POLITY CLASS TEST

Q1) Which of the following positions was created by the Regulating Act, 1773?
a) Governor-General of India

b) Governor-General of Bengal

c) Viceroy of India
d) Secretary of State for India

Q2) Which body was established under the Regulating Act, 1773 to supervise the East India
Company’s activities?
a) Board of Control
b) Supreme Court at Calcutta

c) Federal Court

d) Privy Council

Q3) The Pitt’s India Act, 1784 introduced which system of governance?
a) Dyarchy in provinces

b) Dual control of Company and Crown

c) Separate electorates
d) Provincial autonomy

Q4) Under Pitt’s India Act, 1784, who was the ultimate authority for civil, military, and
revenue matters in India?
a) Company’s Board of Directors
b) Board of Control
c) Governor-General alone

d) Court of Directors only

Q5) Which privilege of the East India Company was renewed by the Charter Act, 1793?
a) Commercial monopoly

b) Trade with China only

c) Administration only

d) Land revenue collection only

Q6) The Charter Act, 1793 strengthened the powers of which office?
a) Secretary of State

b) Viceroy of India
c) Governor-General of Bengal

d) Commander-in-Chief

Q7) Which of these was a result of the Charter Act, 1813?

a) Complete end of Company’s trade

b) Company’s monopoly ended except for China trade

c) Established the Federal Court

d) Granted separate electorates

Q8) The Charter Act, 1813 made provisions for which of the following?
a) Civil Services Exams

b) Christian missionary activities in India

c) Federal Court

d) Separate electorates for Muslims

Q9) Which of the following was abolished by the Charter Act, 1833?

a) Judicial powers of Company

b) Company’s commercial functions

c) Diarchy in provinces
d) Office of Governor-General

Q10) Which Governor-General’s designation came into effect by the Charter Act, 1833?
a) Governor-General of Bengal

b) Viceroy of India

c) Governor-General of India

d) Governor-General of Madras

Q11) The Charter Act of 1853 is notable for introducing:

a) Dyarchy in provinces

b) Provincial autonomy

c) Open competition for civil services

d) Separate electorates for minorities

Q12) The Charter Act, 1853 was the last of its kind because:
a) It ended the Governor-General’s post

b) It renewed the Company’s charter without time limit

c) It transferred power to the Crown

d) It established diarchy

Q13) The Government of India Act, 1858 transferred authority from:

a) Board of Control to Parliament
b) East India Company to British Crown
c) Governor-General to Viceroy

d) Secretary of State to Parliament

Q14) Which office was created under the Government of India Act, 1858?
a) Governor-General

b) Viceroy

c) Secretary of State for India

d) President of India

Q15) Which new legislative development was introduced by the Indian Councils Act, 1861?
a) Dyarchy in provinces

b) Association of Indians in law-making

c) Federal Court

d) Separate electorates

Q16) Which councils were created under the Indian Councils Act, 1861?
a) Central legislative council only

b) Provincial legislative councils

c) Executive councils only

d) Federal councils

Q17) Which new feature did the Indian Councils Act, 1892 introduce?
a) Direct elections

b) Separate electorates

c) Indirect elections (nomination)

d) Dyarchy
Q18) Under the Indian Councils Act, 1892, councils were allowed to:
a)Vote on the Budget

b) Discuss Budget

c) Pass laws independently

d) Remove the Governor-General

Q19) Which major communal feature was introduced by the Indian Councils Act, 1909?
a) Separate electorates for Muslims

b) Federal Court

c) Dyarchy in provinces

d) Provincial autonomy

Q20) The Indian Councils Act, 1909 increased:

a) Power of Secretary of State

b) Executive powers of Viceroy

c) Size of legislative councils and Indians in them

d) Commercial monopoly of Company

Q21) Which administrative system was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919?
a) Dyarchy at Centre

b) Dyarchy in provinces

c) Provincial autonomy

d) Separate electorates for Christians

Q22) The Government of India Act, 1919 expanded:

a) Federal autonomy
b) Local self-government
c) Communal electorates only

d) Commercial privileges of Company

Q23) Which of the following was provided under the Government of India Act, 1935?
a) Complete provincial autonomy

b) Abolition of Governor-General

c) No separate electorates

d) Abolition of Viceroy

Q24) The Government of India Act, 1935 proposed an:

a) Indian Federation

b) Federal Court
c) All India Services

d) All of the above

Q25) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 provided for:

a) One dominion only

b) Two independent dominions

c) Dyarchy at Centre
d) Crown’s rule for 10 more years

Q26) When did the Indian Independence Act come into force?
a) 15th June 1947

b) 15th July 1947

c) 15th August 1947

d) 26th January 1947

Q27) The Constituent Assembly of India was formed under the provisions of which plan?
a) Cabinet Mission Plan

b) Cripps Mission

c) Mountbatten Plan
d) Wavell Plan

Q28) Who was elected as the permanent Chairman (President) of the Constituent
Assembly?
a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
b) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

d) Sachchidananda Sinha

Q29) Who was the First Temporary Chairman (President) of the Constituent Assembly?
a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

b) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

d) Sachchidananda Sinha

Q30) The Objective Resolution, which later became the Preamble, was moved in the
Constituent Assembly by:
a) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

c) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Q31) How were the members of the Constituent Assembly elected?

a) Directly by the people
b) Nominated by the Viceroy

c) Elected by Provincial Legislative Assemblies

d) Selected by the British Parliament

Q32) When did the Constituent Assembly adopt the Constitution of India?
a) 15th August 1947

b) 26th January 1950

c) 9th December 1946

d) 26th November 1949

Q33) Which feature of the Indian Constitution reflects that India has a Parliamentary
system of government?
a) Separation of Powers

b) Single Citizenship
c) Collective Responsibility of Council of Ministers

d) Judicial Review

Q34) Which part of the Constitution declares India to be a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular,
Democratic Republic?
a) Directive Principles of State Policy

b) Preamble

c) Fundamental Rights

d) Fundamental Duties

Q35) Which of the following correctly describes India’s system of government?

a) Unitary with strong Centre

b) Purely Federal
c) Federal with Unitary Bias
d) Confederal

Q36) Which feature ensures the protection of the basic structure of the Constitution?
a) Fundamental Duties
b) Amendment under Article 368

c) Judicial Review

d) Single Citizenship

Q37) Which of the following reflects the secular character of the Indian Constitution?
a) Freedom of Religion under Fundamental Rights

b) Freedom of Speech under Fundamental Rights

c) Freedom of Expression under Fundamental Rights

d) Freedom of Religion under Directive Principles of State Policy

Q38) Which of these illustrates the blend of rigidity and flexibility in the Indian
Constitution?
a) Lengthiest written Constitution

b) Single Citizenship

c) Parliamentary System

d) Three types of amendment procedures

Q39) The oldest Constitution of the world which first inserted Preamble belongs to :
a) United Kingdom
b) United States of America
c) Ireland
d) India
Q40) Who said, “The Preamble is the Identity Card of the Constitution”?
a) Ram Jethmalani
b) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
c) Nani A. Palkhivala
d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Q41) According to the Preamble, the source of authority of the Constitution is :

a) Directive Principles of State Policy
b) Fundamental Rights
c) Judicial Review
d) We The People

Q42) Which of the following statements correctly reflects the judicial position on the
Preamble’s status as a part of the Constitution?
a) The Preamble is not a part of the Constitution as it precedes the Articles.

b) The Preamble can be amended under Article 368 as it is part of the Constitution.

c) The Preamble is enforceable in a court of law.

d) The Preamble overrides all other provisions of the Constitution.

Q43) Which of the following statements correctly describes the main objective of the
Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019?
a) It grants automatic citizenship to all illegal immigrants in India.

b) It provides a pathway to Indian citizenship for certain persecuted minorities from

neighbouring countries.

c) It abolishes the concept of dual citizenship in India.

d) It grants citizenship to refugees from all countries worldwide.

Q44) Which of the following correctly arranges the objectives stated in the Preamble in the
order in which they appear?
a) Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
b) Liberty, Justice, Equality, Fraternity

c) Equality, Justice, Liberty, Fraternity

d) Justice, Equality, Liberty, Fraternity

Q45) Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched with respect to the Preamble?
a) Sovereign — Independent authority both internally and externally

b) Socialist — Commitment to social and economic equality

c) Republic — Head of the State is hereditary

d) Secular — Equal respect for all religions

Q46) Which of the following cases is NOT related to the interpretation of the Preamble?
a) Berubari Union Case
b) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

c) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

Q47) Who said, “Preamble is the Soul of the Constitution”?

a) Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
d) Justice M. Hidayatullah

Q48) Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the rights of citizenship of
persons who migrated to India from Pakistan?
a) Article 5

b) Article 6

c) Article 7
d) Article 8
Q49) Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, citizenship can be acquired by which of the following
modes?

1. Birth

2. Descent

3. Registration

4. Incorporation of territory

Select the correct answer using the code below :

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 3 only

c) 1, 2 and 4 only

d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q50) Which one of the following statements is true regarding dual citizenship under the
Indian Constitution?
a) The Constitution permits dual citizenship to Indians residing abroad.

b) The Constitution strictly prohibits dual citizenship.

c) The Constitution is silent but the Citizenship Act, 1955 allows it.

d) Indians can hold citizenship of another country while remaining Indian citizens.

Q51) The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) card gives which of the following rights to its
holders?
a) Right to vote in elections
b) Right to contest elections

c) Right to hold constitutional posts

d) Multiple entry, multi-purpose lifelong visa to visit India

Q52) Which of the following Articles empowers Parliament to regulate the right of
citizenship by law?
a) Article 5
b) Article 9

c) Article 10
d) Article 11

Q53) A person who voluntarily acquires citizenship of a foreign State, under which
provision will they cease to be a citizen of India?
a) Article 9

b) Article 10

c) Article 7
d) Article 5

Q54) Which one of the following statements correctly describes the status of citizenship at
the commencement of the Constitution?
a) Citizenship was only granted to persons domiciled in India.

b) Citizenship was granted to anyone residing in India for 10 years.

c) Citizenship was only available to persons born in India after 1950.

d) Citizenship was given only through an Act of Parliament passed in 1950.

Q55) Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, which authority has the power to terminate the
citizenship of a person for disloyalty or fraudulent means?
a) President of India
b) Chief Justice of India

c) Central Government

d) Election Commission of India

Q56) Which Article of the Constitution declares India as a Union of States?

a) Article 1

b) Article 2

c) Article 3

d) Article 4

Q57) Which one of the following correctly describes the territory of India?
a) States only
b) States and Union Territories only

c) States, Union Territories, and territories that may be acquired

d) States and acquired territories only

Q58) Who has the power to admit new States into the Union of India?
a) President of India

b) Parliament
c) Supreme Court

d) Prime Minister

Q59) Under which Article can Parliament form a new State by separating territory from an
existing State?
a) Article 1

b) Article 2
c) Article 3
d) Article 4

Q60) Which statement is true about the procedure under Article 3?

a) The President must first recommend a Bill for altering State boundaries.
b) A Bill under Article 3 does not require Presidential recommendation.

c) State Legislature’s consent is mandatory for altering State boundaries.

d) States can alter their own boundaries by mutual agreement.

Q61) Which of the following was the first territory to be acquired by India after
independence and incorporated by Constitutional amendment?
a) Sikkim

b) Goa

c) Puducherry

d) Hyderabad

Q62) Which one of the following is correct about Article 4 of the Constitution?
a) Laws made under Article 2 and Article 3 are considered constitutional amendments under
Article 368.

b) Laws made under Article 2 and Article 3 are ordinary laws and not constitutional amendments.
c) Laws made under Article 2 and Article 3 requires ratification by half the States.

d) Laws made under Article 4 require a national referendum.

Q63) Which of the following statements is true about the Parliament’s power under Article
3?
a) Parliament can alter the area of a State without consulting the concerned State Legislature.

b) Parliament must always obtain the State Legislature’s consent before altering State
boundaries.
c) Parliament must only seek the views of the State Legislature but is not bound by them.
d) Parliament must conduct a referendum in the concerned State before changing its boundaries.

Q64) Which one of the following correctly matches a Constitutional Amendment with the
creation or change of State/Union Territory status?
a) 35th Amendment — Incorporation of Goa

b) 36th Amendment — Sikkim became a State

c) 7th Amendment — Puducherry became Union Territory

d) 12th Amendment — Nagaland was formed

Q65) Which one of the following correctly describes why India is called a ‘Union of States’
and not a ‘Federation of States’?
a) Because the States have no constitutional status.

b) Because the States have no right to secede from the Union.

c) Because India has only one level of government.

d) Because the States are created by the Supreme Court.

Q66) Which of the following is true about the term ‘Territory of India’ and ‘Union of
India’?
a) Both are exactly the same.
b) Territory of India is narrower than Union of India.

c) Territory of India is wider than Union of India.

d) There is no difference between the two.

Q67) Which Article empowered the Parliament to create the State of Telangana from
Andhra Pradesh?
a) Article 1

b) Article 2
c) Article 3
d) Article 4

Q68) When Parliament wants to change the name of a State, which procedure must be
followed?
a) It requires the consent of the concerned State Legislature.

b) It requires the views of the State Legislature, but not its consent.

c) It can be done by an executive order.

d) It can be done by a Presidential notification only.

Q69) Which of the following statements about Article 2 is correct?

a) It empowers Parliament to create new States within India.

b) It empowers Parliament to admit or establish new States that are not part of India.

c) It empowers States to merge by themselves.

d) It empowers President to create new States by ordinance.

Q70) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

a) Article 2 — Alteration of boundaries

b) Article 3 — Admission of new States

c) Article 4 — Supplementary provisions related to Articles 2 and 3

d) Article 1 — Procedure for changing State names

Q71) Which of the following Acts reorganized the States on linguistic lines for the first
time?
a) Government of India Act, 1935
b) Indian Independence Act, 1947

c) States Reorganisation Act, 1956

d) Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951

Q72) Which statement correctly describes the status of Union Territories?
a) They are directly governed by the States.

b) They have no representation in Parliament.

c) They are directly administered by the Union Government through an Administrator.

d) They are independent units like States.

Q73) Which of the following events is linked with the 14th Constitutional Amendment?
a) Sikkim becoming a State

b) Formation of Telangana

c) Integration of Puducherry as Union Territory

d) Goa becoming a State

Q74) Which of the following statements is true about acquired territories under Article 1?
a) Acquired territories automatically become States.

b) Acquired territories are automatically Union Territories.

c) Parliament decides how to incorporate acquired territories.

d) President decides how to incorporate acquired territories by ordinance.

Q75) Which one of the following pairs correctly matches the term in the Preamble with its
constitutional source or influence?
a) Sovereign — borrowed from the Irish Constitution
b) Republic — derived from the British parliamentary model

c) Integrity — inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment

d) Fraternity — taken from the Objectives Resolution but not found in the original draft of the
Preamble