyclical Unemployment: It is a result of the business cycle, where unemployment rises during
recessions and declines with economic growth.
 Cyclical unemployment figures in India are negligible. It is a phenomenon that is mostly
found in capitalist economies.
o Technological Unemployment: It is the loss of jobs due to changes in technology.
o In 2016, World Bank data predicted that the proportion of jobs threatened by automation in India
is 69% year-on-year.
o Pair 3 is correctly matched: Frictional Unemployment: The Frictional Unemployment also
called as Search Unemployment, refers to the time lag between the jobs when an individual is
searching for a new job or is switching between the jobs.
 In other words, an employee requires time for searching a new job or shifting from the
existing to a new job, this inevitable time delay causes frictional unemployment.
 It is often considered as voluntary unemployment because it is not caused due to the shortage
of job, but in fact, the workers themselves quit their jobs in search of better opportunities.
o Pair 4 is correctly matched: Vulnerable Employment: This means, people working informally,
without proper job contracts and thus sans any legal protection.
 These persons are deemed ‘unemployed’ since records of their work are never maintained.
 It is one of the main types of unemployment in India.

98. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct: It is an intergovernmental military alliance that was signed on 15th May
1992. In 1992, six post-Soviet states belonging to the Commonwealth of Independent States—
Russia, Armenia, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan—signed the Collective
Security Treaty. This is also referred to as the “Tashkent Pact” or “Tashkent Treaty”.
 Statement 2 is not correct: Current members of CSTO are Armenia, Belarus, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, the Russian Federation and Tajikistan. In June 2012, Uzbekistan suspended it’s
membership. Due to its policy of 'positive neutrality', Turkmenistan did not join the SCO.

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99. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is not correct: It is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social
and economic outcomes in Asia and beyond. It invests in South Asia, South East Asia And Pacific
islands (Region 1) and Afghanistan, Pakistan, Central Asia, East Asia, West Asia, Europe, Africa,
North America and Latin America (Region 2).
 Statement 2 is not correct: China is the largest shareholder with 26.61 % voting shares in the bank
followed by India (7.6%), Russia (6.01%) and Germany (4.2 %).
 Statement 3 is correct: The regional members hold 75% of the total voting power in the Bank.

100. Answer: A
Explanation:
Option (a) is not correct: TPNW prohibits States Parties to develop, test, produce, manufacture,
otherwise acquire, possess or stockpile nuclear weapons outright, comprehensively, for all States
Parties, irrespective of whether they possess nuclear weapons, while in the NPT the non-nuclear-
weapon States forsake the option of developing nuclear weapons.
Option (b) and (c) are correct.

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