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izFke 10 feuV esa vH;FkhZ viuh iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad dk feyku vks0,e0vkj0 mÙkj i=d ds Øekad ls dj ysaA ;fn vks0 ,e0
vkj0 mÙkj i=d o iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad fHkUu gSa rks dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA

Level : 2 Exam. – 2019

TGT : For Classes VI to VIII SCIENCE
Sub. Code No. : 4211 iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad ,oa vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
Question-Booklet Serial No. & O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ %






SET : A
Roll No. (In Figures)
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ % _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke % _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % ___________________________________________________________ vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj % ________________________________________
Name of Candidate Signature of Candidate
bl iz'u&iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k 32 iz'uksa dh la[;k 150 le; 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of Invigilator : ___________________________________

vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u&iqfLrdk ij Nis funsZ'kksa dks i<+us rFkk mÙkj i=d esa vius fooj.k Hkjus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&iqfLrdk o
mÙkj i=d dh Øe la[;k xyr vafdr gksa rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA blds i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok Lohdkj ugha
fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½ ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA• ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ dks
iz'u&iqfLrdk esa fn, x, fdlh Hkh iz'u eas dksbZ =qfV gksus dk lansg gks rks blds fy, vH;fFkZ;kas dks ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr izfrosnu nsus ds
fy, volj fn;k tk,xkA vr% vH;FkhZ fu/kkZfjr volj ds nkSjku bl lEcU/k eas viuk izfrosnu cksMZ dk;kZy; eas ntZ djok ldrs gSAa bl volj
ds ckn] bl lEcU/k esa izkIr izfrosnuksa ij dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
;fn fdlh iz'u esa fgUnh o vaxzsth ek/;e esa fHkUurk gS rks vaxzsth ek/;e dk iz'u Bhd ekuk tk,xkA
If there is any variance between Hindi and English Version of any question then English Version would be considered correct.

vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k@INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :

1. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i=d bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks iz'u&iqfLrdk i<+us dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls
dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls fooj.k HkjsaA (The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Booklet. When you are directed to read the
Question Booklet, take out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with black ball point pen only.)
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u&iqfLrdk esa 150 iz’u gSaA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA (The test is of two-and-half hours
duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.)
3. vius fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu dk iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u&iqfLrdk dk
mi;ksx djus ,oa mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA (Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this
page/darkening responses in the Answer Sheet. The candidate should remain careful in handling the question paper and in
darkening the responses on the answer sheet.)
4. izFke 10 feuV esa] ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks vH;FkhZ
nwljh iz’u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds fy, i;Zos{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,¡A (Within first 10 minutes, also ensure that your
Question Booklet Serial No. and Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately
report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet.)

5. ysoy&2 ¼d{kk VI ls VIII ds fy,½ 5. Level–2 (For Classes VI to VIII)

Hkkx&I % cky fodkl o f’k{kk 'kkL= ¼ç0 1 ls ç0 30½ Part–I : Child Development
and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30)
Hkkx&II % Hkk"kk % ¼ç0 31 ls ç0 60½
Part–II : Language : (Q. 31 to Q. 60)
¼fgUnh % 15 iz'u o vaxzsth % 15 iz'u½
(Hindi : 15 Q. & English : 15 Q.)
Hkkx&III % lkekU; v/;;u % ¼ç0 61 ls ç0 90½ Part–III : General Studies : (Q. 61 to Q. 90)
¼ek=kRed ;ksX;rk % 10 iz'u] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk % 10 iz'u] (Quantitative Aptitude : 10 Q, Reasoning
lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku % 10 iz'u½ Ability : 10 Q, G. K. & Awareness : 10 Q)
Hkkx&IV % foKku ¼ç0 91 ls ç0 150½ Part–IV : Science (Q. 91 to Q. 150)

uksV % Ñi;k bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks i<+Aas (Please read other remaining instructions given on the last page of this booklet.)

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Hkkx – I / PART – I
cky fodkl o f'k{kk'kkL= / CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ckY;dky dk vU; 1. Out of the following which is not the
uke ugha gS \ other name of childhood ?
(1) çkjfEHkd fo|ky; vk;q (1) Elementary school age
(2) LQwfrZ voLFkk (2) Smart age
(3) ^fxjksg ls igys* vk;q (3) Pre-gang age
(4) fxjksg vk;q/ny vk;q
(4) Gang age

2. ^eaxksfyTe* çdkj ds ekufld eanrkiw.kZ ckydksa 2. What is the approximate I.Q. range of
dk yxHkx cqf) Lrj çlkj D;k gksrk gS \ 'Mangolism' mentally retarded children ?
(1) 20 ls 25 (2) 20 ls uhps (1) 20 to 25 (2) below 20
(3) 25 ls 36 (4) 36 ls 51
(3) 25 to 36 (4) 36 to 51

3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk fodYi 3. Out of the following alternative which

lkekftdhdj.k dh çfØ;k ds vUrxZr ugha does not come under processes in
vkrk gS \ socialization ?
(1) lkekftd :i ls lEer rkSj rjhdksa ds (1) learning to behave in socially
approved ways
O;ogkj dks lh[kuk
(2) playing approved social roles
(2) lkekftd :i ls lEer Hkwfedkvksa dks
djuk
(3) lkekftd vfHko`fÙk dk fodkl (3) development of social attitudes
(4) vkRedsfUær O;ogkj (4) egocentric behaviour

4. cqf) dk ,d çdkj tks lk/kkj.kr;k urZd] 4. A type of intelligence which is mostly

,FkyhV] ltZu bR;kfn esa ik;k tkrk gS] D;k visible in dancers, athletes, surgeons
etc., is known as what ?
dgykrk gS \
(1) Bodily-kinesthetic intelligence
(1) 'kjhj-xfrdh cqf)
(2) Spatial intelligence
(2) LFkkfud cqf)
(3) Logical-mathematical intelligence
(3) rkfdZd-xf.krh; cqf)
(4) Musical intelligence
(4) laxhr cqf)

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5. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk laosxkRed cqf) dk rÙo 5. Which of the following is not an
ugha gS \ element of emotional intelligence ?
(1) m|eh lkeF;Zrk (1) Entrepreneurial competence
(2) vkRe-vfHkçsj.kk
(2) Self-motivation
(3) ijkuqHkwfr
(4) lEcU/kksa dks lapkfyr djuk (3) Empathy
(4) Handling relationships

6. ,d fo|kFkhZ [kqn ds }kjk tkus x;s dqN 'kCnksa 6. A student learns new concepts such as
tSls ck?k] dqÙkk] 'ksj] rsanqvk bR;kfn ds vk/kkj 'Carnivorous animal' on the basis of
ij ,d u;k 'kCn lh[krk gS ^ekalkgkjh i'kq*A words known by him such as tiger, dog,
lion, leopard etc. This type of learning
bl çdkj ds lh[kus dks D;k dgk tkrk gS \ is known as what ?
(1) la;ksxkRed lh[kuk
(1) Combinational learning
(2) v/khuLFk lh[kuk
(2) Subordinate learning
(3) lglEcU/kkRed lh[kuk (3) Correlative learning
(4) egkdksfV lh[kuk
(4) Superordinate learning

7. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk lkewfgd v'kkfCnd 7. Out of the following which is not the
cqf) ijh{k.k ugha gS \ type of group non-verbal intelligence
(1) vkehZ chVk ijh{k.k test ?
(2) vkehZ vYQk ijh{k.k (1) Army Beta test
(3) f'kdkxks ijh{k.k (2) Army Alpha test
(4) jsosUl çksxzsflo eSfVªDl (3) Chicago test
(4) Revence progressive matrices
8. czkWuÝsuczsuj ds fl)kUr ds vuqlkj fu;e ,oa 8. According to Bronfrenbrener, law and
jhfr fjokt ckyd ds fdl ikfjfLFkfrd rU= customs are examples of which of the
ds mnkgj.k gSa \ following ecological system of child ?
(1) ekbØksrU= (1) Micro system
(2) eSØksrU= (2) Macro system
(3) ehlksrU= (3) Meso system
(4) ,DlksrU= (4) Exo system
9. dksgycxZ ds vuqlkj ^^uSfrd fodkl dh ,d 9. According to Kohlberg "a stage of
,slh voLFkk ftlesa dksbZ O;fDr viuh moral development during which
uSfrdrk dks orZeku esa çpfyr lkekftd individuals judge morality largely in
ekun.Mksa vFkok fu;eksa ds vuq:i vk¡drk gS** terms of existing social norms or rules"
dks uSfrdrk dh dkSu-lh voLFkk dgk x;k gS \ is known as which level of morality ?
(1) uSfrdrk dk iwoZ ijEijkxr Lrj (1) preconventional level of morality
(2) uSfrdrk dk ijEijkxr Lrj (2) conventional level of morality
(3) uSfrdrk dk i'p ijEijkxr Lrj (3) postconventional level of morality
(4) uSfrdrk dk xSj ijEijkxr Lrj (4) unconventional level of morality
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10. cky vijk/k dk dkj.k ugha gS % 10. Which is not the cause of delinquency ?
(1) 'kkjhfjd nks"k (1) Physical defect
(2) xjhch (2) Poverty
(3) vlQyrk (3) Failure
(4) mfpr ?kjsyw okrkoj.k (4) Proper home environment

11. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ^laKku* ls 11. Out of the following which is not
lEcfU/kr ugha gS \ related with 'Cognition' ?
(1) çR;{kcks/k (1) Perception
(2) fparu (2) Thinking
(3) pyuk (3) Walking
(4) laçR;; fu/kkZj.k (4) Concept formation

12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk fodYi thu fi;kts 12. Out of the following which alternative
}kjk çnÙk ^^ewrZ lafØ;kRed voLFkk** dh shows characteristics of "Concrete
fo'ks"krk dks n'kkZrk gS \ Operational Stage" given by Jean Piaget ?
(1) Development of idea of 'cause-
(1) cPpksa esa ^dkj.k-izHkko lEcU/k* rFkk ^oLrq effect relationship' and 'object
ds LFkkf;Ro* lEcU/kh fopkj fodflr permanence' in children.
gksukA (2) The child gains understanding of
(2) ckyd esa laj{k.k ds fl)kar dks çkIr principles such as conservation
logical thought emerges.
djuk] rkfdZd fopkjksa dk çdV gksukA
(3) The child begins to represent the
(3) ckyd vius ifjos'k dks lkadsfrd :i ls world symbolically.
n'kkZuk vkjEHk djrk gSA (4) Becomes capable of creating
(4) rkfdZd fopkjksa ds fofHkUu çk:i cukus esa several forms of logical thought.
l{ke gksukA
13. dkSu-lk vfHkçsj.k dk ?kVd ugha gS \ 13. Which is not the component of
motivation ?
(1) vko';drk,¡ (2) jVUrLe`fr (1) Needs (2) Rote Memory
(3) vUruksZn (4) çksRlkgu (3) Drives (4) Incentives

14. O;fDrRo lek;kstu dh çR;{k fof/k gS % 14. Direct method of personality adjustment
is :
(1) 'kks/ku (1) Sublimation
(2) ç{ksi.k (2) Projection
(3) çrhixeu (3) Regression
(4) ck/kk-fujkdj.k (4) Removing of hurdles

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15. laKkukRed fodkl ds ^^lekt lkaLÑfrd 15. Who proposed "Sociocultural Theory"
fl)kUr** dks fdlus çLrkfor fd;k \ of cognitive development ?
(1) thu fi;kts (2) yso okbxksRLdh (1) Jean Piaget (2) Lev Vygotsky
(3) ts0 ,l0 czwuj (4) dksgycxZ (3) J. S. Bruner (4) Kohlberg

16. ^^ubZ lwpukvksa dks iwoZorhZ fo|eku ekufld 16. "Incorporation of new information into
lajpuk esa O;ofLFkr djuk** D;k dgykrk gS \ existing mental frame works" is known
as what ?
(1) vkRelkrdj.k (2) lekfo"Vhdj.k
(1) Assimilation (2) Accommodation
(3) larqyuhdj.k (4) laxBu
(3) Equilibration (4) Organisation

17. vius f'k"; ds laosxkRed fodkl ds fy, 17. For the emotional development of his
v/;kid dks pkfg, fd % pupil the teacher should :
(1) og f'k"; ds ekrk-firk dk LFkku ysus (1) Try to usurp the place of pupil's
dh dksf'k'k djsA parents.
(2) og vius f'k"; ds çfr çse rFkk Lusg (2) Develop love and affection for his
fodflr djsA pupil.
(3) og vius f'k"; dh 'kjkjr ds çfr Hkh (3) Take a loveable attitude towards
the mischief of the pupil.
çse dk joS;k viuk;sA
(4) vius dqN pqfuank f'k";ksa ds çfr i{kikr (4) Show favours to few selected
pupils.
iw.kZ O;ogkj djsA
18. mÙkj ckY;koLFkk dk dky D;k gS \ 18. What is the age group of late childhood
stage ?
(1) 2 ls 6 o"kZ (2) 6 ls 12 o"kZ (1) 2 to 6 years (2) 6 to 12 years
(3) 4 ls 7 o"kZ (4) 11 ls 15 o"kZ (3) 4 to 7 years (4) 11 to 15 years

19. ,u0 Mh0 vkbZ0 vfHkçsj.kk lw= ds çorZd 19. Who was the propounder of N. D. I.
dkSu Fks \ motivation formula ?
(1) eSdMwxy (1) McDougall
(2) fgyxkMZ (2) Hilgard
(3) CyS;j ,oa tksUl (3) Blair and Jones
(4) eSLyks (4) Maslow

20. FkLVZu }kjk ^cqf)* ds fy, fdl 'kCn dk 20. Which word was used by Thurstone for
ç;ksx fd;k x;k Fkk \ 'intelligence' ?
(1) çkFkfed ekufld {kerk,¡ (1) Primary Mental Abilities
(2) lkoZHkkSfed ekufld {kerk,¡ (2) Universal Mental Abilities
(3) rVLFk ekufld {kerk,¡ (3) Neutral Mental Abilities
(4) mPp ekufld {kerk,¡ (4) Higher Mental Abilities

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21. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh xfrfof/k/{ks= dks 21. Out of the following which activity/area
fo|kFkhZ ds lgfo|ky;h/lg'kSf{kd i{k ds may not be considered as co-scholastic
vUrxZr ugha fxuk tk ldrk \ aspect of learner ?
(1) Social skill
(1) lkekftd dkS'ky
(2) Attitude and values
(2) vfHko`fÙk ,oa ewY;
(3) Creative skill
(3) l`tukRed dkS'ky
(4) Curricular subjects
(4) ikB~;p;hZ fo"k;

22. igyh euksoSKkfud ç;ksx'kkyk dh LFkkiuk 22. The first psychological laboratory was
fdlds }kjk dh xbZ \ established by whom ?
(1) xkYVu (2) dSVsy (1) Galton (2) Cattell
(3) isLVkykWth (4) oqUV (3) Pestalozzi (4) Wundt

23. ^^ckydksa dh ;g le> fd pkgs os fdlh vU; 23. "Children's understanding that their
fyax/kkjh tSls diM+s] ckyksa dh LVkby viuk gender will not change even if they
ysa] rks Hkh mudk Lo;a dk fyax ugha cnysxk** adopt the behaviour, dress, or hairstyles
of the other gender". This type of
ckydksa dh bl çdkj dh le> dks D;k dgk children's understanding is known as
tkrk gS \ what ?
(1) fyax igpku (1) Gender identity
(2) fyax fLFkjrk (2) Gender stability
(3) fyax laxrrk (3) Gender consistency
(4) fyax :f<+c)rk (4) Gender stereotypes

24. fo|kFkhZ ds O;fDrRo ds lexz fodkl dk 24. Assessment of all-round development

vkdyu fdl rjg dk ewY;kadu dgykrk gS \ of the child's personality is known as
which type of evaluation ?
(1) lrr~ ewY;kadu
(1) Continuous evaluation
(2) lexz ewY;kadu
(2) Comprehensive evaluation
(3) mijksDr (1) ,oa (2) nksuksa
(3) Above (1) and (2) both
(4) mijksDr (1) ,oa (2) nksuksa ugha
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) above

25. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lh j{kkRed ;qfDr ugha gS \ 25. Which of the following is not a defence
mechanism ?
(1) rknkRE;
(1) Identification
(2) {kfriwfrZ
(2) Compensation
(3) vkSfpR; LFkkiu
(3) Rationalisation
(4) lkgp;Z
(4) Association
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26. ^n`f"V ls vks>y gks tkus ds ckn efLr"d ls 26. 'Out of sight out of mind' is
vks>y gks tkuk* fdl fodklkRed voLFkk dh characteristic of which of the following
fo'ks"krk gS \ developmental stage ?
(1) Sensory-motor stage
(1) laosnh-xked voLFkk
(2) iwoZ lafØ;kRed voLFkk (2) Pre operational stage
(3) ewrZ lafØ;kRed voLFkk (3) Concrete operational stage
(4) vkSipkfjd lafØ;kRed voLFkk (4) Formal operational stage

27. vf/kxe dk og çdkj ftlesa fo|kFkhZ nh xbZ 27. A type of learning in which students try
vf/kxe lkexzh dh lgk;rk ls u;s fopkj ;k to learn by emerging new rule through
u;s fu;e dks tkurs gq, lh[kus dk ç;kl given learning material, is known as
what ?
djrk gS] dks D;k dgrs gSa \
(1) Rote learning
(1) jVdj lh[kuk
(2) vFkZiw.kZ lh[kuk (2) Meaningful learning
(3) vfHkxzg.k lh[kuk (3) Reception learning
(4) vUos"k.k lh[kuk (4) Discovery learning

28. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk Vsyj }kjk çnÙk 28. Out of the following which is fourth
l`tukRed Lrj fl)kUr dk pkSFkk Lrj gS \ level of Taylor's level theory of
creativity ?
(1) Hkkocks/kd l`tukRed
(2) mRiknd l`tukRed (1) Expressive creativity
(3) vfHkuo l`tukRed (2) Productive creativity
(4) vkfo"dkjh l`tukRed (3) Innovative creativity
(4) Inventive creativity

29. fuEufyf[kr esa dkSu-lk fd'kksjkoLFkk dk vU; 29. Out of the following which is not the
uke ugha gS \ other name of Adolescence ?
(1) ckY;koLFkk rFkk çkS<+koLFkk ds chp dk (1) Transitional period of childhood
and adulthood
laf/kdky
(2) Problem age
(2) leL;kRed voLFkk
(3) Stage of stress, strain and storm
(3) la?k"kZ] ruko rFkk fojks/k dh voLFkk
(4) Smart age
(4) LQwfrZ voLFkk

30. vPNs lek;kstu dh fo'ks"krk gS % 30. Characteristic of good adjustment is :

(1) lgu'khyrk (1) Tolerance
(2) vkRefo'okl esa deh (2) Lack of confidence
(3) Emotional unstability
(3) laosxkRed vfLFkjrk
(4) Irregular life habit
(4) vfu;fer fnup;kZ

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[9] [A]
Hkkx – II / PART – II
Hkk"kk ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ / LANGUAGES (HINDI & ENGLISH)
[ fgUnh / HINDI ]
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
31. ^gseUr dks [khj vPNh yxrh gS* – okD; fdl 34. izR;; dh n`f"V ls vlaxr fodYi crkb, %
dkjd dk mnkgj.k gS \
(1) fopkj.k + bZ; = fopkj.kh;
(1) deZdkjd
(2) n`'k~ + rO; = nz"VO;
(2) laca/k dkjd (3) o`f".k + ,; = ok".ksZ;
(3) laiznku dkjd (4) oYehd + b = okYehfd

(4) vf/kdj.k dkjd 35. fuEu esa ls fdl fodYi esa ^de* 'kCn dk
fo'ks"k.kh; iz;ksx fd;k x;k gS \
(1) xehZ esa ^de* [kkuk pkfg,A
32. okrZfud n`f"V ls v'kq) fodYi pqfu, % (2) vkt mlus ^de* [kkuk [kk;kA
(3) ^de* gh i<+ ikrs gSaA
(1) nokb;k¡
(4) ^de* cksyuk gh Js;Ldj gSA

(2) izkf.kfoKku 36. fdl fodYi esa }U} lekl dk mnkgj.k ugha
gS \
(3) o`R;kuqizkl
(1) Hk{;kHk{;
(4) e`R;wijkUr
(2) Ñ".kktqZu
33. L=hfyax-iqfYyax dh n`f"V ls vuqfpr fodYi (3) #nzfiz;k
Nk¡fV, %
(4) mfprkuqfpr
(1) dq¡tM+k-dq¡tfM+u
37. foykse dh n`f"V ls csesy dks Nk¡fV, %
(2) rhrj-rhrfju
(1) vk;Z-vuk;Z
(3) /kksch-/kksfcu
(2) moZj-vuqoZj
(4) ikih-ikfiu (3) ,sfPNd-vfuok;Z
(4) [ky-nqtZu

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38. fdl fodYi esa ^vk* milxZ dk iz;ksx gqvk 42. fdl okD; esa ^fuikr* dk iz;ksx gqvk gS \
gS \ (1) jke vkSj ';ke fnuHkj ls [ksy jgs gSaA
(2) dfork vkt fnYyh tk jgh gSA
(1) vkR;fUrd (3) rqe vkt fnuHkj lksrs gh jgksxsA
(2) vkfrF; (4) esjh Hkkjh Hkwy Fkh tks mlds cgdkos esa
vk x;kA
(3) vk[;kf;dk
(4) vkf/kiR; 43. fdl fodYi esa folxZ laf/k dk iz;ksx ugha
gqvk gS \

fdl okD; esa ^vkKkFkZ* ¼fo/;FkZ½ o`fÙk dk (1) frjks/kku

39.
iz;ksx gqvk gS \ (2) f'kjks/kk;Z
(1) rqe vxj dgrs rks eSa ,slk t:j djrhA
(3) nhiksRlo
(2) lHkh dks vifjxzg dh Hkkouk j[kuh
pkfg,A (4) jtksHko
(3) usrk dks pkfg, fd og lewg ds izR;sd 44. ^nq?kZVuk D;ksa vkSj dSls gqbZ* – okD; esa iz;qDr
O;fDr dk lEeku djsA fØ;k-fo'ks"k.k dk Hksn bafxr dhft, %
(4) eSa pkgrk gw¡ fd rqe Hkys balku cuksA (1) ifjek.kokpd
(2) dkyokpd
40. i;kZ;okph dh n`f"V ls vlaxr fodYi pqfu, %
(3) jhfrokpd
(1) i{kh – 'kdqar] f}t] uHkpj
(4) LFkkuokpd
(2) cSy – _"kHk] o`"kHk] v{k/kj
45. ,dopu ls cgqopu cus fodYiksa esa vlaxr
(3) osn – vkEuk;] vkxe] vkdj pqfu, %
(1) Mkdw-Mkdqvksa
(4) gfj.k – dqjax] Iyoax] lkjax
(2) o/kw-o/kq,¡
41. ^HkkookP;* okyk fodYi pqfu, %
(3) rjcwtk-rjcqtkvksa
(1) ukuh }kjk dgkuh lqukbZ xbZA
(4) Hkkyw-Hkkyqvksa
(2) xfeZ;ksa esa jkst ugk;k tkrk gSA
(3) Hkkjr }kjk u;k mixzg NksM+k x;kA
(4) dksgyh us 'krd yxk;kA

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[ 11 ] [A]
[ vaxzsth / ENGLISH ]
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

46. Choose the correct synonym for the 51. Fill in the blank with the correct
word given below : option :

Gallant ………….. doing the cooking, I look

(1) Valiant (2) Impolite after the garden.

(3) Rude (4) Fearful (1) Beside

47. Choose the correct modal. (2) However

Some people ………….. ski better than (3) Besides
others.
(1) must (2) can (4) Therefore
(3) could (4) should
52. Choose the most appropriate form of
48. Fill in the blank with appropriate
preposition. Indirect speech for the given sentence.
The teacher said to Hari, "Why did you
I paid the bill ………….. cash.
(1) in (2) at not do your homework yesterday" ?
(3) for (4) with
(1) The teacher asked Hari why had he
49. Choose the correct word for the sentence.
not done his homework the
A man who is womanish in his habits.
previous day ?
(1) Arsonist
(2) Epicure (2) The teacher asked Hari why he had
(3) Effeminate not done his homework the
(4) Fealty previous day ?

50. Choose the correct antonym for the

word given below : (3) The teacher said to Hari why had
Bankrupt he not done their homework the

(1) Penniless previous day ?

(2) Insolvent
(4) The teacher said Hari that he had
(3) Ruined
not done his homework the
(4) Solvent
previous day.

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53. Choose the correct passive construction 57. Fill in the blank by choosing the correct
for the sentence given. option.
We visited the zoo of Jaipur on last
Sunday. The Headmaster and the Secretary
……………. present in the meeting.
(1) Zoo of Jaipur were visited by us on
last Sunday. (1) was (2) were
(2) On last Sunday the zoo of Jaipur
(3) was being (4) were being
was visited by us.
(3) We were visited the zoo of Jaipur 58. Choose the correct form of verb.
on last Sunday.
(4) Zoo of Jaipur was being visited on Did you not ……………. about the
Sunday last by us. world Atlas.
54. Cooking is his hobby.
(1) knew (2) known
The underlined word is used as a :
(3) know (4) knows
(1) Verb
59. Choose the correct option for the
(2) Gerund
underline word.
(3) Participle
Our parents have raised us to be a good
(4) Infinitive
citizen.
55. Choose the correct determiner.
(1) Brought up
……………. knowledge is a dangerous
(2) Brought by
thing.
(3) Brought out
(1) The little (2) Little
(4) Brought down
(3) A little (4) The few
60. Choose the word which is spelt
56. Choose the correct preposition.
correctly.
I had not slept or eaten anything (1) Commited
properly ……………. two days.
(2) Committed
(1) since (2) from
(3) Comitteed
(3) in (4) for (4) Committeed

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[ 13 ] [A]
Hkkx – III / PART – III
lkekU; v/;;u / GENERAL STUDIES
[ ek=kRed ;ksX;rk] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk rFkk lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku / QUANTITATIVE
APTITUDE, REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS ]
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

61. fuEu Üka`[kyk dks iwjk djsa % 61. Complete the following Series :
WE, SG, PJ, LN, IS, ? WE, SG, PJ, LN, IS, ?
(1) FZ (2) FX (1) FZ (2) FX
(3) EY (4) EX (3) EY (4) EX

62. fuEUk oxZ Js.kh esa vxyk in Kkr dhft, % 62. Find the next term of the following
letter series :
DHL, PTX, BFJ, ….. DHL, PTX, BFJ, …..
(1) CGK (2) KOS (1) CGK (2) KOS
(3) NRV (4) OVZ (3) NRV (4) OVZ

63. ,d dLcs dh tula[;k 8,500 gS] ;fn igys 63. The population of a town is 8,500. In
o"kZ blesa 20% o`f) gqbZ] nwljs o"kZ blesa first year it was increased by 20% and
25% o`f) gqbZ] rks nks o"kks± ckn bldh in second year again increased by 25%,
then what is the total population after
tula[;k fdruh gksxh \ two years ?
(1) 10,950 (2) 12,750 (1) 10,950 (2) 12,750
(3) 11,950 (4) 12,550 (3) 11,950 (4) 12,550

64. 18,000 #i;s ij 2 o"kZ ds 10% okf"kZd nj 64. What is the difference between
ls pØo`f) C;kt o lk/kkj.k C;kt dk vUrj Compound interest and Simple interest
D;k gksxk \ on the amount of Rs. 18,000 in 2 years
(1) 150 #i;s (2) 180 #i;s with the rate of 10% per year ?
(3) 210 #i;s (4) 316 #i;s (1) Rs. 150 (2) Rs. 180
(3) Rs. 210 (4) Rs. 316

65. 14,500 #i;s lk/kkj.k C;kt ij 6 o"kZ esa 65. The total amount of Rs. 14,500 with
21,460 #i;s gks tkrs gSa] C;kt dh okf"kZd nj simple interest in 6 years is Rs. 21,460,
D;k gS \ find out the Rate of interest per
(1) 4% (2) 10% annum ?
(3) 6% (4) 8% (1) 4% (2) 10%
(3) 6% (4) 8%

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66. ,d f=Hkqtkdkj [ksr dh Hkqtk,¡ Øe'k% 20 66. The sides of a triangular farm are 20 m,
ehVj] 21 ehVj rFkk 29 ehVj gSa] bl [ksr ij 21 m and 29 m respectively. How much
15 #i;s izfroxZ ehVj dh nj ls Qly dkVus will be total expenses for cutting the crop
dk [kpZ D;k gksxk \ at the rate of Rs. 15 per square meter ?
(1) 2,100 #i;s (2) 1,890 #i;s (1) Rs. 2,100 (2) Rs. 1,890
(3) 3,150 #i;s (4) 2,500 #i;s (3) Rs. 3,150 (4) Rs. 2,500

67. ,d fdØsV eSp es]a 6 f[kykfM+;ksa dh vkSlr ju 67. Average runs of 6 players in a cricket
la[;k 36 FkhA ;fn buesa ls ,d f[kykM+h us match was 36. If one player made 16
16 ju cuk, gksa] rks 'ks"k f[kykfM+;ksa dh runs, then what is the average runs of
vkSlr ju la[;k fdruh gS \ remaining players ?
(1) 24 (2) 30 (1) 24 (2) 30
(3) 36 (4) 40 (3) 36 (4) 40

68. fuEufyf[kr Ük`a[kyk dks iwjk djsa % 68. Complete the following series :

24, 60, 120, 210, ? 24, 60, 120, 210, ?

(1) 336 (2) 270 (1) 336 (2) 270
(3) 512 (4) 500 (3) 512 (4) 500

69. ,d cl rFkk ,d dkj dh pkyksa dk vuqikr 69. The ratio of speeds, of a Bus and Car is
6 : 7 gS] ;fn dkj 4 ?kaVs esa 364 fdeh dh 6 : 7. If car covers 364 Km distance in
nwjh r; djs] rks cl dh pky Kkr djsa % 4 hours, what is the speed of Bus ?
(1) 60 fdeh/?kaVk (2) 72 fdeh/?kaVk (1) 60 Km/h (2) 72 Km/h
(3) 78 fdeh/?kaVk (4) 84 fdeh/?kaVk (3) 78 Km/h (4) 84 Km/h

70. fdlh lkadsfrd Hkk"kk esa GRANT dks 70. In a code language GRANT is written
UOBSH dgk tk,] TIME dks FNJU dgk as UOBSH, TIME is written as FNJU
tk;s] rks PRIDE dks D;k dgk tk,xk \
how is PRIDE written in that language ?
(1) QSJEF (2) OQHCD (1) QSJEF (2) OQHCD
(3) FEJSQ (4) TPMED (3) FEJSQ (4) TPMED

71. nks la[;kvksa dk vuqikr 3 : 5 gS] rFkk budk 71. The ratio of two numbers are 3 : 5 and
;ksxQy 240 gS] la[;kvksa dk vUrj D;k the addition of those numbers is 240,
gksxk \ what is the difference of those
(1) 60 (2) 100 numbers ?
(3) 120 (4) 90 (1) 60 (2) 100
(3) 120 (4) 90

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72. fdlh la[;k ds 60% dk 3/5 ;fn 36 gks] rks 72. If 3/5 of 60% of a Number is 36, then
la[;k dk eku D;k gksxk \ the value of the number is :
(1) 60 (2) 100 (1) 60 (2) 100
(3) 120 (4) 150 (3) 120 (4) 150

73. ;fn DRIVER = 12, PEDESTRIAN = 20, 73. If DRIVER = 12, PEDESTRIAN = 20,
ACCIDENT = 16, rks CAR = ? ACCIDENT = 16, then CAR = ?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 16 (3) 8 (4) 16

74. A rFkk B feydj fdlh dke dks 15 fnu esa 74. A and B together can do a work in 15
lekIr djrs gSa] tcfd B vdsyk bls 20 fnu days, if B alone can do that work in 20
esa lekIr djrk gS] A vdsyk bl dke dks days. Then how many days will A take
fdrus fnu esa lekIr djsxk \ to do same work alone ?

(1) 60 (2) 45 (1) 60 (2) 45

(3) 40 (4) 30 (3) 40 (4) 30

75. yM+dksa dh ,d iafDr esa vfuy ck;sa Nksj ls 75. Anil is standing at 16th position from
16osa LFkku ij [kM+k gSA fodkl nk;as Nksj ls the left end in a row of boys. Vikas is at
18osa LFkku ij gSA xksiky vfuy ls nk;ha vksj 18th position from the right end. Gopal
11osa LFkku ij gS] vkSj fodkl ls nk;ha Nksj is 11th from Anil towards the right and
dh vksj rhljs LFkku ij gSA bl iafDr esa 3rd from Vikas towards the right end.
fdrus yM+ds [kM+s gq, gSa \ How many boys are standing in this
row ?
(1) 41 (2) 42 (1) 41 (2) 42
(3) 48 (4) 49 (3) 48 (4) 49

76. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk yhi o"kZ gS \ 76. Which of the following is a leap year ?
(1) 1800 (2) 1900 (1) 1800 (2) 1900
(3) 1700 (4) 2000 (3) 1700 (4) 2000

77. fdlh lkadsfrd Hkk"kk esa "go home" dks "ta 77. In a certain code language "go home" is
na" dgk tk, "sweet home" dks "na ja" written as "ta na", "sweet home" is
dgk tk, ,oa "Sweet and Sour" dks "pa sa written as "na ja", "Sweet and Sour" is
written as "pa sa ja", then how "Sour" is
ja" dgk tk,] rks "Sour" dk dksM D;k gksxk \
coded as ?
(1) pa (2) sa
(1) pa (2) sa
(3) pa ;k sa (4) na
(3) pa or sa (4) na

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78. nks O;fDr vius dk;kZy; ls vius-vius ?kj 78. Two persons depart from their office
ds fy;s jokuk gksrs gSaA igyk O;fDr mÙkj towards their houses. First person goes
fn'kk esa 8 fdeh] rFkk nwljk O;fDr iwoZ fn'kk 8 Km in north direction and second
esa 6 fdeh dh nwjh r; djds vius-vius ?kj person goes 6 Km in East direction and
igq¡p tkrs gSa] rks nksuksa O;fDr;ksa ds ?kj dh reach their houses, find out the direct
lh/kh nwjh fdruh gS \ distance of their Houses ?
(1) 10 Km
(1) 10 fdeh
(2) 12 Km
(2) 12 fdeh
(3) 14 Km
(3) 14 fdeh
(4) 15 Km
(4) 15 fdeh
79. 7 : 20 feuV ij ?kM+h dh cM+h lwbZ ls NksVh 79. What will be the angle between minute
lwbZ ds chp fdrus va'k dk dks.k cusxk \ end and hour end in a Clock at 7 : 20 \
(1) 160° (2) 100° (1) 160° (2) 100°
(3) 260° (4) 120° (3) 260° (4) 120°

80. fn;s x;s dFkuksa ds v/kkj ij lgh fu"d"kZ 80. Which is the correct conclusion based
dkSu-lk gksxk \ on given statements ?

dFku % Statement :
(A) lHkh iÙks tM+sa gSAa (A) All leaves are roots.
(B) dqN tM+sa 'kk[kk,¡ gSaA (B) Some roots are branches.

fu"d"kZ % Conclusion :
(1) dqN iÙks 'kk[kk,¡ gSaA (1) Some leaves are branches.
(2) dqN 'kk[kk,¡ tM+sa ugha gSaA (2) Some branches are not roots.
(3) dksbZ 'kk[kk iÙkk ugha gSA (3) No branch is leaf.
(4) dqN tM+sa iÙks gSaA (4) Some roots are leaves.

81. lksguk uxj izfl) gS % 81. Sohna town is famous for :

(1) ,sfrgkfld >hy ds fy, (1) Historical Lake

(2) ,sfrgkfld egy ds fy, (2) Historical Palace

(3) xeZ ty ds òksr ds fy, (3) Hot water Springs

(4) cxhpksa ds fy, (4) Gardens

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82. gfj;k.kk esa fdrus iz'kklfud eaMy ¼laHkkx½ 82. How many Administrative divisions are
gSa \ there in Haryana ?

(1) pkj (1) Four

(2) ik¡p (2) Five

(3) N% (3) Six

(4) lkr (4) Seven

83. gfj;k.kk dk jkT; i'kq gS % 83. State animal of Haryana is :

(1) Ñ".k e`x (1) Black buck

(2) ,f'k;kbZ flag (2) Asiatic Lion

(3) fpadkjk (3) Chinkara

(4) ck?k (4) Tiger

84. izrki flag us vaxzstksa ds fo#) dgk¡ fonzksg 84. Where Pratap Singh revolted against the
fd;k Fkk \ British ?

(1) jksgrd (1) Rohtak

(2) than (2) Jind

(3) vackyk (3) Ambala

(4) fljlk (4) Sirsa

85. us'kuy dSalj bfULVV~;wV dgk¡ gS \ 85. Where is the National Cancer Institute
situated ?

(1) lkaiyk (1) Sampla

(2) esge (2) Meham

(3) cknlk (3) Badsa

(4) dykukSj (4) Kalanaur

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86. gfj;k.kk esa ^csVh cpkvks-csVh i<+kvks vfHk;ku* 86. Who is the brand ambassador of 'Beti
dk czkaM ,EcslMj dkSu gS \ Bachao-Beti Padhao Campaign' in
Haryana ?

(1) vuq dqekjh (1) Anu Kumari

(2) lk{kh efyd (2) Sakshi Malik

(3) dYiuk pkoyk (3) Kalpna Chawala

(4) lkbZuk usgoky (4) Saina Nehwal

87. ftyk tks nwljs jkT;ksa ds lkFk lhek lk>k ugha 87. The district which does not share
djrk gS % boundary with other states is :
(1) ikuhir (2) jksgrd (1) Panipat (2) Rohtak
(3) jsokM+h (4) iyoy (3) Rewari (4) Palwal

88. unh tks gfj;k.kk rFkk mÙkj izns'k ds e/; 88. The river, which makes border between
lhek cukrh gS % Haryana and Uttar Pradesh :

(1) ;equk (2) xaxk (1) Yamuna (2) Ganga

(3) lkfgch (4) ekjd.Mk (3) Sahibi (4) Markanda

89. gfj;k.kk dk 'kgj] tks jk"Vªh; jkt/kkuh {ks= 89. The city of Haryana, which is not part
dk fgLlk ugha gS % of National Capital Region :
(1) xq#xzke (1) Gurugram
(2) lksuhir (2) Sonipat
(3) Qjhnkckn (3) Faridabad
(4) fglkj (4) Hisar

90. xq#xzke fdl izkphu xq# ls lacaf/kr gS \ 90. Gurugram is related to which ancient
Guru ?
(1) osn O;kl (1) Ved Vyas
(2) nzks.kkpk;Z (2) Dronacharya
(3) ij'kqjke (3) Parashuram
(4) Ñikpk;Z (4) Kripacharya

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[ 19 ] [A]
Hkkx – IV / PART – IV
foKku / SCIENCE
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

91. ,sY;qfefu;e dk v;Ld ^ckWDlkbV* gS % 91. The ore of aluminium 'bauxite' is :

(1) Al 2O3 (1) Al 2O3
(2) Al 2 O3 . H 2 O (2) Al 2O3 . H 2 O
(3) Al 2O3 . 2 H 2O (3) Al 2O3 . 2 H 2O
(4) Na3 AlF6 (4) Na3 AlF6
92. fuEu ;kSfxdksa dh vEyh; lkeF;Z dk lgh Øe 92. The correct order of acidic strength of
gS % the following compound is :
(1) CH 3COOH > C6 H 5OH > H 2 CO3 (1) CH 3COOH > C6 H 5OH > H 2CO3
> H 2O > C2 H 2 > H 2O > C 2 H 2
(2) CH 3COOH > H 2CO3 > C6 H 5OH (2) CH 3COOH > H 2 CO3 > C6 H 5OH
> C2 H 2 > H 2O > C 2 H 2 > H 2O
(3) CH 3COOH > H 2CO3 > C6 H 5OH (3) CH 3COOH > H 2 CO3 > C6 H 5OH
> H 2O > C2 H 2 > H 2O > C 2 H 2
(4) C6 H 5OH > CH 3COOH > H 2 CO3 (4) C6 H 5OH > CH 3COOH > H 2CO3
> C2 H 2 > H 2O > C 2 H 2 > H 2O
93. nks ,dleku dq.Myh ftuesa leku /kkjk cg 93. Two identical coils carry equal currents
jgh gS ds dsUæ laikrh gSa ysfdu muds ry and have a common center, but their
,d-nwljs ls ledks.k ij gSaA ;fn dsoy ,d planes are at right angles to each other.
dq.Myh }kjk {ks= B gS] rks dsUæ ij ifj.kkeh What is the magnitude of the resultant
pqEcdh; {ks= dk ifjek.k D;k gS \ magnetic field at the center, if field due
to one coil alone is B ?
(1) B/2 (2) 2B (1) B/2 (2) 2B
(3) B/ 2 (4) 2 B (3) B/ 2 (4) 2 B
94. feJ.k esa ls inkFkks± dk ØksesVksxzkQh i`FkDdj.k 94. Chromatographic separation of
fuEu ij fuHkZj djrk gS % substances from a mixture depends on
the basis of :

(1) leku foyk;d esa mudh foys;rk (1) Their solubilities in the same
solvent
(2) mudh ok"i'khyrk esa vUrj (2) The difference in their volatilities
(3) leku ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa muds fHkUu jax (3) Their different colours under
similar conditions
(4) leku inkFkZ }kjk fHkUu vf/k'kks"k.k (4) The different extent of their
adsorption by same material
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95. ,d d.k dh jSf[kd ljy vkorZ xfr esa] 95. In linear simple harmonic motion of a
ek/; fLFkfr ij % particle at mean position :
(1) osx vf/kdre rFkk Roj.k U;wure gksrk (1) velocity is maximum and
gS acceleration is minimum
(2) osx U;wure rFkk Roj.k vf/kdre gksrk (2) velocity is minimum and
gS acceleration is maximum
(3) osx rFkk Roj.k nksuksa U;wure gksrs gSa (3) both velocity and acceleration are
minimum
(4) osx rFkk Roj.k nksuksa vf/kdre gksrs gSa (4) both velocity and acceleration are
maximum
96. xSlksa dh fof'k"V Å"ek ds ckjs esa dkSu&lk 96. Which option is correct about the
p;u lgh gS \ specific heat of a gas ?
(1) bldk eku 'kwU; ls ysdj vuUr rd (1) It have any positive value from
dksbZ Hkh /kukRed eku gks ldrk gSA zero to infinity.
(2) bldk eku _.kkRed Hkh gks ldrk gSA (2) It may have negative value.
(3) bldk lqfuf'pr eku xSl ds xeZ fd;s (3) Its exact value depends on mode of
tkus ds rjhds ij fuHkZj djrk gSA heating of gas.
(4) mijksDr lHkh (4) All of the above
97. ,d ckWDl ¼fMCcs½ dks fdl Roj.k ls uhps 97. With what acceleration should a box
mrjuk pkfg, rkfd mlesa j[kk M æO;eku descend so that a block of mass M,
dk CykWd ckWDl ¼fMCcs½ ds ry ij mg/4 dk placed in it exerts force mg/4 on the
cy yxk;s \ floor of the box ?
(1) g/4 (2) g/2 (1) g/4 (2) g/2
(3) 3g/4 (4) 4g/5 (3) 3g/4 (4) 4g/5
98. ,d rk¡cs dh NM+ dk rki fdruk c<+k;k tk;s 98. How much should the temperature of a
fd bldh yEckbZ 1% c<+ tk;s \ brass rod be increased so as to increase
its length by 1% ?
fn;k gS % rk¡cs ds fy, α = 0.00002/°C Given : for brass α = 0.00002/°C
(1) 1000 K (2) 1000°C (1) 1000 K (2) 1000°C
(3) 500 K (4) 500°C (3) 500 K (4) 500°C
99. v/kksfyf[kr esa ls fdldk mi;ksx Ñf=e 99. Which of the following is not used as
e/kqjd ds :i esa ugha gksrk gS \ artificial sweetner ?
(1) ,sLikVsZe (2) lqØksykst+ (1) Aspartame (2) Sucrolose
(3) lSdjhu (4) ukWj,fFkuMªkWu (3) Saccharin (4) Norethindrone

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100. ,d xksyk ftldk nzO;eku 2.0 kg gS] dk 100. The linear momentum of a sphere of
js[kh; laosx le; t ds lkFk P = 3t2 + 4 mass of 2.0 kg varies with time t as
:i esa ifjofrZr gksrk gS] tgk¡ P rFkk t, S.I. P = 3t2 + 4, where P and t are in S.I.
ek=d esa gSaA rnkuqlkj xksys dks xfr djuh units. It follows that the sphere moving
pkfg, % with a :
(1) Constant acceleration
(1) fu;r Roj.k ls (2) Variable acceleration
(2) ifjofrZr Roj.k ls
(3) Constant speed
(3) fu;r pky ls
(4) ifjofrZr pky ls (4) Variable speed

101. vfHkfØ;k KMnO 4 + H 2 C 2 O4 + ..... 101. With reference to the reaction KMnO 4
→ MnO2 + CO2 + ...... ds lanHkZ esa + H 2C 2O4 + ..... → MnO2 + CO2 + .....
KMnO4 dk rqY;kadh Hkkj gksxk % the equivalent weight of KMnO 4
would be :
[ KMnO4 dk v.kqHkkj = 158 ]
[ Molar mass of KMnO 4 = 158 ]
(1) 158 (2) 52.66
(1) 158 (2) 52.66
(3) 22.57 (4) 39.50
(3) 22.57 (4) 39.50
102. Ård Lrj laxBu jfgr esVktksvk dgykrs 102. Metazoan without tissue grade
gSa % organization are called :
(1) çksVkstksvk (1) Protozoa
(2) iSjktksvk (2) Parazoa
(3) M~;wVsjksLVksfe;k (3) Deuterostomia
(4) ;wesVktksvk (4) Eumetazoa
103. jkbckslksEl cus gksrs gSa % 103. Ribosomes are formed of :
(1) Mh,u, ,oe~ vkj,u, ds (1) DNA and RNA
(2) vkj,u, ,oe~ çksVhu ds (2) RNA and Protein
(3) Mh,u, ,oe~ çksVhu ds (3) DNA and Protein
(4) vkj,u, ,oe~ vehuks vEy ds (4) RNA and Amino acids
104. tc ,d nzO;eku] ,d ux.; nzO;eku dh 104. When a mass is hung from the lower of
fLizax ds uhps fljs ij yVdk;k tkrk gS] fLizax a spring of negligible mass, an
esa x foLrkj mRiUu gks tkrk gSA nzO;eku extension x is produced in spring. The
Å/okZ/kj nksyu LFkkfir djrk gSA nksyu dk mass is set into vertical oscillations.
vkoZrdky gS % The time period of oscillation is :
x 2x x 2x
(1) T = 2π (2) T = 2π (1) T = 2π (2) T = 2π
g g g g
x x x x
(3) T = 2π (4) T = 2π (3) T = 2π (4) T = 2π
2g g 2g g
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105. dkWye dks lqesfyr dhft, % 105. Match the column :

/kkrq fu"d"kZ.k dh lkekU; Metal Common method of
fof/k extraction
(i) ,sY;qfefu;e (a) xfyr Øk;ksykbV esa foys; (i) Aluminium (a) Electrolysis of oxide
vkWDlkbM dk oS|qr vi?kVu dissolved in molten
(ii) vk;ju (b) HktZu rr~i'pkr~ dksd cryolite
}kjk vip;u (ii) Iron (b) Roasting followed by
(iii) dkWij ¼rk¡ck½ (c) lYQkbM v;Ld dk vkaf'kd reduction with coke
HktZu rFkk vip;u (iii) Copper (c) Roasting of sulphide
(iv) ftad (d) okR;k Hkêh esa CO rFkk dksd partially and reduction
ds lkFk vkWDlkbM dk (iv) Zinc (d) Reduction of the oxide
vip;u with CO and coke in
blast furnace
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(1) (a) (b) (c) (d) (1) (a) (b) (c) (d)
(2) (a) (d) (c) (b) (2) (a) (d) (c) (b)
(3) (a) (c) (d) (b) (3) (a) (c) (d) (b)
(4) (b) (a) (c) (d) (4) (b) (a) (c) (d)

106. v/kZlw=h foHkktu dh fdl voLFkk esa 106. In which stage are chromatids clearly
ØksesfVM~l Li"V fn[krs gSa \ visible in meiosis ?
(1) tkbxksVhu (2) iSdhVhu (1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(3) fMIyksVhu (4) Mkbdkbfufll (3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
107. ,d d.k fu;r Roj.k ls fojke voLFkk ls 107. A particle starts from rest with a constant
'kq: gksrk gSA fdlh le; t lsd.M ij mldh acceleration. At a time t second, the speed
pky 100 m/s gS rFkk blds ,d lsd.M ckn is found to be 100 m/s and one second
later the speed becomes 150 m/s. The
pky 150 m/s gks tkrh gSA blds Roj.k rFkk value of acceleration and the distance
(t + 1)osa lsd.M eas r; dh xbZ nwjh ds eku travelled during the (t + 1)th second will
Øe'k% gksaxs % be respectively :
(1) 50 m/s2 vkSj 125 m (1) 50 m/s2 and 125 m
(2) 25 m/s2 vkSj 125 m (2) 25 m/s2 and 125 m
(3) 50 m/s2 vkSj 200 m (3) 50 m/s2 and 200 m
(4) 75 m/s2 vkSj 200 m (4) 75 m/s2 and 200 m

108. vehck esa ijklj.k fu;eu gksrk gS % 108. Osmoregulation in Amoeba takes place
by :
(1) ladqpu'khy /kkfu;ksa }kjk (1) Contractile Vacuole
(2) [kk| /kkfu;ksa }kjk (2) Food Vacuole
(3) IykTek tsy }kjk (3) Plasma gel
(4) IykTekysek }kjk (4) Plasmalemma

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109. 2-czkseksC;wVsu esa ls HBr ds foyksiu ls curk 109. Elimination of HBr from 2-bromobutane
gS % results in the formation of :
(1) 1- o 2-C;wVhu dk levkf.od feJ.k (1) Equimolar mixture of 1- and 2-butene
(2) eq[;r% 2-C;wVhu (2) Predominantly 2-butene
(3) eq[;r% 1-C;wVhu (3) Predominantly 1-butene
(4) eq[;r% 2-C;wVkbZu (4) Predominantly 2-butyne
110. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-ls ikni dk okLrfod 110. The true stem of which of the following
ruk Hkwfexr gksrk gS \ plant is underground ?
(1) dsyk (2) ck¡l (1) Banana (2) Bamboo
(3) iqnhuk (4) xUuk (3) Mint (4) Sugarcane

111. Hkkjghurk dh voLFkk esa] fi.M % 111. In the weightlessness state, bodies :
(1) u dksbZ Hkkj j[krs gSa] u dksbZ tM+Ro (1) have no weight, no inertia
gksrk gS
(2) Hkkj j[krs gSa] tM+Ro Hkh j[krs gSa (2) have weight, have inertia
(3) dksbZ Hkkj ugha j[krs] ijUrq tM+Ro gksrk gS (3) have no weight, but posses inertia
(4) Hkkj j[krs gSa ijUrq dksbZ tM+Ro ugha (4) have weight, but don’t posses
gksrk gS inertia
112. rkjkiqj ukfHkdh; la;a= tks fd 106 kW ij 112. How much mass is converted into
dk;Zjr gS] eas fdruk nzO;eku izfrfnu ÅtkZ esa energy per day in Tarapur Nuclear
ifjofrZr fd;k tkrk gS \ Power Plant operated at 106 kW ?
(1) 0.16 g (2) 0.32 g (1) 0.16 g (2) 0.32 g
(3) 0.64 g (4) 0.96 g (3) 0.64 g (4) 0.96 g
113. n ,oa l Dok.Ve la[;k }kjk n'kkZ;s x;s 113. The electrons identified by quantum
bysDVªkWu % numbers n and l :
(a) n = 4, l = 1 (a) n = 4, l = 1
(b) n = 4, l = 0 (b) n = 4, l = 0
(c) n = 3, l = 2 (c) n = 3, l = 2
(d) n = 3, l = 1 (d) n = 3, l = 1
dks bl çdkj mudh ÅtkZ ds c<+rs gq, Øe can be placed in order of increasing
esa j[kk tk ldrk gS % energy as :
(1) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d) (1) (a) < (c) < (b) < (d)
(2) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a) (2) (c) < (d) < (b) < (a)
(3) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a) (3) (d) < (b) < (c) < (a)
(4) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c) (4) (b) < (d) < (a) < (c)

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114. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl ikni dh tM+ ,d 114. In which of the following plants root is
[kk| laxzg.k vax gS \ the food storage organ ?
(1) vkyw (2) I;kt (1) Potato (2) Onion
(3) 'kdjdUn (4) vnjd (3) Sweet Potato (4) Ginger

115. lkoZf=d dwV esa fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk fujFkZd 115. Which one of the following is a
çdwV gS \ nonsense codon in universal code ?
(1) UAG (2) UGG (1) UAG (2) UGG
(3) UGC (4) UAC (3) UGC (4) UAC
116. nks çdk'k òksr dyk lEc) dgyk;saxs] ;fn os 116. Two light sources are said to be
mRlftZr djrs gSa % coherent if they emit :
(1) leku rhozrk dk çdk'k (1) light of same intensity
(2) leku vko`fÙk dh rjaxsa (2) waves of same frequency
(3) rjaxsa ftudk dykUrj fu;r gks (3) waves having constant phase
difference
(4) rjaxsa ftudk osx leku gks (4) waves of same velocity
117. ,d Lofj= A ftldh vko`fÙk 384 Hz gS] dks 117. A tuning fork A of frequency 384 Hz
tc nwljs Lofj= B ds lkFk ctk;k tkrk gS gives 6 beats in 2 second when sounded
rc og 2 lsd.M esa 6 foLian nsrk gSA B dh with another tuning fork B. The
vko`fÙk gks ldrh gS % frequency of B could be ?
(1) 382, 386 (2) 381, 387 (1) 382, 386 (2) 381, 387
(3) 378, 390 (4) 380, 384 (3) 378, 390 (4) 380, 384

118. FeCl3 ds tyh; foy;u dk pH gksxk % 118. The pH of an aqueous solution of FeCl3
will be :
(1) 7 ls de (2) 7 (1) less than 7 (2) 7
(3) 7 ls vf/kd (4) 14 ls vf/kd (3) more than 7 (4) more than 14
119. tc ,d flYd ¼js'ke½ dk diM+k] dk¡p dh 119. When a Silk cloth is rubbed with a glass
NM+ ls jxM+k tkrk gS] rc NM+ % rod, the rod :
(1) vkSj diM+k /kukRed vkos'k vftZr dj (1) and the cloths acquires positive
ysrs gSaA charge.
(2) vkSj diM+k _.kkRed vkos'k vftZr dj (2) and the cloth acquires negative
ysrs gSaA charge.
(3) /kukRed vkosf'kr rFkk diM+k _.kkRed (3) becomes positive charged while the
vkosf'kr gks tkrk gSA cloth is negatively charged.
(4) _.kkRed vkosf'kr rFkk diM+k /kukRed (4) becomes negative charged while
vkosf'kr gks tkrk gSA the cloth is positive charged.

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120. fuEu esa ls vf/kdre fØ;k'khy gSykbM gS % 120. Which of the following halide is most
reactive ?
(1) CH 3 .CH 2 .Cl (1) CH 3 .CH 2 .Cl
(2) CH 2 = CH .Cl (2) CH 2 = CH .Cl
(3) CH 3 .CH 2 .CH 2 .Cl (3) CH 3 .CH 2 .CH 2 .Cl
(4) CH 2 = CH .CH 2 .Cl (4) CH 2 = CH .CH 2 .Cl
121. iksVSf'k;e ijek.kq ds bysDVªkWu dh pkjksa 121. The four quantum numbers of the
Dok.Ve la[;k,¡ gSa % valence electron of potassium atom are :
(1) 4, 0, −1, 1/2 (2) 4, 1, 0, 1/2 (1) 4, 0, −1, 1/2 (2) 4, 1, 0, 1/2
(3) 4, 0, 0, 1/2 (4) 4, 1, 1, −1/2 (3) 4, 0, 0, 1/2 (4) 4, 1, 1, −1/2
122. ,d cYc ftldk izfrjks/k 10 Ω rFkk ,d 122. A bulb of resistance 10 Ω, connected to
izsjd ftldk izsjdRo L gS] ,d œeksr ftu ij an inductor of inductance L, is in series
100 V, 50 Hz vafdr gS] ls Js.khØe eas tqM+s with an source marked 100 V, 50 Hz. If
gq, gSAa ;fn oksYVrk rFkk /kkjk ds e/; dykUrj the phase angle between the voltage and
π/4 jsfM;u gS] rc L dk eku gksxk % current is π/4 radian. The value of L will
be :
(1) 0.0318 H (2) 0.318 H (1) 0.0318 H (2) 0.318 H
(3) 0.0787 H (4) 0.787 H (3) 0.0787 H (4) 0.787 H
123. N% ysM ,flM izdkj ds f}rh;d lsy ftuesa 123. Six lead acid type of secondary cells
izR;sd dk fo- ok- cy 2.0 V rFkk vkUrfjd each of emf 2.0 V and internal resistance
izfrjks/k 0.015 Ω gSA 8.5 Ω ds izfrjks/k dks 0.015 Ω are connected in series to
provide a supply to a resistance of 8.5 Ω.
vkiwfrZ nsus gsrq Js.khØe esa tqM+s gq, gSAa vkiwfrZ The value of current drawn from supply
}kjk [khaph ¼nh½ xbZ /kkjk dk eku gksxk % will be :
(1) 0.24 A (2) 0.72 A (1) 0.24 A (2) 0.72 A
(3) 1.20 A (4) 1.40 A (3) 1.20 A (4) 1.40 A
124. lHkh dod gksrs gSa % 124. All fungi are :
(1) iw.kZiks"kh (2) e`riks"kh (1) Holotrophs (2) Saprotrophs
(3) fo"keiks"kh (4) ,tksVªksQ (3) Heterotrophs (4) Azotrophs
125. vk;fud cU/k ds fuekZ.k ds lUnHkZ esa fuEu 125. Read the following statements for the
dFkuksa dks if<+;s % formation of ionic bond :
(a) NksVk /kuk;u] cM+k _.kk;u (a) small cation, large anion
(b) /kuk;u ij de vk;fud foHko] _.kk;u (b) low IP of cation, high EA of anion
dh mPp oS|qr cU/kqrk
(c) large cation, small anion and less
(c) cM+k /kuk;u] NksVk _.kk;u ,oa de
charge
vkos'k (d) less lattice energy
(d) de tkyd ÅtkZ
Which of the following groups of
fuEu dFkuksa ds lewg esa ls dkSu-lk lgh gS \ statements is correct ?
(1) (a) ,oa (d) (2) (b), (c) ,oa (d) (1) (a) and (d) (2) (b), (c) and (d)

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(3) (b) ,oa (c) (4) (a) ,oa (b) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (b)
126. B. O. D. ¼tSo jklk;fud vkWDlhtu ek¡x½ 126. B. O. D. (Biological Oxygen Demand)
lEcfU/kr gS % is connected with :
(1) dkcZfud inkFkZ ls (1) Organic matter
(2) lw{e thok.kq ls (2) Microbes
(3) lw{e thok.kq ,oa dkcZfud inkFkZ ls (3) Microbes and Organic matter
(4) mijksDr esa ls fdlh ls Hkh ugha (4) None of the above
127. fuEu esa ls fdl la?k ds tUrqvksa esa vjh; 127. Which one of the following phylum
lefefr gksrh gS \ having animal with radial symmetry ?
(1) vkFkzksZiksMk (1) Arthropoda
(2) ,usfyMk (2) Annelida
(3) bdkbZuksMesZVk (3) Echinodermata
(4) IySfVgSfYeUFkl (4) Platyhelminthes
128. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk leo`fÙkrk dk mnkgj.k 128. Which one of the following is an
gS \ example of Analogy ?
(1) euq"; dk gkFk rFkk ?kksM+s dk iSj (1) Hand of man and leg of horse
(2) uj esa o`"k.k rFkk eknk esa vaMk'k; dk (2) Testis in males and ovaries in
leku Hkzw.kh; Årdksa ls fodflr gksuk female develop from same
embryonic tissue
(3) if{k;ksa rFkk pexknM+ ds ia[k (3) Wings of birds and bat
(4) e/kqeD[kh rFkk ?kjsyw eD[kh ds eq[kkax (4) Mouth parts of honeybee and
housefly
129. ,d /kkrq 2 ?kuh; voLFkkvksa fcc rFkk bcc esa 129. A metal crystallizes in 2 cubic phases
fØLVyhÑr gksrk gS ftldh bdkbZ lsy fcc and bcc whose unit length are 3.5 D
yEckb;k¡ Øe'k% 3.5 D rFkk 3.0 D gSA buds and 3.0 D respectively. The ratio of
?kuRoksa dk vuqikr gS % their densities is :
(1) 1.25 (2) 2.04 (1) 1.25 (2) 2.04
(3) 0.72 (4) 3.12 (3) 0.72 (4) 3.12
130. fuEu esa ls dkSu ^thok'e b±/ku* ugha gS \ 130. Which of the following is not a Fossil
Fuel ?
(1) izkd`frd xSl (2) isVªksfy;e (1) Natural Gas (2) Petrolium
(3) dks;yk (4) ydM+h (3) Coal (4) Wood
131. euq";ksa esa vijk gksrk gS % 131. The placenta in human is :
(1) gheksdksfj;y (1) Haemochorial
(2) ,fiFkhfy;ksdksfj;y (2) Epitheliochorial
(3) flUMSLeksdksfj;y (3) Syndesmochorial

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(4) gheks,UMksFkhfy;y (4) Haemoendothelial
132. fn;s x;s œeksrksa esa ls dkSu loZJs"B ,do.khZ; 132. Which of the following sources gives
izdk'k nsxk \ best monochromatic light ?
(1) ,d cYc ¼lkekU;½ (1) A Bulb (ordinary)
(2) ,d ,y bZ Mh (LED) cYc (2) A LED Bulb
(3) ,d edZjh ufydk (3) A Mercury Tube
(4) ,d yslj (4) A Laser
133. fuEu dFkuksa esa ls % 133. Of the following statements :
(a) PMMA vk¡[k ds ysUl cukus esa ç;qDr (a) PMMA is used in making eye
gksrk gSA lenses.
(b) dsçksysDVe ls ukbykWu-66 dk fuekZ.k (b) Nylon-66 is manufactured by
gksrk gSA caprolactum.
(c) Nylon is the step growth polymer.
(c) ukbykWu in o`f) cgqyd gSA
(d) Vulcanisation was introduced by
(d) oYduhdj.k çfØ;k pkYlZ xqMb;j us nhA
Charles Goodyear.
(1) (a), (b) rFkk (c) lgh gSa
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) (a), (c) rFkk (d) lgh gSa
(2) (a), (c) and (d) are correct
(3) (b), (c) rFkk (d) lgh gSa
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
(4) (a), (b) rFkk (d) lgh gSa
(4) (a), (b) and (d) are correct
134. lwph-I dks lwph-II ds lkFk lqesfyr djsa ,oa 134. Match List-I and List-II and choose the
lwph esa uhps fn;s x;s dwVksa dk mi;ksx dj correct answer from the codes given
lgh mÙkj dk p;u djsa % below the lists :
lwph-I lwph-II List-I List-II
A. N 2O3 º NO + NO2 (i) k P = k C (RT ) A. N 2O3 º NO + NO2 (i) k P = k C (RT )

B. 2NH 3 º N 2 + 3H 2 (ii) k C = k P (RT ) B. 2NH 3 º N 2 + 3H 2 (ii) k C = k P (RT )

C. 2 SO2 + O2 º 2SO3 (iii) k C = k P C. 2 SO2 + O2 º 2SO3 (iii) k C = k P

D. N 2 + O2 º 2NO (iv) k P = k C (RT )
2 D. N 2 + O2 º 2NO (iv) k P = k C (RT )
2

dwV % Codes :
A B C D A B C D
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) (1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
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(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

135. can iq"iksa esa gksus okys ijkx.k ds fy, ç;qDr 135. Term used for pollination which takes
'kCn gS % place in closed flowers is :
(1) ,syksxSeh (2) fDyLVkssxSeh (1) Allogamy (2) Cleistogamy
(3) gjdksxSeh (4) MkbdksxSeh (3) Herkogamy (4) Dichogamy
136. 2006 rd lkSj e.My esa ukS xzg FksA vc 136. Till 2006 there were Nine planets in the
dsoy vkB xzg gh lkSj e.My ds lnL; gSaA solar system. Now their are only Eight
uhps fn;s x;s xzgksa eas ls dkSu&lk xzg vc planets in the solar system. Out of these
lkSj e.My dk lnL; ugha gS \ planets, which planet is not a member
of solar system now ?
(1) v#.k (2) IywVks (1) Uranus (2) Pluto
(3) o#.k (4) bueas ls dksbZ ugha (3) Neptune (4) None of these
137. ,d fizTe dk viofrZr dks.k A rFkk 137. The refracting angle of a prism is A and
viorZukad cot A/2 gSA U;wure fopyu dks.k the refractive index is cot A/2. The
gS % angle of minimum deviation is :
(1) 180° – A (2) 180° – 2A (1) 180° – A (2) 180° – 2A
(3) 180° – 3A (4) 180° – 4A (3) 180° – 3A (4) 180° – 4A
138. ØkUt 'kjhj jpuk ns[kh tkrh gS % 138. Kranz anatomy is observed in :
(1) C 2 ikniksa esa (2) C3 ikniksa esa (1) C 2 plants (2) C3 plants
(3) C4 ikniksa esa (4) CAM ikniksa esa (3) C 4 plants (4) CAM plants
139. fuEu esa ls fdldh lajpuk prq"Qydh; ugha 139. Which of the following does not have
gS \ tetrahedral structure ?
(1) PO43 − (2) SO42 − (1) PO43 − (2) SO42 −
(3) BF4− (4) XeF4 (3) BF4− (4) XeF4
140. LieZ dk ,Økslkse] LiesZfVM ds fdl Hkkx ls 140. Acrosome of sperm is formed from
curk gS \ which part of spermatid ?
(1) lsUVªkslkse (1) Centrosome
(2) xkWYth dk; (2) Golgi body
(3) ekbVksdkWfUMª;k (3) Mitochondria
(4) jkbckslkse (4) Ribosome
141. ,d ,Ydhu dh fØ;k vkstksu ds lkFk djkus 141. An alkene was treated with ozone and
ds i'pkr~ cuk ;kSfxd ty vi?kVu djkus ij the resulting compound on hydrolysis
2-isUVsuksu ,oa ,FksuSy nsrk gSA ,Ydhu gS % gave 2-pentanone and ethanal. The
alkene is :
(1) 4-esfFky-4-gsDlhu (1) 4-methyl-4-hexene
(2) 2-esfFky-3-gsDlhu (2) 2-methyl-3-hexene

Level-2/4211

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[ 29 ] [A]
(3) 2-çksfiy-2-C;wVhu (3) 2-propyl-2-butene
(4) 3-esfFky-2-gsDlhu (4) 3- methyl-2-hexene
142. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk dFku dkcZu ifjokj esa 142. Which of the following statement is
ijek.kq o`f) ds lkFk rÙoksa ds xq.kksa ds lkis{k correct with respect to property of
lgh gS \ elements in the carbon family with an
(1) ijek.kq vkdkj ?kVrk gS increase atomic number, their ?
(2) vk;uu ÅtkZ c<+rh gS (1) Atomic size decreases
(2) Ionization of energy increases
(3) /kkfRod y{k.k ?kVrk gS
(3) Metallic character decreases
(4) +2 vkWDlhdj.k voLFkk dk LFkkf;Ro
c<+rk gS (4) Stability of +2 oxidation state
increases
143. thok.kq] fuEu dh mifLFkfr esa ekbdksIykTek ls 143. Bacteria differs from mycoplasma in
fHkUu gksrs gSa % having :
(1) dsUædkHk (1) Nucleoides
(2) IykTek f>Yyh (2) Plasma membrane
(3) 70-S jkbckslkse (3) 70-S ribosome
(4) n`<+ dksf'kdk fHkfÙk (4) Rigid cell wall
144. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ,d ckLV rarq ugha 144. Which of the following is not a bast
gS \ fiber ?
(1) dks;j ¼tVk½ (2) twV (1) Coir (2) Jute
(3) gsEi (4) ¶ySDl (3) Hemp (4) Flax
145. uhps fn, x, dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls fuEufyf[kr 145. Choose the correct descending sequence
oxhZdj.k Jsf.k;ksa dk lgh vojksgh vuqØe of the following taxonomic categories
pqfu, % using the codes given below :
(A) oa'k (B) x.k (A) Genus (B) Order
(C) oxZ (D) tkfr (C) Class (D) Species
(E) dqy (E) Family
(1) ECBDA (2) EBCAD (1) ECBDA (2) EBCAD
(3) CBEAD (4) CEBDA (3) CBEAD (4) CEBDA
146. ,d mÙky ysal vius eq[; v{k ij j[ks gq, 146. A convex lens forms a real image of a
fcUnq œeksr dk okLrfod izfrfcEc cukrk gSA point object placed on its principal axis.
;fn ysal dk Åijh vk/kk Hkkx dkyk dj fn;k If the upper half of the lens is painted
tk;s] rks % black, then :
(1) izfrfcEc uhps dh rjQ LFkkukUrfjr gks (1) the image will be shifted
tk;sxkA downwards.
(2) izfrfcEc Åij dh rjQ LFkkukUrfjr gks (2) the image will be shifted upwards.
tk;sxkA (3) the image will not be shifted.
Level-2/4211 P. T. O.

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[A] [ 30 ]
(3) izfrfcEc LFkkukUrfjr ugha gksxkA (4) the intensity of image will not
(4) izfrfcEc dh rhozrk ugha cnysxhA change.
147. QkbVksØkse lacaf/kr gS % 147. Phytochrome is related to :
(1) çdk'kQkWLQksfjyhdj.k ls (1) Photophosphorylation
(2) çdk'knhIrdkfyrk ls (2) Photoperiodism
(3) DykbesDVfjd çHkko ls (3) Climacteric effect
(4) çdk'k'olu ls (4) Photorespiration
148. fuEu dks mudh ?kVrh gqbZ {kkj lkeF;Z ds Øe 148. Arrange the following in the decreasing
esa O;fLFkr dhft, % order of their base strength :
C6 H 5 NH 2 , p − NO2C6 H 4 NH 2 , C6 H 5 NH 2 , p − NO2C6 H 4 NH 2 ,
I II I II
m − NO2 C6 H 4 NH 2 , p − CH 3OC6 H 4 NH 2 m − NO2C6 H 4 NH 2 , p − CH 3OC6 H 4 NH 2
III IV III IV
(1) IV > I > III > II (1) IV > I > III > II
(2) IV > III > II > I (2) IV > III > II > I
(3) III > II > I > IV (3) III > II > I > IV
(4) I > IV > II > III (4) I > IV > II > III
149. chtk.kqn~fHkn dh dkf;d dksf'kdkvksa ls] fcuk 149. Development of gametophyte directly
chtk.kqvksa ds lh/ks cus ;qXedksn~fHkn dk fodkl from the vegetative cells of the
dgykrk gS % sporophyte without the formation of
spores is known as :
(1) vichtk.kqrk (1) Apospory
(2) vi;qXeu (2) Apogamy
(3) vfu"ksdtuu (3) Parthenogenesis
(4) thfu;k (4) Xenia
150. thoksa ds ,d fof'k"V lewg ds mn~fodklh; 150. Which of the following term is used for
bfrgkl ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk the evolutionary history of a particular
'kCn ç;qDr fd;k tkrk gS \ group of organisms ?
(1) ijkx.kfoKku (2) iqjkouLifr foKku (1) Palynology (2) Paleobotany
(3) tkfro`Ùk (4) O;fDro`Ùk (3) Phylogeny (4) Ontogeny

Level-2/4211

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6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys ckWy 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be given by
IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k Hkjuk gS] tSlk fd uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % darkening complete circle using Black ball point pen as
shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn mÙkj okys The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given below :
[kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa %
   
    

;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk mÙkj xyr If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a wrong
ekuk tk,xkA answer.
7. jQ dk;Z iz'u&iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij gh djsaA (Rough work should be done only in the space
provided in the Question Booklet for the same.)
8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i=d ij gh vafdr djsaA vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsaA mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk
iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. Whitener
(white fluid) is not allowed for changing answers.)
9. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr fodYi ds fy, OMR mÙkj i=d ij dsoy ,d o`Ùk dks gh iwjh rjg dkys ckWy
IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk ldrk gSA (Out of the four alternatives for each question,
only one circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR Answer
Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed to be changed.)
10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d
esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksaA (The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make
any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer
Sheet.)
11. iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djsa] D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk
+ j½ nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA (Handle the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet with
dh fLFkfr dks NksMd
care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Question Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
Question Booklet will not be provided.)
12. iz'u&iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gLrk{kj pkVZ esa fy[ksaA (The candidates should write the
correct Number as given in the Question Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Signature Chart.)
13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k i= vkSj igpku i= ds vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~;&lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh
ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
(Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic
device or any other material except the Admit Card and Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.)
14. i;Zos{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk izo’s k dkMZ ¼jksy ua0½ vkSj igpku i= fn[kk,¡A (Each candidate must show on
demand his/her Admit Card (Roll No.) and identity card to the Invigilator.)
15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k i;Zos{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA (No candidate, without special permission of
the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.)
16. dk;Zjr i;Zos{kd dks viuk mÙkj i=d fn, fcuk ,oa gLrk{kj pkVZ ij nksckjk gLrk{kj fd, fcuk vH;FkhZ ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksMsx
+a As ;fn
fdlh vH;FkhZ us nwljh ckj gLrk{kj pkVZ ij gLrk{kj ugha fd, rks ;g ekuk tk,xk fd mlus mÙkj i=d ugha ykSVk;k gS vkSj ;g
vuqfpr lk/ku dk ekeyk ekuk tk,xkA OMR mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij lHkh vH;fFkZ;ksa }kjk ck;sa gkFk ds vaxwBs dk fu’kku
yxk;k tkuk gSA vaxwBs dk fu'kku yxkrs le; bl ckr dk /;ku j[kk tk, fd L;kgh lgh ek=k esa gh yxkbZ tk, vFkkZr~ L;kgh dh
ek=k u rks cgqr vf/kd gks o u gh cgqr deA (The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over
their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and signing the Signature Chart twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Signature Chart second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
All candidates have to affix left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet at the place specified which should
be properly inked i.e. they should not be either over inked or dried in nature.)
17. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA (Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.)
18. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy,] vH;FkhZ foojf.kdk esa nh xbZ izfØ;k@fn’kk&funsZ’k o cksMZ ds lHkh fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa dk fo'ks"k /;ku j[ksAa
vuqfpr lk/kuksa ds lHkh ekeyksa dk QSlyk cksMZ ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj gksxkA (The candidates are governed by
Guidelines/Procedure given in the Information Bulletin, all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in
the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.)
19. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkkx vyx u djsaA (No part of the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet shall
be detached under any circumstances.)
20. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ d{k@gkWy NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; lkSai nsaA vH;FkhZ vius lkFk bl
iz'u&iqfLrdk dks ys tk ldrs gSAa (On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
in the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Question Booklet with them.)

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Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2019 Set : A
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
Sub. Code No.: 4211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (3) 031 (3) 061 (3) 091 (3) 121 (3)
002 (4) 032 (3) 062 (3) 092 (3) 122 (1)
003 (4) 033 (2) 063 (2) 093 (4) 123 (4)
004 (1) 034 (1) 064 (2) 094 (4) 124 (3)
005 (1) 035 (2) 065 (4) 095 (1) 125 (3)
006 (4) 036 (3) 066 (3) 096 (4) 126 (3)
007 (2) 037 (4) 067 (4) 097 (3) 127 (3)
008 (2) 038 (3) 068 (1) 098 (4) 128 (3)
009 (2) 039 (2) 069 (3) 099 (4) 129 (1)
010 (4) 040 (3) 070 (3) 100 (2) 130 (4)
011 (3) 041 (2) 071 (1) 101 (2) 131 (1)
012 (3) 042 (3) 072 (2) 102 (2) 132 (4)
013 (2) 043 (3) 073 (2) 103 (2) 133 (2)
014 (4) 044 (3) 074 (1) 104 (1) 134 (1)
015 (2) 045 (3) 075 (1) 105 (2) 135 (2)
016 (1) 046 (1) 076 (4) 106 (3) 136 (2)
017 (2) 047 (2) 077 (3) 107 (1) 137 (2)
018 (2) 048 (1) 078 (1) 108 (1) 138 (3)
019 (2) 049 (3) 079 (2) 109 (2) 139 (4)
020 (1) 050 (4) 080 (4) 110 (1) 140 (2)
021 (4) 051 (3) 081 (3) 111 (3) 141 (4)
022 (4) 052 (*) 082 (3) 112 (4) 142 (4)
023 (3) 053 (2) 083 (1) 113 (3) 143 (4)
024 (2) 054 (2) 084 (2) 114 (3) 144 (1)
025 (4) 055 (3) 085 (3) 115 (1) 145 (3)
026 (1) 056 (4) 086 (2) 116 (3) 146 (3)
027 (4) 057 (2) 087 (2) 117 (2) 147 (2)
028 (3) 058 (3) 088 (1) 118 (1) 148 (1)
029 (4) 059 (1) 089 (4) 119 (3) 149 (1)
030 (1) 060 (2) 090 (2) 120 (4) 150 (3)

[ (*) means 1 mark given ]

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Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2019 Set : B
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
Sub. Code No.: 4211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (2) 031 (3) 061 (2) 091 (4) 121 (3)
002 (2) 032 (2) 062 (1) 092 (3) 122 (3)
003 (3) 033 (3) 063 (1) 093 (2) 123 (4)
004 (2) 034 (3) 064 (4) 094 (3) 124 (4)
005 (1) 035 (3) 065 (3) 095 (3) 125 (2)
006 (4) 036 (3) 066 (1) 096 (1) 126 (2)
007 (4) 037 (2) 067 (2) 097 (1) 127 (2)
008 (1) 038 (4) 068 (4) 098 (3) 128 (3)
009 (4) 039 (3) 069 (3) 099 (4) 129 (1)
010 (4) 040 (2) 070 (3) 100 (4) 130 (3)
011 (3) 041 (3) 071 (2) 101 (3) 131 (4)
012 (2) 042 (3) 072 (2) 102 (3) 132 (3)
013 (2) 043 (3) 073 (4) 103 (3) 133 (3)
014 (1) 044 (1) 074 (3) 104 (1) 134 (3)
015 (3) 045 (2) 075 (4) 105 (1) 135 (1)
016 (2) 046 (*) 076 (1) 106 (4) 136 (4)
017 (4) 047 (3) 077 (3) 107 (2) 137 (4)
018 (4) 048 (4) 078 (3) 108 (2) 138 (1)
019 (4) 049 (2) 079 (1) 109 (4) 139 (1)
020 (1) 050 (2) 080 (2) 110 (2) 140 (4)
021 (4) 051 (1) 081 (2) 111 (4) 141 (2)
022 (3) 052 (2) 082 (1) 112 (4) 142 (2)
023 (4) 053 (3) 083 (2) 113 (2) 143 (3)
024 (1) 054 (4) 084 (3) 114 (1) 144 (3)
025 (1) 055 (1) 085 (2) 115 (3) 145 (2)
026 (2) 056 (3) 086 (2) 116 (1) 146 (1)
027 (2) 057 (2) 087 (1) 117 (2) 147 (1)
028 (2) 058 (1) 088 (3) 118 (2) 148 (3)
029 (3) 059 (2) 089 (3) 119 (3) 149 (4)
030 (4) 060 (3) 090 (4) 120 (1) 150 (1)

[ (*) means 1 mark given ]

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Telegram
Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2019 Set : C
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
Sub. Code No.: 4211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (3) 031 (2) 061 (1) 091 (3) 121 (4)
002 (3) 032 (3) 062 (2) 092 (1) 122 (4)
003 (1) 033 (3) 063 (2) 093 (3) 123 (2)
004 (4) 034 (3) 064 (1) 094 (3) 124 (4)
005 (1) 035 (3) 065 (1) 095 (2) 125 (1)
006 (4) 036 (2) 066 (4) 096 (4) 126 (2)
007 (2) 037 (3) 067 (3) 097 (4) 127 (1)
008 (4) 038 (2) 068 (1) 098 (3) 128 (3)
009 (4) 039 (3) 069 (2) 099 (1) 129 (3)
010 (4) 040 (3) 070 (4) 100 (2) 130 (4)
011 (2) 041 (4) 071 (3) 101 (2) 131 (3)
012 (4) 042 (3) 072 (3) 102 (2) 132 (1)
013 (4) 043 (1) 073 (2) 103 (3) 133 (4)
014 (1) 044 (2) 074 (2) 104 (3) 134 (1)
015 (4) 045 (3) 075 (4) 105 (1) 135 (2)
016 (4) 046 (3) 076 (3) 106 (1) 136 (1)
017 (1) 047 (1) 077 (4) 107 (4) 137 (4)
018 (2) 048 (2) 078 (1) 108 (1) 138 (3)
019 (4) 049 (3) 079 (3) 109 (3) 139 (2)
020 (2) 050 (4) 080 (3) 110 (3) 140 (1)
021 (3) 051 (2) 081 (2) 111 (1) 141 (3)
022 (2) 052 (2) 082 (2) 112 (2) 142 (3)
023 (1) 053 (2) 083 (1) 113 (4) 143 (3)
024 (2) 054 (3) 084 (4) 114 (4) 144 (3)
025 (2) 055 (*) 085 (2) 115 (4) 145 (2)
026 (1) 056 (2) 086 (3) 116 (1) 146 (3)
027 (2) 057 (1) 087 (3) 117 (3) 147 (3)
028 (3) 058 (3) 088 (1) 118 (4) 148 (1)
029 (2) 059 (4) 089 (2) 119 (2) 149 (4)
030 (3) 060 (1) 090 (3) 120 (2) 150 (2)

[ (*) means 1 mark given ]

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Telegram
Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2019 Set : D
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
Sub. Code No.: 4211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (4) 031 (3) 061 (4) 091 (3) 121 (3)
002 (3) 032 (3) 062 (1) 092 (1) 122 (3)
003 (4) 033 (3) 063 (2) 093 (4) 123 (4)
004 (3) 034 (3) 064 (3) 094 (4) 124 (3)
005 (2) 035 (2) 065 (3) 095 (1) 125 (4)
006 (2) 036 (1) 066 (3) 096 (3) 126 (1)
007 (2) 037 (3) 067 (2) 097 (2) 127 (2)
008 (2) 038 (2) 068 (2) 098 (4) 128 (3)
009 (3) 039 (3) 069 (4) 099 (3) 129 (2)
010 (3) 040 (4) 070 (3) 100 (3) 130 (3)
011 (2) 041 (3) 071 (4) 101 (1) 131 (4)
012 (1) 042 (2) 072 (1) 102 (3) 132 (3)
013 (4) 043 (2) 073 (3) 103 (1) 133 (4)
014 (1) 044 (3) 074 (3) 104 (2) 134 (3)
015 (1) 045 (3) 075 (1) 105 (4) 135 (1)
016 (4) 046 (4) 076 (2) 106 (2) 136 (3)
017 (1) 047 (3) 077 (2) 107 (2) 137 (2)
018 (2) 048 (1) 078 (1) 108 (3) 138 (1)
019 (4) 049 (1) 079 (1) 109 (2) 139 (2)
020 (1) 050 (3) 080 (4) 110 (4) 140 (2)
021 (1) 051 (3) 081 (3) 111 (1) 141 (2)
022 (2) 052 (2) 082 (4) 112 (2) 142 (4)
023 (4) 053 (2) 083 (2) 113 (3) 143 (3)
024 (2) 054 (2) 084 (2) 114 (3) 144 (4)
025 (2) 055 (2) 085 (2) 115 (3) 145 (1)
026 (4) 056 (*) 086 (1) 116 (4) 146 (1)
027 (4) 057 (4) 087 (2) 117 (4) 147 (4)
028 (4) 058 (1) 088 (3) 118 (1) 148 (3)
029 (4) 059 (2) 089 (3) 119 (1) 149 (1)
030 (3) 060 (3) 090 (1) 120 (2) 150 (1)

[ (*) means 1 mark given ]

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izFke 10 feuV esa vH;FkhZ viuh iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad dk feyku vks0,e0vkj0 mÙkj i=d ds Øekad ls vo'; dj ysaA ;fn
vks0 ,e0 vkj0 mÙkj i=d o iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad fHkUu gSa rks dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA

Level : 2 Exam. – 2020

TGT : For Classes VI to VIII SCIENCE
Sub. Code No. : 8111 iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad ,oa vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
Question-Booklet Serial No. & O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼vadksa esa½ %






SET : A
Roll No. (In Figures)
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa esa½ % _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke % _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % ___________________________________________________________ vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj % ________________________________________
Name of Candidate Signature of Candidate
bl iz'u&iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k 32 iz'uksa dh la[;k 150 le; 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj@Signature of Invigilator : ___________________________________

vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u&iqfLrdk ij Nis funsZ'kksa dks i<+us rFkk mÙkj i=d esa vius fooj.k Hkjus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&iqfLrdk o
mÙkj i=d dh Øe la[;k xyr vafdr gksa rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysaA blds i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok Lohdkj ugha
fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½ ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA• ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ dks
iz'u&iqfLrdk esa fn, x, fdlh Hkh iz'u eas dksbZ =qfV gksus dk lansg gks rks blds fy, vH;fFkZ;kas dks ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr izfrosnu nsus ds
fy, volj fn;k tk,xkA vr% vH;FkhZ fu/kkZfjr volj ds nkSjku bl lEcU/k eas viuk izfrosnu cksMZ dk;kZy; eas ntZ djok ldrs gSAa bl volj
ds ckn] bl lEcU/k esa izkIr izfrosnuksa ij dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
;fn fdlh iz'u esa fgUnh o vaxzsth ek/;e esa fHkUurk gS rks vaxzsth ek/;e dk iz'u Bhd ekuk tk,xkA
If there is any variance between Hindi and English Version of any question then English Version would be considered correct.

vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k@INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES :

1. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i=d bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks iz'u&iqfLrdk i<+us dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls
dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls fooj.k HkjsaA (The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Booklet. When you are directed to read the
Question Booklet, take out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with black ball point pen only.)
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u&iqfLrdk esa 150 iz’u gSaA dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA (The test is of two-and-half hours
duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.)
3. vius fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij fu’kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu dk iz;ksx djsaA vH;FkhZ iz'u&iqfLrdk dk
mi;ksx djus ,oa mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsaA (Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this
page/darkening responses in the Answer Sheet. The candidate should remain careful in handling the question paper and in
darkening the responses on the answer sheet.)
4. izFke 10 feuV esa] ;g Hkh lqfuf’pr dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSaA vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks vH;FkhZ
nwljh iz’u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds fy, i;Zos{kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,¡A (Within first 10 minutes, also ensure that your
Question Booklet Serial No. and Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately
report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet.)

5. ysoy&2 ¼d{kk VI ls VIII ds fy,½ 5. Level–2 (For Classes VI to VIII)

Hkkx&I % cky fodkl o f’k{kk 'kkL= ¼ç0 1 ls ç0 30½ Part–I : Child Development
and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30)
Hkkx&II % Hkk"kk % ¼ç0 31 ls ç0 60½
Part–II : Language : (Q. 31 to Q. 60)
¼fgUnh % 15 iz'u o vaxzsth % 15 iz'u½
(Hindi : 15 Q. & English : 15 Q.)
Hkkx&III % lkekU; v/;;u % ¼ç0 61 ls ç0 90½ Part–III : General Studies : (Q. 61 to Q. 90)
¼ek=kRed ;ksX;rk % 10 iz'u] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk % 10 iz'u] (Quantitative Aptitude : 10 Q, Reasoning
lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku % 10 iz'u½ Ability : 10 Q, G. K. & Awareness : 10 Q)
Hkkx&IV % foKku ¼ç0 91 ls ç0 150½ Part–IV : Science (Q. 91 to Q. 150)

uksV % Ñi;k bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funsZ'kksa dks i<+Aas (Please read other remaining instructions given on the last page of this booklet.)

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FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy,

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[3] [A]
Hkkx – I / PART – I
cky fodkl o f'k{kk'kkL= / CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk FkkWuZMkbd }kjk 1. Which of the following is not the
izfrikfnr lh[kus dk izeq[k fu;e ugha gS \ main law of learning as prescribed
by Thorndike ?
(1) vH;kl dk fu;e (1) Law of Exercise
(2) izHkko dk fu;e (2) Law of Effect
(3) rRijrk dk fu;e (3) Law of Readiness
(4) lkekU;hdj.k dk fu;e (4) Law of Generalization

2. ^laosxkRed cqf)* 'kCn dks loZizFke fdlus 2. Who first introduced the word
izLrqr fd;k \ 'Emotional Intelligence' ?
(1) ÝsMfjd ,oa fddZ (1) Fredrick and Kirk
(2) gsujh ,oa ihVj (2) Henry and Peter
(3) tkWu ,oa ØkWucSd (3) John and Cronback
(4) es;j ,oa lykssos (4) Mayer and Salovey

3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk mikxe vf/kxe 3. Which of the following approach is

v;ksX; ckydksa ds O;ogkj dk fo'ys"k.k dj based on analysing the behaviour of
mudh vf/kxe U;wurk ds ewy dkj.kksa ds disabled child and find out the root
tkuus ds iz;kl ij vk/kkfjr gS \ cause of his/her learning deficiency ?
(1) euksfo'ys"k.kkRed mikxe (1) Psychoanalytic approach
(2) Behavioural approach
(2) O;ogkjoknh mikxe
(3) Individualized instructional
(3) oS;fDrd vuqns'kukRed mikxe approach
(4) cgqbUnzh; mikxe (4) Multisensory approach

4. ^yqIr vf/kxe* laizR;; dks loZizFke fdlus 4. Who first introduced the concept of
ifjfpr djk;k \ "Latent Learning" ?
(1) dqVZ ysfou (1) Kurt Lewin
(2) bZ0 ,y0 FkkWuZMkbd (2) E. L. Thorndike
(3) ,MoMZ psl VkWyeSu (3) Edward Chace Tolman
(4) ikoykso (4) Pavlov
Level-2/8111 P. T. O.

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[A] [4]
5. ^izdk;Zokn* ds izeq[k izorZd dkSu Fks \ 5. Who was the main propounder of
'functionalism' ?
(1) fofy;e tsEl (1) William James
(2) ts0 ch0 okV~lu (2) J. B. Watson
(3) DykdZ gy (3) Clark Hull
(4) ,MoMZ VkWyeSu (4) Edward Tolman
6. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk tUetkr 6. Which of the following is example
vfHkizsjd dk mnkgj.k gS \ of Innate Motive ?
(1) iqjLdkj (2) Hkw[k (1) Award (2) Hunger
(3) n.M (4) izksRlkgu (3) Punishment (4) Incentives
7. ckyd ds 'kjhj eas gksus okys ySafxd 7. In which stage of development, the
ifjorZu] fodkl dh dkSu&lh voLFkk esa sexual changes that occur in the
fn[kkbZ nsuk izkjEHk gks tkrs gSa \ child's body starts to appear ?
(1) iwoZ ckY;koLFkk (1) Early childhood
(2) i'p fd'kksjkoLFkk (2) Later Adolescence
(3) o;LdkoLFkk (3) Adulthood
(4) o;%laf/k dky (4) Puberty
8. Dykfldy vuqcU/ku dk vU; uke D;k 8. What is the other name of classical
gS \ conditioning ?
(1) ^,l* izdkj dk vuqcU/ku (1) Type S conditioning
(2) ^vkj* izdkj dk vuqcU/ku (2) Type R conditioning
(3) ^,l&vkj* izdkj dk vuqcU/ku (3) Type S-R conditioning
(4) ^;w* izdkj dk vuqcU/ku (4) Type U conditioning
9. ßifjJefiz;rk cuke ghurkÞ voLFkk ds 9. What is age group given by Erikson
fy, ,fjDlu us dkSu&lk vk;q lewg crk;k for the stage "industry vs
gS \ inferiority" ?
(1) 6 ls 11 o"kZ (1) 6 to 11 years
(2) 12 ls 20 o"kZ (2) 12 to 20 years
(3) 3 ls 6 o"kZ (3) 3 to 6 years
(4) 18 ekg ls 3 o"kZ (4) 18 months to 3 years
10. fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu&lk ^fodkl* dk 10. Out of the following which is not
lgh fl)kUr ugha gS \ correct principle of 'Development' ?
(1) lkarR; dk fl)kUr (1) Principle of continuity
(2) oS;fDrd fHkUurk dk fl)kUr (2) Principle of individual difference
(3) iSVuZ dh ,d:irk dk fl)kUr (3) Principle of uniformity of pattern
(4) fof'k"V ls lkekU; izfrfØ;kvksa dh (4) Principle of proceeding from
dk;Zokgh dk fl)kUr specific to general responses
Level-2/8111

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[5] [A]
11. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ^euksfoKku dk 11. Which of the 'thoughts of school' in
laiznk;* ¼fopkj½ ^CySd ckWDl F;ksjh* ds Psychology is also called as 'Black
uke ls tkuk tkrk gS \ box theory' ?
(1) O;ogkjokn (1) Behaviourism
(2) lajpukokn (2) Structuralism
(3) izdk;Zokn (3) Functionalism
(4) xsLVkYVokn (4) Gestaltism
12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk vPNs ekufld 12. Which of the following is not the
LokLF; dk y{k.k ugha gS \ characteristic of Good Mental
Health ?
(1) lek;kstu ;ksX;rk (1) Ability to adjust
(2) laosxkRed ifjiDork (2) Emotional Maturity
(3) vkRefo'okl (3) Self-confidence
(4) vlgu'khyrk (4) Intolerance
13. dSVy laLÑfr eqDr cqf) ijh{k.k dh 13. Scale I in Cattell Culture Free
ekiuh I fdlds fy, cuk;h x;h Fkh \ Intelligence Test was prepared for
whom ?
(1) 8 ls 12 o"kZ ds ekufld nks"k okys (1) For 8 to 12 years mental
O;fDr;ksa ds fy, deficient person
(2) 4 ls 8 o"kZ ds ekufld nks"k okys (2) For 4 to 8 years mental deficient
O;fDr;ksa ds fy, person
(3) 12 ls 15 o"kZ ds ekufld nks"k okys (3) For 12 to 15 years mental
O;fDr;ksa ds fy, deficient person
(4) 2 ls 4 o"kZ ds ekufld nks"k okys (4) For 2 to 4 years mental deficient
O;fDr;ksa ds fy, person
14. fuEufyf[kr eas ls dkSu&lk ^jpukRedrk dh 14. Which of the following is the correct
izfØ;k* ds fy, lgh rkfdZd Øe gS \ logical order for 'process of creativity' ?
(1) varn`Zf"V → rS;kjh → ifjikd → (1) Insight → Preparation →
lR;kiu Incubation → Verification
(2) rS;kjh → varn`Zf"V → ifjikd → (2) Preparation → Insight →
lR;kiu Incubation → Verification
(3) rS;kjh → ifjikd → varn`Zf"V → (3) Preparation → Incubation →
lR;kiu Insight → Verification
(4) rS;kjh → varn`Zf"V → lR;kiu → (4) Preparation → Insight →
ifjikd Verification → Incubation

Level-2/8111 P. T. O.

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[A] [6]
15. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk in fØ;k&izlwr 15. Which of the following terms is not
vuqcU/k ls lacaf/kr ugha gS \ related with the operant conditioning ?
(1) vUrn`Zf"V (1) Insight
(2) iqucZyu (2) Reinforcement
(3) Lor% iquykZHk (3) Spontaneous Recovery
(4) foyksiu (4) Extinction
16. os cPps tks fofHkUu izdkj dh vf/kxe 16. Who introduces 'Learning Disable'
leL;kvksa ls xzflr jgrs gSa] muds fy, word very first for the children
^vf/kxe v{ke* 'kCn dk iz;ksx loZizFke suffered from various learning
fdlus fd;k \ problems ?
(1) gsokMZ (1) Heward
(2) lSeqvy fddZ (2) Samuel Kirk
(3) oSu fjij (3) Van Riper
(4) cdZ (4) Birch
17. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk euksoSKkfud 17. Which of the following Psychologist
ßvkRek ds foKku ds :i eas euksfoKkuÞ is not supporter of views about
fopkj/kkjk dk leFkZd ugha gS \ "Psychology as a Science of Soul" ?
(1) IysVks (1) Plato
(2) vjLrw (2) Aristotle
(3) MsdkVsZ (3) Descartes
(4) oq.V (4) Wundt
18. euksfoKku dh dkSu&lh 'kk[kk esa VsyhiSFkh] 18. In which branch of Psychology there
iqutZUe tSls {ks=kas dk v/;;u fd;k tkrk is a scope of study of Telepathy,
gS \ Rebirth etc. ?
(1) nSfgd euksfoKku (1) Physiological Psychology
(2) uSnkfud euksfoKku (2) Clinical Psychology
(3) vrhfUnz; euksfoKku (3) Parapsychology
(4) fodklkRed euksfoKku (4) Developmental Psychology
19. thu fi;kts ds vuqlkj ckyd dkSu&lh 19. According to Jean Piaget in which
voLFkk esa ifjdYiukvksa dks le>us dh stage child is able to understand
rFkk rkfdZd okD;ksa ds vk/kkj ij fopkj Hypothesis and getting thinking
djus dh ;ksX;rk izkIr dj ysrk gS \ ability on the basis of logical
statement ?
(1) 0 ls 2 o"kZ (2) 2 ls 6 o"kZ (1) 0 to 2 years (2) 2 to 6 years
(3) 6 ls 11 o"kZ (4) 11 ls 15 o"kZ (3) 6 to 11 years (4) 11 to 15 years
Level-2/8111

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[7] [A]
20. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk euksfoKku ekuo 20. Which of the following Psychology
ds fpUru] Le`fr] Hkk"kk] izR;{khdj.k bR;kfn studies about man's thinking,
dk v/;;u djrk gS \ memory, language, perception etc. ?
(1) ekuorkoknh euksfoKku (1) Humanist Psychology
(2) laKkukRed euksfoKku (2) Cognitive Psychology
(3) vlkekU; euksfoKku (3) Abnormal Psychology
(4) uSnkfud euksfoKku (4) Clinical Psychology
21. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk O;fDrRo dk 21. Which of the following is not the
izdkj Øspej }kjk ugha fn;k x;k gS \ type of personality given by
Kretschmer ?
(1) lqMkSydk; (1) Athletic
(2) dykRed (2) Aesthetic
(3) yacdk; (3) Asthenic
(4) xksykdk; (4) Pyknic
22. thu fi;kts ds vuqlkj uSfrd fodkl 22. What is the age group for the moral
voLFkk ßijk;Ùkrk vU;ksU;rkÞ dk vk;q development stage "Heteronomy
lewg D;k gS \ Reciprocity" given by Jean Piaget ?
(1) 0 ls 5 o"kZ (1) 0 to 5 years
(2) 13 ls 18 o"kZ (2) 13 to 18 years
(3) 5 ls 8 o"kZ (3) 5 to 8 years
(4) 11 ls 13 o"kZ (4) 11 to 13 years
23. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk vf/kxe v{ke 23. Which of the following is not the
ckydksa dk y{k.k ugha gS \ characteristic of Learning Disabled
Children ?
(1) izR;{khdj.k izHkkfork (1) Perceptual effectiveness
(2) lkaosfxd vfLFkjrk (2) Emotional instability
(3) vO;ofLFkr vo/kku (3) Disorder of attention
(4) vkosfxrk (4) Impulsivity
24. xaHkhj ekufld eanrk okys ckydksa dh cqf) 24. What is the I.Q. Range of severe
yfC/k D;k gksrh gS \ mental retarded child ?
(1) 50 ls 60 (1) 50 to 60
(2) 36 ls 51 (2) 36 to 51
(3) 20 ls 35 (3) 20 to 35
(4) 20 ls uhps (4) below 20
Level-2/8111 P. T. O.

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[A] [8]
25. fodkl dh dkSu&lh voLFkk esa leku 25. In which stage of development,
fyafx;ksa ds lkFk #fp@fe=rk fodflr gksrh interest/friendship develops towards
gS \ same sexual groups ?
(1) 12 ls 14 o"kZ (2) 15 ls 18 o"kZ (1) 12 to 14 years (2) 15 to 18 years
(3) 10 ls 12 o"kZ (4) 19 ls 21 o"kZ (3) 10 to 12 years (4) 19 to 21 years
26. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ;FkkFkZoknh 26. Which of the following is not the
fpUru dk izdkj ugha gS \ type of Realistic thinking ?
(1) vfHklkjh fpUru (1) Convergent thinking
(2) l`tukRed fpUru (2) Creative thinking
(3) vkykspukRed fpUru (3) Evaluative thinking
(4) Loyhu fpUru (4) Autistic thinking

27. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk euksoSKkfud 27. Out of the following which
^ekuorkoknh euksfoKku* dk leFkZd ugha psychologist was not supporter of
gS \ 'Humanist Psychology' ?
(1) Ýk;M (2) eSLyks (1) Freud (2) Maslow
(3) jkstlZ (4) vkFkZj dkSEc~l (3) Rogers (4) Arthur Combs
28. ^lajpukokn* ds izorZd dkSu Fks \ 28. Who was the propounder of
'structuralism' ?
(1) fofy;e tsEl (1) William James
(2) fofy;e osLV (2) William West
(3) foYgse oq.V (3) Wilhelm Wundt
(4) foYgse g.V (4) Wilhelm Hunt
29. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk rÙo ^vfHkizsj.kk 29. Which of the following component
pØ* ls lacaf/kr ugha gS \ is not related with the 'Motivation
Cycle' ?
(1) vko';drk (2) vUruksZn (1) Need (2) Drive
(3) laosx (4) izksRlkgu (3) Emotion (4) Incentive
30. ^Hk; dk laosx* fdl ewy izo`fÙk ls tqM+k 30. The 'emotion of fear' associated with
gqvk gS \ which basic instinct ?
(1) izfrd"kZ.k (1) Repulsion
(2) ;q;qRlk (2) Pugnacity
(3) 'kj.kkxr (3) Appeal
(4) iyk;u (4) Escape

Level-2/8111

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[9] [A]
Hkkx – II / PART – II
Hkk"kk ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ / LANGUAGES (HINDI & ENGLISH)
[ fgUnh / HINDI ]
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
31. fdl okD; eas laca/klwpd vO;; dk iz;ksx 35. xyr lekl foxzg pqfu, %
gqvk gS \ (1) nwj ds fy, n'kZu ¾ nwjn'kZu
(1) jk/kk Åij ukprh gSA (2) nwj ls vkxr ¾ nwjkxr
(2) vfurk jk/kk ls e/kqj xkrh gSA (3) ikB ds fy, 'kkyk ¾ ikB'kkyk
(3) jke cgqr rst+ py jgk FkkA (4) lHkk ds fy, e.Mi ¾ lHkke.Mi
(4) eksgu vktdy T+;knk cksyrk gSA
36. uke/kkrq fØ;k ugha gS %
32. ^vd* izR;; ;qDr in ugha gS %
(1) yfr;kuk
(1) fo/kk;d
(2) ltkuk
(2) izsjd
(3) >qBykuk
(3) fuand
(4) xfy;kuk
(4) yM+kd
37. o.kksZPpkj.k dh n`f"V ls csesy pqfu, %
33. fdl fodYi eas fuR; iqafYyax laKk gS \
(1) vks] vkS & daBks"B
(1) [kjxks'k
(2) o] Qð & nUrks"B
(2) fxygjh
(3) n] /k & rkyq
(3) cVsj
(4) B] M & ew/kkZ
(4) dks;y
38. fdl fodYi eas ^vuq* milxZ dk iz;ksx ugha
34. lekl foxzg dh n`f"V ls vuqfpr fodYi
gqvk gS \
pqfu, %
(1) vuqLokj
(1) ekr`HkfDr ¾ ekrk ds fy, HkfDr
(2) okXohj ¾ okd~ ¼ok.kh½ esa ohj (2) vuq"kax
(3) bfUnz;t; ¾ bfUnz;ksa ds fy, t; (3) vuqnkj
(4) thon;k ¾ thoksa ij n;k (4) vuq'kkfLr
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39. okrZfud n`f"V ls v'kq) 'kCn pqfu, % 43. laf/k foPNsn dh n`f"V ls vlaxr pqfu, %
(1) frjiu (1) Qf.k $ bUnz ¾ Q.khUnz
(2) vtekb'k (2) lq/kh $ bUnz ¾ lq/khUnz
(3) vUR;k{kjh (3) vfHk $ b"V ¾ vHkh"V
(4) fNidyh (4) jtuh $ bZ'k ¾ jtuh'k
40. vfu'p;okpd loZuke okyk okD; pqfu, % 44. ßVgyuk LokLF; ds fy, ykHkdkjh gSAÞ
okD; eas iz;qDr fØ;k gS %
(1) eSa dqN iqLrdsa yk;k gw¡] bUgsa rqe j[k
yksA (1) izsj.kkFkZd fØ;k
(2) nky eas dqN dkyk gSA (2) la;qDr fØ;k
(3) dsoy ogh rqEgkjh iz'kalk dj ldrk (3) jatd fØ;k
gSA
(4) fØ;kFkZd laKk
(4) og pkgrk gS fd rqe lnSo vkxs c<+ksA
45. izR;; dh n`f"V ls vlaxr fodYi pqfu, %
41. ^lq* milxZ&jfgr in pqfu, %
(1) gFk $ vkSM+h ¾ gFkkSM+h
(1) lq"kqfIr
(2) v.kq $ bd ¾ vk.kfod
(2) LoLFk
(3) lk¡i $ vksyk ¾ l¡iksyk
(3) LoYi
(4) Hkk¡x $ ,M+h ¾ Hk¡xsM+h
(4) lkS"Bo
42. fdl 'kCn eas O;atu lfU/k dk iz;ksx gqvk
gS \
(1) okxh'oj
(2) /kkrw"ek
(3) v/ke.kZ
(4) iw.kksZiek

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[ 11 ] [A]
[ vaxzsth / ENGLISH ]
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

46. Choose the part of the sentence 50. Choose the correct tense form :
which is incorrect :
Nanny died last week. She .........
His new film is really worth
from cancer for some time. (suffer)
a b c
to be seen. (1) suffering
d
(1) a (2) b (2) is suffering
(3) c (4) d (3) had been suffering
47. Select the appropriate modal for the (4) suffers
expression given :
When ........ we expect you ? 51. Select the appropriate modal for the
(possibility) expression given :
(1) may (2) will
If you do that again you ........ be
(3) have to (4) dare punished. (threat)

48. Select the correct option (phrasal (1) may

verb) for the underlined word :
(2) shall
Most of the patients respect Dr. John
(3) can
for his kindness.
(1) pay back (2) zest for (4) ought

(3) make over (4) look up to 52. Choose the correct option for the
49. Choose the correct meaning of the following :
underlined words : An instrument for detecting
The baby monkeys ran every which earthquakes is :
way.
(1) A Fathometer
(1) up
(2) Lithoscope
(2) straight
(3) in different directions (3) A Seismograph

(4) down (4) Cardiograph

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53. Choose the correct meaning of the 57. Choose the correct tense form :
underlined words :
My car ........ for the third time since
It's a pity you don’t like football. But I got it. (break down)
each to their own.
(1) break down
(1) everyone has different opinions
(2) has broken down
(2) everyone has similar opinions
(3) each and all are same (3) was broke down
(4) each one likes football (4) has broken

54. Choose the correct option to fill the 58. Choose the part of the sentence
blank : which is incorrect :
Immediately after the operation he James is busy to prepare
could see nothing ......... vague a b c
shadows. tonight's dinner.
(1) as long as d

(2) however (1) a (2) b

(3) but (3) c (4) d
(4) notwithstanding
59. Choose the correct option to fill the
blank :
55. Select the correct option (phrasal
verb) for the underlined word : The room was empty ....... for a chair
I don't know how we are going to in the corner.
cope with the cold during winters.
(1) except
(1) make up for
(2) and
(2) put up with
(3) put down (3) between
(4) set up (4) behind
56. Select appropriate preposition to fill 60. Select appropriate preposition to fill
in the blank : in the blank :
They walked ........... the footpath The programme was broadcasted ......
until they came to a bridge. the world.
(1) into (2) since (1) in (2) off
(3) along (4) in (3) onto (4) across

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[ 13 ] [A]
Hkkx – III / PART – III
lkekU; v/;;u / GENERAL STUDIES
[ ek=kRed ;ksX;rk] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk rFkk lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku / QUANTITATIVE
APTITUDE, REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS ]
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
61. ik¡p O;fDr;ksa P, Q, R, S vkSj T es]a T, R 61. Among five persons P, Q, R, S and
vkSj S ls NksVk gSA Q, T ftruk yEck T, T is shorter than R and S. Q is not
ugha gS] ysfdu ,d O;fDr ls yEck gSA R as tall as T but taller than one
,d O;fDr ls NksVk gSA buesa ls dkSu lcls person. R is shorter than one person.
yEck gS \ Who among them is the tallest ?
(1) R (2) Q (1) R (2) Q
(3) S (4) P (3) S (4) P
62. rhu la[;k,¡ 2 : 3 : 4 ds vuqikr esa gSaA 62. Three numbers are in the ratio 2 : 3 : 4.
muds ?kuksa dk ;ksx 33957 gks] rks la[;k,¡ The sum of their cubes is 33957,
gSa % then the numbers are :
(1) 14, 21, 28 (2) 12, 18, 24 (1) 14, 21, 28 (2) 12, 18, 24
(3) 8, 12, 16 (4) 4, 6, 8 (3) 8, 12, 16 (4) 4, 6, 8
63. A, X dk firk gS( B, Y dh ekrk gSA X 63. A is father of X; B is mother of Y.
vkSj Z dh cgu Y gSA fuEu esa ls The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of
dkSu&lk dFku vko';d :i ls lR; ugha the following statement is
gS \ necessarily not true ?
(1) B, Z dh ekrk gSA (1) B is the mother of Z.
(2) X, Z dh cgu gSA (2) X is the sister of Z.
(3) B, A dh iRuh gSA (3) B is the wife of A.
(4) Y, A dk iq= gSA (4) Y is the son of A.

64. ,d O;fDr iwoZ dh vksj 1 fdeh pyrk gS] 64. A person walks 1 km towards East
fQj og nf{k.k fn'kk esa eqM+dj 5 fdeh and then he turns to South and walks
pyrk gSA fQj og iwoZ fn'kk eas eqM+dj 2 5 km. Again he turns to East and
fdeh pyrk gS] mlds ckn og mÙkj fn'kk walks 2 km, after this he turns to
esa eqM+dj 9 fdeh pyrk gSA vc og North and walks 9 km. Now, how far
izkjfEHkd fcUnq ls fdruh nwj [kM+k gS \ is he from his starting point ?
(1) 4 fdeh (2) 5 fdeh (1) 4 km (2) 5 km
(3) 7 fdeh (4) 9 fdeh (3) 7 km (4) 9 km
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65. fuEu o.kZ Js.kh esa vxyk in Kkr dhft, % 65. Find the next term of the following
letter series :
DHL, PTX, BFJ, ..... DHL, PTX, BFJ, .....
(1) CGK (2) KOS (1) CGK (2) KOS
(3) NRV (4) OVZ (3) NRV (4) OVZ

66. 12 iq#"k ,d dk;Z dks iw.kZ djus eas 18 66. 12 men take 18 days to complete a
fnu ysrs gSa tcfd 12 fL=;k¡ mlh dk;Z ds job whereas 12 women in 18 days
3 3
Hkkx dks 18 fnu eas iw.kZ djrh gSaA mlh can complete part of the same job.
4 4
dk;Z dks 10 iq#"k rFkk 8 fL=;k¡ lkFk&lkFk How many days will 10 men and 8
women together take to complete the
dk;Z djrs gq, fdrus fnuksa eas iw.kZ djsaxs \ same job ?
1 1
(1) 6 (2) 7 (1) 6 (2) 7
2 2
1 1
(3) 13 (4) 14 (3) 13 (4) 14
2 2
67. ,d xksys dh f=T;k ds nqxquh gksus ij mlds 67. The radius of a sphere is doubled.
vk;ru esa fdrus izfr'kr o`f) gksxh \ What percent of its volume is
increased ?
(1) 200% (2) 450% (1) 200% (2) 450%
(3) 550% (4) 700% (3) 550% (4) 700%
68. ,d O;kikjh ,d oLrq dks ` 24 esa csprk gS 68. A dealer sells an article for ` 24 and
rFkk oLrq ds ewY; ds cjkcj izfr'kr ykHk gains as much percent as the price of
dekrk gS] rks oLrq dk ykxr ewY; gS % the article, then the cost price of the
article is :
(1) ` 15 (2) ` 17 (1) ` 15 (2) ` 17
(3) ` 18 (4) ` 20 (3) ` 18 (4) ` 20
69. 15 O;fDr;ksa ds ,d lewg eas] 7 fgUnh 69. In a group of 15 people, 7 read
i<+rs gSa] 8 vaxzsth i<+rs gSa vkSj 3 dksbZ Hkh Hindi, 8 read English and 3 read
Hkk"kk ugha i<+rs gSaA fdrus O;fDr fgUnh none of these language. How many
vkSj vaxzsth nksukas i<+rs gSa \ people read Hindi and English both ?
(1) 0 (2) 3 (1) 0 (2) 3
(3) 4 (4) 5 (3) 4 (4) 5

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[ 15 ] [A]
70. ;fn p rFkk q ifjes; la[;k,¡ gSa rFkk 70. If p and q are rational numbers and
3+ 5 3+ 5
= p + q 5, rks p rFkk q ds = p + q 5 , then value of p
3− 5 3− 5
eku gSa % and q are :
2 3 7 2 2 3 7 2
(1) p = ; q = (2) p = ; q = (1) p = ; q = (2) p = ; q =
7 2 2 7 7 2 2 7
7 3 7 7 7 3 7 7
(3) p = ; q = (4) p = ; q = (3) p = ; q = (4) p = ; q =
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2

71. ;fn ,d fuf'pr jkf'k dk 3% izfro"kZ C;kt 71. If the compound interest on a certain
nj ls nks o"kks± dk pØo`f) C;kt sum for two years at 3% p.a. be
` 101.50 gks] rks mlh jkf'k dk leku ` 101.50, then what would be the
simple interest on the same sum for
le; ds fy, ljy C;kt fdruk gksxk \ same period ?
(1) ` 50 (2) ` 100 (1) ` 50 (2) ` 100
(3) ` 125 (4) ` 147 (3) ` 125 (4) ` 147
72. fuEu o.kZ Js.kh eas yqIr in Kkr dhft, % 72. Find the missing term of the
following letter series :
A, CD, GHI, ? , UVWXY
A, CD, GHI, ? , UVWXY
(1) LMNO (2) MNO (1) LMNO (2) MNO
(3) MNOP (4) NOPQ (3) MNOP (4) NOPQ
73. ,d prqHkqZt dk ,d dks.k 108° rFkk 'ks"k 73. One angle of a quadrilateral is 108°
rhuksa dks.k cjkcj gSaA rhu cjkcj dks.kksa eas and the remaining three angles are
izR;sd dk eku Kkr dhft, % equal. Find each of the three equal
angles :
(1) 63° (2) 74° (1) 63° (2) 74°
(3) 84° (4) 96° (3) 84° (4) 96°
74. vfer] izdk'k ds if'pe esa gS vkSj lqfer 74. Amit is west to Prakash and North to
ds mÙkj esa gSA r#.k] lqfer ds iwoZ dh Sumit. Tarun is in East of Sumit.
vksj gSA r#.k] vfer ds lanHkZ ls fdl Tarun is in which direction with
fn'kk esa gS \ reference to Amit ?
(1) mÙkj-if'pe (1) North-West
(2) nf{k.k (2) South
(3) nf{k.k-iwoZ (3) South-East
(4) mÙkj (4) North

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[A] [ 16 ]
75. ;fn DRIVER = 12, PEDESTRIAN = 75. If DRIVER = 12, PEDESTRIAN =
20, ACCIDENT = 16, rks CAR = ? 20, ACCIDENT = 16, then CAR = ?
(1) 3 (2) 6 (1) 3 (2) 6
(3) 8 (4) 16 (3) 8 (4) 16
76. fuEu Js.kh esa xyr la[;k Kkr dhft, % 76. Find the wrong number in the
following series :
69, 55, 26, 13, 5
69, 55, 26, 13, 5
(1) 5 (2) 13 (1) 5 (2) 13
(3) 26 (4) 55 (3) 26 (4) 55
77. ;fn
x
2 =4 =8
y z
rFkk x y z
77. If 2 = 4 = 8 and
1 1 1
+ + = 4,
1 1 1 2x 4 y 4z
+ + = 4, rks x dk eku gS % then the value of x is :
2x 4 y 4z
7 7
7 7 (1) (2)
(1) (2) 16 17
16 17
7 7
7 7 (3) (4)
(3) (4) 19 23
19 23
78. 80 fdeh ;k=k eas ,d jsyxkM+h izFke 60 78. In a journey of 80 kms a train covers the
fdeh] 40 fdeh izfr ?kaVk rFkk 'ks"k nwjh 20 first 60 kms at 40 km/hr. and the
fdeh izfr ?kaVk dh xfr ls pyrh gSA lEiw.kZ remaining distance at 20 km/hr. The
;k=k dh vkSlr pky gS % average speed for the whole journey is :
(1) 24 fdeh izfr ?kaVk (2) 30 fdeh izfr ?kaVk (1) 24 km/hr. (2) 30 km/hr.
(3) 32 fdeh izfr ?kaVk (4) 36 fdeh izfr ?kaVk (3) 32 km/hr. (4) 36 km/hr.
79. 30 eh yEcs rj.krky ds ,d fljs ij ikuh 79. A swimming pool, 30 m long has a
dh xgjkbZ 0.80 eh rFkk nwljs fljs ij depth of water 0.80 m at one end and
2.4 eh gSA rj.krky dh yEckbZ ds vuqfn'k 2.4 m at the other end. The area of
the vertical cross-section of the pool
Å/okZ/kj dkV ifjPNsn dk {ks=Qy gS % along the length is :
2 2
(1) 48 eh (2) 72 eh (1) 48 m
2
(2) 72 m
2
2 2 2 2
(3) 156 eh (4) 192 eh (3) 156 m (4) 192 m
80. ,d iafDr eas vfuy ck;sa Nksj ls 16osa 80. Anil is standing at 16th position
LFkku ij [kM+k gSA fodkl nk;sa Nksj ls from the left end in a row. Vikas is at
18osa LFkku ij gSA xksiky vfuy ls nk;ha 18th position from the right end.
Gopal is 11th from Anil towards the
vksj 11osa LFkku ij gS] vkSj fodkl ls right and 3rd from Vikas towards the
nk;ha Nksj dh vksj rhljs LFkku ij gSA bl right end. How many persons are
iafDr eas fdrus O;fDr [kM+s gq, gSa \ standing in this row ?
(1) 41 (2) 42 (1) 41 (2) 42
(3) 48 (4) 49 (3) 48 (4) 49
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[ 17 ] [A]
81. fuEufyf[kr esa ls gkQsM (HAFED) ds 81. Which of the following are true
ckjs eas dkSu&lk lgh gS \ about the functions of HAFED ?
(i) ;g Ñf"k mRiknkas dk laxzg djrk gSA (i) It procures agriculture products.
(ii) ;g Ñf"k mRiknkas dk foi.ku djrk gSA (ii) It markets agriculture products.
(iii) ;g Ñf"k vknkuksa dh iwfrZ djrk gSA (iii) It supplies agriculture inputs.
lgh dwV dk p;u dhft, % Choose the correct code :
(1) (i) vkSj (ii) (1) (i) and (ii)
(2) dsoy (i) (2) only (i)
(3) (i) vkSj (iii) (3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii) vkSj (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
82. gfj;k.kk esa dgk¡ ^uxj&ou* fodflr fd;k 82. Where in Haryana 'City-forest' is
tk jgk gS \ being developed ?
(1) eqjFky (2) lksguk (1) Murthal (2) Sohna
(3) ;equkuxj (4) gk¡lh (3) Yamunanagar (4) Hansi
83. ^,;j 'kVy lsok* dh 'kq#vkr gfj;k.kk ds 83. 'Air Shuttle Service' has been started
fdl 'kgj esa dh xbZ gS \ from which city of Haryana ?
(1) fglkj (2) djuky (1) Hisar (2) Karnal
(3) jksgrd (4) vEckyk (3) Rohtak (4) Ambala
84. ^gfj;k.kk lkfgR; vdkneh* ds v/;{k gSa % 84. The President of 'Haryana Sahitya
(1) MkW0 dqeqn caly Academy' is :
(1) Dr. Kumud Bansal
(2) Jh euksgj yky (2) Sh. Manohar Lal
(3) MkW0 v'kksd c=k (3) Dr. Ashok Batra
(4) Jh jk.kk vkscjk; (4) Sh. Rana Oberoi
85. feUVh vxzoky ds ckjs esa fuEukafdr dFkuksa 85. Consider the following statements
ij fopkj dhft, % about Minty Agarwal :
¼v½ gfj;k.kk dh ewy fuoklh feUVh vxzoky (a) Minty Agarwal, a native of
Hkkjrh; ok;q lsuk eas LDokMªu yhMj Haryana, is a Squadron Leader
gSaA in Indian Air Force.
¼c½ og ;q) lsok esMy izkIr djus okyh (b) She is the first woman, who
igyh efgyk gSaA received Yudha Seva Medal.
lgh mÙkj pqus % Choose the correct answer :
(1) dFku ¼v½ lgh gS (1) Statement (a) is true
(2) dFku ¼c½ lgh gS (2) Statement (b) is true
(3) ¼v½ vkSj ¼c½ nksuksa xyr gSa (3) Both (a) and (b) are false
(4) ¼v½ vkSj ¼c½ nksuksa lgh gSa (4) Both (a) and (b) are true

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[A] [ 18 ]

86. izkphu Hkokuh vack ekrk efUnj vofLFkr 86. Ancient Bhawani Amba Mata temple
gS % is situated in :
(1) than esa (2) vEckyk esa (1) Jind (2) Ambala
(3) lksuhir esa (4) dq#{ks= eas (3) Sonipat (4) Kurukshetra
87. tuojh 2020 eas] v/kksfyf[kr eas ls 87. In January 2020, which of the
dkSu&lh uxjikfydk dks uxj ifj"kn ds following Nagar Palika was raised to
Lrj ij ØeksUur fd;k x;k \ the status of Nagar Parishad
(Municipal Council) ?
(1) jfu;k (2) >Ttj (1) Rania (2) Jhajjar
(3) csjh (4) fljlh (3) Beri (4) Sirsi

88. 1857 ds fonzksg ds le; >Ttj dk uokc 88. Who was the Nawab of Jhajjar
dkSu Fkk \ during the uprising of 1857 ?
(1) vCnqjZgeku [kk¡ (1) Abd-ur Rahman Khan
(2) uokc 'kelqíhu (2) Nawab Shamsuddin
(3) ln#íhu (3) Sadruddin
(4) fclkjr vyh (4) Bisarat Ali

89. v'kksd ds Vksijk vfHkys[k dk ewy izkfIr 89. The original founding place of
LFkku vofLFkr gS % Topara Inscription of Ashoka is
located in :
(1) vEckyk ftys eas (1) Ambala district
(2) ;equkuxj ftys eas (2) Yamunanagar district
(3) dq#{ks= ftys eas (3) Kurukshetra district
(4) dSFky ftys eas (4) Kaithal district

90. egsUnzx<+ ftys ls cgus okyh ufn;ksa dks 90. Identify the rivers, which flows from
igpkfu;s % Mahendragarh district :
(i) vacqefr (ii) nksgu (i) Ambumati (ii) Dohan
(iii) dlkoVh (iv) bUnkSjh (iii) Kasavati (iv) Indori
lgh dwV dk p;u dhft, % Choose the correct code :
(1) (i) vkSj (iii) (1) (i) and (iii)
(2) (ii) vkSj (iii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i), (iii) vkSj (iv) (3) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) vkSj (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

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[ 19 ] [A]
Hkkx – IV / PART – IV
foKku / SCIENCE
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

91. ,d ,Uth;ksLieZ esa ^eqDr dsUædh; foHkktu* 91. In an angiosperm the 'free nuclear
fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds cuus ds nkSjku division' takes place during the
gksrk gS \ formation of which of the following ?
(1) ;qXed (2) iq"i (1) Gametes (2) Flower
(3) Hkzw.kiks"k (4) Hkzw.k (3) Endosperm (4) Embryo

92. fuEufyf[kr ;kSfxd dk IUPAC uke gS % 92. The IUPAC name of following
compound is :
CH 3 − C − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − C − OH CH 3 − C − CH 2 − CH 2 − CH 2 − C − OH
|| || || ||
O O O O
(1) 6-dkcksZDlh gsDlsu-2-vksu (1) 6-carboxy hexan-2-one
(2) 5-vkWDlks gsDlsuksbd vEy (2) 5-oxohexanoic acid
(3) C;wfVy esfFky dhVksu (3) Butyl methyl ketone
(4) 1, 5-MkbZdhVks gsDlsukWy (4) 1, 5-diketohexanol

93. DNA ij vk/kkfjr ofxZdh; v/;;u Hkkx 93. Taxonomic studies based on DNA
gSa % are part of :
(1) dsUæd ofxZdh dk (1) Karyo taxonomy
(2) jlk;u ofxZdh dk (2) Chemo taxonomy
(3) dksf'kdk ofxZdh dk (3) Cyto taxonomy
(4) ,YQk ofxZdh dk (4) Alpha taxonomy

94. /kku ds [ksrksa esa ç;qDr ,d tSo moZjd gS % 94. A biofertilizer used in paddy fields is :
(1) ,tksyk fiUukVk (1) Azolla pinnata
(2) cSflyl Fkwfjatus fll (2) Bacillus thuringiensis
(3) jkbtksfc;e esfyyksVkb (3) Rhizobium meliloti
(4) FkeZl ,DokfVDl (4) Thermus aquaticus

95. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlds cgqydhdj.k ls 95. Neoprene is prepared by polymerization

fu;ksfçu cuk;k tkrk gS \ of which of the following ?
(1) 2-Dyksjks-1,3-C;wVkMkbZu (1) 2-chloro-1,3-butadiene
(2) 2-esfFky-1,3-C;wVkMkbZu (2) 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene
(3) 1, 3-C;wVkMkbZu (3) 1, 3-butadiene
(4) ,ØkbZyksukbfVªy (4) Acrylonitrile

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96. ,d ikni ftldk thuksVkbi AABbCC gS] 96. How many different kinds of gametes
esa fHkUu çdkj ds fdrus ;qXed cusaxs \ will be produced by a plant having
the genotype AABbCC ?
(1) rhu (2) pkj (1) Three (2) Four
(3) ukS (4) nks (3) Nine (4) Two

97. fo|qr pqEcdh; rjaxksa dh çÑfr vuqçLFk 97. Electromagnetic waves are
gksrh gS] ;g fl) fd;k tk ldrk gS % transverse in nature is evident by :
(1) ijkorZu ls (2) /kzqo.k ls (1) Reflection (2) Polarization
(3) O;frdj.k ls (4) foorZu ls (3) Interference (4) Diffraction

98. N 2 ( g ) + 3H 2 ( g ) º 2 NH 3 ( g ) 98. For the reaction N2 (g) +

∆H = − ve vfHkfØ;k ds fy, % 3H 2 ( g ) º 2 NH 3 ( g ) ∆H = − ve :
−2 (1) K p = K c ( RT ) −2
(1) K p = K c ( RT )
(2) K p = K c (2) K p = K c
(3) K p = K c RT (3) K p = K c RT
(4) K p = K c ( RT ) −1 (4) K p = K c ( RT ) −1

99. ;fn fdlh vfHkfØ;k dk osx fLFkjkad 99. If the rate constant for some reaction
k = 3 × 10 −4 L mol −1s −1 gS] rc bldh is k = 3 × 10 −4 L mol −1s −1 , then its
dksfV gS % order is :
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
100. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh ftad dh 100. Which of the following is carbonate
dkcksZusV v;Ld gS \ ore of zinc ?
(1) ftad CysaM (2) dSykekbu (1) Zinc blende (2) Calamine
(3) ftadkbV (4) LQsysjkbV (3) Zincite (4) Sphalerite

101. dksf'kdk] thou dh lajpukRed ,oa 101. The structural and functional unit of
dk;kZRed bdkbZ dh [kkst dh Fkh % life, the cell, was discovered by :
(1) jkWcVZ dkWp us (1) Robert Koch
(2) jkWcVZ gqd us (2) Robert Hook
(3) pkYlZ MkfoZu us (3) Charles Darwin
(4) jkWcVZ ckW;y us (4) Robert Boyle
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102. fuEufyf[kr dkSu-lk v.kq dkcZu ds fy, 102. Which of the following molecules

ck;sa ls nk;sa sp 3 ] sp 2 ] sp 2 ] sp ladj.k represent the type of hybridization

dk Øe çnf'kZr djrk gS \ sp 3 ] sp 2 ] sp 2 ] sp from left to right
atoms ?
(1) CH ≡ C − C ≡ CH (1) CH ≡ C − C ≡ CH
(2) CH 2 = CH − C ≡ CH (2) CH 2 = CH − C ≡ CH
(3) CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 3 (3) CH 3 − CH = CH − CH 3
(4) CH 3 − CH = CH − CN (4) CH 3 − CH = CH − CN
103. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl foVkfeu dh deh ls 103. Deficiency of which of the following
ç.kk'kh jDrkYirk gksrh gS \ Vitamins causes pernicious anaemia ?
(1) foVkfeu K (2) foVkfeu E (1) Vitamin K (2) Vitamin E
(3) foVkfeu B12 (4) foVkfeu B6 (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin B6
104. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ikni ,d 104. Which of the following plant is a
f}chti=h; gS \ dicot ?
(1) ck¡l (1) Bamboo
(2) dsyk (2) Banana
(3) xsgw¡ (3) Wheat
(4) dkaxzsl ?kkl ¼ikjFkhfu;e½ (4) Congress Grass (Parthenium)
105. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl v.kq dk f}/kzqo 105. Which of the following molecule has
vk?kw.kZ mPpre gS \ highest dipole moment ?
(1) NF3 (2) NH 3 (1) NF3 (2) NH 3
(3) BF3 (4) CCl 4 (3) BF3 (4) CCl 4

106. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk/dkSu-ls vlR; gS/gSa \ 106. Which one of the following is/are
false ?
(A) QkbczksCykLV olke; Ård esa Hkkstu (A) Fibroblasts store food in adipose
laxzg djrs gSaA tissue.
(B) fuly ds d.k df.kdk.kqvksa esa gksrs gSaA (B) Nissl's granules are found in the
granulocytes.
(C) jDr ifV~Vdk.kq] egkHk{kk.kqvksa ¼eSØksQst½ (C) Blood platelets are formed from
ls curs gSAa Macrophages.
(D) lhje Xykscqfyu] ,UVhckWMh dh rjg (D) Serum globulin acts as an
antibody.
dke djrs gSaA Select the correct option :
lgh fodYi pqfu, % (1) A, B and C
(1) A, B ,oe~ C
(2) A, B ,oe~ D (2) A, B and D
(3) A ,oe~ D (3) A and D
(4) A ,oe~ B (4) A and B

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107. ,d ç{ksI; dh {kSfrt ijkl mldh 107. The horizontal range of a projectile
vf/kdre Å¡pkbZ dh 4 3 xquh gSA blds is 4 3 times of its maximum
ç{ksi.k dks.k dk eku D;k gksxk \ height. What will be the value of its
projection angle ?
(1) 45° (2) 60° (1) 45° (2) 60°
(3) 30° (4) 90° (3) 30° (4) 90°

108. ljy vkorZ xfr djrs gq, d.k dk lkE; 108. The acceleration of a particle
fLFkfr ls 3 lse2 h0 dh nwjh ij Roj.k performing simple harmonic motion
12 lseh0/lsd.M gSA bldk vkorZ dky is 12 cm/s2 at a distance of 3 cm
gksxk % from the equilibrium position. Its time
period will be :
(1) 6.28 lsd.M (2) 3.14 lsd.M (1) 6.28 second (2) 3.14 second
(3) 2 lsd.M (4) 5 lsd.M (3) 2 second (4) 5 second

109. ,d lhax okyk xSaMk dgk¡ dh lajf{kr iztkfr 109. One horned Rhinoceros is conserved
gS \ species at :
(1) jktho xk¡/kh jk"Vªh; m|ku (1) Rajiv Gandhi National Park
(2) dkWcsZV m|ku (2) Corbett Park
(3) dkthjaxk jk"Vªh; m|ku (3) Kaziranga National Park
(4) vuk'kh jk"Vªh; m|ku (4) Anashi National Park

110. DyksjksfQy vuqifLFkr gksrk gS % 110. Chlorophyll is absent in :

(1) 'kSokd esa (2) 'kSoky esa (1) Lichen (2) Algae
(3) dod esa (4) czk;ksQkbV~l esa (3) Fungi (4) Bryophytes

111. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk lewg csathu 111. Which of the following group is
oy; esa vkus okys bysDVªkWuLusgh ds fy, meta directing group for incoming
esVk funsZ'khlewg gS \ eletrophile in benzene ring ?
(1) − CHO (2) − NH 2 (1) − CHO (2) − NH 2
(3) − OH (4) − OCH 3 (3) − OH (4) − OCH 3

112. vkFkzksZiksMk ds fuEu esa ls fdl oxZ ds thoksa 112. Which of the following class of
esa nks tksM+h Ük`afxdk ¼,UVhuk½ ,oe~ xzhu Arthropoda have animals with two
XySaM gksrh gSa % pairs of antennae and green glands ?
(1) ØLVsf'k;k (2) dhyksiksMk (1) Crustacea (2) Chilopoda
(3) bUlSDVk ¼dhV½ (4) ,jsfDuMk (3) Insecta (4) Arachnida

113. I;kt esa [kk| laxzg.kh; ikni Hkkx gS % 113. Food storing plant part in onion is :
(1) tM+ (2) ruk (1) Root (2) Stem
(3) ifÙk;k¡ (4) Qy (3) Leaves (4) Fruit
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114. eysfj;k gksrk gS % 114. Malaria is caused by :

(1) IykTeksfM;e ds }kjk (1) Plasmodium
(2) eknk ,suksfQyhl ePNj ds }kjk (2) Female Anopheles mosquito
(3) D;wysDl ePNj ds }kjk (3) Culex mosquito
(4) fo"kk.kq ds }kjk (4) Virus

115. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk dFku ekbVksdkWf.Mª;k ds 115. Which of the following statements
ckjs esa lgh ugha gS \ about mitochondria is not correct ?
(1) lkbVksØkse-c, ETS dk ,dek= ifj/kh; (1) Cytochrome-c is the only
lnL; gSA peripheral member of ETS.
(2) lfDlusV fMgkbMªksftust] ØSCl pØ dk (2) Succinate dehydrogenase is the
f>Yyh vkc) ,atkbe gSA membrane bound enzyme of
Krebs cycle.
(3) ATP flUFksVst }kjk ATP dk la'ys"k.k (3) ATP is synthesized towards
ifjekbVksdkWf.Mª;k vodk'k dh vksj perimitochondrial space side by
gksrk gSA ATP synthetase.
(4) Xykbdksfyfll esa nks ATP dk 'kq) (4) Net gain of ATP is two in
ykHk gksrk gSA glycolysis.

116. ;fn ekuo ds usÝkWu esa gsuys ds ywi 116. If Henle's loops were absent from
vuqifLFkr gksa] rks fuEu esa ls D;k visf{kr mammalian nephron, which of the
gksxk \ following is to be expected ?
(1) ew= vf/kd xk<+k gksxk (1) The urine will be more
concentrated
(2) ew= vf/kd iryk gksxk (2) The urine will be more diluted
(3) ew= fuekZ.k ugha gksxk (3) There will be no urine formation
(4) fufeZr ew= dh ek=k ,oe~ çÑfr esa (4) There will be hardly any change,
eqf'dy ls gh dksbZ ifjorZu gksxk in the quantity or quality of urine
formed

117. dqN cwan vk;ksMhu foy;u feykus ij pkoy 117. The rice water turns blue-black on
dk ikuh uhyk-dkyk gks tkrk gSA ;g bafxr addition of a few drops of iodine
djrk gS % solution. This indicates the presence of :
(1) olk dh mifLFkfr (1) Fats
(2) dksysLVªkWy dh mifLFkfr (2) Cholesterol
(3) tfVy çksVhuksa dh mifLFkfr (3) Complex proteins
(4) LVkpZ dh mifLFkfr (4) Starch

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118. ,d VekVj dh dksf'kdk dk futhZo Hkkx gS] 118. The non living part of a tomato cell
mldk % is its :
(1) DyksjksIykLV (1) Chloroplast
(2) dsUæd (2) Nucleus
(3) dksf'kdk f>Yyh (3) Cell membrane
(4) dksf'kdk fHkfÙk (4) Cell wall

119. 600 Hz vko`fÙk dk ,d /ofu òksr ikuh 119. A source of sound of frequency
esa j[kk gSA /ofu dk ikuh esa osx 1500 600 Hz is placed inside water. The
m/s rFkk gok esa 300 m/s gSA ,d çs{kd speed of sound in water is 1500 m/s
}kjk gok esa çsf{kr /ofu dh vko`fÙk gS % and in air it is 300 m/s. The
frequency of sound recorded by an
observer in air is :
(1) 3000 Hz (2) 1500 Hz (1) 3000 Hz (2) 1500 Hz
(3) 600 Hz (4) 120 Hz (3) 600 Hz (4) 120 Hz

120. eSuxzkso ikniksa dh _.kkRed xq#RokuqorhZ 120. Negative geotropic roots of

tM+s gSa % mangrove plants are :
(1) çokykHk ewysa (1) Coralloid roots
(2) Lokaxhdkjd ewysa (2) Assimilatory roots
(3) vkæZrkxzkgh ewysa (3) Hygroscopic roots
(4) U;wesVksQksj (4) Pneumatophores

121. ,d ljy yksyd dk fdlh xzg ij vkorZ 121. The time period of a simple
dky 5 lsd.M rFkk çHkkoh yEckbZ 5 ehVj pendulum on a planet is 5 seconds
gSA bldh yEckbZ fdruh dj nh tk, dh and the effective length is 5 meters.
og 30 lsd.M esa 20 nksyu djus yx How long should it be made to make
tk, \ 20 oscillation in 30 seconds ?
(1) 1 eh0 (2) 0.90 eh0 (1) 1 m (2) 0.90 m
(3) 0.45 eh0 (4) 2 eh0 (3) 0.45 m (4) 2 m

122. fuEufyf[kr fdl ;qXe dh vkca/k dksfV 122. Which of the following pair has
leku gS \ same bond order ?
(1) N 2 , Cl2 (1) N 2 , Cl2
(2) O22 + , F2 (2) O22 + , F2
(3) NO + , CO (3) NO + , CO
(4) O2 , N 2 (4) O2 , N 2
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123. z = 120 okys rÙo dk LFkku vkorZ lkj.kh 123. The element z = 120 would be
ds fdl ifjokj esa gksuk pkfg, \ placed in which family of periodic
table :
(1) gSykstu ifjokj (1) Halogen family
(2) {kkjh; e`nk /kkrq,¡ (2) Alkaline earth metals
(3) mRÑ"V xSl (3) Noble gas
(4) {kkjh; /kkrq (4) Alkali metals

124. pkyd rkj dh çfrjks/kdrk fuHkZj djrh gS % 124. The resistivity of the conductor wire
depends on :
(1) pkyd rkj dh yEckbZ ij (1) Length of conductor wire
(2) pkyd rkj ds vuqçLFk dkV ds {ks=Qy (2) Cross section area of conductor
ij wire
(3) pkyd rkj ds inkFkZ dh çÑfr o (3) Nature of material of conductor
pkyd rkj ds rkieku ij wire and temperature of
conductor wire
(4) dsoy pkyd rkj ds rkieku ij (4) Only temperature of conductor
wire

RNH 2 + CHCl3 + KOH → ? RNH 2 + CHCl3 + KOH → ?

∆ ∆
125. 125.
mijksDr vfHkfØ;k dk mRikn gS % The product of above reaction is :
(1) RCl (2) ROH (1) RCl (2) ROH
(3) RCN (4) RNC (3) RCN (4) RNC

126. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk çdk'k jklk;fud 126. Which of the following is not a
/kwez dksgjs dk lkekU; ?kVd ugha gS \ common component of photo-
chemical smog ?
(1) ijkWDlh,slhfVy ukbVªsV (1) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
(2) O3 (2) O3
(3) ukbfVªd vkWDlkbM (3) Nitric oxide
(4) CFC's (4) CFC's

127. lery niZ.k dh Qksdl nwjh ,oa vko/kZu 127. The focal length and magnification
gS % of a plane mirror are :
(1) f = ∞, m = ∞ (1) f = ∞, m = ∞
(2) f = ∞, m = 1 (2) f = ∞, m = 1
(3) f = 0, m = 1 (3) f = 0, m = 1
(4) f = 0, m = 0 (4) f = 0, m = 0
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128. i`Foh ry ls fdrus uhps tkus ij xq#Roh; 128. How far below the Earth's level will the
Roj.k dk eku i`Foh ry ij xq#Roh; Roj.k value of gravitational acceleration be
dk vk/kk jg tk;sxk \ ¼i`Foh dh f=T;k half of the gravitational acceleration
6400 km½ on the Earth's surface ? (Radius of
Earth 6400 km)
(1) 6400 fdeh0 (2) 3200 fdeh0 (1) 6400 km (2) 3200 km
(3) 2650 fdeh0 (4) 1600 fdeh0 (3) 2650 km (4) 1600 km

129. 8 lseh0 Qksdl nwjh dk vfHklkjh ysal 10 129. A convex lens of focal length 8 cm is
lseh Qksdl nwjh ds vilkjh ysal ds lEidZ kept in contact with a concave lens
esa j[kk gSA la;qDr fudk; dh Qksdl nwjh of focal length 10 cm. What will be
D;k gksxh \ the focal length of this combination ?
(1) + 10 lseh (2) − 40 lseh (1) + 10 cm (2) − 40 cm
(3) + 80 lseh (4) + 40 lseh (3) + 80 cm (4) + 40 cm

130. tc çdk'k /kkrq dh lrg ij vkifrr gksrk 130. When light is incident an metallic
gS] rks mRlftZr çdk'k-bysDVªkWuksa dh surface, the maximum kinetic energy
vf/kdre xfrt ÅtkZ fuHkZj djrh gS % of emitted photo-electron depends on :
(1) vkifrr çdk'k ds osx ij (1) Velocity of incident light
(2) vkifrr çdk'k dh rhozrk ij (2) Intensity of incident light
(3) vkifrr çdk'k dh vko`fÙk ij (3) Frequency of incident light
(4) og le; varjky ftlds fy, /kkrq ij (4) The time interval for which light
çdk'k vkifrr gksrk gS is incident on metal

131. ysat dk fu;e ftl laj{k.k ds fu;e dk 131. Lenz law is consequence of the law
ifj.kke gS] og gS % of conservation of :
(1) vkos'k (2) æO;eku (1) Charge (2) Mass
(3) laosx (4) ÅtkZ (3) Momentum (4) Energy

132. nks d.kksa ds chp vçR;kLFk VDdj ds nkSjku 132. During inelastic collision between
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh jkf'k ges'kk two bodies, which of the following
lajf{kr jgrh gS \ quantities always remain conserved ?
(1) xfrt ÅtkZ (1) Kinetic Energy
(2) ;kaf=d ÅtkZ (2) Mechanical Energy
(3) js[kh; laosx (3) Linear Momentum
(4) nksuksa xfrt ÅtkZ o js[kh; laosx (4) Both Kinetic energy and Linear
Momentum

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133. ladqy [Co(NH 3 )6 ]Cl2 ls foy;u esa 133. How many ions are produced from the
fdrus vk;u mRiUu gksaxs \ complex [Co( NH 3 )6 ]Cl2 in solution ?
(1) 9 (2) 8 (1) 9 (2) 8
(3) 3 (4) 2 (3) 3 (4) 2

134. ,d ;kSfxd esa 4% gkbMªkstu] 24% dkcZu 134. A compound contains 4% hydrogen,
vkSj 71% Dyksjhu gSA bldk eksyj 24% carbon and 71% chlorine. Its
æO;eku 99 g gSA bldk vkf.od lw= gS % molar mass is 99 g. Its molecular
formula is :
(1) CH 2Cl (2) C2 H 2Cl2 (1) CH 2Cl (2) C2 H 2Cl2
(3) C2 H 4Cl2 (4) CH 2Cl2 (3) C2 H 4Cl2 (4) CH 2Cl2

135. nks fLçaxksa A rFkk B (k A = 2k B ) dks buds 135. Two springs A and B ( k A = 2k B ) are
pkjksa fljksa ij leku ifjek.k ds cy stretched by applying forces of equal
vkjksfir dj [khapk x;k gSA ;fn A esa magnitudes at the four ends. If the
lafpr ÅtkZ E gS] rks ;g B esa gS % energy stored in A is E, that in B is :
(1) 4E (2) 2E (1) 4E (2) 2E
E E
(3) E (4) (3) E (4)
2 2

136. 150 xzke dh fØdsV xsan 12 eh0@ls0 ds 136. A cricket ball of mass 150 g is moving
osx ls xfr dj jgh gS rFkk bls cYys ls with a velocity of 12 m/s and is hit by
ekjus ij ;g 20 eh0/ls0 ds osx ls okil a bat so that the ball is turned back with
ykSV vkrh gS ;fn xsan o cYys dh lEidZ a velocity of 20 m/s. If duration of
vof/k 0.01 lsd.M gS] rks cy dk vkosx contact between the ball and the bat is
gksxk % 0.01 sec. The impulse of the force is :
(1) 4.8 N-S (2) 7.4 N-S (1) 4.8 N-S (2) 7.4 N-S
(3) 1.2 N-S (4) 4.7 N-S (3) 1.2 N-S (4) 4.7 N-S
137. a C3 H 8 ( g ) + b O2 ( g ) → d CO2 ( g ) 137. a C3 H 8 ( g ) + b O2 ( g ) → d CO2 ( g )
+ e H 2O(l ) + e H 2O(l )
mijksDr larqfyr lehdj.k esa a, b, d vkSj For the above balanced equation a,
e Øe'k% gSa % b, d and e are respectively :
(1) 1, 2, 3, 4 (1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 1, 4, 3, 2 (2) 1, 4, 3, 2
(3) 4, 3, 5, 1 (3) 4, 3, 5, 1
(4) 1, 5, 3, 4 (4) 1, 5, 3, 4
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138. LCR ifjiFk esa C /kkfjrk ds la/kkfj= dks 138. In a LCR circuit capacitance is
5C /kkfjrk ds la/kkfj= ls cny nsa] rks changed from C to 5C for the
vuqukn dh vko`fÙk vifjofrZr j[kus ds resonant frequency to remain
fy, LoçsjdRo dk eku L ls fdruk unchanged, the inductance should be
cnyuk gksxk \ changed from L to value :
L L
(1) 5 L (2) (1) 5 L (2)
5 5
L L L L
(3) (4) (3) (4)
4 2 4 2

139. ;wfj;k mRlftZr gksrh gS % 139. Urea is excreted by :

(1) esa<d }kjk ¼o;Ld }kjk½ (1) Frog (Adult)
(2) rkjk eNyh }kjk (2) Star Fish
(3) LFkyh; ?kksa?ks }kjk (3) Land snails
(4) gkbMªk }kjk (4) Hydra
140. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk ladj.k sp 3d 140. Which of the following has sp d
3

gS \ hybridization ?
(1) NH 4+ (2) SF4 (1) NH 4+ (2) SF4
(3) XeF4 (4) XeOF4 (3) XeF4 (4) XeOF4

141. ,d fcUnq vkos'k Q }kjk tfur fo|qr~ {ks= 141. A point charge q is rotating along a
esa vU; fcUnq vkos'k q ,d o`Ùk ds vuqfn'k circle in the electric field generated
?kw.kZu dj jgk gSA fo|qr~ {ks= }kjk ?kw.kZu by another point charge Q. The
dj jgs vkos'k ds }kjk ,d ?kw.kZu iw.kZ work done by the electric field on
djus esa fd;k x;k dk;Z gS % the rotating charge in one complete
revolution is :
(1) lnSo /kukRed (1) ever positive
(2) lnSo _.kkRed (2) ever negative
(3) 'kwU; (3) zero
(4) /kukRed vFkok _.kkRed gks ldrk gS (4) may be positive or negative

142. fLFkj nkc ,oa rki ij Lor% çofrZr çØe 142. ∆G for a spontaneous process at
dk ∆G gS % constant pressure and temperature is :
(1) ∆G = 0 (2) ∆G < 0 (1) ∆G = 0 (2) ∆G < 0
(3) ∆G > 0 (4) ∆G = 1 (3) ∆G > 0 (4) ∆G = 1

Level-2/8111

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[ 29 ] [A]
143. thu vfHkO;fDr dk lgh Øe D;k gksxk \ 143. What will be the correct gene
expression pathway ?
(1) thu → vuqoknu → m-vkj0,u0,0 (1) Gene → translation → m-RNA
→ vuqys[ku → çksVhu → transcription → protein
(2) thu → vuqys[ku → m-vkj0,u0,0 (2) Gene → transcription → m-
→ vuqoknu → çksVhu RNA → translation → protein
(3) thu → m-vkj0,u0,0 → (3) Gene → m-RNA → transcription
vuqys[ku → vuqoknu → çksVhu → translation → protein
(4) thu → vuqys[ku → vuqoknu → (4) Gene → transcription →
m-vkj0,u0,0 → çksVhu translation → m-RNA → protein
144. ,d foy;u esa rhu ?kVd A, B vkSj C 144. A solution contains three components
çR;sd 0.2 eksy gSa] rc muds eksy va'kksa dk A, B and C, 0.2 mole each, then sum
;ksx gS % of their mole fractions is :
(1) 0.2 (2) 0.6 (1) 0.2 (2) 0.6
(3) 1 (4) 3 (3) 1 (4) 3
145. 5 kg æO;eku dk ,d fi.M 1 m f=T;k ds 145. A mass of 5 kg is moving along a
o`Ùkkdkj iFk ij xfreku gSA ;fn ;g fi.M circular path of radius 1 m. If the
çfr feuV 300 pDdj yxkrk gks] rks bldh mass moves with 300 revolutions per
xfrt ÅtkZ gksxh % minute, its kinetic energy would be :
(1) 100 π 2 (2) 0 (1) 100 π 2 (2) 0
2 2 2
(3) 250 π (4) 6 π (3) 250 π (4) 6 π 2
146. fuEufyf[kr fdl ,Ydhu dk vkstksuh 146. Ozonolysis of which of the following
vi?kVu çksisu-2-vksu ,oe~ esFkuSy nsrk alkene gives propan-2-one and
gS % methanal :
(1) 2-esfFky çksihu (1) 2-Methyl Propene
(2) C;wV-1-bZu (2) But-1- ene
(3) çksihu (3) Propene
(4) C;wV-2-bZu (4) But -2-ene
147. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk çksdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk 147. Which of the following is not true
ds fo"k; esa lR; ugha gS \ about prokaryotic cells ?
(1) Mh0,u0,0 dk çfrfyfidj.k dksf'kdk (1) Replication of DNA occurs in
æO; esa gksrk gSA cytoplasm.
(2) buesa ls dqN ukbVªkstu fLFkjhdj.k esa (2) Some of them are capable of
nitrogen fixation.
l{ke gksrh gSA (3) Plasmids do not occurs in
(3) çksdSfj;ksfVd dksf'kdk esa IykfTeM ugha prokaryotic cell.
gksrsA (4) Organic compounds can be
(4) buesa ls dqN vdkcZfud iwoZorhZ ls produced by some of them from
dkcZfud ;kSfxd cuk ldrs gSaA inorganic precursors.

Level-2/8111 P. T. O.

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[A] [ 30 ]

148. ;fn i`Foh dh f=T;k rhu xquh gks tk,] rks 148. If the radius of the earth becomes
?kuRo esa fdruk ifjorZu gksuk pkfg, three times, then what should be the
ftlls 'g' ds eku esa ifjorZu ugha gks \ change in density so that the value of
'g' does not change ?
(1) ?kuRo vk/kk gks tk, (1) Density reduced to half
(2) ?kuRo ,d frgkbZ gks tk, (2) Density becomes one third
(3) ?kuRo nqxuk gks tk, (3) Density becomes double
(4) ?kuRo rhu xquk gks tk, (4) Density becomes three times

149. ,d dkcZu çfrjks/kd dk eku 54 × 103 Ω 149. The value of carbon resistance is
gS rFkk çfr'kr lárk 5% gSA dkcZu 54 × 103 Ω. The percentage tolerance
çfrjks/kd dk o.kZ Øe D;k gS \ is 5%. What is the colour code
sequence of carbon resistance ?
(1) ihyk] gjk] ukjaxh] lqugjh /kkfj;k¡ (1) Yellow, Green, Orange, Golden
bands
(2) gjk] ihyk] ukjaxh] lqugjh /kkfj;k¡ (2) Green, Yellow] Orange, Golden
bands
(3) uhyk] /kwlj] ihyk] jtr /kkfj;k¡ (3) Blue, Grey, Yellow, Silver
bands
(4) uhyk] ihyk] ukjaxh] jtr /kkfj;k¡ (4) Blue, Yellow] Orange, Silver
bands

150. /kkrq dh ,d NM+ dks tc çcy pqEcdh; 150. A metallic rod when placed in strong
{ks= esa j[krs gSa] rks ;g pqEcdh; {ks= ds magnetic field, aligns itself at right
yEcor~ lajsf[kr gks tkrh gSA inkFkZ dh angles to the magnetic field. The
çÑfr gS % nature of material is :
(1) çfrpqEcdh; (1) Diamagnetic
(2) vuqpqEcdh; (2) Paramagnetic
(3) yksgpqEcdh; (3) Ferromagnetic
(4) yksgpqEcdh; ;k vuqpqEcdh; gks ldrh (4) Can be Ferromagnetic or
gS Paramagnetic

Level-2/8111

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FOR ROUGH WORK / jQ dk;Z ds fy,

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6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys ckWy 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be given by
IokbaV iSu ls iw.kZr;k Hkjuk gS] tSlk fd uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % darkening complete circle using Black ball point pen as
shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn mÙkj okys The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given below :
[kkus dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa %
   
    

;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk mÙkj xyr If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a wrong
ekuk tk,xkA answer.
7. jQ dk;Z iz'u&iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij gh djsaA (Rough work should be done only in the space
provided in the Question Booklet for the same.)
8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i=d ij gh vafdr djsaA vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsaA mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk
iz;ksx fuf"k) gSA (The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. Whitener
(white fluid) is not allowed for changing answers.)
9. izR;sd iz’u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr fodYi ds fy, OMR mÙkj i=d ij dsoy ,d o`Ùk dks gh iwjh rjg dkys ckWy
IokbaV iSu ls HkjsaA ,d ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk ldrk gSA (Out of the four alternatives for each question,
only one circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR Answer
Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed to be changed.)
10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf’pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu’kku u yxk,¡A vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d
esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksaA (The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make
any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Answer
Sheet.)
11. iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djsa] D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk
+ j½ nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA (Handle the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet with
dh fLFkfr dks NksMd
care, as under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Question Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
Question Booklet will not be provided.)
12. iz'u&iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gLrk{kj pkVZ esa fy[ksaA (The candidates should write the
correct Number as given in the Question Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Signature Chart.)
13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos’k i= vkSj igpku i= ds vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~;&lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh
ifpZ;k¡] istj] eksckby Qksu] bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA
(Candidates are not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic
device or any other material except the Admit Card and Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.)
14. i;Zos{kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk izo’s k dkMZ ¼jksy ua0½ vkSj igpku i= fn[kk,¡A (Each candidate must show on
demand his/her Admit Card (Roll No.) and identity card to the Invigilator.)
15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k i;Zos{kd dh fo’ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+sA (No candidate, without special permission of
the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.)
16. dk;Zjr i;Zos{kd dks viuk mÙkj i=d fn, fcuk ,oa gLrk{kj pkVZ ij nksckjk gLrk{kj fd, fcuk vH;FkhZ ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksMsx
+a sA ;fn
fdlh vH;FkhZ us nwljh ckj gLrk{kj pkVZ ij gLrk{kj ugha fd, rks ;g ekuk tk,xk fd mlus mÙkj i=d ugha ykSVk;k gS vkSj ;g
vuqfpr lk/ku dk ekeyk ekuk tk,xkA OMR mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij lHkh vH;fFkZ;ksa }kjk ck;sa gkFk ds vaxwBs dk fu’kku
yxk;k tkuk gSA vaxwBs dk fu'kku yxkrs le; bl ckr dk /;ku j[kk tk, fd L;kgh lgh ek=k esa gh yxkbZ tk, vFkkZr~ L;kgh dh
ek=k u rks cgqr vf/kd gks o u gh cgqr deA (The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over
their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and signing the Signature Chart twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the
Signature Chart second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case.
All candidates have to affix left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet at the place specified which should
be properly inked i.e. they should not be either over inked or dried in nature.)
17. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA (Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.)
18. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy,] vH;FkhZ foojf.kdk esa nh xbZ izfØ;k@fn’kk&funsZ’k o cksMZ ds lHkh fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa dk fo'ks"k /;ku j[ksAa
vuqfpr lk/kuksa ds lHkh ekeyksa dk QSlyk cksMZ ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj gksxkA (The candidates are governed by
Guidelines/Procedure given in the Information Bulletin, all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in
the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.)
19. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkkx vyx u djsaA (No part of the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet shall
be detached under any circumstances.)
20. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ d{k@gkWy NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zos{kd dks vo’; lkSai nsaA vH;FkhZ vius lkFk bl
iz'u&iqfLrdk dks ys tk ldrs gSAa (On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator
in the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Question Booklet with them.)

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Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2020 Set : A
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
Sub. Code No.: 8111 SCIENCE Draft Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (4) 031 (2) 061 (3) 091 (3) 121 (3)
002 (4) 032 (4) 062 (1) 092 (2) 122 (3)
003 (3) 033 (1) 063 (4) 093 (2) 123 (2)
004 (3) 034 (3) 064 (2) 094 (1) 124 (3)
005 (1) 035 (1) 065 (3) 095 (1) 125 (4)
006 (2) 036 (2) 066 (3) 096 (4) 126 (4)
007 (4) 037 (3) 067 (4) 097 (2) 127 (2)
008 (1) 038 (3) 068 (4) 098 (1) 128 (2)
009 (1) 039 (2) 069 (2) 099 (3) 129 (4)
010 (4) 040 (2) 070 (3) 100 (2) 130 (3)
011 (1) 041 (2) 071 (2) 101 (2) 131 (4)
012 (4) 042 (1) 072 (3) 102 (4) 132 (3)
013 (2) 043 (1) 073 (3) 103 (3) 133 (3)
014 (3) 044 (4) 074 (3) 104 (4) 134 (3)
015 (1) 045 (1) 075 (2) 105 (2) 135 (2)
016 (2) 046 (4) 076 (1) 106 (1) 136 (1)
017 (4) 047 (1) 077 (1) 107 (3) 137 (4)
018 (3) 048 (4) 078 (3) 108 (2) 138 (2)
019 (4) 049 (3) 079 (1) 109 (3) 139 (1)
020 (2) 050 (3) 080 (1) 110 (3) 140 (2)
021 (2) 051 (2) 081 (4) 111 (1) 141 (3)
022 (3) 052 (3) 082 (1) 112 (1) 142 (2)
023 (1) 053 (1) 083 (1) 113 (3) 143 (2)
024 (3) 054 (3) 084 (2) 114 (1) 144 (1)
025 (3) 055 (2) 085 (4) 115 (3) 145 (3)
026 (4) 056 (3) 086 (2) 116 (2) 146 (1)
027 (1) 057 (2) 087 (2) 117 (4) 147 (3)
028 (3) 058 (3) 088 (1) 118 (4) 148 (2)
029 (3) 059 (1) 089 (2) 119 (3) 149 (2)
030 (4) 060 (4) 090 (2) 120 (4) 150 (1)

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Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2020 Set : B
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Sub. Code No.: 8111 SCIENCE Draft Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (3) 031 (4) 061 (2) 091 (3) 121 (1)
002 (4) 032 (3) 062 (3) 092 (2) 122 (3)
003 (2) 033 (3) 063 (2) 093 (3) 123 (3)
004 (2) 034 (2) 064 (3) 094 (2) 124 (2)
005 (4) 035 (1) 065 (1) 095 (2) 125 (2)
006 (4) 036 (2) 066 (1) 096 (4) 126 (1)
007 (3) 037 (3) 067 (1) 097 (2) 127 (2)
008 (4) 038 (1) 068 (4) 098 (2) 128 (2)
009 (1) 039 (2) 069 (3) 099 (4) 129 (1)
010 (1) 040 (4) 070 (3) 100 (2) 130 (3)
011 (3) 041 (2) 071 (1) 101 (2) 131 (2)
012 (3) 042 (1) 072 (3) 102 (4) 132 (2)
013 (4) 043 (2) 073 (2) 103 (1) 133 (1)
014 (1) 044 (1) 074 (1) 104 (1) 134 (1)
015 (1) 045 (1) 075 (4) 105 (1) 135 (2)
016 (4) 046 (3) 076 (3) 106 (3) 136 (2)
017 (2) 047 (1) 077 (2) 107 (1) 137 (2)
018 (1) 048 (3) 078 (4) 108 (3) 138 (2)
019 (3) 049 (1) 079 (3) 109 (1) 139 (3)
020 (2) 050 (4) 080 (3) 110 (3) 140 (4)
021 (4) 051 (1) 081 (1) 111 (3) 141 (3)
022 (1) 052 (2) 082 (2) 112 (3) 142 (3)
023 (2) 053 (2) 083 (1) 113 (1) 143 (3)
024 (3) 054 (2) 084 (2) 114 (1) 144 (4)
025 (3) 055 (3) 085 (2) 115 (4) 145 (3)
026 (1) 056 (4) 086 (4) 116 (4) 146 (3)
027 (3) 057 (3) 087 (2) 117 (2) 147 (3)
028 (3) 058 (4) 088 (2) 118 (3) 148 (4)
029 (4) 059 (3) 089 (4) 119 (3) 149 (4)
030 (4) 060 (3) 090 (1) 120 (4) 150 (4)

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Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2020 Set : C
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Sub. Code No.: 8111 SCIENCE Draft Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (3) 031 (1) 061 (3) 091 (3) 121 (3)
002 (2) 032 (4) 062 (3) 092 (1) 122 (2)
003 (3) 033 (2) 063 (2) 093 (2) 123 (1)
004 (4) 034 (3) 064 (4) 094 (1) 124 (3)
005 (1) 035 (2) 065 (2) 095 (3) 125 (2)
006 (2) 036 (3) 066 (2) 096 (1) 126 (4)
007 (4) 037 (2) 067 (1) 097 (3) 127 (3)
008 (3) 038 (3) 068 (1) 098 (3) 128 (3)
009 (4) 039 (1) 069 (3) 099 (4) 129 (2)
010 (4) 040 (2) 070 (2) 100 (1) 130 (1)
011 (3) 041 (1) 071 (4) 101 (3) 131 (1)
012 (1) 042 (2) 072 (3) 102 (2) 132 (3)
013 (4) 043 (4) 073 (1) 103 (2) 133 (3)
014 (2) 044 (1) 074 (3) 104 (2) 134 (2)
015 (1) 045 (1) 075 (1) 105 (4) 135 (4)
016 (2) 046 (3) 076 (4) 106 (1) 136 (4)
017 (1) 047 (3) 077 (3) 107 (2) 137 (2)
018 (3) 048 (2) 078 (3) 108 (4) 138 (2)
019 (3) 049 (4) 079 (1) 109 (4) 139 (3)
020 (3) 050 (2) 080 (3) 110 (3) 140 (2)
021 (1) 051 (3) 081 (2) 111 (2) 141 (3)
022 (4) 052 (4) 082 (2) 112 (1) 142 (1)
023 (1) 053 (4) 083 (4) 113 (2) 143 (4)
024 (4) 054 (1) 084 (1) 114 (3) 144 (4)
025 (1) 055 (2) 085 (2) 115 (1) 145 (1)
026 (4) 056 (1) 086 (1) 116 (4) 146 (2)
027 (2) 057 (3) 087 (1) 117 (3) 147 (3)
028 (3) 058 (3) 088 (4) 118 (4) 148 (3)
029 (3) 059 (3) 089 (2) 119 (2) 149 (2)
030 (4) 060 (1) 090 (2) 120 (3) 150 (2)

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Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2020 Set : D
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Sub. Code No.: 8111 SCIENCE Draft Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (4) 031 (1) 061 (1) 091 (1) 121 (3)
002 (3) 032 (1) 062 (3) 092 (4) 122 (3)
003 (2) 033 (2) 063 (3) 093 (1) 123 (4)
004 (3) 034 (1) 064 (4) 094 (1) 124 (2)
005 (2) 035 (4) 065 (3) 095 (2) 125 (2)
006 (1) 036 (2) 066 (3) 096 (1) 126 (4)
007 (3) 037 (2) 067 (3) 097 (4) 127 (3)
008 (2) 038 (2) 068 (1) 098 (1) 128 (3)
009 (4) 039 (3) 069 (3) 099 (1) 129 (3)
010 (3) 040 (1) 070 (3) 100 (3) 130 (2)
011 (1) 041 (3) 071 (2) 101 (4) 131 (1)
012 (3) 042 (2) 072 (1) 102 (2) 132 (3)
013 (4) 043 (1) 073 (1) 103 (3) 133 (3)
014 (3) 044 (3) 074 (2) 104 (4) 134 (4)
015 (2) 045 (4) 075 (2) 105 (4) 135 (1)
016 (3) 046 (1) 076 (3) 106 (2) 136 (2)
017 (4) 047 (2) 077 (1) 107 (3) 137 (4)
018 (2) 048 (3) 078 (4) 108 (2) 138 (3)
019 (4) 049 (4) 079 (4) 109 (2) 139 (2)
020 (1) 050 (3) 080 (2) 110 (4) 140 (3)
021 (4) 051 (2) 081 (2) 111 (3) 141 (2)
022 (4) 052 (1) 082 (1) 112 (3) 142 (4)
023 (4) 053 (4) 083 (2) 113 (3) 143 (3)
024 (1) 054 (3) 084 (4) 114 (2) 144 (2)
025 (1) 055 (2) 085 (2) 115 (3) 145 (2)
026 (3) 056 (3) 086 (1) 116 (3) 146 (2)
027 (3) 057 (4) 087 (4) 117 (2) 147 (2)
028 (1) 058 (1) 088 (2) 118 (3) 148 (1)
029 (4) 059 (3) 089 (1) 119 (1) 149 (1)
030 (1) 060 (3) 090 (2) 120 (2) 150 (1)

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izFke 10 feuV esa vH;FkhZ viuh iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad dk feyku vks0,e0vkj0 mÙkj i=d ds Øekad ls vo'; dj ysAa ;fn vks0 ,e0 vkj0
mÙkj i=d o iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad fHkUu gSa rks dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysAa
Level : 2 Exam. – 2021
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
SCIENCE
Sub. Code No. : 211 iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad ,oa vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
vuqØekad ¼vadksa es½a %






SET : A
Question-Booklet Serial No. & O. M. R. Serial No.

Roll No. (In Figures)

%
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa es½a _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke % __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % ____________________________________________________________ vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj % ____________________________________________
Name of Candidate Signature of Candidate

bl iz'u&
u&iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k 48 iz'uksa dh la[;k 150 le; 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj (Signature of Invigilator) : ___________________________________________

vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u&iqfLrdk ij Nis funs'Z kksa dks i<+us rFkk mÙkj i=d esa vius fooj.k Hkjus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&iqfLrdk o mÙkj i=d dh
Øe la[;k xyr vafdr gksa rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysAa blds i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds
vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½ ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ
vH;FkhZ dks iz'u&iq
u&iqfLrdk esa fn, x, fdlh Hkh iz'u eas dksbZ =qfV gksus dk
lansg gks rks blds fy, vH;fFkZ;kas dks ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr izfrosnu nsus ds fy, volj fn;k tk,xkA vr% vH;FkhZ fu/kkZfjr vovolj
lj ds nkSjku bl lEcU/k eas viuk
izfrosnu cksMZ dk;kZy; eas ntZ djok ldrs gSaA bl volj ds ckn] bl lEcU/k esa izkIr izfrosnuksa ij dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
;fn fdlh iz'u esa fgUnh o vaxzsth ek/;e esa fHkUurk gS rks vaxzsth ek/;e dk iz'u Bhd ekuk tk,xkA
If there is any variance between Hindi and English Version of any question then English Version would be considered correct.

vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k (INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES) :

1. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i=d bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc vkidks iz'u&iqfLrdk i<+us dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=d fudky dj /;ku ls dsoy
dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls fooj.k HkjsAa (The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Booklet. When you are directed to read the
Question Booklet, take out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully with black ball point pen only.)
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u&iqfLrdk esa 150 iz'u gSAa dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA (The test is of two-and-half hours
duration and consists of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.)
3. vius fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij fu'kku yxkus ds fy, dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu dk iz;ksx djsAa vH;FkhZ iz'u&iqfLrdk dk mi;ksx
djus ,oa mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsAa (Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this
page/darkening responses in the Answer Sheet. The candidate should remain careful in handling the question paper
and in darkening the responses on the answer sheet.)
4. izFke 10 feuV es]a ;g Hkh lqfuf'pr dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad vkSj mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSAa vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks vH;FkhZ nwljh
iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds fy, i;Zo{s kd dks rqjUr voxr djok,¡A (Within first 10 minutes, also ensure that your
Question Booklet Serial No. and Answer Sheet Serial No. are the same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should
immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for replacement of both the Question Booklet and the Answer Sheet.)

5. ysoy&
y&2 ¼d{kk VI ls VIII ds fy,½
fy,½ 5. Level–2 (For Classes VI to VIII)
Hkkx&I % cky fodkl o f'k{kk 'kkL= ¼ç0 1 ls ç0 30½ Part–I : Child Development
Hkkx&II % Hkk"kk % ¼ç0 31 ls ç0 60½ and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30)
Part–II : Language : (Q. 31 to Q. 60)
¼fgUnh % 15 iz'u o vaxzsth % 15 iz'u½
(Hindi : 15 Q. & English : 15 Q.)
Hkkx&III % lkekU; v/;;u % ¼ç0 61 ls ç0 90½
Part–III : General Studies : (Q. 61 to Q. 90)
¼ek=kRed ;ksX;rk % 10 iz'u] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk % 10 iz'u] (Quantitative Aptitude : 10 Q, Reasoning
lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku % 10 iz'u½ Ability : 10 Q, G. K. & Awareness : 10 Q)
Hkkx&IV % foKku ¼ç0 91 ls ç0 150½ Part–IV : Science (Q. 91 to Q. 150)

uksV % Ñi;k bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funs'Z kksa dks i<+Asa (Please read other remaining instructions given on the last page of this booklet.)

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jQ dk;Z ds fy, (FOR ROUGH WORK)

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Hkkx – I (PART – I)
cky fodkl o f'k{kk'kkL= (CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY)
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ,d dFku 1. Out of the following which one is

funsZ'ku dh fo'ks"krkvksa ,oa çÑfr ds lanHkZ the wrong statement in context of
esa xyr dFku gS \ characteristics and nature of guidance ?
(1) funsZ'ku fdlh O;fDr dks [kqn dks (1) Guidance is assisting the
lek;ksftr djus esa lgk;rk djuk gSA individual to adjust himself.
(2) funsZ'ku vkRe fn'kk esa O;fDr ds (2) Guidance is promotion of the
fodkl dks c<+kok nsuk gSA growth of the individual in self
Guidance.
(3) funsZ'ku dsoy vU; ds ç;klksa ds
ek/;e ls O;fDr Lo;a dh enn djuk (3) Guidance is helping the
individual himself through
gSA others efforts only.
(4) funsZ'ku fdlh O;fDr dks viuk LFkku
(4) Guidance is assisting an
Lo;a çkIr djus esa lgk;rk djuk gSA individual to find his place.
2. ^,d çdkj dk fparu ftlesa vuqHko 2. A type of thinking in which one's
ds lkFk laosnuk dh O;k[;k dh tkrh gS*] interpret sensation with experience is
D;k dgykrh gS \ known as what ?
(1) ijkorZd fparu (1) Reflective thinking
(2) vo/kkj.kkRed fparu (2) Perceptual thinking
(3) l`tukRed fparu (3) Creative thinking
(4) vkykspukRed fparu (4) Critical thinking
3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ,d dFku 3. Out of the following which one of
Hkkoukvksa dh fo'ks"krkvksa ds lUnHkZ esa xyr the statement is wrong in context of
dFku gS \ characteristics of sentiments ?
(1) Emotions are the basis of
(1) laosx Hkkoukvksa ds vk/kkj gksrs gSaA sentiments.
(2) Hkkouk,¡ tUetkr gksrh gSaA (2) Sentiments are innate.
(3) le; ds lkFk Hkkouk,¡ iqjkuh iM+ tkrh (3) Sentiments get older with the
gSa vkSj os viuh fLFkfr Hkh cny nsrh passage of time and they may
gSaA even change their state.
(4) T;knkrj tkuojksa esa Hkkouk,¡ ugha gksrh (4) Most of the animals do not
D;ksafd muds ikl dksbZ ckSf)d le> have sentiments because of they
do not have intellectual
ugha gksrh gSA comprehension.
Level-2/211 P. T. O.

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4. O;ogkj dk v/;;u djus ds fy, lcls 4. Which is the oldest method for the
iqjkuh fof/k dkSu-lh gS \ study of behaviour ?
(1) ç;ksxkRed fof/k (1) Experimental method
(2) uSnkfud fof/k (2) Clinical method
(3) euksHkkSfrdh fof/k (3) Psycho-physical method
(4) vkRefujh{k.k fof/k (4) Introspection method

5. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh ,d vijk/kh 5. Out of the following which one is

ckyd dh fo'ks"krk ugha gS \ wrong characteristic of Delinquents ?
(1) fo|ky; lEifÙk dks u"V djuk (1) Damaging school property
(2) /kedh nsuk ,oa migkl djuk (2) Bullying and mockery
(3) lrkuk (3) Torturing
(4) 'kjhj jpuk esa ,LFksfud (4) Aesthanic in constitution

6. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ,d c.Mqjk }kjk 6. Which one of the following is the
çnÙk vf/kxe fl)kUr ds vUrxZr correct logical order of observational
voyksdukRed vf/kxe gsrq lgh rkfdZd learning process according Learning
Øe gS \ Theory of Bandura ?
(1) vo/kkukRed → /kkj.kkRed → (1) Attentional → Retentional →
vfHkçsj.kkRed → mRiknu Motivational → Production
(2) vo/kkukRed → vfHkçsj.kkRed → (2) Attentional → Motivational →
/kkj.kkRed → mRiknu Retentional → Production
(3) vfHkçsj.kkRed → vo/kkukRed → (3) Motivational → Attentional →
/kkj.kkRed → mRiknu Retentional → Production
(4) vo/kkukRed → /kkj.kkRed → mRiknu (4) Attentional → Retentional →
→ vfHkçsj.kkRed Production → Motivational

7. ;g fdlus dgk fd ^^O;fDrRo tUetkr 7. Who stated that "Personality is the

vkSj vftZr ço`fÙk;ksa dk ;ksx gS** \ sum total of innate and acquired
dispositions" ?
(1) ekWfVZu fçUl (2) vkWyiksVZ (1) Mortin Prince (2) Allport
(3) osysuVhu (4) dSVsy (3) Valentine (4) Cattell
Level-2/211

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8. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk fodkl ds lanHkZ 8. Which one of the following is false
esa vlR; dFku gS \ statement in context of Development ?
(1) fodkl esa ifjorZu fufgr gksrk gSA (1) Development involves change.
(2) fodklkRed iSVuZ viwokZuqes; gksrs gSaA (2) The development pattern is
unpredictable.
(3) vkjfEHkd fodkl] i'porhZ fodkl dh (3) Early development is more
rqyuk esa T;knk ladViw.kZ gksrs gSaA critical than later development.
(4) fodkl ifjiDork ,oa vf/kxe dk (4) Development is the product of
mRikn gksrk gSA maturation and learning.

9. yM+fd;k¡ 'kkjhfjd :i ls yM+dksa ls Js"B 9. Girls surpass boys physically in :

gksrh gSa %
(1) 'kS'kokoLFkk esa (1) Infancy
(2) mÙkj ckY;koLFkk esa (2) Later childhood
(3) iwoZ ckY;koLFkk eas (3) Early childhood
(4) fd'kksjkoLFkk eas (4) Adolescence

10. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh ,d fo"k;-oLrq 10. Out of the following which one is
lexzoknh euksoSKkfudksa ds v/;;u {ks= dh the subject matter for study of
gS \ Gestalt Psychologist ?
(1) laKkukRed çfØ;k,¡ (1) Cognitive processes
(2) psruk (2) Consciousness
(3) lEiw.kZ :i ls ekufld vkSj O;ogkfjd (3) Mental and behavioural
çfØ;k,¡ processes a wholes
(4) vfLrRo ds rjhds vkSj leL;k,¡ (4) Modes and problems of
existence

11. yM+fd;ksa ds fir` çseHkko dks Ýk;M us 11. What did Freud consider the paternal
fdlls lEcksf/kr fd;k gS \ love of girls ?
(1) vksMhil Hkkouk xzfUFk (1) Oedipus complex
(2) bysDVªk Hkkouk xzfUFk (2) Electra complex
(3) Loçse Hkkouk (3) Narcissism
(4) fuHkZjrk dh Hkkouk (4) Feeling of dependence
Level-2/211 P. T. O.

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12. dHkh-dHkh çfrHkk'kkyh ekrk-firk ds cPps 12. Sometimes the children of gifted
vius ekrk-firk dh rqyuk esa de cqf) ds parents are born with less intelligence
lkFk tUe ysrs gSa vFkok bldk Bhd mYVk than their parents or vice versa,
gksrk gS] ;g oa'kkuqØe dk dkSu-lk fu;e which Law of Heredity is called ?
dgykrk gS \ (1) Law of Regression
(1) çR;kxeu dk fu;e
(2) Law of Selective Traits
(2) p;fur xq.kksa dk fl)kUr (3) Law of Maternal and Paternal
(3) ekr` o fir` i{kksa dk fu;e Lines
(4) la;ksx dk fu;e (4) Law of Chance

13. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh vareqZ[kh lksp 13. Which of the following is the
çdkj O;fDrRo dh fo'ks"krk gS \ characteristic of introverted thinking
type personality ?
(1) ;FkkFkZoknh vkSj O;kogkfjd (1) Realistic and Practical
(2) Absorbed in his own intellectual
(2) viuh ckSf)d [kkst esa yhu
pursuit
(3) rF;ksa ds lkFk fl)kUr dk leFkZu (3) Supports theory with facts
(4) vius fopkjksa dks vkxzg vkSj n`<+rk ls (4) Propagates his views with
çpkfjr djuk insistence and vehemence

14. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh ,d tsEl ykUts 14. Out of the following which is correct
^^laosx fl)kUr** }kjk çnÙk lgh Ük`a[kyk sequence given by James Lange's
gS \ "Theory of Emotions" ?
(1) ifjfLFkfr → 'kkjhfjd v'kkafr → (1) Situation → Bodily disturbance
ekufld fLFkfr → Mental state
(2) ifjfLFkfr → ekufld fLFkfr → (2) Situation → Mental state →
'kkjhfjd vfHkO;fDr Bodily expressions
(3) ifjfLFkfr → 'kkjhfjd vfHkO;fDr → (3) Situation → Bodily expressions
ekufld fLFkfr → Mental state
(4) ifjfLFkfr → ekufld fLFkfr → (4) Situation → Mental state →
'kkjhfjd v'kkafr Bodily disturbance

Level-2/211

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15. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh ,d vUrnZ`f"V 15. Out of the following which one is
dh fo'ks"krk ugha gS \ not the characteristic of insight ?
(1) vkdfLedrk (1) Incidental
(2) uohu ifjfLFkfr esa vuqfØ;k (2) Response in novel situation
(3) vknr cy (3) Habit strength
(4) vuqfØ;k dk lgtrk ls gksuk (4) Response spontaneity

16. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh ,d l`tukRedrk 16. Out of the following which one
dh voLFkk xksMZu us viuh lkbusfVDl is not the stage of creativity
rduhd esa çfrikfnr ugha dh gS \ prescribed by Gordon in his
Synectics Technique ?
(1) layXurk vUrHkkZfork (1) Detachment involvement
(2) leku oLrq dh [kkst (2) Finding something similar
(3) LFkxu (3) Deferment
(4) ladYiuk fuekZ.k (4) Concept formation
17. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh ,d fo'ks"krk 17. Out of the following which one
çfrHkk'kkyh cPpksa dh n`f"V ls mi;qDr ugha characteristic not suits to gifted
gS \ children ?
(1) rsth ls vkSj vklkuh ls lh[krs gSaA (1) Learn rapidly and easily.
(2) dfBu ekufld dk;ks± dks çnf'kZr djrs gSAa (2) Perform difficult mental task.
(3) cgqr çdkj dh tkudkfj;k¡ j[krs gSa (3) Knows about many things of
ftuds ckjs esa T;knkrj cPps tkx:d which most of the students are
ugha gksrs gSaA unaware.
(4) tks dqN mUgksaus lquk ;k i<+k gS mls
cjdjkj j[kus ds fy, mUgsa cgqr vH;kl (4) Much drill is required to retain
dh vko';drk gksrh gSA what he/she has heard or read.
18. o;%laf/k voLFkk dk vk;q foLrkj D;k gksrk 18. What is the age range of puberty
gS \ stage ?
(1) 10 ls 12 o"kZ (1) 10 to 12 years
(2) 6 ls 12 o"kZ (2) 6 to 12 years
(3) 11 ls 16 o"kZ (3) 11 to 16 years
(4) 8 ls 10 o"kZ (4) 8 to 10 years
Level-2/211 P. T. O.

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19. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ,d cqf) ds 19. Out of the following which one is
fu"iknu ijh{k.k dk çdkj ugha gS \ not the type of performance test of
intelligence ?
(1) vkehZ vYQk ijh{k.k (1) Army alpha test
(2) dksg dk CykWd fMtkbu ijh{k.k (2) Koh's block design test
(3) ?ku fuekZ.k/jpuk ijh{k.k (3) The cube construction test
(4) ikl ,ykWUx ijh{k.k (4) The pass along test

20. thu fi;kts ds vuqlkj cPpk fdl vk;q 20. According to Jean Piaget between
oxZ esa vewrZ rdZ fodflr djrk gS \ which age the child develops
abstract reasoning ?
(1) 6 ls 8 o"kZ (1) 6 to 8 years
(2) 8 ls 10 o"kZ (2) 8 to 10 years
(3) 7 ls 9 o"kZ (3) 7 to 9 years
(4) 11 ls 14 o"kZ (4) 11 to 14 years

21. ;g fdlus dgk Fkk fd ^^,d O;fDr mlh 21. Who stated that "An individual is
vuqikr esa cqf)eku gksrk gS ftruk og intelligent in proportion as he is able
vewrZ :i ls fpUru dh {kerk j[krk gS** \ to carry on abstract thinking" ?
(1) VeZu (1) Terman
(2) fM;jckWuZ (2) Dearborn
(3) cfda?ke (3) Buckingham
(4) dkyfou (4) Calvin

22. cPpksa ds Hkhrj Nqis lkaosfxd ?kqVu ,oa 22. What is the process of releasing the
'kfDr;ksa dks ckgj fudkyus dh çfØ;k dks hidden emotional suffocation and
D;k dgrs gSa \ powers inside the children called ?
(1) lkaosfxd fLFkjrk (1) Emotional stability
(2) lkaosfxd laosnu'khyrk (2) Emotional sensitivity
(3) lkaosfxd fojspu (3) Emotional catharsis
(4) lkaosfxd lkeF;Z (4) Emotional competency
Level-2/211

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23. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh ,d xfrfof/k 23. Out of the following which one
^^ftKklk** ewy ço`fÙk dks larq"V djus ds activity is not suitable for satisfying
fy, mi;qDr ugha gS \ the instincts curiosity ?
(1) d{kk vFkok fo|ky; esa xkSjoiw.kZ fLFkfr (1) Awarding positions in the class
çnku djuk or school
(2) fo|kfFkZ;ksa ds ç'uksa ds mÙkj nsuk (2) Answering the questions of the
students
(3) leL;k lek/kku (3) Problem solving
(4) d{kk esa fopkj&foe'kZ (4) Discussion in class

24. jks'kkZ L;kgh /kCck ijh{k.k esa fdrus dkMZ 24. How many cards prescribed in
fu/kkZfjr gSa \ Rorschach Ink Block Test ?

(1) 12 (2) 10 (1) 12 (2) 10

(3) 30 (4) 31 (3) 30 (4) 31

25. 'kSf{kd euksfoKku ds firk ds :i esa fdls 25. Who is known as father of
tkuk tkrk gS \ Educational Psychology ?

(1) bZ0 ,y0 FkkuZMkbd (1) E. L. Thorndike

(2) isLrkykWth (2) Pestalozzi

(3) gcZVZ (3) Herbart

(4) ÝkWcsy (4) Froebel

26. lksf'k;ksesfVªd rduhd dk vkfo"dkj fdlus 26. Who invented sociometric technique ?
fd;k Fkk \
(1) ts0 bZ0 ,.Mjlu (1) J. E. Anderson

(2) ts0 ,y0 eksjsuks (2) J. L. Moreno

(3) bZ0 ch0 gjykWd (3) E. B. Hurlock

(4) th0 ,l0 ekeksZj (4) G. S. Marmor

Level-2/211 P. T. O.

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27. ,fjDlu ds vuqlkj O;fDr ds eukslkekftd 27. Which is the fourth stage of psycho-
fodkl dh pkSFkh voLFkk dkSu-lh gS \ social development of an individual
according to Erikson ?
(1) çxk<+rk cuke vyxko (1) Intimacy v/s isolation
(2) igpku cuke Hkwfedk laHkzkafr (2) Identity v/s role confusion
(3) ifjJe fç;rk cuke ghurk (3) Industry v/s inferiority
(4) mRiknu'khyrk cuke fLFkjrk (4) Generativity v/s stagnation

28. ^jkWl* ds vuqlkj fodkl dh dkSu-lh 28. According to 'Ross', which stage of
voLFkk dks ^feF;k ifjiDork* voLFkk dgk development is known as 'Pseudo
tkrk gS \ Maturity' stage ?
(1) 'kS'kokoLFkk (1) Infancy
(2) ckY;koLFkk (2) Childhood
(3) fd'kksjkoLFkk (3) Adolescence
(4) çkS<+koLFkk (4) Adulthood

29. tc dksbZ O;fDr vius fopkjksa rFkk fØ;kvksa 29. When a person tried to make his/her
dks fdlh ,sls nwljs O;fDr ds vuq:i cukuk thoughts and action according to
'kq: dj nsrk gS ftldk og vuqdj.k djuk other whom he like to follow, then
pkgrk gS] rks bl çdkj dh fØ;k dkSu-ls this kind of activity called which
çdkj dh j{kk ;qfDr dgykrh gS \ type of defence mechanism ?
(1) rknkRehdj.k (1) Identification
(2) ç{ksi.k (2) Projection
(3) vkSfpR; LFkkiuk (3) Rationalisation
(4) foLFkkiu (4) Displacement

30. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ckY;koLFkk dk 30. Which one of the following is not
lkekU; Hkk"k.k fodkj ugha gS \ the common speech disorder of
childhood ?
(1) ÅtkZ dh deh (1) Depletion of Energy
(2) rqrykuk (2) Lisping
(3) vLi"V mPpkj.k (3) Slurring
(4) gdykuk (4) Stuttering

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Hkkx – II (PART – II)

Hkk"kk ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ [ LANGUAGES (HINDI & ENGLISH) ]
fgUnh (HINDI)
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A

31. fdl Hkkookpd laKk dk fuekZ.k 35. fuEu esa ls dkSu&lk 'kCn ^vuq* milxZ ls
O;fDrokpd laKk ls gqvk gS \ fufeZr ugha gS \
(1) cpiu (2) dS'kks;Z (1) vkuqikfrd (2) vuqnkÙk
(3) vuwfnr (4) vuqjatd
(3) ,s'o;Z (4) ekr`Ro
36. fuEu esa ls fdl fodYi dk dFku xyr
32. fdl fodYi esa ^ladsrkFkZd* okD; gS \
gS \
(1) fiz;re esjk fe= gSA (1) ^_* dk mPpkj.k LFkku ^ew/kkZ* gSA
(2) ;fn rqe vkvks rks eSa pyw¡A (2) folxZ /ofu dh x.kuk ukflD; o.kksZa esa
(3) gks ldrk gS dy ekSle Bhd gks tk,A dh tkrh gSA
(4) jkts'k viuk dejk lkQð djksA (3) ^;* vkSj ^o* dks v/kZ Loj Hkh dgk
tkrk gSA
33. izR;; dh n`f"V ls fdl 'kCn dh jpuk (4) ^M+* vkSj ^<+* mfR{kIr o.kZ dgykrs gSaA
vuqfpr gS \
(1) eqjsyk & ,yk 37. fdl fodYi ds lHkh 'kCn fons'kt gSa \
(1) yktokc] e'khu] iou
(2) d¡Vhyk & bZyk
(2) dkjhxj] vfr'k;ksfDr] dgkuh
(3) foyhu & bZu
(3) eqefdu] veweu] i{kokj
(4) llqjky & vky
(4) fdLlk] Ldwy] geyk
34. lekl&foxzg dh n`f"V ls dkSu&lk fodYi
38. i;kZ;okph 'kCnksa ds lanHkZ esa vlaxr fodYi
mfpr gS \
pqfu, %
(1) gFkdj?kk & gkFkksa ls pyus okyk dj?kk (1) thHk & okpk] jluk] ok.kh
(2) Hkqtx & Hkwfe esa tUe ysus okyk (2) vgadkj & naHk] niZ] en
(3) ns'kHkfDr & ns'k ds }kjk HkfDr (3) fdj.k & jf'e] e;w[k] izHkk
(4) i'kqcfy & i'kq ds fy, cfy (4) dkSvk & fiz;d] e/kqnwr] vfrlkSjHk
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39. fdl okD; esa ifjek.kokpd fo'ks"k.k dk 43. fØ;k ds laca/k esa dkSu&lk ;qXe vuqfpr
iz;ksx gqvk gS \ gS \
(1) fHk[kkjh lM+d ij fpYyk jgs FksA &
(1) eSa uhyh deht ugha igurkA
vdeZd fØ;k
(2) bl ckj ckfj'k esa cgqr vksys fxjsA (2) jk/kk ';ke dks i= fy[krh gSA &
(3) [ksy dk eSnku yEck gSA f}deZd fØ;k
(4) fnus'k vPNk xk;d gSA (3) cxhps esa eksj ukp jgk gSA &
ldeZd fØ;k
40. ^foifÙk ds le; FkksM+h lgk;rk Hkh cM+h (4) og fo|ky; ls vkdj [kkuk [kk,xkA&
gksrh gS* mDr Hkko dh O;atd yksdksfDr iwoZdkfyd fØ;k
pqfu, %
(1) Mwcrs dks fruds dk lgkjk 44. fdl fodYi esa laf/k&foPNsn vuqfpr gS \
(2) pqiM+h vkSj nks&nks (1) cfgjsdrk = cfg% $ ,drk
(3) pkj fnu dh pk¡nuh fQj v¡/ksjh jkr (2) vk'khoZpu = vk'kh% $ opu
(4) vke ds vke xqBfy;ksa ds nke (3) jfrja'k = jfr% $ ja'k
(4) ri'p;kZ = ri% $ p;kZ
41. fdl okD; esa loZuke lacaf/kuh v'kqf) gS \
(1) rqEgkjh iqLrd ;g ugha og gSA 45. fuEu esa ls fdl eqgkojs dk vFkZ laxr ugha
gS \
(2) eSa viuk dk;Z dj jgk gw¡A
(1) ugys ij ngyk ekjuk &
(3) ftlus Hkh [kk;k gS] ljkgk gSA
djkjk tokc nsuk
(4) esjs dks dqN Hkh ;kn ugha vk jgkA
(2) cÙkhlh can gksuk & pqi gks tkuk
42. foykse 'kCn dh n`f"V ls vuqfpr ;qXe (3) flj dk ilhuk ik¡o rd vkuk &
igpkfu, % dfBu ifjJe djuk
(1) cn & usd (4) Fkkyh dk cSaxu gksuk & loZ lqyHk gksuk
(2) nq'pfj= & fu'pfj=
(3) foLr`r & laf{kIr
(4) e/kqj & dVq

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vaxzsth (ENGLISH)
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

46. Choose the correct option to fill in

49. Select the correct option (Phrasal
the blank : Verb) for the underlined word :
This pen is both good …….. cheap. She rejected his request to take her
(1) as well as home.

(2) as well (1) turned up

(2) turned down
(3) but only
(3) turned out
(4) and
(4) turned off
47. Select the appropriate preposition to
50. Select the appropriate modal to fill
fill in the blank : in the blank :
His hut is ......... hotel Taj. Trespassers ……….. be punished.
(1) above (legal notice)
(2) out (1) shall (2) may
(3) besides (3) should (4) ought to
51. Choose the appropriate preposition
(4) beside
to fill in the blank :
48. Choose the correct meaning of the
What is the time ……….. your
underlined words :
watch ?
The law and order situation will only
become worse in the state due to the (1) in (2) from
riots, if the government does not do (3) by (4) on
something right now to nip it in the
52. Select the correct option (Phrasal
bud.
Verb) for the blank left in the
(1) To plan in detail to stop a threat sentence :

(2) To destroy the problem in the Cholera has ……….. in this village.
initial stage only (1) broken out
(3) To arrest the culprits (2) broken down
(3) broken up
(4) To stop something harmful in
the initial stage (4) broken off

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53. Choose the part of the sentence 57. Choose the correct meaning of the
which is incorrect : underlined words :
The party president made The hostess broke the ice by
(a) introducing the strangers to each
other.
Rakesh a M. P. candidate
(1) To make people relax with each
(b) (c)
other
for the coming election. (2) To make people perplexed with
(d) each other
(1) a (2) b (3) To serve welcome drink to the
guests
(3) c (4) d (4) To start a game of puzzle
54. Choose the part of the sentence
58. Choose the correct tense form to fill
which is incorrect : in the blank :
He did not keep his words
Municipality has decided to ….........
(a) (b)
the overhead wires.
to pick him up from WTP.
(1) did away with
(c) (d)
(2) do away with
(1) b (2) c
(3) has done away with
(3) d (4) a
(4) had done away with
55. Choose the correct tense form to fill 59. Choose the correct option for the
in the following : following :
I had consulted my lawyer before I One who wastes a lot of money is :
……....... the complaint.
(1) frugal (2) recluse
(1) did lodged (2) had lodged
(3) prodigal (4) reticent
(3) lodge (4) lodged
56. Choose the appropriate modal to fill 60. Select the appropriate modal for the
in the blank : expression given :
He ………… listen to the stories of Harish has annoyed his boss today.
his Grand Ma before he slept. He ........ be fired soon. (probability)
(Past habit) (1) may (2) can
(1) could (2) shall
(3) ought to (4) would
(3) would (4) might

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Hkkx – III (PART – III)
lkekU; v/;;u (GENERAL STUDIES)
ek=kRed ;ksX;rk] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk rFkk lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku (QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE,
REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS)

funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

61. ,d rkj dh yEckbZ 66 ehVj gS] rks bl 61. The length of a wire is 66 metre,
rkj ls cuk, tk ldus okys 1.32 lseh then the number of circles of
ifjf/k ds o`Ùkksa dh la[;k gS % circumference 1.32 cm that can be
made from the wire is :
(1) 1000 (1) 1000
(2) 50 (2) 50
(3) 500 (3) 500
(4) 5000 (4) 5000

62. 140 ehVj yEch jsyxkM+h dh pky 62. A train 140 metre long is running at
60 fdeh@?k.Vk gS] bls 260 ehVj yEcs 60 km/hour. How much time will it
IysVQkWeZ dks ikj djus esa fdruk le; take to pass a platform 260 metre
yxsxk \ long ?
(1) 18 lsd.M (1) 18 sec
(2) 24 lsd.M (2) 24 sec
(3) 30 lsd.M (3) 30 sec
(4) 32 lsd.M (4) 32 sec

63. ,d diM+k foØsrk 33 ehVj diM+k cspdj] 63. A cloth merchant on selling 33 metre
11 ehVj diM+s ds fcØh ewY; ds cjkcj of cloth obtains a profit equal to the
ykHk izkIr dj ysrk gS] rks mldk ykHk selling price of 11 metre of cloth.
izfr'kr gS % The profit percentage is :
(1) 11% (1) 11%
(2) 22% (2) 22%
(3) 50% (3) 50%
(4) 40% (4) 40%

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64. ;fn 4 iq#"k ;k 6 efgyk,¡ ,d dk;Z dks 7 64. If 4 men or 6 women can do a piece
?k.Vs izfrfnu dk;Z djds 12 fnuksa esa dj of work in 12 days working 7 hours
ldrs gSa] rks mlh dk;Z ls nqxquk cM+k dk;Z a day. How many days will it take to
10 iq#"k rFkk 3 efgyk,¡ 8 ?k.Vs izfrfnu complete a work twice as large with
dk;Z djds fdrus fnuksa esa iwjk dj ldsaxs \ 10 men and 3 women working
together 8 hours a day ?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (1) 6 (2) 7
(3) 8 (4) 9 (3) 8 (4) 9
1 1
65. ;fn x = gks] rks x 2 + 2 x + 3 65. If x = , then the value of
1+ 2 1+ 2
dk eku gS % x 2 + 2 x + 3 is :
(1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1
(3) 4 (4) 2 (3) 4 (4) 2

66. fuEu v{kj Js.kh dk vxyk in gksxk % 66. The next term of the following letter
series will be :
CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, …. CAE, HFJ, MKO, RPT, ….
(1) UTY (2) WUY (1) UTY (2) WUY
(3) VUZ (4) WUZ (3) VUZ (4) WUZ

67. ik¡p O;fDr;ksa A, B, C, D rFkk E es]a A, 67. Among five persons A, B, C, D and
B ls NksVk ysfdu E ls yEck gS] C lcls E, A is shorter than B but taller than
yEck gS] D, B ls NksVk gS ysfdu A ls E. C is the tallest. D is shorter than B
yEck gS] rks buesa ls dkSu lcls NksVk gS \ but taller than A. Who among them
is shortest ?
(1) B (2) A (1) B (2) A
(3) D (4) E (3) D (4) E

68. ,d leprqHkqZt dk ifjeki 100 lseh gS 68. The perimeter of a rhombus is

vkSj mldk ,d fod.kZ 40 lseh gS] rks 100 cm and one of its diagonal is 40
mldk {ks=Qy gS % cm. Then its area is :
2
(1) 300 lseh (1) 300 cm2
2
(2) 600 lseh (2) 600 cm2
2
(3) 780 lseh (3) 780 cm2
2
(4) 900 lseh (4) 900 cm2
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69. nks feJ/kkrq rk¡cs rFkk fVu ls cus gSa igyh 69. Two alloys are both made up of
feJ/kkrq esa rk¡ck rFkk fVu dk vuqikr 1 : 3 copper and tin. The ratio of copper
gS rFkk nwljs esa vuqikr 2 : 5 gSA bu nksuksa and tin in the first alloy is 1 : 3 and
feJ/kkrqvksa dks fdl vuqikr esa feyk;k tk,] in second alloy is 2 : 5. In what ratio
rkfd ubZ feJ/kkrq esa rk¡cs rFkk fVu dk should two alloys be mixed, to
vuqikr 3 : 8 gks tk, \ obtain a new alloy such that the ratio
of copper and tin be 3 : 8 ?
(1) 3:5 (1) 3 : 5
(2) 4:9 (2) 4 : 9
(3) 4:7 (3) 4 : 7
(4) 3:8 (4) 3 : 8

70. A us dgk ^^og yM+dk esjh ekrkth ds ifr 70. A said "that boy is the grandson of
dk ikS= gS] esjk dksbZ HkkbZ vFkok cfgu ugha my mother's husband. I have no
gSA** yM+dk] A ls fdl izdkj lEcfU/kr gS \ brother or sister." How is the boy
(1) pkpk related to A ?
(2) iq= (1) Uncle
(2) Son
(3) Hkrhtk
(3) Nephew
(4) ppsjk HkkbZ
(4) Cousin

71. fuEu Js.kh esa xyr la[;k Kkr dhft, % 71. Find the wrong number in the
following series :
135, 226, 353, 552, 739 135, 226, 353, 552, 739
(1) 353 (1) 353
(2) 226 (2) 226
(3) 552 (3) 552
(4) 739 (4) 739

72. ` 5,000 ij 12% okf"kZd C;kt dh nj ls 72. The difference between simple
2 o"kZ ds lk/kkj.k C;kt ,oa pØo`f) C;kt interest and the compound interest
esa vUrj gksxk % compounded annually at the rate of
12% per annum on ` 5,000 for two
years will be :
(1) ` 72 (2) ` 84 (1) ` 72 (2) ` 84
(3) ` 96 (4) ` 36 (3) ` 96 (4) ` 36

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73. nks la[;kvksa dk ;ksx 520 gS] ;fn muesa ls 73. The sum of two numbers is 520. If
cM+h la[;k dks 4% de dj fn;k tk, the bigger number is decreased by
vkSj NksVh dks 12% c<+k fn;k tk,] rks 4% and the smaller number is
izkIr la[;k,¡ cjkcj gksaxh] rks muesa ls increased by 12%, then the obtained
NksVh la[;k gS % numbers are equal, then smaller
number is :
(1) 210 (2) 240 (1) 210 (2) 240
(3) 270 (4) 300 (3) 270 (4) 300

74. fuEufyf[kr Js.kh esa xyr in Kkr 74. Find the wrong term of the following
dhft, % series :
G4T, J9R, M20P, P41N, S90L G4T, J9R, M20P, P41N, S90L
(1) J9R (2) M20P (1) J9R (2) M20P
(3) P41N (4) S90L (3) P41N (4) S90L

75. ,d ?kukHk dh yEckbZ] pkSM+kbZ ,oa xgjkbZ 75. The sum of length, breadth and
dk ;ksx 19 lseh gS] rFkk blds eq[; depth of a cuboid is 19 cm and its
fod.kZ dk eki 5 5 lseh gS] rks bldk principal diagonal is 5 5 cm, then
i`"Bh; {ks=Qy gS % its surface area is :
2
(1) 361 lseh (1) 361 cm2
2
(2) 286 lseh (2) 286 cm2
2
(3) 236 lseh (3) 236 cm2
2
(4) 340 lseh (4) 340 cm2

76. ;fn ,d O;fDr 8 fdeh nf{k.k esa tkdj 76. If a person walks 8 km towards
nk;ha rjQ eqM+dj 8 fdeh tkrk gS] iqu% South then turns right and walks
ck;ha vksj eqM+dj 10 fdeh pyrk gS] rks 8 km, again turns left and walks
og 'kq#vkrh fcUnq ls fdl fn'kk esa gS \ 10 km. In which direction is he from
starting point ?
(1) iwoZ&nf{k.k (1) East-South
(2) mÙkj&iwoZ (2) North-East
(3) mÙkj&nf{k.k (3) North-South
(4) nf{k.k&if'pe (4) South-West

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77. yM+dksa dh ,d iafDr esa] A ck;ha rjQ ls 77. In a row of boys, A is 15th from the
15osa rFkk B nk;ha rjQ ls pkSFks LFkku ij left and B is fourth from the right.
gS] ,oa A rFkk B ds e/; rhu yM+ds gS]a There are three boys between A and
C, A ds ,dne ck;ha vksj gS] rks C dh B, C is first left of A. What is the
fLFkfr nk;ha vksj ls D;k gS \ position of C from the right ?
(1) 9oha (1) 9th
(2) 10oha (2) 10th
(3) 12oha (3) 12th
(4) 13oha (4) 13th

78. ,d O;fDr iwoZ dh vksj 2 fdeh pyrk gS 78. A person walks 2 km towards East
fQj og nf{k.k fn'kk esa eqM+dj 1 fdeh and then he turns to South and walk
pyrk gS fQj og iwoZ fn'kk esa eqM+dj 2 1 km. Again he turns to East and
fdeh pyrk gS] mlds ckn og mÙkj fn'kk walks 2 km after that he turns to
esa eqM+dj 4 fdeh pyrk gSA vc og North and walk 4 km. Now how far
izkjfEHkd fcUnq ls fdruh nwj [kM+k gS \ is he from his starting point ?
(1) 5 fdeh (1) 5 km
(2) 6 fdeh (2) 6 km
(3) 3 fdeh (3) 3 km
(4) 4 fdeh (4) 4 km

79. ;fn W = 23, STRONG = 93, rks 79. If W = 23, STRONG = 93, then
WEAK cjkcj gS % WEAK is equal to :
(1) 40 (2) 41 (1) 40 (2) 41
(3) 43 (4) 44 (3) 43 (4) 44

1
80. ;fn 5a + = 5, rks 9a 2 + 1 2 dk 80. If 5a +
1
= 5 , then the value of
3a 25a 3a
eku gS % 1
9a 2 + is :
25a 2
51 29
(1) (2) 51 29
5 5 (1) (2)
5 5
52 39 52 39
(3) (4) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
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81. efgyk f[kykM+h dks fookg ds volj ij 81. The amount which is given to the
^eq[;ea=h fookg 'kxqu ;kstuk* ds rgr nh sports woman on the occasion of
tkus okyh jkf'k gS % marriage under 'Mukhyamantri
Vivah Shagun Yojna' :
(1) 11,000 #i;s (1) Rs. 11,000
(2) 21,000 #i;s (2) Rs. 21,000
(3) 31,000 #i;s (3) Rs. 31,000
(4) 51,000 #i;s (4) Rs. 51,000

82. 1857 dh ØkfUr ds uk;d vCnqjZgeku [kk¡ 82. The hero of 1857 Revolution
lac) Fks % Abdurrahman Khan was related to :
(1) cgknqjx<+ ls (1) Bahadurgarh
(2) Q#Z[kuxj ls (2) Farrukhnagar
(3) >Ttj ls (3) Jhajjar
(4) ;equkuxj ls (4) Yamunanagar

83. Qjojh, 2021 esa vk;ksftr ^36oha jk"Vªh; 83. How many gold medals were won by
twfu;j ,FkysfVDl pSfEi;uf'ki* esa gfj;k.kk Haryana state in the '36th National
jkT; us fdrus Lo.kZ ind thrs \ Junior Athletics Championship',
which was held in February, 2021 ?
(1) 13 (1) 13
(2) 18 (2) 18
(3) 21 (3) 21
(4) 24 (4) 24

84. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu gfj;k.kk ds lokZf/kd 84. Who among the following was the
vof/k ds fy, jkT;iky jgs gSa \ longest serving Governor of Haryana ?
(1) ch0 ,u0 pØorhZ (1) B. N. Chakraborty
(2) ,0 vkj0 fdnobZ (2) A. R. Kidwai
(3) txUukFk igkfM+;k (3) Jagannath Pahadia
(4) dIrku flag lksyadh (4) Kaptan Singh Solanki
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85. gfj;k.kk lkfgR; vdkneh ds ckjs esa 85. Read the following statements about
v/kksfyf[kr dFkuksa dks if<+, % Haryana Sahitya Academy :
(i) eq[;ea=h vdkneh ds v/;{k ds :i esa (i) The Chief Minister serves as the
dk;Z djrs gSaA President of the academy.
(ii) ^gfjxa/kk* vdkneh dh if=dk gSA (ii) 'Harigandha' is the Magazine of
the academy.
lgh dwV pqfu, % Choose the correct code :
(1) dsoy dFku (i) lgh gS (1) Only statement (i) is correct
(2) dsoy dFku (ii) lgh gS (2) Only statement (ii) is correct
(3) u gh (i) vkSj u gh (ii) lgh gS (3) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
(4) nksuksa dFku lgh gSa (4) Both the statements are correct

86. ^iapoVh* uked rhFkZLFky gfj;k.kk esa dgk¡ 86. Where the 'Panchwati' pilgrimage
fLFkr gS \ site is located in Haryana ?
(1) iyoy esa (1) In Palwal
(2) vackyk esa (2) In Ambala
(3) gFkhu esa (3) In Hathin
(4) cYyHkx<+ esa (4) In Ballabhgarh

87. ^fpadkjk iztuu dsUnz* fdl ftys esa fLFkr gS \ 87. In which district the 'Chinkara
Breeding Centre' is situated ?
(1) dSFky (1) Kaithal
(2) iapdqyk (2) Panchkula
(3) fglkj (3) Hisar
(4) fHkokuh (4) Bhiwani

88. gfj;k.kk dh ea=h ifj"kn~ esa U;wure lnL; 88. The minimum number of members
gks ldrs gSa % in the Council of Minister of
Haryana can be :
(1) 10 (2) 12 (1) 10 (2) 12
(3) 14 (4) 06 (3) 14 (4) 06

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89. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@dkSu&ls ;qXe 89. Which of the following pair/pairs
lgh gS@gSa \ is/are true ?
(i) jkT; i'kq – dkyk fgj.k (i) State Animal – Black buck
(ii) ljLorh oU; tho vHk;kj.; – dSFky (ii) Saraswati Wild Life Sanctuary –
Kaithal
(iii) ukgj oU; tho vHk;kj.; – >Ttj
(iii) Nahar Wild Life Sanctuary –
Jhajjar
lgh dwV dk p;u dhft, %
Choose the correct code :
(1) dsoy (i) (1) Only (i)
(2) (i) vkSj (iii) (2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (i) vkSj (ii) (3) (i) and (ii)
(4) dsoy (iii) (4) Only (iii)

90. fuEufyf[kr dks lqesfyr dhft, % 90. Match the following :

uke LFkku Name Place
(A) chjcy dk jax egy (i) ukjukSy (A) Birbal's Rang (i) Narnaul
(B) vk/;kfRed (ii) xq#xzke Mahal
laxzgky; (B) Spiritual Museum (ii) Gurugram
(C) pksj xqEcn (iii) ;equkuxj (C) Chor Gumbad (iii) Yamunanagar
(D) lksguk dk fdyk (iv) ikuhir (D) Sohna Fort (iv) Panipat
dwV : Code :
(A) (B) (C) (D) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)

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Hkkx – IV (PART – IV)

foKku (SCIENCE)
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

91. ekWyLdk esa 'olu gksrk gS % 91. Mode of respiration in mollusca is :

A. eq[kxqfg; 'olu A. Buccal respiration

B. czk¡fd;y ¼Dykse n~okjk½ B. Bronchial
C. iYeksujh ¼Qq¶Qqlh;½ C. Pulmonary
lgh fodYi pqfu, % Choose the correct option :
(1) dsoy A ,oe~ C (1) only A and C
(2) dsoy B ,oe~ A (2) only B and A
(3) dsoy B ,oe~ C (3) only B and C
(4) A, B ,oe~ C (4) A, B and C

92. ,d fo|kFkhZ us i<+k fd lkcqu v.kq ds nks 92. A student studies that a soap
fljs gksrs gSaA ftlesa ls ,d vk;fud fljk molecule has two ends, one of which
rFkk nwljk dkcZu Ük`a[kyk gksrk gSA is an ionic end and the other is
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk fodYi lkcqu carbon chain. Which of the following
dh rsy ds lkFk vU;ksU; fØ;k dks le>krk option explains the interaction of
gS \ soap molecule with oil ?
(1) lkcqu dk vk;fud fljk rsy ls (1) Ionic end of the soap interacts
vU;ksU; fØ;k djrk gSA with the oil.
(2) lkcqu dk fudVre fljk ¼vk;fud (2) The closest end of the soap
vFkok dkcZu Üka`[kyk½ rsy ls vU;ksU; (either ionic or carbon chain)
fØ;k djrk gSA interacts with oil.
(3) lkcqu dk dkcZu Ük`a[kyk okyk fljk (3) Carbon chain end of the soap
rsy ls vU;ksU; fØ;k djrk gSA interacts with the oil.
(4) pwafd lkcqu rsy ls cuk gksrk gS vr% (4) Neither ionic end nor carbon
rsy ls mldk u rks vk;fud fljk chain interacts with oil since
vkSj u gh dkcZu Ük`a[kyk fljk vU;ksU; soap is made up from oil.
fØ;k djrk gSA
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93. jnjQksMZ dk α-d.k çdh.kZu ç;ksx n'kkZrk 93. Rutherford's α-particle scattering
gS fd % experiment shows that :

(i) bysDVªkWu _.kkosf'kr gksrs gSaA (i) electrons have negative charge.

(ii) ijek.kq dk æO;eku rFkk /kukos'k (ii) the mass and positive charge of
ukfHkd esa ladsfUær jgrk gSA the atom is concentrated in the
nucleus.

(iii) ukfHkd esa U;wVªkWu dk vfLrRo gSA (iii) neutron exists in the nucleus.

(iv) ijek.kq dk vf/kdka'k Hkkx fjDr gSA (iv) most of the space in atom is
empty.

mijksDr dFkuksa esa ls dkSu-ls lgh gSa \ Which of the above statements are
correct ?

(1) (ii), (iii) rFkk (iv) (1) (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (ii) rFkk (iv) (2) (ii) and (iv)

(3) (i), (ii) rFkk (iv) (3) (i), (ii) and (iv)

(4) (i) rFkk (iii) (4) (i) and (iii)

94. ,d chdj esa 18 g ty esa 3.42 g lqØksl 94. 3.42 g of sucrose are dissolved in 18 g
dks ?kksyk x;kA foy;u esa vkWDlhtu of water in a beaker. The number of
ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k gS % oxygen atoms in the solution are :

(1) 6.68 × 10 23 (1) 6.68 × 10 23

(2) 6.09 × 10 22 (2) 6.09 × 10 22

(3) 6.022 × 10 23 (3) 6.022 × 10 23

(4) 6.022 × 10 21 (4) 6.022 × 10 21

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95. foy;u/foyk;d ds çfr bdkbZ vk;ru vFkok 95. The amount of solute present per
çfr bdkbZ æO;eku esa mifLFkr foys; inkFkZ unit volume or per unit mass of the
dh ek=k dks dgrs gSa % solution/solvent is known as :

(1) foys; dk la?kVu (1) Composition of a solute

(2) foy;u dh lkUærk (2) Concentration of a solution

(3) foyk;d dk la?kVu (3) Composition of a solvent

(4) foyk;d dh lkUærk (4) Concentration of a solvent

96. dkWye-I dks dkWye-II ls feyk;sa vkSj lgh 96. Match the Column-I with Column-II
fodYi dk p;u djsa % and choose the correct option :
dkWye-I dkWye-II Column-I Column-II
(i) oØrk dsUæ ls (A) eq[; v{k ds (i) Ray through (A) Reflected
tkus okyh fdj.k lekukUrj fdj.ksa centre of parallel rays to
ijkofrZr gksrh gSa curvature principal axis
(ii) Qksdl ls tkus (B) Qksdl ij (ii) Ray through (B) Converges at
okyh fdj.k vfHklfjr gksrh gS focus focus
(iii) vuar nwjh ls (C) Qksdl ls fudyrh (iii) Rays from (C) Emerge
fdj.ksa gS infinite distance through focus
(iv) vuUr dks (D) niZ.kksa esa okil (iv) Refracted rays (D) Refracting in
viofrZr fdj.ksa tkrh gS to infinity mirrors

(1) (i) - D, (ii) - A, (iii) - B, (iv) - C (1) (i) - D, (ii) - A, (iii) - B, (iv) - C

(2) (i) - C, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - B (2) (i) - C, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - B

(3) (i) - B, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - C (3) (i) - B, (ii) - A, (iii) - D, (iv) - C

(4) (i) - D, (ii) - B, (iii) - A, (iv) - C (4) (i) - D, (ii) - B, (iii) - A, (iv) - C

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97. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh izfØ;k Årdksa 97. Which of the following process is
dks cnyus ,oa ejEer djus ds fy, responsible for replacing and
mÙkjnk;h gS \ repairing tissues ?

(1) xfr (1) Movement

(2) pyu (2) Mobility

(3) dksf'kdk foHkktu (3) Cell division

(4) o`f) (4) Growth

98. ,d jMkj 0.02 × 10 −3 sec ds le; 98. A radar is able to detect the reflected
vUrjky ds ckn nq'eu ds gokbZ tgkt ls waves from an enemy's aeroplane
ijkofrZr rjaxksa dk irk yxkus esa l{ke gSA after a time interval of 0.02 × 10 −3
;fn rjaxksa dk osx 3 × 108 m/s gSA gokbZ sec. If the velocity of the waves is
tgkt dh jMkj ls nwjh gksxh % 3 × 108 m/s. The distance of the
aeroplane from the Radar will be :

(1) 1.0 km (2) 1.5 km (1) 1.0 km (2) 1.5 km

(3) 3.0 km (4) 6.0 km (3) 3.0 km (4) 6.0 km

99. tc fdlh æo dk ok"i nkc] ok;qeaMyh; 99. When vapour pressure of a liquid is
nkc ds cjkcj gks tkrk gS] rks ml æo dk equal to the atmospheric pressure,
D;k gksrk gS \ what happens to the liquid ?

(1) æo terk gS (1) The liquid freezes

(2) æo ';ku gks tkrk gS (2) The liquid becomes viscous

(3) æo mcyrk gS (3) The liquid boils

(4) æo esa dksbZ ifjorZu ugha gksrk gS (4) The liquid does not undergo any
change

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100. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk dFku lR; gS \ 100. Which of the following statement is
correct ?

(1) d{k rki ij æo ds :i esa mifLFkr (1) Material existing as liquids at

inkFkZ ds xyukad ,oa DoFkukad d{k room temperature have their
rki ls de gksrs gSaA melting and boiling points lower
than that of room temperature.

(2) rki dks lsfYl;l iSekus ls dsfYou (2) To convert a temperature on

iSekus esa ifjofrZr djus ds fy, fn, Celsius scale to Kelvin scale,
x, rki esa ls 273 ?kVkrs gSaA subtract 273 from the given
temperature.

(3) cQZ dk ?kuRo] ty dh rqyuk esa de (3) The density of ice is less than
gksrk gSA that of water.

(4) ,d inkFkZ ds Bksl voLFkk ls æo (4) The process involving the

voLFkk esa laØe.k ds lfEefyr çØe transition of a substance from solid
dks Å/oZikru dgrs gSaA to liquid is called sublimation.

101. ,oht ¼if{k;ksa½ ds ifjlapj.k ra= ds lUnHkZ 101. What is incorrect about the
esa xyr gS % circulatory system of aves ?

(1) ân; pkj d{kh; gksrk gSA (1) Heart is four chambered.

(2) o`Dd fuokfgdk ra= iw.kZ fodflr gksrk (2) Well developed renal portal
gSA system.

(3) f'kjk dksVj ,oe~ /keuh dkaM (3) Sinus venosus and truncus
vuqifLFkr gksrs gSaA arteriosus are lacking.

(4) yky jDr df.kdk,¡ dsUnzd ;qDr gksrh (4) R. B. Cs are nucleated.
gSaA
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102. Hkou esa rfM+r pkyd dk fupyk fljk dgk¡ 102. Where is the lower end of a lightning
yxk gksrk gS \ conductor fixed in the building ?

(1) 'kh"kZ ij (1) at the top

(2) ,d f[kM+dh ij (2) at a window

(3) vk/kkj lrg ij (3) at the base floor

(4) tehu ds vUnj (4) inside the ground

103. f}/kzqoh; raf=dk,¡ ikbZ tkrh gSa % 103. Bipolar neurons are found in :

(1) dkWfuZ;k esa (1) Cornea

(2) dkWUtfDVok esa (2) Conjuctiva

(3) jsfVuk esa (3) Retina

(4) ysUl esa (4) Lens

104. DyksjksfQy ds v.kq esa mifLFkr [kfut rÙo 104. The mineral element present in a
gksrk gS % chlorophyll molecule is :

(1) ekWfyfCMue (1) Molybdenum

(2) eSaxuht (2) Manganese

(3) eSxuhf'k;e (3) Magnesium

(4) ykSg (4) Iron

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105. ckb;wjsV ijh{k.k mifLFkfr dh tk¡p esa 105. Biuret test is used to test the
iz;qDr gksrk gS % presence of :

(1) olk (2) dkcksZgkbMªsV (1) Fat (2) Carbohydrate

(3) izksVhu (4) U;wfDyd vEy (3) Protein (4) Nucleic Acid

106. ;fn ,d vko/kZd dk¡p dh Qksdl nwjh 106. If the focal length of a magnifying
2.5 cm gS] rks ;g fdlh oLrq dks vkof/kZr glass is 2.5 cm, it can magnify an
dj ldrk gS % object :

(1) 2.5 xq.kk (2) 10 xq.kk (1) 2.5 times (2) 10 times

(3) 11 xq.kk (4) 15 xq.kk (3) 11 times (4) 15 times

107. xk; ?kkl [kkrh gS rFkk nksuksa esa dksf'kdk 107. Cow eat grass and both have cells
gksrh gSa ¼xk; ,oe~ ?kkl esa½A dksf'kdk ls (cow and grass). Read the following
lEcfU/kr fuEu okD;ksa dks if<+, % statements regarding cells :
(A) xk; dh dksf'kdk,¡ ?kkl dh dksf'kdk ls (A) Cow cells are bigger than grass
cM+h gksrh gSA cells.
(B) xk; dh dksf'kdkvksa esa IykfLVM rFkk (B) Cow cells have plastids and
NksVh /kkfu;k¡ gksrh gSaA small vacuoles.
(C) ?kkl dh dksf'kdkvksa esa dksf'kdk fHkfÙk (C) Grass cells have cell walls and
,oe~ /kkfu;k¡ gksrh gSaA vacuoles.
(D) ?kkl dh dksf'kdkvksa esa rkjddk; ,oe~ (D) Grass cells have centrosome and
DyksjksIykLV gksrs gSaA chloroplasts.

(E) xk; dh dksf'kdk esa dksf'kdk f>Yyh (E) Cow cells have cell membrane
,oe~ ekbVksdkWfUMª;k gksrs gSaA and mitochondria.

lgh fodYi pqfu, % Choose the correct option :

(1) A ,oe~ C (2) B ,oe~ C (1) A and C (2) B and C

(3) C ,oe~ E (4) D ,oe~ E (3) C and E (4) D and E

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108. fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa ij fopkj dj uhps fn, 108. Consider the following statements
x, dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls lgh mÙkj dk and select the correct answer using
p;u dhft, % the codes given below :

vfHkdFku (A) : e`nwrd] ikni 'kjhj esa Assertion (A) : Parenchyma is the
lokZf/kd ik;k tkus okyk Ård gSA most abundant tissue in plant body.

dkj.k (R) : e`nwrd ,d ljy LFkk;h Ård Reason (R) : Parenchyma is a

gSA simple permanent tissue.

dwV % Codes :

(1) (A) ,oa (R) nksuksa lgh gSa vkSj (R), (1) (A) and (R) both are correct and
(A) dh lgh O;k[;k gS (R) is the correct explanation of
(A)

(2) (A) ,oa (R) nksuksa lgh gSa fdUrq (R), (2) (A) and (R) both are correct but
(A) dh lgh O;k[;k ugha gS (R) is not the correct explanation
of (A)

(3) (A) lgh gS fdUrq (R) xyr gS (3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect

(4) (A) xyr gS fdUrq (R) lgh gS (4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

109. f=T;k 'r' dh ,d xsan dks f=T;k 'R' ds 109. A ball of radius 'r' is made to
dVksjs esa nksyu djk;k tkrk gSA blds oscillate in a bowl of radius 'R'. The
nksyu dk vkorZdky gksxk (R > r) % time period of its oscillation will be
(R > r) :

r R r R
(1) 2π (2) 2π (1) 2π (2) 2π
g g g g

R−r R+r R−r R+r

(3) 2π (4) 2π (3) 2π (4) 2π
g g g g

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110. iw.kZ dk;kUrj.k ik;k tkrk gS % 110. Complete metamorphosis occurs in :

(1) flYoj fQ'k esa (1) Silver fish

(2) ykWdLV esa ¼fVM~Mh esa½ (2) Locust

(3) csMcx esa ¼[kVey esa½ (3) Bedbug

(4) ePNj esa (4) Mosquitoes

111. vR;f/kd v.Mkdkj d{kk esa lw;Z dh 111. Which term is used for celestial
ifjØek djus okys [kxksyh; fi.Mksa ds fy, bodies that revolve around the sun in
dkSu-ls 'kCn dk ç;ksx fd;k tkrk gS \ highly elliptical orbit ?

(1) /kwedsrq (1) Comet

(2) mYdk (2) Meteor

(3) {kqæxzg (3) Asteroid

(4) xzg (4) Planet

112. Qq¶Qql ifjof/kZr gksrs gSa % 112. Lungs develops from :

(1) cká tuu Lrj ls (1) Ectoderm

(2) e/; tuu Lrj ls (2) Mesoderm

(3) vUr% tuu Lrj ls (3) Endoderm

(4) vUr% tuu Lrj ,oe~ e/; tuu Lrj (4) Both endoderm and mesoderm
nksuksa ls

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113. ;fn n1 ] n2 vkSj n3 rhu [k.Mksa dh 113. If n1 ] n2 and n3 are the

ekSfyd vko`fÙk;k¡ gSa ftlesa ,d jLlh fundamental frequencies of three
foHkkftr gS] rks jLlh dh ewy ekSfyd segments into which a string is
vko`fÙk 'n' fuEu ds }kjk nh tkrh gS % divided, then the original
fundamental frequency 'n' of the
string is given by following :

(1) n = n1 + n2 + n3 (1) n = n1 + n2 + n3

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(2) = + + (2) = + +
n n1 n2 n3 n n1 n2 n3

(3) n = n1 + n2 + n3 (3) n = n1 + n2 + n3

1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
(4) = + + (4) = + +
n n1 n2 n3 n n1 n2 n3

114. QkWLQksjl dh ijek.kqdrk gS % 114. Atomicity of phosphorus is :

(1) 2 (2) 0 (1) 2 (2) 0

(3) 4 (4) 3 (3) 4 (4) 3

115. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk :ikUrfjr 115. Which of the following is not an
Hkwfexr~ rus dk mnkgj.k ugha gS \ example of a modified underground
stem ?

(1) vkyw (1) Potato

(2) vnjd (2) Ginger

(3) gYnh (3) Turmeric

(4) ew¡xQyh (4) Groundnut

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116. fuEufyf[kr v.kq esa fdrus la;ksth bysDVªkWu 116. How many valence electrons are not
lkf>r ugha gSa \ shared in the following molecule ?
Cl Cl
| |
Cl − P − Cl Cl − P − Cl

(1) 2 (2) 18 (1) 2 (2) 18

(3) 6 (4) 20 (3) 6 (4) 20

117. ikni ds rus ls izkIr js'kksa ds ;qXe dk 117. Select the pair of fibres obtained
p;u dhft, % from the stem of a plant :

(1) dkWbj ,oa ¶ysDl (1) Coir and Flax

(2) ¶ysDl ,oa twV (2) Flax and Jute

(3) twV ,oa diksd (3) Jute and Kapok

(4) diksd ,oa gsEi (4) Kapok and Hemp

118. D;k gksrk gS tc ,d vkWDlhtu ijek.kq] 118. What happens when an oxygen atom
vkWDlhtu vk;u curk gS \ becomes an oxygen ion ?

(a) bldk ijek.kfod æO;eku ?kVrk gSA (a) It's atomic mass decreases.

(b) blds U;qfDyvksuksa dh la[;k c<+rh gSA (b) It's nucleon number increases.

(c) bldk ijek.kq Øekad leku jgrk gSA (c) It's atomic number remains
same.

(d) bldh æO;eku la[;k esa o`f) gksrh gSA (d) It's mass number increases.

lgh fodYi gS % Correct option is :

(1) (a) rFkk (c) (1) (a) and (c)

(2) (b) rFkk (d) (2) (b) and (d)

(3) dsoy (d) (3) only (d)

(4) dsoy (c) (4) only (c)

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119. ,d bUæ/kuq"k dh vkÑfr xksykdkj gksrh gS 119. A rainbow has a circular shape
D;ksafd % because of :

(1) i`Foh xksykdkj gS (1) the earth is spherical

(2) o"kkZ dh cw¡nsa xksykdkj gSa (2) the raindrops are spherical

(3) lw;Z xksykdkj gS (3) the sun is spherical

(4) gekjh vk¡[ksa xksykdkj gSa (4) our eyes are spherical
120. 'A' rFkk 'B' dks igpkfu, % 120. Identify 'A' and 'B' :
CrO3− CrO3−
'A' 'A'
vkWDlhdj.k CH 3COOH Oxidation CH 3COOH
CH 3CH 2OH CH 3CH 2OH
{kkjh; Alkaline
'B' 'B'
KMnO4 KMnO4

(1) A = CH 3CHO, B = CH 3COOH (1) A = CH 3 CHO, B = CH 3COOH

(2) A = CH 3COOH , B = CH 3CHO (2) A = CH 3COOH , B = CH 3CHO
(3) A = HCHO, B = CO2 (3) A = HCHO, B = CO2
(4) A = CH 3CHO , B = CH 2 = CH 2 (4) A = CH 3CHO , B = CH 2 = CH 2

121. ,d larqfyr lehdj.k ls dkSu-lh lwpuk 121. Which information is not conveyed
lEçsf"kr ugha gksrh gS \ by a balanced chemical equation ?
(1) vfHkdkjd rFkk mRikn dh HkkSfrd voLFkk (1) Physical states of reactants and
products
(2) vfHkdkjd rFkk cuus okys mRikn ds (2) Number of atoms/molecules of
ijek.kqvksa/v.kqvksa dh la[;k the reactants and product formed

(3) ,d fof'k"V vfHkfØ;k esa lfEefyr (3) Symbols and formulae of all the
lHkh inkFkks± ds çrhd ,oa lw= substances involved in a particular
reaction
(4) ,d fof'k"V vfHkfØ;k okLro esa laHko (4) Whether a particular reaction is
gS vFkok ugha actually feasible or not

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122. 2.5 kg æO;eku ds rkacs ds ,d xqVds 122. A copper block of mass 2.5 kg is
¼CykWd½ dks ,d HkV~Vh esa 500°C ds rki heated in a furnace to a temperature
ij xeZ fd;k tkrk gS vkSj fQj ,d cM+s of 500°C and then placed on a large
cQZ ds CykWd ij j[k fn;k tkrk gSA cQZ ice block. The maximum amount of
dh vf/kdre ek=k tks fi?ky ldrh gS]
fdruh gksxh \ ice that can be melt, will be :
fn;k gS % Given :
Specific heat of copper
rkacs dh fof'k"V Å"ek = 0.4 J g −1 °C −1
= 0.4 J g −1 °C −1

ikuh dh æo.k dh Å"ek = 400 J g −1 Heat of fusion of water = 400 J g −1

(1) 1.25 kg (1) 1.25 kg

(2) 1.50 kg (2) 1.50 kg

(3) 1.75 kg (3) 1.75 kg

(4) 1.80 kg
(4) 1.80 kg

123. ,d fo|qr~ dsryh esa nks Å"eh; dq.Mfy;k¡ 123. An electric kettle has two heating
gSaA tc buesa ls ,d dq.Myh dks çR;korhZ coils. When one of the coil is
/kkjk òksr ls tksM+k tkrk gS] rks dsryh esa connected to an alternating current
ikuh 10 feuV esa mcyrk gSA tc nwljh source the water in the kettle boils in
dq.Myh dk mi;ksx fd;k tkrk gS] rks ikuh 10 minutes. When the other coil is
dh leku ek=k dks mckyus esa 15 feuV dk used, the same quantity of water
le; yxrk gSA ;fn nksuksa dq.Mfy;ksa dks takes 15 minutes in boil. How long
lekukUrj tksM+ fn;k tk;s] rks ikuh dh will it take for the same quantity of
leku ek=k dks mckyus esa fdruk le; water to boil, if the two coils are
yxsxk \ connected in parallel ?

(1) 6 feuV (2) 12 feuV (1) 6 minute (2) 12 minute

(3) 18 feuV (4) 24 feuV (3) 18 minute (4) 24 minute

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124. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk dFku lgh ugha 124. Which of the following statement is
gS \ not true ?

(1) ,d xSl ds v.kq leLr miyC/k LFkku (1) The molecules of a gas occupy
dks ?ksj ysrs gSaA all the space available.

(2) ,d æo ds v.kq fu;fer iSVuZ esa (2) The molecules in a liquid are
O;ofLFkr jgrs gSaA arranged in a regular pattern.

(3) ,d Bksl esa v.kq fuf'pr fLFkfr ds (3) The molecules in a solid vibrate
pkjksa vksj dEiUu djrs gSaA about a fixed position.

(4) la?kê ¼VDdj½ ds vfrfjDr] ,d xSl (4) The molecules in a gas exert
ds v.kq ,d-nwljs ij vuUr lw{e cy negligibly small forces on each
vkjksfir djrs gSaA other, except during collisions.

125. æO; ds vfHky{k.kksa ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr 125. Which of the following statement is
esa ls dkSu-lk dFku lR; ugha gS \ not true regarding the characteristic
of matter ?
(1) rki esa o`f) ls d.kksa dh xfrt ÅtkZ (1) Kinetic energy of the particles
c<+ tkrh gSA increases with a rise in
temperature.
(2) æO; ds d.k ,d-nwljs esa Lor% folfjr (2) Particles of matter diffuse into
gksrs gSaA each other on their own.
(3) æO; ds d.k lHkh fn'kkvksa esa ;kn`fPNd (3) Particles of a matter are
xfr djrs gSaA randomly moving in all the
directions.

(4) ,d fu;r rki ij lHkh æO;ksa ds d.kksa (4) Kinetic energy of the particles in
dh xfrt ÅtkZ leku gksrh gSA all matters remains the same at a
particular temperature.

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126. ukfHkd ds pkjksa vksj LFkk;h ÅtkZ Lrj dh 126. Which scientist gave the concept of
ladYiuk fdl oSKkfud us nh \ fixed energy levels around the nucleus ?

(1) ts0 ts0 FkkWelu (1) J. J. Thomson

(2) uhYl cksj (2) Neils Bohr

(3) vusZLV jnjQksMZ (3) Ernest Rutherford

(4) fofy;e ØwDl (4) William Crooks

127. csfdax lksMk rFkk lksMk ,s'k ;kSfxdksa esa 127. The element which is not common
dkSu-lk rÙo mHk;fu"B ugha gS \ between the compounds called
baking soda and soda ash is :

(1) vkWDlhtu (1) Oxygen

(2) gkbMªkstu (2) Hydrogen

(3) lksfM;e (3) Sodium

(4) dkcZu (4) Carbon

128. ----------- dh vfHkfØ;k dkfLVd lksMk ls 128. Soaps are formed by the reaction of
djkus ij lkcqu curs gSaA ……….. with caustic soda.

(1) dkcksZfuy ;kSfxdksa (1) carbonyl compounds

(2) ,sYdksgyksa (2) alcohols

(3) QhukWyksa (3) phenols

(4) ,LVjksa (4) esters

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129. n`<+dks.kksrd ds lanHkZ esa xyr dFku dk 129. Select the incorrect statement with
p;u dhft, % reference to the collenchyma :
(1) n`<+dks.kksrd esa gfjryod mifLFkr gks (1) Chloroplasts may be present in
ldrs gSaA collenchyma.
(2) n`<+dks.kksrd r#.k rus dk fcuk VwVs (2) Collenchyma allow easy
eqM+uk] lEHko djrk gSA bending without breakage of the
young stem.

(3) bldh dksf'kdk,¡ fyfXuu fu{ksi.k ds (3) Its cells are thickened at the
dkj.k dksuksa ij LFkwy gksrh gSaA corners due to deposition of lignin.
(4) n`<+dks.kksrd esa izksVksIykTe mifLFkr (4) Protoplasm is present in
gksrk gSA collenchyma.

130. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdlesa vf/kdre la[;k 130. Which of the following contains
esa v.kq gSa \ maximum number of molecules ?

(1) 1 g H 2 (2) 1 g N 2 (1) 1 g H 2 (2) 1 g N 2

(3) 1 g CO2 (4) 1 g CH 4 (3) 1 g CO2 (4) 1 g CH 4

131. Bt ¼cSflyl Fkqfjaft,fUll½ izHksn ds lUnHkZ 131. What is true about Bt (Bacillus
esa lR; D;k gS \ thuringiensis) strain ?
(1) lEcfU/kr cSflyl esa izfrvkfo"k gksrk (1) The concerned Bacillus has
gSA antitoxins.
(2) Bt-izHksn u, tSo dhVuk'kh ikS/kksa dks (2) The Bt-strains have been used for
cukus esa iz;qDr gksrk gSA designing novel Bioinsecticidal
plants.
(3) cSflyl esa Bt-vkfo"k ,d lfØ; (3) Bt-toxins exists as active toxins
vkfo"k ds :i esa jgrk gSA in the Bacillus.
(4) lfØ; vkfo"k ihM+d ds v.Mk'k; esa (4) The activated toxins enters the
izosf'kr gksdj mls ca/; dj nsrs gSa ovaries of the pest to sterilize it
rFkk bl izdkj xq.ku dks jksdrs gSaA and thus prevent its multiplication.
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132. izksVhu la'ys"k.k gsrq izkjaHku dwV }kjk 132. The amino acid coded by the start
dksfMr vehuks vEy gS % codon for protein synthesis is :

(1) ehfFk;ksukbu (1) Methionine

(2) fVªIVksQSu (2) Tryptophan

(3) oSykbu (3) Valine

(4) vkftZuhu (4) Arginine

133. dkSu&lk lqesfyr ugha gS \ 133. Which is not correctly matched ?

(1) ,xzkscSDVsfj;e & Ti IykfTeM (1) Agrobacterium – Ti Plasmid

(2) dkWfLeM & okgd Mh,u, (2) Cosmid – Vector DNA

(3) jkbtksfc;e & vlgthoh N2 LFkk;h dkjd (3) Rhizobium – Asymbiotic N2 fixer
(4) ,fYcfuTe ¼vo.kZdrk½ & vfyaxlw=h
(4) Albinism – Autosomal recessive
vizHkkoh thu gene

134. tc nks fi.M leku :i ls ,d-nwljs dh 134. When two bodies move uniformly
vksj xfr djrs gSa rks nwjh 6 m/s ls de towards each other, the distance
gksrh gSA ;fn nksuksa fi.M ¼Åij of.kZr½ ,d decrease by 6 m/s. If both the bodies
gh fn'kk esa leku xfr ls pyrs gSa] rks moves (as above) in the same
muds chp dh nwjh 4 m/s ls c<+rh gS] rc direction with the same speed, the
nksuksa fi.Mksa dh pky gS % distance between them increases by
4 m/s. Then the speed of the two
bodies are :

(1) 7 m/s, 3 m/s (2) 5 m/s, 1 m/s (1) 7 m/s, 3 m/s (2) 5 m/s, 1 m/s

(3) 4 m/s, 2 m/s (4) 3 m/s, 3 m/s (3) 4 m/s, 2 m/s (4) 3 m/s, 3 m/s

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135. rÙoksa ds fuEufyf[kr ;qXeksa esa ls dkSu-lk 135. In which of the following pairs are
vkorZ lkj.kh ds leku vkorZ esa mifLFkr the element found in the same period
gSa \ of the periodic table ?

(1) lYQj rFkk lsysfu;e (1) Sulphur and Selenium

(2) LVªk¡f'k;e rFkk dSfYl;e (2) Strontium and Calcium

(3) dSfYl;e rFkk tesZfu;e (3) Calcium and Germanium

(4) iksVSf'k;e rFkk eSaxuht (4) Potassium and Manganese

136. lgh esy gS % 136. The correct match is :

(1) uh,fUFkt & ckWfVªvkWbMy Ård (1) Neanthes – Botryoidal tissue

(2) dhVksIVsjl & yxokeZ (2) Chaetopterus – Lugworm

(3) dsapqvk & pw"kd (3) Earthworm – Suckers

(4) gsVsjksusjht & usjht dh ySafxd izkoLFkk (4) Heteronereis – A sexual phase
of Nereis
137. Hkqtk 'L' ds ,d oxkZdkj Ýse esa /kkjk I 137. A square frame of side 'L' carries a
çokfgr gksrh gSA blds dsUæ ij pqEcdh; current I. The magnetic field at its
{ks= B gSA leku /kkjk dks oxZ ds leku centre is B. The same current is
passed through a circular coil having
ifjfefr okyh ,d o`Ùkkdkj dq.Myh ls the same perimeter as the square.
çokfgr fd;k tkrk gSA o`Ùkkdkj dq.Myh ds The magnetic field at the centre of
dsUæ ij pqEcdh; {ks= B′ gSA
B
dk the circular coil is B′ . The ratio of
B′ B
is :
vuqikr gS % B′

8 2 8 2 8 2 8 2
(1) 2
(2) (1) (2)
π3 2
π π π3

8 2 4 2 8 2 4 2
(3) (4) (3) (4)
π π2 π π2

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138. ,d xsan 'X' dks osx u ls Å/okZ/kj Åij 138. A ball 'X' is thrown vertically
dh vksj Qsadk tkrk gSA mlh {k.k ,d nwljh upwards with speed u. At the same
xsan 'Y' dks H Å¡pkbZ ij ls fojkekoLFkk instant another ball 'Y' is released
ls NksM+k tkrk gSA le; t ij 'Y' ds lkis{k from rest at height H. At time t, the
'X' dk osx gS % speed of 'X' relative to 'Y' is :

(1) u − 2 gt (1) u − 2 gt

(2) u 2 − 2 gH (2) u 2 − 2 gH

(3) u (3) u

(4) 2u (4) 2u

139. ;fn i`Foh dh f=T;k 1% ls fldqM+ tkrh gS] 139. If the radius of the earth were to
?kuRo fu;r jgrk gS] rks i`Foh dh lrg shrink by 1%, the density remaining
ij xq#Roh; Roj.k gksxk % constant, the acceleration due to
gravity on the surface of the earth
will be :

(1) vuUr (1) infinite

(2) g (2) g

(3) g ls vf/kd (3) more than g

(4) g ls de (4) less than g

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[A] [ 42 ]

140. uhps fn, x, dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls ofxZdh 140. Select the hierarchy (descending) of
laoxks± ds lgh inkuqØe ¼vojksgh½ dk p;u the taxonomic ranks using the codes
dhft, % given below :

A. x.k A. Order

B. oa'k B. Genus

C. oxZ C. Class

D. tkfr D. Species

E. dqy E. Family

dwV % Codes :

(1) CAEBD (1) CAEBD

(2) ACEDB (2) ACEDB

(3) CEABD (3) CEABD

(4) BDEAC (4) BDEAC

141. ;fn dksbZ CykWd ,d 30° >qds gq, ry ij 141. If a block moving upon an inclined
5 m/s ds osx ls Åij dh vksj xfr dj plane at 30° with a velocity of 5 m/s,
jgk gS] 0.5 s ds ckn #d tkrk gS] rks stops after 0.5 s. Then coefficient of
?k"kZ.k dk xq.kkad yxHkx gksxk % friction will be nearly :

(1) 0.5 (1) 0.5

(2) 0.6 (2) 0.6

(3) 0.9 (3) 0.9

(4) 1.1 (4) 1.1

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142. ,d cjxn ds isM+ dk thoudky ~300 o"kZ 142. A banyan tree's life time is ~300
gksrk gSA ;fn ,d iw.kZ fodflr cjxn ds years. If a fully grown banyan tree is
isM+ dks ÅtkZ mRiUu djus ds fy, FkeZy burnt in a thermal power plant to
IykaV ¼rkih; la;a=½ esa tyk;k tkrk gS vkSj generate energy and at the same time
mlh le; ,d u;k isM+ yxk;k tkrk gSA a new tree is planted. Choose the
bl lanHkZ esa lgh fodYi dk p;u djsa % correct option in this context :

(1) rRdky le; ra= esa çfØ;k dkcZu (1) The process is carbon neutral in
mnklhu ¼U;wVªy½ gSA immediate time frame.

(2) ;g çfØ;k dbZ o"kks± ds ckn gh dkcZu (2) The process will become carbon
mnklhu ¼U;wVªy½ gks ik;sxhA neutral only after many years.

(3) bl çfØ;k esa dksbZ dkcZu 'kkfey ugha (3) There is no carbon involved in
gSA this process.

(4) bl çfØ;k esa dksbZ vkWDlhtu 'kkfey (4) There is no oxygen involved in
ugha gSA this process.

143. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk xBu ds vk/kkj 143. Which of the following is not one of
ij] rhu izkFkfed izdkj dh e`nkvksa esa ls the three primary types of soil based
ugha gS \ on its texture ?

(1) jsr (1) Sand

(2) nweV (2) Loam

(3) xkn (3) Silt

(4) fpduh feV~Vh (4) Clay

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144. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdl yo.k esa fØLVyu 144. Which of the following salts has no
ty ugha gS \ water of crystallization ?

(1) uhyk FkksFkk (1) Blue vitriol

(2) /kkou lksMk (2) Washing soda

(3) ftIle (3) Gypsum

(4) csfdax lksMk (4) Baking soda

145. vuqoknu dh izfØ;k esa vuqdwyd v.kq gS % 145. The adaptor molecule in the process
of translation is :

(1) snRNA (1) snRNA

(2) mRNA (2) mRNA

(3) rRNA (3) rRNA

(4) tRNA (4) tRNA

146. lekukUrj Øe esa la;ksftr çfrjks/kksa dk 146. The equivalent resistance of the
rqY; çfrjks/k 6/5 Ω gSA tc ,d çfrjks/k resistances joined in parallel is 6/5 Ω
rkj VwV tkrk gS] rks çHkkoh çfrjks/k 2Ω gks when one of the resistance wire is
tkrk gSA VwVs gq, rkj dk çfrjks/k Fkk % broken, the effective resistance
becomes 2Ω. The resistance of wire
that got broken was :

(1) 2Ω (1) 2Ω

(2) 3Ω (2) 3Ω

(3) 5Ω (3) 5Ω

(4) 7Ω (4) 7Ω

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147. çxyu ds nkSjku ,d vfrfjDr inkFkZ feyk;k 147. During smelting an additional
tkrk gS tks v'kqf);ksa ds lkFk la;qDr gksdj substance is added which combines
,d xyuh; mRikn --------- cukrk gSA with impurities to form a ………..
fusible product.

(1) ¶yDl ¼xkyd½ (1) Flux

(2) /kkrqey (2) Slag

(3) vk/kk=h (3) Gangue

(4) iad (4) Mud

148. ,d eqDr U;wVªkWu Lor% {k; gks tkrk gS ,d 148. A free neutron decays spontaneously
çksVkWu] ,d bysDVªkWu vkSj ----------- esaA into a proton, an electron
and ……… .
(1) ,d U;wfVªuks
(1) A neutrino
(2) ,d çfrU;wfVªuks
(2) An antineutrino

(3) nksuksa (3) Both

(4) buesa ls dksbZ ugha (4) None of these

149. ,d ikuh ds iai dh 'kfDr 2 kW gSA ;g 149. The power of a water pump is 2 kW.
,d feuV esa 10 m dh Å¡pkbZ rd ikuh The amount of water (in litres) it can
dh fdruh ek=k ¼yhVj es½a p<+k ldrk gS \ raise in one minute to a height of
10 m will be :
2
(g = 10 m/ s ) (g = 10 m/ s 2 )

(1) 100 (2) 1000 (1) 100 (2) 1000

(3) 1200 (4) 2000
(3) 1200 (4) 2000

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150. ,d rkacs dh NM+ vkSj ,d LVhy dh NM+ 150. A copper rod and a steel rod are to
dh yEckbZ LC vkSj LS bl çdkj gS fd have lengths LC and LS , such that
mudh yEckbZ ds chp dk varj lHkh the difference between their lengths
ifjos'k ds rkieku ij leku gSA ;fn rkacs is the same at all ambient
vkSj LVhy ds jSf[kd foLrkj xq.kkad Øe'k% temperature. If the coefficients of
α C ,oa α S gS] rks yEckbZ jSf[kd foLrkj linear expansion of copper and steels
xq.kkad ls fuEu :i esa lacaf/kr gS % are α C and α S respectively. The
lengths are related to the coefficient
of linear expansion as :
LC α S LC α S
(1) = (1) =
LS α C LS α C
(2) LC − LS = α C − α S (2) LC − LS = α C − α S
1/ 2 1/ 2
L α  L α 
(3) C =  C  (3) C =  C 
LS  α S  LS  α S 
LC α C LC α C
(4) = (4) =
LS α S LS α S

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jQ dk;Z ds fy, (FOR ROUGH WORK)

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6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys ckWy IokbaV 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
iSu ls iw.kZr;k Hkjuk gS] tSlk fd uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % given by darkening complete circle using Black ball
point pen as shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn mÙkj okys [kkus The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :
   
    

;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk mÙkj xyr ekuk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
tk,xkA wrong answer.
7. jQ dk;Z iz'u&iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij gh djsAa (Rough work should be done only in the space
provided in the Question Booklet for the same.)
8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i=d ij gh vafdr djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx
fuf"k) gSA (The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. Whitener
(white fluid) is not allowed for changing answers.)
9. izR;sd iz'u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr fodYi ds fy, OMR mÙkj i=d ij dsoy ,d o`Ùk dks gh iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu
ls HkjsAa ,d ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk ldrk gSA (Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR Answer
Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed to be changed.)
10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,¡A vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa
fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa (The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make
any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Answer Sheet.)
11. iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djs]a D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr
dks NksM+dj½ nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk
fLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA
tk,xh (Handle the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Question Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
Question Booklet will not be provided.)
12. iz'u&iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gLrk{kj pkVZ esa fy[ksAa (The candidates should write the correct
Number as given in the Question Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Signature Chart.)
13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos'k i= vkSj igpku i= ds vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~;&lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡]
istj] eksckby Qksu] bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA (Candidates are
not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or
any other material except the Admit Card and Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.)
14. i;Zo{s kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk izo's k dkMZ ¼jksy ua0½ vkSj igpku i= fn[kk,¡A (Each candidate must show on demand
his/her Admit Card (Roll No.) and identity card to the Invigilator.)
15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k i;Zo{s kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+As (No candidate, without special permission of
the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.)
16. dk;Zjr i;Zo{s kd dks viuk mÙkj i=d fn, fcuk ,oa gLrk{kj pkVZ ij nksckjk gLrk{kj fd, fcuk vH;FkhZ ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksMa+sxAs ;fn fdlh
vH;FkhZ us nwljh ckj gLrk{kj pkVZ ij gLrk{kj ugha fd, rks ;g ekuk tk,xk fd mlus mÙkj i=d ugha ykSVk;k gS vkSj ;g vuqfpr lk/ku dk
ekeyk ekuk tk,xkA OMR mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij lHkh vH;fFkZ;ksa }kjk ck;sa gkFk ds vaxwBs dk fu'fu'kku yxk;k tkuk gSA vaxwBs dk
fu'kku yxkrs le; bl ckr dk /;ku j[kk tk, fd L;kgh L;kgh lgh ek=k esa gh yxkbZ tk, vFkkZr~ L;kgh dh ek=k u rks cgqr vf/kd gks o u gh
cgqr deA (The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and signing the Signature Chart twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Signature Chart
second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. All
candidates have to affix left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet at the place specified which
should be properly inked i.e. they should not be either over inked or dried in nature.)
17. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA (Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.)
18. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy,] vH;FkhZ foojf.kdk esa nh xbZ izfØ;k@fn'kk&funs'Z k o cksMZ ds lHkh fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa dk fo'ks"k /;ku j[ksAa vuqfpr
lk/kuksa ds lHkh ekeyksa dk QSlyk cksMZ ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj gksxkA (The candidates are governed by
Guidelines/Procedure given in the Information Bulletin, all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.)
19. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkkx vyx u djsAa (No part of the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet shall
be detached under any circumstances.)
20. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ d{k@gkWy NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zo{s kd dks vo'; lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk bl iz'u&iqfLrdk dks ys
tk ldrs gSAa (On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the
Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Question Booklet with them.)

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Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2021 Set : A
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
Sub. Code No.: 211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (3) 031 (3) 061 (4) 091 (3) 121 (4)
002 (2) 032 (2) 062 (2) 092 (3) 122 (1)
003 (2) 033 (3) 063 (3) 093 (2) 123 (1)
004 (4) 034 (1) 064 (2) 094 (1) 124 (2)
005 (4) 035 (2) 065 (3) 095 (2) 125 (4)
006 (4) 036 (2) 066 (2) 096 (*) 126 (2)
007 (3) 037 (4) 067 (4) 097 (3) 127 (2)
008 (2) 038 (4) 068 (2) 098 (3) 128 (4)
009 (2 & 4) 039 (2) 069 (3) 099 (3) 129 (3)
010 (3) 040 (1) 070 (2) 100 (3) 130 (1)
011 (2) 041 (4) 071 (3) 101 (2) 131 (2)
012 (1) 042 (2) 072 (1) 102 (4) 132 (1)
013 (2) 043 (3) 073 (2) 103 (3) 133 (3)
014 (1) 044 (3) 074 (3) 104 (3) 134 (2)
015 (3) 045 (4) 075 (3) 105 (3) 135 (3 & 4)
016 (2) 046 (4) 076 (4) 106 (3) 136 (4)
017 (4) 047 (4) 077 (1) 107 (3) 137 (1)
018 (3) 048 (4) 078 (1) 108 (2) 138 (3)
019 (1) 049 (2) 079 (1) 109 (3) 139 (4)
020 (4) 050 (1) 080 (4) 110 (4) 140 (1)
021 (1) 051 (3) 081 (3) 111 (1) 141 (2)
022 (3) 052 (1) 082 (3) 112 (3) 142 (2)
023 (1) 053 (3) 083 (3) 113 (2) 143 (2)
024 (2) 054 (1) 084 (1) 114 (3) 144 (4)
025 (1) 055 (4) 085 (4) 115 (4) 145 (4)
026 (2) 056 (3) 086 (1) 116 (4) 146 (2)
027 (3) 057 (1) 087 (4) 117 (2) 147 (2)
028 (2) 058 (2) 088 (2) 118 (4) 148 (2)
029 (1) 059 (3) 089 (3) 119 (2) 149 (3)
030 (1) 060 (2) 090 (2) 120 (1) 150 (1)

[ (*) means 1 mark given ]

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Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2021 Set : B
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
Sub. Code No.: 211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (3) 031 (4) 061 (3) 091 (3) 121 (1)
002 (1) 032 (3) 062 (1) 092 (3) 122 (2)
003 (4) 033 (4) 063 (4) 093 (2) 123 (2)
004 (1) 034 (2) 064 (2) 094 (3) 124 (1)
005 (2) 035 (2) 065 (3) 095 (3) 125 (3 & 4)
006 (3) 036 (2) 066 (2) 096 (3) 126 (4)
007 (2) 037 (2) 067 (3) 097 (1) 127 (2)
008 (1) 038 (1) 068 (2) 098 (4) 128 (4)
009 (4) 039 (3) 069 (4) 099 (4) 129 (2)
010 (4) 040 (3) 070 (2) 100 (2) 130 (2)
011 (2) 041 (4) 071 (3) 101 (2) 131 (1)
012 (1) 042 (1) 072 (2) 102 (4) 132 (1)
013 (2 & 4) 043 (3) 073 (3) 103 (1) 133 (3)
014 (1) 044 (4) 074 (1) 104 (3) 134 (3)
015 (3) 045 (2) 075 (2) 105 (*) 135 (4)
016 (3) 046 (2) 076 (3) 106 (3) 136 (4)
017 (4) 047 (2) 077 (1) 107 (3) 137 (4)
018 (2) 048 (1) 078 (4) 108 (1) 138 (1)
019 (1) 049 (4) 079 (4) 109 (4) 139 (2)
020 (2) 050 (4) 080 (1) 110 (2) 140 (3)
021 (2) 051 (2) 081 (4) 111 (3) 141 (3)
022 (2) 052 (4) 082 (1) 112 (4) 142 (2)
023 (1) 053 (3) 083 (4) 113 (3) 143 (4)
024 (1) 054 (3) 084 (2) 114 (3) 144 (2)
025 (3) 055 (1) 085 (3) 115 (3) 145 (2)
026 (2) 056 (1) 086 (1) 116 (3) 146 (4)
027 (3) 057 (4) 087 (3) 117 (2) 147 (1)
028 (2) 058 (3) 088 (3) 118 (3) 148 (2)
029 (4) 059 (1) 089 (3) 119 (2) 149 (1)
030 (3) 060 (3) 090 (2) 120 (2) 150 (2)

[ (*) means 1 mark given ]

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Telegram
Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2021 Set : C
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
Sub. Code No.: 211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (3) 031 (1) 061 (2) 091 (1) 121 (2)
002 (3) 032 (4) 062 (2) 092 (3) 122 (2)
003 (1) 033 (3) 063 (4) 093 (3) 123 (2)
004 (3) 034 (2) 064 (3) 094 (3) 124 (3)
005 (2) 035 (4) 065 (1) 095 (3) 125 (1)
006 (2) 036 (3) 066 (2) 096 (3) 126 (3 & 4)
007 (4) 037 (3) 067 (3) 097 (4) 127 (2)
008 (2) 038 (2) 068 (1) 098 (3) 128 (4)
009 (2) 039 (2) 069 (2) 099 (4) 129 (4)
010 (1) 040 (4) 070 (3) 100 (2) 130 (2)
011 (1) 041 (2) 071 (1) 101 (4) 131 (1)
012 (2) 042 (4) 072 (4) 102 (3) 132 (4)
013 (1) 043 (1) 073 (4) 103 (3) 133 (2)
014 (2) 044 (3) 074 (3) 104 (2) 134 (1)
015 (4) 045 (2) 075 (3) 105 (3) 135 (2)
016 (3) 046 (4) 076 (1) 106 (3) 136 (4)
017 (1) 047 (2) 077 (4) 107 (4) 137 (4)
018 (3) 048 (3) 078 (2) 108 (4) 138 (1)
019 (3) 049 (2) 079 (3) 109 (2) 139 (2)
020 (4) 050 (3) 080 (2) 110 (3) 140 (2)
021 (1) 051 (4) 081 (3) 111 (3) 141 (2)
022 (2) 052 (2) 082 (2) 112 (2) 142 (1)
023 (4) 053 (1) 083 (3) 113 (2) 143 (1)
024 (3) 054 (3) 084 (4) 114 (2) 144 (4)
025 (2) 055 (4) 085 (1) 115 (3) 145 (4)
026 (1) 056 (1) 086 (4) 116 (3) 146 (3)
027 (4) 057 (1) 087 (3) 117 (1) 147 (3)
028 (1) 058 (4) 088 (1) 118 (1) 148 (1)
029 (2 & 4) 059 (1) 089 (2) 119 (*) 149 (2)
030 (2) 060 (3) 090 (3) 120 (2) 150 (3)

[ (*) means 1 mark given ]

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Telegram
Level - -2@TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2021 Set : D
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
Sub. Code No.: 211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

Part : I Part : II Part : III Part : IV Part : IV

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 (1) 031 (4) 061 (3) 091 (2) 121 (3)
002 (1) 032 (2) 062 (2) 092 (3) 122 (2)
003 (4) 033 (2) 063 (3) 093 (1) 123 (1)
004 (4) 034 (3) 064 (1) 094 (3) 124 (4)
005 (2) 035 (1) 065 (2) 095 (*) 125 (1)
006 (1) 036 (3) 066 (3) 096 (3) 126 (2)
007 (3) 037 (4) 067 (1) 097 (2) 127 (1)
008 (4) 038 (2) 068 (4) 098 (3) 128 (2)
009 (2) 039 (4) 069 (4) 099 (3) 129 (4)
010 (3) 040 (2) 070 (1) 100 (2) 130 (1)
011 (3) 041 (4) 071 (3) 101 (2) 131 (3)
012 (2) 042 (3) 072 (1) 102 (2) 132 (2)
013 (2) 043 (1) 073 (4) 103 (2) 133 (2)
014 (2 & 4) 044 (2) 074 (2) 104 (4) 134 (1)
015 (1) 045 (3) 075 (3) 105 (3) 135 (2)
016 (1) 046 (3) 076 (2) 106 (4) 136 (4)
017 (3) 047 (1) 077 (3) 107 (3) 137 (2)
018 (2) 048 (4) 078 (2) 108 (3) 138 (4)
019 (2) 049 (3) 079 (4) 109 (4) 139 (2)
020 (2) 050 (1) 080 (2) 110 (1) 140 (4)
021 (3) 051 (2) 081 (2) 111 (1) 141 (4)
022 (3) 052 (1) 082 (3) 112 (3) 142 (3)
023 (3) 053 (2) 083 (3) 113 (3) 143 (1)
024 (2) 054 (1) 084 (3) 114 (3) 144 (2)
025 (1) 055 (3) 085 (1) 115 (3) 145 (4)
026 (1) 056 (4) 086 (4) 116 (4) 146 (2)
027 (1) 057 (4) 087 (1) 117 (4) 147 (2)
028 (2) 058 (4) 088 (4) 118 (3) 148 (3)
029 (4) 059 (2) 089 (2) 119 (2) 149 (3 & 4)
030 (4) 060 (3) 090 (3) 120 (3) 150 (1)

[ (*) means 1 mark given ]

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izFke 10 feuV esa vH;FkhZ viuh iz'u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad dk feyku vks0,e0vkj0 mÙkj i=d ds Øekad ls vo'; dj ysAa ;fn vks0 ,e0 vkj0
mÙkj i=d o iz'u&iq
u&iqfLrdk ds Øekad fHkUu gSa rks dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysAa
Level : 2 Exam. – 2022
TGT : For Classes VI to VIII
SCIENCE
Sub. Code No. : 811 iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad ,oa vks0,e0vkj0 Øekad
Question-Booklet Serial No. & O. M. R. Serial No.
vuqØekad ¼vadksa es½a %






SET : A
Roll No. (In Figures)
%
vuqØekad ¼'kCnksa es½a _________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Roll No. (In Words)
ijh{kk dsUnz dk uke % __________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Name of Examination Centre
vH;FkhZ dk uke % ____________________________________________________________ vH;FkhZ
vH;FkhZ ds gLrk{kj % ____________________________________________
Name of Candidate Signature of Candidate

bl iz'u&
u&iqfLrdk esa i`"Bksa dh la[;k 48 iz'uksa dh la[;k 150 le; 2½ hours
No. of Pages in this Question Booklet No. of Questions Time

fujh{kd ds gLrk{kj (Signature of Invigilator) : ___________________________________________

vH;FkhZ dks 10 feuV dk le; iz'u&iqfLrdk ij Nis funs'Z kksa dks i<+us rFkk mÙkj i=d esa vius fooj.k Hkjus ds fy, fn;k tk,xkA ;fn iz'u&iqfLrdk o mÙkj i=d dh
Øe la[;k xyr vafdr gksa rks rqjUr dsUnz v/kh{kd ls fuosnu djds iz'u&iqfLrdk cny ysAa blds i'pkr~ dksbZ nkok Lohdkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA bu 10 feuVksa ds
vfrfjDr] iz'uksa ds mÙkj vafdr djus ds fy, iwjs 2½ ?kaVs dk le; fn;k tk,xkA ;fn fdlh vH;FkhZ dks iz'u&iq u&iqfLrdk esa fn, x, fdlh Hkh iz'u eas dksbZ =qfV gksus dk
volj
lansg gks rks blds fy, vH;fFkZ;kas dks ijh{kk lekfIr ds mijkUr izfrosnu nsus ds fy, volj fn;k tk,xkA vr% vH;FkhZ fu/kkZfjr volj ds nkSjku bl lEcU/k eas viuk
izfrosnu cksMZ dk;kZy; eas ntZ djok ldrs gSAa bl volj ds ckn] bl lEcU/k esa izkIr izfrosnuksa ij dksbZ fopkj ugha fd;k tk,xkA
;fn fdlh iz'u esa fgUnh o vaxzsth ek/;e esa fHkUurk gS rks vaxzsth ek/;e dk iz'u Bhd ekuk tk,xkA
If there is any variance between Hindi and English Version of any question then English Version would be considered correct.

vH;fFkZ;ksa ds fy, funsZ'k INSTRUCTIONS FOR THE CANDIDATES

1. vks-,e-vkj- mÙkj i=d bl iz'u&iqfLrdk ds vUnj j[kk gSA tc 1. The OMR Answer Sheet is inside this Question Booklet.
vkidks iz'u&iqfLrdk i<+us dks dgk tk,] rks mÙkj i=d fudky dj When you are directed to read the Question Booklet, take
out the OMR Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars
/;ku ls dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu ls fooj.k HkjsAa carefully with black ball point pen only.
2. ijh{kk dh vof/k 2½ ?kaVs gS ,oa iz'u&iqfLrdk esa 150 iz'u gSAa 2. The test is of two-and-half hours duration and consists
dksbZ _.kkRed vadu ugha gSA of 150 questions. There is no negative marking.
3. vius fooj.k vafdr djus ,oa mÙkj i=d ij fu'kku yxkus ds fy, 3. Use Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars
dsoy dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu dk iz;ksx djsAa vH;FkhZ iz'u&iqfLrdk dk on this page/darkening responses in the Answer Sheet.
The candidate should remain careful in handling the
mi;ksx djus ,oa mÙkj i=d dks Hkjus esa lko/kkuh cjrsAa question paper and in darkening the responses on the
answer sheet.
4. izFke 10 feuV es]a ;g Hkh lqfuf'pr dj ysa fd iz'u&iqfLrdk Øekad 4. Within first 10 minutes, also ensure that your Question
vkSj mÙkj i=d Øekad ,d gh gSAa vxj ;g fHkUu gksa rks vH;FkhZ Booklet Serial No. and Answer Sheet Serial No. are the
same. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should
nwljh iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d ysus ds fy, i;Zo{s kd dks rqjUr immediately report the matter to the Invigilator for
voxr djok,¡A replacement of both the Question Booklet and the
Answer Sheet.
5. ysoy&
y&2 ¼d{kk VI ls VIII ds fy,½
fy,½ 5. Level–2 (For Classes VI to VIII)
Hkkx&I % cky fodkl o f'k{kk 'kkL= ¼ç0 1 ls ç0 30½ Part–I : Child Development
Hkkx&II % Hkk"kk % ¼ç0 31 ls ç0 60½ and Pedagogy (Q. 1 to Q. 30)
Part–II : Language : (Q. 31 to Q. 60)
¼fgUnh % 15 iz'u o vaxzsth % 15 iz'u½
(Hindi : 15 Q. & English : 15 Q.)
Hkkx&III % lkekU; v/;;u % ¼ç0 61 ls ç0 90½
Part–III : General Studies : (Q. 61 to Q. 90)
¼ek=kRed ;ksX;rk % 10 iz'u] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk % 10 iz'u] (Quantitative Aptitude : 10 Q, Reasoning
lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku % 10 iz'u½ Ability : 10 Q, G. K. & Awareness : 10 Q)
Hkkx&IV % foKku ¼ç0 91 ls ç0 150½ Part–IV : Science (Q. 91 to Q. 150)

uksV % Ñi;k bl iqfLrdk ds vUr esa fn, x, 'ks"k funs'Z kksa dks i<+Asa (Please read other remaining instructions given on the last page of this booklet.)

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jQ dk;Z ds fy, (FOR ROUGH WORK)

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[3] [A]

Hkkx – I (PART – I)
cky fodkl o f'k{kk'kkL= (CHILD DEVELOPMENT AND PEDAGOGY)
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

1. vfHkizsj.kk ds ^vko';drk vuqØe fl)kar* 1. Who propounded the 'Need

dk izfriknu fdlus fd;k \ Hierarchy Theory' of Motivation ?
[1] gy [1] Hull
[2] eSLyks [2] Maslow
[3] ,VfdUlu [3] Atkinson
[4] FkkWelu [4] Thomson

2. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh O;fDrRo vkdyu 2. Which of the following is not a

dh iz{ksih fof/k ugha gS \ projective technique of personality
assessment ?
[1] 'kCn&lkgp;Z [1] Word-association
[2] okD;iwfrZ [2] Sentence completion
[3] o.kZu xfr [3] Expressive movement
[4] lektfefr [4] Sociometry

3. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d cká 3. Which of the following is not an

vfHkizsjd ugha gS \ extrinsic motive ?
[1] VªkWQh ds fy, [ksy izfrLi/kkZ djuk [1] Competing in sport for trophy
[2] Doing job for salary
[2] osru ds fy, ukSdjh djuk
[3] Doing social service for self-
[3] vkRelarqf"V gsrq lektlsok djuk
satisfaction
[4] ,d [kjhnus ij ,d eq¶r ikuk [4] Buy one get one free

4. izklafxd vUrcks/Z k ijh{k.k fo|kfFkZ;ksa ds ----- 4. Thematic Apperception Test is used

ekiu gsrq mi;ksx esa yk, tkrs gSaA to measure the ……….. of students.
[1] cqf) [1] Intelligence
[2] vfHk{kerk [2] Aptitude
[3] vfHko`fÙk [3] Attitude
[4] O;fDrRo [4] Personality

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[A] [4]

5. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lek;kstu 5. Which of the following statement is

ds lanHkZ esa lgh ugha gS \ not correct with reference to
adjustment ?
[1] ;g vlarqyu mRiUu djrk gSA
[1] It creates imbalance.
[2] ;g ifjfLFkfr dh ek¡xksa ds vuq:i [2] It motivates to change the life as
thou ds rjhds dks cnyus ds fy, per the demand of the situation.
izsfjr djrk gSA [3] It gives ability to bring desirable
[3] ;g okrkoj.k dh fLFkfr;ksa esa okaNuh; changes in the conditions of
ifjorZu ykus dh {kerk nsrk gSA environment.
[4] In the absence of adjustment one
[4] lek;kstu ds vHkko esa O;fDr ruko
is surrounded by tension and
vkSj fpark ls f?kjk jgrk gSA anxiety.

6. fi;kts ds laKkukRed fodkl fl)kar ds 6. According to Piaget's cognitive

vuqlkj fdl fodklkRed voLFkk esa ^iyVko development theory, the 'ability of
dh {kerk* fodflr gksrh gS \ reversibility' develops during which
developmental stage ?
[1] laosnh&is'kh; [1] Sensory motor
[2] iwoZ&lafØ;kRed [2] Pre-operational
[3] ewrZ&lafØ;kRed [3] Concrete-operational
[4] vkSipkfjd&lafØ;kRed [4] Formal-operational

7. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk feyku lgh ugha 7. Which of the following match is not
gS \ correct ?
,fjDlu ds euks& voLFkkvksa dk Erikson's Stages of Serial
lkekftd fodkl dh Øe Psycho-social Number of
voLFkk,¡ Development Stages
[1] igy cuke vijk/k & rhljh voLFkk [1] Initiative Vs Guilt & Stage 3
cks/k
[2] igpku cuke Hkwfedk & ik¡poha voLFkk [2] Identity Vs Role & Stage 5
laHkzkafr Confusion
[3] Lok;Ùkrk cuke & igyh voLFkk [3] Autonomy Vs & Stage 1
yTtk ,oa 'kadk Shame and Doubt
[4] v/;olk; cuke & pkSFkh voLFkk [4] Industry Vs & Stage 4
ghurk Inferiority

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8. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk rRo fLduj ds 8. Which of the following elements is

dk;kZRed izfrc)rk fl)kar ls lacaf/kr ugha not related to Skinner's operant
gS \ conditioning theory ?
[1] cfgxZeu [1] Extinction
[2] foHksnu [2] Discrimination
[3] Lor% vkiwfrZ [3] Spontaneous recovery
[4] iqucZyu [4] Reinforcement
9. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku vfHko`fÙk 9. Which of the following statement is
ds lanHkZ esa lgh ugha gS \ not correct with reference to Attitude ?
[1] vfHko`fÙk esa vfHkizsj.kkRed&izHkkoksRiknd [1] Attitude has motivational-
fo'ks"krk ikbZ tkrh gSA affective characteristics.
[2] vfHko`fÙk iw.kZr% ldkjkRed ls iw.kZr% [2] Attitude can range strongly
udkjkRed gks ldrh gSA positive to strongly negative.
[3] vfHko`fÙk esa O;fDr&oLrq lac/a k ik;k [3] Attitude have a subject-object
tkrk gSA relationship.
[4] vfHko`fÙk tUetkr ,oa vftZr nksuksa [4] Attitude is innate and acquired
gksrh gSA both.
10. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku cPpksa ds 10. Which of the following statement is
fodkl ds ckjs esa lgh gS \ correct about the development of
children ?
[1] fodkl ek= vkuqoaf'kdrk dk ,d [1] Development is a product of
mRikn gSA only hereditary.
[2] fodkl ,d ;kn`fPNd izk:i vuqlj.k [2] Development follows a random
djrk gSA pattern.
[3] fodkl ,d lap;h izfØ;k gSA [3] Development is a cumulative
process.
[4] fodkl ds fofHkUu vk;ke vUrlZacaf/kr [4] Different aspects of development
ugha gSaA are not interrelated.
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[A] [6]

11. dSVy dk laLÑfr eqDr cqf) ijh{k.k] ,d 11. Cattell's culture free test of
izdkj gS % intelligence is a type of :
[1] oS;fDrd 'kkfCnd ijh{k.k dk [1] Individual Verbal Test
[2] lkewfgd 'kkfCnd ijh{k.k dk [2] Group Verbal Test
[3] v'kkfCnd ijh{k.k dk [3] Non-Verbal Test
[4] 'kkfCnd ,oa v'kkfCnd ijh{k.k dk [4] Verbal and Non-Verbal Test

12. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh l`tukRedrk dh 12. Which of the following is not a
fo'ks"krk ugha gS \ characteristic of creativity ?
[1] ekSfydrk [2] yksp'khyrk [1] Originality [2] Flexibility
[3] vuE;rk [4] /kkjkizokfgrk [3] Rigidity [4] Fluency

13. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dkjd f'k{k.k& 13. Which of the following factors does not
vf/kxe izfØ;k dks izHkkfor ugha djrk gS \ affect the teaching-learning process ?
[1] f'k{kd dk f'k{k.k dkS'ky [1] Teaching skill of teacher
[2] f'k{kd dk ekufld LokLF; [2] Mental health of teacher
[3] f'k{kd dk fo"k; Kku [3] Subject knowledge of teacher
[4] f'k{kd dk 'kkjhfjd :i [4] Physical appearance of teacher

14. o`f) cPpksa esa fdl izdkj ds ifjorZu ykrh 14. What kind of changes does growth
gS \ bring about in children ?
[1] lajpukRed [1] Structural
[2] izdk;kZRed [2] Functional
[3] lajpukRed ,oa izdk;kZRed nksuksa [3] Structural and functional both
[4] buesa ls dksbZ ugha [4] None of these

15. ^Roj.k* fdl izdkj ds fof'k"V cPpksa dh 15. 'Acceleration' is an important plan
f'k{kk ds fy, ,d egÙoiw.kZ ;kstuk gS \ for education of which type of
special children ?
[1] izfrHkk'kkyh [1] Gifted
[2] /khes vf/kxedrkZ [2] Slow learner
[3] vf/kxe vleFkZ [3] Learning disabled
[4] ean cqf) [4] Mentally retarded

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16. dk;kZRed izfrc)rk esa vf/kxedrkZ dh 16. What type of reinforcement schedule
izR;sd lgh vuqfØ;k dks iqucZfyr djuk is to reinforce each correct response of
fdl izdkj dh iqucZyu vuqlwph gS \ the learner, in operant conditioning ?
[1] fuf'pr varjky [1] Fixed interval
[2] ifjorZu'khy varjky [2] Variable interval
[3] fuf'pr vuqikr [3] Fixed ratio
[4] lrr [4] Continuous
17. ^fodkl tks vuqnS?;Z v{k ¼flj ls iSj½ dh 17. 'Development proceeds in the
fn'kk esa vkxs c<+rk gS*] dgykrk gS % direction of longitudinal axis (head
to foot)', called :
[1] flQSfyd&dkWMy [1] Cephalic-Caudal
[2] izkWfDleksfMLVy [2] Proximodistal
[3] lfiZy [3] Spiral
[4] o`Ùkh; [4] Circular
18. ,d izdkj dk cqf) ijh{k.k tgk¡ iz'u 18. A type of intelligence test in which
dfBukbZ Lrj dh n`f"V ls leku gksrs gS]a the questions are similar in difficulty
fdUrq le; rRo dks vf/kd egÙo fn;k level but more importance is given to
tkrk gS % the time element :
[1] xfr ijh{k.k [1] Speed Test
[2] 'kfDr ijh{k.k [2] Power Test
[3] 'kkfCnd ijh{k.k [3] Verbal Test
[4] fu"iknu ijh{k.k [4] Performance Test
19. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh O;fDrRo vkadyu 19. Which of the following is not a
dh O;fDrfu"B fof/k ugha gS \ subjective method of personality
assessment ?
[1] lk{kkRdkj [1] Interview
[2] voyksdu [2] Observation
[3] vkRedFkk [3] Autobiography
[4] 'kCn lkgp;Z [4] Word Association

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[A] [8]

20. ehuy cqf) esa vkSlr] l`tukRedrk esa fuEu 20. Meenal is average in intelligence,
,oa lek;kstu esa mPp Lrjh; gSA ;g low in creativity and high level in
mnkgj.k gS % adjustment. This is an example of :
[1] vUroSZ;fDrd fHkUurkvksa dk [1] Inter Individual Differences
[2] vUr%oS;fDrd fHkUurkvksa dk [2] Intra Individual Differences
[3] voyksduh; fHkUurkvksa dk [3] Observable Differences
[4] visf{kr fHkUurkvksa dk [4] Expected Differences
21. czwuj us ckydksa ds laKkukRed fodkl gsrq 21. Which type of curriculum did Bruner
fdl izdkj ds ikB~;Øe ds vuqxeu dk suggest to follow for the cognitive
lq>ko fn;k \ development of children ?
[1] lekos'kh ikB~;Øe [1] Inclusive curriculum
[2] fof'k"V ikB~;Øe [2] Special curriculum
[3] lfiZy ikB~;Øe [3] Spiral curriculum
[4] ,dhÑr ikB~;Øe [4] Integrated curriculum

22. fodkl ds lkekftd&lkaLÑfrd fl)kar dks 22. Who developed the Socio-cultural
fdlus fodflr fd;k \ theory of development ?
[1] ok;xksRLdh [1] Vygotsky
[2] ,fjDlu [2] Erikson
[3] dksg~ycxZ [3] Kohlberg
[4] czkWuQsuczsuj [4] Bronfenbrenner

23. og euksjpuk D;k dgykrh gS] ftlds }kjk 23. What is the mechanism called,
ckyd vius Lo;a ds vge~ dks fdlh vU; through which a child tries to
O;fDr ds vuq:i ifjofrZr djus dk iz;kl change his own ego to that of
djrk gS \ someone else ?
[1] rknkRehdj.k [1] Identification
[2] ;qfDrdj.k [2] Rationalization
[3] ekxkZUrhdj.k [3] Sublimation
[4] iz{ksi.k [4] Projection
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24. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ?kVd fxyQksMZ ds 24. Which of the following component
cqf) lajpuk ekWMy dk va'k ugha gS \ is not the part of Guilford structure
of Intellect model ?
[1] lafØ;k [2] laKku [1] Operation [2] Cognition
[3] fo"k;oLrq [4] mRikn [3] Content [4] Product

25. cqf) ds f=ra=h; fl)kar dk izfriknu fdlus 25. Who propounded the Triarchic
fd;k \ theory of Intelligence ?
[1] xkMZuj [2] fxyQksMZ [1] Gardner [2] Guilford
[3] LVuZcxZ [4] ouZu [3] Sternberg [4] Vernan

26. czkWuQsuczsuj ds tSo&ikfjfLFkfrdh ekWMy 26. 'Family and School' are the examples
fl)kar esa ^ifjokj ,oa fo|ky;* fdl of which environmental system in
i;kZoj.kh; ra= ds mnkgj.k gSa \ Bronfenbrenner's Bio-ecological
Model theory ?
[1] eSØksflLVe [1] Macro system
[2] ekbØksflLVe [2] Micro system
[3] ,Dt+ksflLVe [3] Exosystem
[4] ØkseksflLVe [4] Chromosystem

27. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ;qXe lgh ugha 27. Which of the following pair is not
gS \ correct ?

fl)kar fl)kar Theory Theory

izfriknd Propounder
[1] fi;kts laKkukRed fodkl
– [1] Piaget – Cognitive
fl)kar Development Theory
[2] caMqjk – lkekftd vf/kxe [2] Bandura – Social Learning
fl)kar Theory
[3] ,fjDlu – eukslkekftd fodkl [3] Erikson – Psycho-socio
fl)kar Development Theory
[4] ok;xksRLdh – uSfrd fodkl fl)kar [4] Vygotsky – Moral Development
Theory
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28. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh ,d lek;ksftr 28. Which of the following is not the

O;fDr dh fo'ks"krk ugha gS \ characteristic of a well-adjusted person ?

[1] viuh {kerkvksa ,oa lhekvksa ds ckjs esa [1] Awareness of his own potentials
tkx#drk and limitations

[2] Lo;a ,oa nwljksa dk lEeku djuk [2] Respecting himself and others

[3] larqfyr vkdka{kk,¡ [3] Balanced aspirations

[4] O;ogkj esa vuE;rk [4] Rigidity in behaviour

29. ^^ekufld LokLF; laiw.kZ O;fDrRo dk iw.kZ 29. "Mental health is the full and
vkSj lkeatL;iw.kZ dk;Z gSA** ekufld LokLF; harmonious functioning of the whole
dh ;g ifjHkk"kk fdlds }kjk nh xbZ gS \ personality." This definition of
mental health is given by whom ?

[1] esfuaxj [1] Menninger

[2] gSMQhYM [2] Hadfield

[3] Msªsoj [3] Drever

[4] okWfYVu [4] Waltin

30. fuEufyf[kr euksoSKkfudksa esa ls dkSu 30. Out of the following Psychologists,

xsLVkYVokn ls lacaf/kr ugha gS \ who is not related with Gestaltism ?

[1] dksgyj [1] Kohler

[2] dks¶dk [2] Koffka

[3] Øs'kej [3] Kretschmer

[4] onhZej [4] Wertheimer

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Hkkx – II (PART – II)

Hkk"kk ¼fgUnh ,oa vaxzsth½ [ LANGUAGES (HINDI & ENGLISH) ]
fgUnh (HINDI)
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
31. fØ;k dh n`f"V ls vlaxr fodYi pqfu, % 34. opu dh n`f"V ls dkSu&lk ;qXe lgh gS \
[1] jes'k i= fy[kokrk gS & iszj.kkFkZd [1] n'kZu & n'kZuksa
fØ;k [2] izk.k & izk.kksa
[2] ckyd Nr ij [kM+k gS & vdeZd [3] ukjh & ukfj;ksa
fØ;k [4] gLrk{kj & gLrk{kjkas
[3] v/;kid ckyd dks fganh i<+k jgk gS 35. ß;g vkidk ekgkRE; gSAÞ okD; esa iz;qDr
& f}deZd fØ;k ^ekgkRE;* 'kCn esa dkSu&lh laKk gS \
[4] iz.khrk t+ksj&t+ksj&ls g¡l jgh gS & [1] tkfrokpd
ldeZd fØ;k [2] Hkkookpd
[3] lewgokpd
32. mPpkj.k dh n`f"V ls ^x* O;atu dh
/ofuxr fo'ks"krk,¡ gSa % [4] O;fDrokpd

[1] daB~;] v?kks"k] egkizk.k 36. ^tkg~uoh* 'kCn dk i;kZ; gS %

[2] daB~;] l?kks"k] egkizk.k [1] eankfduh

[2] dqeqnuh
[3] daB~;] l?kks"k] vYiizk.k
[3] iFkxkfeuh
[4] daB~;] v?kks"k] vYiizk.k
[4] uyuh
33. ^lk/okpj.k* 'kCn dk lgh laf/k&foPNsn gS %
37. foykse dh n`f"V ls vlaxr fodYi pqfu, %
[1] lk/o $ vkpj.k
[1] xzLr & eqDr
[2] lk/k $ vkpj.k
[2] O;f"V & lef"V
[3] lk/kw $ vkpj.k [3] vkfoHkkZo & frjksHkwr
[4] lk/kq $ vkpj.k [4] vokZphu & izkphu
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38. ^fxjh'k* 'kCn esa dkSu&lh laf/k gS \ 42. fdl fodYi eas Hkkookpd rf)r izR;; dk
[1] nh?kZ Loj laf/k iz;ksx gqvk gS \
[2] xq.k Loj laf/k [1] cqykok
[3] ;.k~ Loj laf/k [2] ppsjk

[4] O;atu laf/k [3] lkStU;

[4] y[ksjk
39. ^ftKklk* dk lVhd lekukFkhZ gS %
[1] mRdaBk 43. ^ljflt* 'kCn esa dkSu&lk lekl gS \
[1] deZ/kkj; lekl
[2] KkusIlk
[2] }U} lekl
[3] okaNk
[3] vO;;hHkko lekl
[4] bPNk
[4] vyqd~ rRiq#"k lekl
40. fdl fodYi esa ifjek.kokpd fo'ks"k.k dk
44. fdl 'kCn eas ^vu~* milxZ dk iz;ksx ugha
iz;ksx gqvk gS \
gqvk gS \
[1] iz.ko ik¡p fdyks nw/k ih x;kA
[1] vuqÙkj
[2] iz.ko ik¡p dsys [kk x;kA [2] vuqie
[3] iz.ko ik¡poha d{kk esa i<+rk gSA [3] vuq)kj
[4] iz.ko ds lkFk dqN cPps [ksy jgs gSaA [4] vuqxeu

41. ßlkeus tks cM+k&lk ?kj fn[kkbZ ns jgk gS] 45. folxZ /ofu dk iz;ksx fdu 'kCnksa esa gksrk
og esjk gSAÞ okD; eas fdl loZuke dk gS \
iz;ksx gqvk gS \
[1] rRle 'kCnksa esa
[1] iq#"kokpd
[2] ns'kt 'kCnksa esa
[2] futokpd
[3] rn~Hko 'kCnksa esa
[3] fu'p;okpd
[4] mi;qZDr lHkh 'kCnksa esa
[4] vfu'p;okpd

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vaxzsth (ENGLISH)
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

46. Select the appropriate one word 50. Choose the option that brings out the
substitution for the following : meaning of the underline idiom :
Former students of a school or college A lion's share of India's annual
[1] Emblem [2] Alumni budget is for defence.
[1] major share
[3] Expert [4] Incharge
[2] minor amount
47. Change the Narration : [3] small
"I'm taking the children to the [4] very little
zoo tomorrow." She said.
51. Select the correct antonym of :
[1] She told that she would be
taking the children to the zoo the Gloomy
day after
[1] Praise [2] Coarse
[2] She said that she will take the
children to the zoo the next day [3] Cheerful [4] Dismal
[3] She told that she will be taking 52. Choose the appropriate conjunction
the children to the zoo for the blank :
[4] She will take the children to the I shall not go ………. I am invited.
zoo, she said
[1] and [2] unless
48. Choose the correct synonym of :
[3] but [4] there
Genius
53. Change the narration to Reported
[1] Happy Speech. Choose the right option :
[2] Cheerful "Who has been using my
typewriter ?" Said Mother.
[3] Talented
[1] Mother asked who has been
[4] Comfort using her typewriter
49. Select the appropriate preposition for [2] Mother said who was using her
the blank : typewriter
He has not yet recovered ………. his [3] Mother asked who had been
illness. using her typewriter
[1] over [2] in [4] Mother asked her typewriter was
[3] at [4] from being used by who

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[A] [ 14 ]

54. Select the correct meaning of the 58. Change the voice from Active to
underlined phrasal verb : Passive and select the correct option :
Who can say what will turn up next ? Bees make honey
[1] remember [1] Honey is make by bees
[2] divide [2] Bees are making honey
[3] end [3] Honey are made by bees
[4] happen [4] Honey is made by bees

55. Choose the part of sentence that has 59. Change the voice and select the
error : correct option :
she does not / resemble to / either of / Somebody has put out the light.
A B C [1] The light has put out by
her parents somebody
D [2] The light has been put out by
[1] A [2] B somebody
[3] C [4] D [3] Somebody has been out to put
light
56. Select the correct tense form from the
[4] The light is being put out by
options given :
somebody
When I first (come) to this house, it
(be) a very quiet area : 60. Select the correct preposition for the
[1] comes, is blank :
[2] came, was I shall do it …..…. pleasure.
[3] coming, is [1] in
[4] come, are [2] with
[3] about
57. Select the correct tense form from the
options given : [4] over
Peter (try) to come in quietly but his
mother (hear) him.
[1] tried, heard
[2] trying, hears
[3] was trying, was hearing
[4] is trying, hears

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[ 15 ] [A]

Hkkx – III (PART – III)

lkekU; v/;;u (GENERAL STUDIES)
ek=kRed ;ksX;rk] rkfdZd vfHk{kerk rFkk lkekU; Kku ,oa vfHkKku (QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE,
REASONING ABILITY AND G.K. & AWARENESS)
funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

61. ftl çdkj i`Foh dk lEcU/k v{k ls gS 61. Earth is related to Axis in the same
mlh çdkj ifg;s dk lEcU/k gksxk % way as wheel is related to :
[1] Vk;j ls [1] Tyre
[2] dkj ls [2] Car
[3] lM+d ls [3] Road
[4] /kqjh ls [4] Hub

62. vfuy us ç'kkUr dk ifjp; djkrs gq, dgk 62. Anil introduces Prashant, "He is the
^^og esjs firk ds firk dh iksrh dk ifr husband of the grand daughter of the
gS**A ç'kkUr vfuy ls fdl çdkj lEcfU/kr father of my father". How is
gS \ Prashant related to Anil ?
[1] HkkbZ [1] Brother
[2] thtk [2] Brother in law
[3] Hkrhtk [3] Nephew
[4] iq= [4] Son

63. v{kjksa ds pkj lewg uhps fn;s tk jgs gSa 63. Four groups of letters are given
muesa ls rhu fdlh fu;e ls ,d tSls gSaA below, three of them are alike in
,d buls vyx gS] ml folaxr dks Nk¡fV, % certain way while one is different,
choose the odd one :
[1] STUA [1] STUA
[2] RQPA [2] RQPA
[3] MLKA [3] MLKA
[4] HGFA [4] HGFA

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[A] [ 16 ]

64. fuEu oxZ Ük`a[kyk dk vxyk in Kkr 64. Find the next term in the following

dhft, % letter series :

LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, …….. LXF, MTJ, NPN, OLR, ……..

[1] PHV [1] PHV

[2] PIU [2] PIU

[3] PJW [3] PJW

[4] PKX [4] PKX

65. fdlh fuf'pr dwV esa '786' dk vFkZ 65. In a certain code '786' means 'Study

'Study very hard'] '958' dk vFkZ 'Hard very hard', '958' means 'Hard work
work pays'] '645' dk vFkZ 'Study and pays', '645' means 'Study and work',
work'] rks 'very' dk dksM D;k gksxk \ which is the code for 'very' ?

[1] 8 [1] 8

[2] 6 [2] 6

[3] 7 [3] 7

[4] 5 [4] 5

66. ;fn A, B ls 40 ehVj nf{k.k-if'pe esa 66. If A is 40 meter South-West of B, C

gks] C, B ls 40 ehVj nf{k.k-iwoZ esa gks] is 40 meter South-East of B, then C

rks C, A ls fdl fn'kk esa gksxk \ is in which direction of A ?

[1] iwoZ [1] East

[2] if'pe [2] West

[3] mÙkj-iwoZ [3] North-East

[4] nf{k.k [4] South

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67. 150 fo|kfFkZ;ksa }kjk izkIr vkSlr vad 35 67. The average marks obtained by 150
FksA ;fn buesa ls mÙkh.kZ fo|kfFkZ;ksa dk candidates was 35. If the average
vkSlr çkIrkad 39 gks rFkk vuqÙkh.kZ marks of passed candidates was 39
fo|kfFkZ;ksa dk vkSlr çkIrkad 15 gks] rks and that of the failed candidate was
ijh{kk esa mÙkh.kZ gksus okys fo|kfFkZ;ksa dh 15, find the number of candidates
la[;k Kkr dhft, % who passed the examination :
[1] 120 [2] 125 [1] 120 [2] 125
[3] 135 [4] 140 [3] 135 [4] 140

68. ;fn a x = b, b y = c vkSj c z = a , rks x y z

68. If a = b, b = c and c = a , then
xyz dk eku D;k gksxk \ what is the value of xyz ?

[1] abc [2] 1 [1] abc [2] 1

1 1
[3] [4] ab [3] [4] ab
abc abc
69. og NksVh ls NksVh iw.kZ oxZ la[;k Kkr 69. Find the smallest perfect square
dhft, tks 4, 5, 6, 15 rFkk 18 ls iw.kZr% number which is exactly divisible by
foHkkftr gks % 4, 5, 6, 15 and 18 :

[1] 800 [2] 225 [1] 800 [2] 225

[3] 900 [4] 361 [3] 900 [4] 361

70. ( 5 )−5 / 2 × ( 5 )−3 / 2 dk eku D;k gksxk \ 70. What is the value of

( 5 )−5 / 2 × ( 5 )−3 / 2 ?
1 1
[1] [1]
25 25
1 1
[2] [2]
125 125
1 1
[3] [3]
325 325
1 1
[4] [4]
625 625
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[A] [ 18 ]

71. dksbZ /ku pØo`f) C;kt dh nj ls 15 o"kZ 71. A sum of money doubles itself in 15
esa nqxquk gks tkrk gS] rks fdrus o"kks± esa ;g years at compound interest. In how
mlh C;kt dh nj ls 8 xquk gks tk;sxk \ many years it will become 8 times at
the same compound interest rate ?

[1] 30 o"kZ [1] 30 years

[2] 40 o"kZ [2] 40 years

[3] 60 o"kZ [3] 60 years

[4] 45 o"kZ [4] 45 years

72. ;fn 25 vkneh fdlh Qly dks 60 fnuksa 72. If 25 men can reap a crop in 60 days,
esa dkV ldrs gSa] rks 10 vkneh mlh Qly then in how many days will 10 men
dks fdrus fnuksa esa dkV ldsaxs \ reap the crop ?

[1] 125 fnu [1] 125 days

[2] 92 fnu [2] 92 days

[3] 100 fnu [3] 100 days

[4] 150 fnu [4] 150 days

1 1 1
73. ;fn x + = 5 gks] rks x 3 + 3
dk eku 73. If x + = 5 , then what is the value
x x x
D;k gksxk \ 1
of x 3 + 3 ?
x

[1] 125 [2] 110 [1] 125 [2] 110

[3] 115 [4] 105 [3] 115 [4] 105

74. fuEu vad Ük`a[kyk dk vxyk in D;k 74. Find the next term in the following
gksxk \ number series :

2, 7, 24, 77, 238, …….. 2, 7, 24, 77, 238, ……..

[1] 721 [2] 722 [1] 721 [2] 722
[3] 723 [4] 733 [3] 723 [4] 733

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75. 8 + 2 8 + 2 8 + ........ dk eku Kkr 75. Find the value of :

dhft, % 8 + 2 8 + 2 8 + ........
[1] 8 [2] 10
[1] 8 [2] 10
[3] 11 [4] 4
[3] 11 [4] 4

76. ;fn oxZ dh izR;sd Hkqtk esa 50% dh o`f) 76. If each side of the square be
gks tk;s] rks blds {ks=Qy dh çfr'kr o`f) increased by 50%, then find the
Kkr dhft, % percentage increase in the area :
[1] 50% [1] 50%
[2] 100% [2] 100%
[3] 125% [3] 125%
[4] 150% [4] 150%

77. ;fn − dk vFkZ ×] + dk vFkZ ÷, ÷ dk vFkZ +] 77. If × stands for −] ÷ stands for +, + stands
× dk vFkZ − gS] rks 15 − 5 ÷ 5 × 20 + 10 for ÷, − stands for ×, then what is
dk eku D;k gksxk \ the value of 15 − 5 ÷ 5 × 20 + 10 ?
[1] 70 [1] 70
[2] 78 [2] 78
[3] 75 [3] 75
[4] 73 [4] 73

78. fdlh oLrq dks 72,000 #i;s esa cspus ij 78. By selling a commodity for
fdlh O;fDr dks 20% dk ykHk gksrk gS] rks Rs. 72,000, a person made a profit of
ml oLrq dk Ø; ewY; D;k Fkk \ 20%. What was the cost price of that
commodity ?
[1] 60,000 #0 [1] Rs. 60,000
[2] 50,000 #0 [2] Rs. 50,000
[3] 40,000 #0 [3] Rs. 40,000
[4] 65,000 #0 [4] Rs. 65,000
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[A] [ 20 ]

79. fuEu Ük`a[kyk esa dkSu&lk in xyr gS \ 79. Which term is wrong in the
following series ?
8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83 8, 13, 21, 32, 47, 63, 83
[1] 13 [1] 13
[2] 32 [2] 32
[3] 47 [3] 47
[4] 63 [4] 63

80. ,d Bksl ?ku lHkh i`"Bksa ij yky jax ls 80. A solid cube is coloured red on all
jaxk x;k gSA vc bls 64 NksVs ?kuksa esa dkVk faces. It is cut into 64 smaller cubes
tkrk gS] ,sls fdrus NksVs ?ku gksaxs ftudk of equal size. How many small cubes
dksbZ i`"B jaxk gqvk ugha gks \ have no face coloured ?
[1] 24 [1] 24
[2] 16 [2] 16
[3] 8 [3] 8
[4] 4 [4] 4

81. og LFkku] ftldk phuh ;k=h ;qvku Pokax 81. The place, which was visited and
us Hkze.k vkSj mYys[k fd;k gS % mentioned by Chinese traveller Yuan
Chwang :
[1] vxzksgk [1] Agroha
[2] lqx [2] Sugh
[3] dq#{ks= [3] Kurukshetra
[4] ikuhir [4] Panipat

82. og ftyk] tgk¡ MksyksekbV ik;k tkrk gS % 82. The district, where Dolomite is found :

[1] egsUæx<+ [1] Mahendragarh

[2] xq#xzke [2] Gurugram
[3] Qjhnkckn [3] Faridabad
[4] ikuhir [4] Panipat

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[ 21 ] [A]

83. gfj;k.kk ljdkj dh fdl ;kstuk ds rgr 83. Under which scheme of Haryana
gfj;k.kk ds leLr ifjokjksa dk Government the socio-economic
lkekftd&vkfFkZd MsVk rS;kj fd;k tk jgk data of all the families of Haryana is
gS \ being created ?
[1] vaR;ksn; ifjokj mRFkku ;kstuk [1] Antyoday Parivar Utthan Yojna
[2] ifjokj igpku i= ;kstuk [2] Parivar Pehchan Patra Yojna
[3] eq[;ea=h ifjokj le`f) ;kstuk [3] Mukhyamantri Parivar Samriddhi
Yojna
[4] tu vk/kkj ;kstuk [4] Jan Aadhar Yojna

84. gfj;k.kk ds iapk;rh jkt laLFkkvksa esa 84. Percentage of posts which have been
efgykvksa ds fy, vkjf{kr dh xbZ lhVksa dk reserved for women in Panchayati
çfr'kr gS % Raj Institutions of Haryana :
[1] 25% [2] 33% [1] 25% [2] 33%
[3] 66% [4] 50% [3] 66% [4] 50%

85. og ftyk] tgk¡ igyh ckj gfj;k.kk esa 85. The district, where first time in
bZ-pkyku ykxw fd;k x;k gS % Haryana E-challan has been
introduced :
[1] xq#xzke [2] iapdqyk [1] Gurugram [2] Panchkula
[3] fglkj [4] jksgrd [3] Hisar [4] Rohtak

86. ^Xykscy flVh izkstsDV* fodflr fd;k tk 86. 'Global City Project' is being
jgk gS % developed by :
[1] ,p0 ,l0 vkbZ0 vkbZ0 Mh0 lh0] [1] HSIIDC, Govt. of Haryana
gfj;k.kk ljdkj }kjk
[2] th0 ,e0 Mh0 ,0] gfj;k.kk ljdkj [2] GMDA, Govt. of Haryana
}kjk
[3] ,p0 ;w0 Mh0 ,0] gfj;k.kk ljdkj [3] HUDA, Govt. of Haryana
}kjk
[4] 'kgjh fodkl ea=ky;] Hkkjr ljdkj [4] Ministry of Urban Development,
}kjk Govt. of India
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[A] [ 22 ]

87. og vokMZ] tksfd çf'k{k.k esa mRÑ"Vrk gsrq 87. The award, which is given to a sport
gfj;k.kk jkT; }kjk [ksy çf'k{kd dks fn;k coach for excellence in coaching by
tkrk gS % the Haryana State :
[1] æks.kkpk;Z vokMZ [1] Dronacharya award
[2] xq# of'k"B vokMZ [2] Guru Vashistha award
[3] egkjk.kk çrki vokMZ [3] Maharana Pratap award
[4] vtqZu vokMZ [4] Arjuna award

88. {ks=Qy dh n`f"V ls gfj;k.kk dk Hkkjr esa 88. The position of Haryana in India in
LFkku gS % respect of area is :
[1] 11ok¡ [1] 11th
[2] 21ok¡ [2] 21st
[3] 15ok¡ [3] 15th
[4] 18ok¡ [4] 18th

89. {ks=Qy dh n`f"V ls y?kqre oU; tho 89. The smallest (in term of area) wild
vHk;kj.; gS % life sanctuary is :
[1] fHk.Mkokl [1] Bhindawas
[2] ukgj [2] Nahar
[3] ljLorh [3] Saraswati
[4] fNyfNyk [4] Chhilchhila

90. gfj;k.kk esa jkT; ç'kklu ds fof/kr% çeq[k 90. The de jure head of the State
gSa % Administration in Haryana is :
[1] jkT; ds eq[;ea=h [1] Chief Minister of the State
[2] lEHkkxh; vk;qDr [2] Divisional Commissioner
[3] jkT; ds egkf/koDrk [3] Advocate General of the State
[4] jkT; ds jkT;iky [4] Governor of the State

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[ 23 ] [A]

Hkkx – IV (PART – IV)

foKku (SCIENCE)

funsZ'k % fuEufyf[kr iz'uksa ds mÙkj nsus ds fy, lcls mfpr fodYi pqfu,A
Direction : Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.

91. leku inkFkZ dh yEckbZ L vkSj f=T;k R 91. Two ends of rods of length L and

dh NM+ksa ds nksuksa fljksa dks leku rki ij radius R of the same material are
j[kk tkrk gSA fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh kept at same temperature. Which of
NM+ vf/kdre Å"ek dk lapkyu djrh the following rods conducts the
gS \ maximum heat ?

[1] L = 25 cm, R = 0.5 cm [1] L = 25 cm, R = 0.5 cm

[2] L = 50 cm, R = 1.0 cm [2] L = 50 cm, R = 1.0 cm

[3] L = 75 cm, R = 1.5 cm [3] L = 75 cm, R = 1.5 cm

[4] L = 100 cm, R = 2.0 cm [4] L = 100 cm, R = 2.0 cm

92. ,d Åij Qsadh xbZ xsan dks] Qsadus okys ds 92. A ball thrown up is caught by the

}kjk 'kq#vkr ds 6 sec ds ckn idM+ fy;k thrower 6 sec after start. The height
tkrk gSA xsan ftl Å¡pkbZ rd Åij xbZ] to which the ball has risen is :
og gS % (g = 10 m/s2 ysa ) (take g = 10 m/s2)

[1] 30 m [1] 30 m

[2] 45 m [2] 45 m

[3] 60 m [3] 60 m

[4] 90 m [4] 90 m

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[A] [ 24 ]

93. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk ok"iksRltZu de 93. Which of the following is not a
djus gsrq e#n~fHknh; vuqdwyrk ugha gS \ xerophytic adaptation to reduce
transpiration ?
[1] ruk izdk'k la'ys"k.k dk dk;Z laHkkyrk [1] Stems take over the function of
gSA photosynthesis.
[2] ja/kzh xrks± esa jkseksa dh mifLFkfrA [2] Presence of hairs in stomatal
pits.
[3] i.kZ dh lrg ij fdjsfVu ijr dh [3] Presence of keratin layer on the
mifLFkfrA leaf surface.
[4] i.kZ dh lrg ij ekseh; ijr dh [4] Presence of waxy coating on leaf
mifLFkfrA surface.

94. ;fn dksbZ oLrq] ,d ydM+h ds CykWd esa 94. If a body loses half of its velocity on
3 lseh Hksnu djus ij viuk vk/kk osx [kks penetrating 3 cm in a wooden block,
nsrh gS] rks fojkekoLFkk esa vkus ls igys then how much will it penetrate
og fdruk vf/kd Hksnu djsxh ¼lseh esa½ \ more before coming to rest (in cm) ?
[1] 1 [2] 2 [1] 1 [2] 2
[3] 3 [4] 1.5 [3] 3 [4] 1.5

95. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk dFku vlR; 95. Which of the following statement is
gS \ wrong ?

[1] fgLVksu] ykbflu vkSj vkftZfuu esa [1] Histones are rich in lysine and
çpqj gksrs gSaA arginine.

[2] fgLVksu dk pH 7 ls de gksrk gSA [2] The pH of histones is less than 7.

[3] U;wfDy;kslkse esa fgLVksu dk v"Vd [3] An octamer of histones is

mifLFkr gksrk gSA present in nucleosome.

[4] Mh,u, laos"Vu esa ik¡p çdkj ds [4] Five types of histones are
fgLVksu lac) gksrs gSaA involved in DNA packaging.
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[ 25 ] [A]

96. izkphu dky esa jsyos VªSd dh osfYMax ,d 96. The welding of railway tracks was

jklk;fud vfHkfØ;k }kjk djrs Fks ftls done in the past with the aid of
FkekZbV izØe dgrs gSaA FkekZbV vfHkfØ;k esa chemical reaction known as the
,d /kkrq vkWDlkbM dk nwljs /kkrq ds }kjk thermite process. The thermite
foLFkkiu gksrk gSA reaction involves the displacement of
a metal from its solid oxides by
another metal.

fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk lehdj.k FkekZbV Which of the following equations

vfHkfØ;k dks iznf'kZr djrk gS \ could represent the thermite reaction ?

[1] MgO + Zn → Mg + ZnO [1] MgO + Zn → Mg + ZnO

[2] 2Fe + Al2O3 → Fe2O3 + 2 Al [2] 2Fe + Al2O3 → Fe2O3 + 2 Al

[3] 3Zn + Al2O3 → 3ZnO + 2 Al [3] 3Zn + Al2O3 → 3ZnO + 2 Al

[4] 2 Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + 2Fe [4] 2 Al + Fe2O3 → Al2O3 + 2Fe

97. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lk eksusjk txr~ dk 97. Which of the following is not a

lnL; ugha gS \ member of Kingdom Monera ?

[1] uhy gfjr 'kSoky [1] Blue green algae

[2] ekbdksIykTek [2] Mycoplasma

[3] voiad QQw¡nh [3] Slime moulds

[4] feFksukstu [4] Methanogens

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[A] [ 26 ]

98. uhps fn, x, dwVksa dh lgk;rk ls ,d iq"i 98. Select the essential parts of a flower

ds vR;ko';d Hkkxksa dk p;u dhft, % using the codes given below :

A. ny A. Petals

B. L=hdslj B. Pistil

C. iq"io`Ur C. Peduncle

D. iqadslj D. Stamens

E. ckány E. Sepals

dwV % Codes :

[1] A ,oa E [1] A and E

[2] A ,oa C [2] A and C

[3] B ,oa D [3] B and D

[4] C ,oa D [4] C and D

99. 60 kg nzO;eku dk ,d O;fDr fy¶V ds 99. A person of mass 60 kg is standing

vanj dekuhnkj rqyk ij [kM+k gSA ;fn on a spring balance inside a lift. If
fy¶V Lora= :i ls uhps dh vksj fxjrh the lift falls freely downwards, then
gS] rks dekuhnkj rqyk dk ikB~;kad gksxk % the reading of the spring balance will
be equal to :
[1] 60 kg ds cjkcj [1] equal to 60 kg
[2] 60 kg ls T;knk [2] more than 60 kg
[3] 60 kg ls de [3] less than 60 kg
[4] 'kwU; [4] zero

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100. ,d ijek.kq dh lajpuk ds lanHkZ esa 100. Which of the following statements
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&ls dFku lgh ugha are incorrect about the structure of
gSa \ an atom ?
(i) iw.kZ :i esa ijek.kq mnklhu gksrk gSA (i) The atom as a whole is neutral.
(ii) ijek.kq ,d oS;fDrd ¼i`Fkd½ d.k gSA (ii) The atom is an indivisible particle.
(iii) ijek.kq dk lkjk Hkkj ukfHkd esa (iii) The whole mass of an atom is
ladsfUnzr gSA concentrated in the nucleus.
(iv) lHkh ijek.kq viuh vk| ¼ewy½ (iv) All the atoms are stable in their
voLFkk esa LFkk;h gksrs gSaA basic state.
lgh fodYi gS % Correct option is :
[1] (ii) rFkk (iii) [1] (ii) and (iii)
[2] (iii) rFkk (iv) [2] (iii) and (iv)
[3] (ii) rFkk (iv) [3] (ii) and (iv)
[4] (i) rFkk (iv) [4] (i) and (iv)

101. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk ,d dFku uksVksdkWMZ ds 101. Which one of the following statement
lUnHkZ esa iw.kZr;k xyr gS] tcfd ckdh is totally wrong about the occurrence
rhu lgh gSa % of notochord, while the other three
are correct ?
[1] ;g dsoy ,flfM;u ykjok dh iw¡N esa
[1] It is present only in the tail of
ikbZ tkrh gSA
ascidian larva.
[2] ;g o;Ld VksM esa d'ks#dh n.M }kjk
[2] It is replaced by a vertebral
çfrLFkkfir dj nh tkrh gSA column in adult toad.
[3] ;g dkWfUMªDFkht esa lEiw.kZ thoudky esa [3] It is not persistent throughout
LFkk;h :i ls ugha ikbZ tkrh gSA life in chondrichthyes.
[4] ;g ,fEQvkWDll esa thou i;ZUr ik;h [4] It persists throughout life in
tkrh gS rFkk flj ls iSj rd QSyh Amphioxus and extends from
gksrh gSA head to tail.

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[A] [ 28 ]

102. ,d Vsi fjdkWMZj es]a ,d cSVjh esa N% lsyksa 102. In a tape recorder, while connecting
dks Js.khØe esa tksM+us ds nkSjku ,d lsy six cells in a battery in series by
xyrh ls foijhr /kzqo.krk esa tqM+ tkrk gSA mistake one cell is connected with
;fn yksM dk izHkkoh izfrjks/k 24 Ω gS vkSj reverse polarity. If the effective
izR;sd lsy dk vkarfjd izfrjks/k 1 Ω vkSj resistance of load is 24 Ω and
fo0ok0cy 1.5 V gS] rks cSVjh }kjk iznk; internal resistance of each cell is 1 Ω
dh xbZ /kkjk gS % and e.m.f. 1.5 V, the current
delivered by the battery is :
[1] 0.1 A [2] 0.2 A [1] 0.1 A [2] 0.2 A
[3] 0.3 A [4] 0.4 A [3] 0.3 A [4] 0.4 A

103. f=T;k R dh ,d o`Ùkh; dq.Myh ls ,d 103. An electric current is flowing

fo|qr /kkjk izokfgr gks jgh gSA dq.Myh ds through a circular coil of radius R.
dsanz ij vkSj dq.Myh ds v{k ij mlds The ratio of the magnetic field at the
dsUnz ls 3 R nwjh ij pqEcdh; {ks= dk centre of the coil and that at a
vuqikr gS % distance 3 R from the centre of the
coil on its axis is :
[1] 2 : 1 [2] 5 : 3 [1] 2 : 1 [2] 5 : 3
[3] 8 : 1 [4] 3 : 2 [3] 8 : 1 [4] 3 : 2

104. ,d fo|ky; dh iz;ksx'kkyk esa nq?kZVuk ds 104. In an accident in a school lab, a large
nkSjku] cgqr vf/kd ek=k esa lksfM;e sample of aqueous sodium hydroxide
gkbMªkWDlkbM QSy tkrk gSA QSys gq, {kkj dks was split. Which substance when
mnklhuhÑr djus ds fy, dkSu&lk inkFkZ added in excess, is not suitable for
vkf/kD; esa feykus ij mi;qDr ugha gS \ neutralizing the alkali spill ?
[1] lY¶;wfjd vEy [1] Sulphuric acid
[2] vkWDlsfyd vEy [2] Oxalic acid
[3] flfVªd vEy [3] Citric acid
[4] lksfM;e gkbMªkstu lYQsV [4] Sodium hydrogen sulphate

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[ 29 ] [A]

105. nks d.kksa P1 vkSj P2 ds fy;s foLFkkiu&le; 105. The displacement time graph for the

xzkQ le; v{k ds lkFk 30° vkSj 45° ds two particles P1 and P2 are straight
dks.kksa ij >qdh gqbZ lh/kh js[kk;sa gSaA muds lines inclined at 30° and 45° with the
osxksa dk vuqikr VP1 : VP2 gksxk % time axis. The ratio of velocities
VP : VP will be :
1 2

[1] 1 : 3 [1] 1 : 3

[2] 3 :1 [2] 3 :1

[3] 1 : 3 [3] 1 : 3

[4] 1 : 1 [4] 1 : 1

106. thok'e bZa/ku ds tyus ls ukbVªkstu ds 106. Which oxides of Nitrogen are
dkSu&ls vkWDlkbM mRiUu gksrs gSa \ generated by burning of fossil fuel ?

[1] NO vkSj NO2 [1] NO and NO2

[2] NO2 , NO3 vkSj N 2O5 [2] NO2 , NO3 and N 2O5

[3] N 2O3 vkSj N 2O5 [3] N 2O3 and N 2O5

[4] NO3 vkSj N 2O5 [4] NO3 and N 2O5

107. ,d ijek.kq ftlesa 3 izksVkWu rFkk 4 U;wVªkWu 107. An atom with 3 protons and 4

gSa] dh la;kstdrk gksrh gS % neutrons will have a valency of :

[1] 7 [1] 7

[2] 1 [2] 1

[3] 3 [3] 3

[4] 4 [4] 4

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[A] [ 30 ]

108. izfrjks/k 50 Ω dk ,d py dq.Myh 108. A moving coil galvanometer of

/kkjkekih iw.kZ iSekus ij fo{ksi.k nsrk gS] resistance 50 Ω gives a full scale
tc blesa ls 0.5 mA dh /kkjk izokfgr dh deflection, when a current of 0.5 mA
tkrh gSA bls 10 volt ijkl ds oksYVehVj is passed through it. The resistance
esa ifjofrZr djus ds fy;s vko';d izfrjks/k required to convert it into a
gS % voltmeter of range 10 volt, is :
[1] 1950 Ω [2] 2000 Ω [1] 1950 Ω [2] 2000 Ω
[3] 19950 Ω [4] 20000 Ω [3] 19950 Ω [4] 20000 Ω

109. ,d lk/kkj.k yksyd dk vkorZdky T1 gksrk 109. A simple pendulum has a time
gS tc og i`Foh dh lrg ij gS vkSj T2] period T1, when it is on earth's
tc bls i`Foh dh lrg ls R Å¡pkbZ ij ys surface and T2, when taken to a
tk;k tkrk gSA tgk¡ R i`Foh dh f=T;k gSA height R above the earth's surface.
T2/T1 dk eku gksxk % Where R is the radius of the earth.
The value of T2/T1 will be :
[1] 1 [2] 2 [1] 1 [2] 2
[3] 2 [4] 4 [3] 2 [4] 4

110. fuEufyf[kr leqPp;ksa esa ls dkSu&lh 110. Which one of the following set
iz?kVuk,¡ rki c<+kus ij c<+rh gSa \ phenomena would increase on
raising the temperature ?
[1] ok"iu] foys;rk] xSlksa dk laihMu [1] Evaporation, solubility,
compression of gases

[2] ok"iu] folj.k] xSlksa dk izlkj [2] Evaporation, diffusion,

expansion of gases

[3] folj.k] foys;rk] xSlksa dk laihMu [3] Diffusion, solubility,

compression of gases

[4] la?kuu] folj.k] xSlksa dk laihMu [4] Condensation, diffusion,

compression of gases
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111. ,d 'kq"d ij[kuyh esa tc ysM ukbVªsV 111. When crystals of lead nitrate are
fØLVyksa dks rsth ls xje fd;k tkrk gS] rks % heated strongly in a dry test tube :
[1] ,d Hkwjk vo'ks"k cprk gS [1] a brown residue is left
[2] ij[kuyh esa 'osr /kwez izdV gksrs gSa [2] white fumes appear in the tube
[3] fØLVy 'kh?kz ok"ihÑr gks tkrs gSa [3] crystals immediately vaporise
[4] ,d ihyk vo'ks"k cprk gS [4] a yellow residue is left

112. ,fFky ,sYdksgkWy ds foÑfrdj.k ds fy, 112. Which of the following set can be
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk leqPp; dke esa used for the denaturation of ethyl
ysrs gSa \ alcohol ?
[1] esFksukWy] ty] dkWij DyksjkbM [1] Methanol, Water, Copper Chloride
[2] izksisukWy] fljdk] iksVSf'k;e ijeSaxusV [2] Propanol, Vinegar, Potassium
Permangnate
[3] esFksukWy] fifjMhu] dkWij lYQsV [3] Methanol, Pyridine, Copper
Sulphate
[4] fljdk] fifjMhu] ty [4] Vinegar, Pyridine, Water

113. fuEufyf[kr eas ls xyr okD; pqfu, % 113. Select wrong statement from the
following :
[1] ekuo 'kjhj ds fy, vko';d vk;ju [1] Iron necessary for human body
gjh lfCt;ksa eas izpqj ek=k esa ik;k is abundantly found in green
tkrk gSA vegetables.
[2] ftad ekuo 'kjhj ds fy, ,d [2] Zinc is one of the essential trace
vko';d lw{e rÙo gSA elements required for human
body.
[3] ekuo ds larqfyr vkgkj ds fy, olk [3] Fat and minerals are not the
,oe~ [kfut inkFkZ vko';d iks"kd essential nutrients for a balanced
rÙo ugha gSaA diet of humans.
[4] ,slk Hkkstu tks fd lEiw.kZ vkWDlhdj.k [4] The food that generate energy in
ds i'pkr~ 'kjhj esa ÅtkZ mRiUu djrk the body after complete
gS] dkcksZgkbMªsV] olk ,oe~ izksVhu ds oxidation are in the form of
:i esa gksrk gSA carbohydrates, fat and proteins.
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[A] [ 32 ]

114. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh ifjfLFkfr;ksa esa 114. In which of the following conditions,
,d ik= esa Hkjs gkbMªkstu v.kqvksa ds e/; the distance between the molecules
nwjh esa o`f) gksxh \ of hydrogen gas would increase,
filled in a container ?
(i) ik= esa ls dqN gkbMªkstu xSl dk (i) Some hydrogen gas leaking out
fjlko gks tk,A the container.
(ii) gkbMªkstu xSl ds ik= dk vk;ru (ii) Increasing the volume of
c<+kdjA container of hydrogen gas.
(iii) ,d can ik= esa mifLFkr gkbMªkstu xSl (iii) Increasing pressure on hydrogen
ij nkc c<+kdjA gas contained in a closed
container.
(iv) ik= dk vk;ru c<+k, fcuk] ik= esa (iv) Adding more hydrogen gas to
vfrfjDr gkbMªkstu xSl HkjukA container without increasing the
volume of the container.
[1] (ii) rFkk (iii) [1] (ii) and (iii)
[2] (ii) rFkk (iv) [2] (ii) and (iv)
[3] (i) rFkk (ii) [3] (i) and (ii)
[4] (i) rFkk (iii) [4] (i) and (iii)

115. ,d jsfM;ks/kehZ rÙo ds ijek.kqvksa dh 115. The initial number of atoms of a

izkjfEHkd la[;k] v/kZ vk;qdky 100 fnuksa radioactive element with half life
26 26
ds lkFk 9.6 × 10 gSA 500 fnuksa ds ckn 100 days, is 9.6 × 10 . The number
v{kf;r jgus okys ijek.kqvksa dh la[;k of atoms remaining undecayed after
gksxh % 500 days, will be :
25 25
[1] 19.2 × 10 [1] 19.2 × 10
25 25
[2] 9.6 × 10 [2] 9.6 × 10
25 25
[3] 3.84 × 10 [3] 3.84 × 10
25 25
[4] 3.0 × 10 [4] 3.0 × 10
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116. varosZ'kh foHkT;ksrd çkFkfed foHkT;ksrd gSa] 116. Intercalary meristems are the
D;ksafd % primary meristems, because :

I. os ikni ds thou esa çkjfEHkd voLFkk I. They appear early in the life of a
esa çdV gksrs gSaA plant.

II. os ikni ds çkFkfed 'kjhj ds fuekZ.k II. The contribute to the formation
esa ;ksxnku djrs gSaA of the primary plant body.

[1] nksuksa I ,oa II lgh gSa [1] Both I and II are correct

[2] nksuksa I ,oa II xyr gSa [2] Both I and II are incorrect

[3] dsoy I lgh gS [3] Only I is correct

[4] dsoy II lgh gS [4] Only II is correct

117. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk ,d vEyh; 117. Which of the following does not
yo.k ugha cukrk gS \ form an acidic salt ?

[1] QkWLQksfjd vEy [1] Phosphoric acid

[2] lY¶;wfjd vEy [2] Sulphuric acid

[3] gkbMªksDyksfjd vEy [3] Hydrochloric acid

[4] ukbfVªd vEy [4] Nitric acid

118. ,d >hy dh lrg ls 10 m uhps ,d 118. What will be the pressure on a

rSjkd ij D;k nkc gksxk \ swimmer 10 m below the surface of
a lake ?

[1] 1 atm [1] 1 atm

[2] 2 atm [2] 2 atm

[3] 5 atm [3] 5 atm

[4] 10 atm [4] 10 atm

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119. nkar ,usey esa mifLFkr dSfYl;e QkWLQsV 119. Nature of calcium phosphate present
dh izÑfr gS % in tooth enamel is :

[1] vEyh; [1] acidic

[2] mnklhu [2] neutral

[3] {kkjh; [3] basic

[4] mHk;/kehZ [4] amphoteric

120. #f/kj okfgdkvksa dk vUr%Lrj gS % 120. The endothelium of blood vessels is :

[1] 'kYdh midyk [1] Squamous epithelium

[2] ?kukdkj midyk [2] Cuboidal epithelium

[3] LrEHkkdkj midyk [3] Columnar epithelium

[4] i{ekHkh midyk [4] Ciliated epithelium

121. nks /ofu rjaxksa ds O;frdj.k ds dkj.k 121. Beats are heard due to interference
foLian lqukbZ nsrs gSaA /ofu dh rhozrk of two sound waves. The intensity of
100 feyh lsd.M esa vf/kdre ls U;wure sound changes from maximum to
rd ifjofrZr gksrh gSA nksuksa rjaxksa dh minimum in 100 milli second. The
vko`fÙk;ksa esa varj gS % difference in frequencies of two
waves is :

[1] dksbZ varj ugha gS [1] No difference

[2] 2.5 Hz [2] 2.5 Hz

[3] 5.0 Hz [3] 5.0 Hz

[4] 10.0 Hz [4] 10.0 Hz

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122. fuEufyf[kr esa ls [kk|&inkFkZ ,oa ikni 122. Select the incorrect pair of the food

Hkkx ftuls os çkIr gksrs gSa] dk xyr ;qXe articles and the plant part from which
p;fur dhft, % it is obtained from the following :

[1] xsgw¡ − Qy [1] Wheat − Fruit

[2] vnjd − tM+ [2] Ginger − Root

[3] gYnh − ruk [3] Turmeric − Stem

[4] pk; − i.kZ [4] Tea − Leaves

123. gjh [kkn ds lanHkZ esa fuEufyf[kr dFkuksa 123. Consider the following statements in

ij fopkj dj] fn, x, dwVksa dh lgk;rk reference to green manure and select
ls xyr dFku dk p;u dhft, % the incorrect statement using the
codes given below :

(A) gjh [kkn esa dkcZfud inkFkZ ,oa iks"kdksa (A) Green manure is rich in organic
dh çpqjrk gksrh gSA matter and nutrients.

(B) gjh [kkn dk mi;ksx izkFkfed :i ls (B) Green manure is primarily used
e`nk dks QkWLQksjl ls lEiUu djus gsrq to enrich the soil in phosphorus.
fd;k tkrk gSA (C) Green manure is the
(C) gjh [kkn vfo?kfVr ikni inkFkZ gSA undecomposed plant material.

dwV % Codes :

[1] A ,oa B [1] A and B

[2] B ,oa C [2] B and C

[3] C ,oa A [3] C and A

[4] dsoy B [4] Only B

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[A] [ 36 ]

124. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh] nzO; dh voLFkk 124. Which of the following are also

ekuh tkrh gSa \ considered to be the states of matter ?

(i) IykT+ek (i) Plasma

(ii) IysV~ysV~l (ii) Platelets

(iii) BEC (iii) BEC

(iv) BHC (iv) BHC

[1] (i) rFkk (ii) [1] (i) and (ii)

[2] (iii) rFkk (iv) [2] (iii) and (iv)

[3] (i) rFkk (iii) [3] (i) and (iii)

[4] (ii) rFkk (iii) [4] (ii) and (iii)

125. eTtk dksf'kdkvksa dks cuk, j[kus okyh 125. Cells that maintain marrow cells are

dksf'kdk,¡ dgykrh gSa % celled :

[1] vksfLV;kslkbV~l [1] Osteocytes

[2] dksUMªkslkbV~l [2] Chondrocytes

[3] vksfLVvksDykLV [3] Osteoclast

[4] eTtkDykLV [4] Marrowclast

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126. ,d ikS/kk ftldk thuksVkbi WWXxYyZZ 126. A plant with genotype WWXxYyZZ
gS ,oe~ mlesa Loijkx.k gksrk gSA bldh is self pollinated. What proportion of
larfr fdl vuqikr esa WWxxyyZZ the progeny will show the genotype
thuksVkbi çnf'kZr djsxh ¼;fn lHkh pkjksa WWxxyyZZ (if all four genes are
thu LorU= :i ls viO;fgr gksrs gksa½ \ independently assorting) :
1 1
[1] [1]
9 9
1 1
[2] [2]
16 16
1 1
[3] [3]
64 64
1 1
[4] [4]
128 128

127. dkWye&I dks dkWye&II ls feyk;sa vkSj lgh 127. Match the Column-I with Column-II
fodYi dk p;u djsa % and choose the correct option :

dkWye&I dkWye&II Column-I Column-II

I. X&fdj.ksa (A) 1 Å I. X-Rays (A) 1 Å

II. n`'; izdk'k (B) 2000 Å II. Visible light (B) 2000 Å

III. ijkcSaxuh (C) 5000 Å III. Ultraviolet (C) 5000 Å

fofdj.k radiation

IV. vojDr (D) 10000 Å IV. Infrared (D) 10000 Å

fofdj.k radiation

[1] I(A), II(C), III(B), IV(D) [1] I(A), II(C), III(B), IV(D)

[2] I(A), II(B), III(C), IV(D) [2] I(A), II(B), III(C), IV(D)
[3] I(D), II(C), III(B), IV(A) [3] I(D), II(C), III(B), IV(A)

[4] I(B), II(D), III(A), IV(C) [4] I(B), II(D), III(A), IV(C)
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128. Hkwdai iSnk djus ds fy;s ftEesnkj i`Foh dk 128. The earth's part responsible for
Hkkx gS % causing earthquakes is :

[1] i`Foh dk i`"BHkkx [1] crust of earth

[2] i`Foh dk esaVy ¼izkoj.k½ [2] mantle of earth

[3] i`Foh dk Hkhrjh dksj [3] inner core of earth

[4] i`Foh dk ckgjh dksj [4] outer core of earth

129. dFku (A) ,oe~ dkj.k (R) dk ijh{k.k 129. Examine Assertion (A) and Reason
djds lgh mÙkj pqfu, % (R) and choose correct answer :

dFku (A) % oxhZdj.k esa tkfr ¼Lih'kht½ Assertion (A) : Species are static
,d vifjorZuh; bdkbZ gSA units in classification.

dkj.k (R) % tkfr le; ds lkFk ifjofrZr Reason (R) : Species do not
ugha gksrhA change with time.

[1] A ,oe~ R lR; gSa rFkk R, A dk lgh [1] A and R are true and R is the
Li"Vhdj.k gSA correct explaination of A.

[2] A ,oe~ R lR; gSa ysfdu R, A dk [2] A and R are true but R is not
lgh Li"Vhdj.k ugha gSA correct explaination of A.

[3] A lgh gS fdUrq R xyr gSA [3] A is true but R is false.

[4] A ,oe~ R nksuksa xyr gSaA [4] A and R are false.

130. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh thfor 130. Which of the following living cells
dksf'kdkvksa dh dksf'kdk fHkfÙk ij fNæ ik, have perforations on their cell
tkrs gSa \ walls ?
[1] ckLV dksf'kdk [1] Bast cells
[2] okfgdk [2] Vessels
[3] okfgfudk [3] Tracheids
[4] pkyuh dksf'kdk [4] Sieve cells

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131. ,d ikjn'khZ ?ku esa] ok;q dk ,d NksVk 131. A transparent cube contains a small
cqycqyk gSA ,d i`"B ls ns[kus ij bldh air bubble. Its apparent distance is 2
vkHkklh nwjh 2 cm rFkk nwljs i`"B ls cm when seen through one face and
ns[kus ij 5 cm gksrh gSA ;fn ?ku ds inkFkZ 5 cm when seen through other face.
dk viorZukad 1.5 gS] rks ?ku ds fdukjs If the refractive index of the material
dh okLrfod yEckbZ gksuh pkfg, % of the cube is 1.5, the real length of
the edge of cube must be :
14 14
[1] cm [2] 7 cm [1] cm [2] 7 cm
3 3

[3] 7.5 cm [4] 10.5 cm [3] 7.5 cm [4] 10.5 cm

132. dkcZu ;kSfxdksa ds fy, fuEufyf[kr esa ls 132. Which of the following statements
dkSu&ls dFku lgh ugha gSa \ are incorrect for carbon compounds ?

a. vf/kdka'k dkcZu ;kSfxd fo|qr ds a. Most carbon compounds are

lqpkyd gksrs gSaA good conductor of electricity.
b. vf/kdka'k dkcZu ;kSfxdksa esa vk;fud b. Most carbon compounds have
ca/k gksrs gSaA ionic bonds.
c. dkcZu ;kSfxdksa ds v.kqvksa ds e/; c. Force of attraction between
vkd"kZ.k cy cgqr izcy ugha gksrs molecules of carbon compounds
gSaA is not very strong.
d. esFksukWy] ,slhfVd vEy rFkk ,slhVksu d. Methanol, acetic acid and
dkcZu ;kSfxd gSaA acetone are carbon compounds.
[1] (a) rFkk (d) [1] (a) and (d)
[2] (c) rFkk (d) [2] (c) and (d)
[3] (a) rFkk (b) [3] (a) and (b)
[4] (b) rFkk (d) [4] (b) and (d)

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133. xyr dFku pqfu, % 133. Select wrong statement :

[1] miHkksDrk Lrj ij ÅtkZ dk laxzg.k [1] The storage of energy at

f}rh;d mRikndrk dgykrk gSA consumer level is known as
secondary productivity.

[2] fdlh Hkh ikfjrU= esa vf/kdre ÅtkZ [2] In any ecosystem maximum
laxzg.k mRiknd Lrj ij gksrh gSA energy is stored at producer
level.

[3] ikfjra= ¼bdksflLVe½ 'kCn vksMe }kjk [3] Ecosystem term was coined by
fn;k x;k FkkA Odum.

[4] ,d Loiks"kh esa ftl xfr ls dkcZfud [4] Rate at which organic molecules
v.kqvksa dk fuekZ.k gksrk gS] mls ldy are formed in an autotroph is
çkFkfed mRikndrk dgrs gSAa called gross primary productivity.

134. fuEu esa ls dkSu-lk lqesfyr ugha gS \ 134. Which one of the following is
wrongly matched ?

[1] daMjk ¼VsUMu½ − la;ksth Ård [1] Tendon − Connective tissue

[2] fpduh isf'k;k¡ − vuSfPNd isf'k;k¡ [2] Smooth muscles − Involuntary

muscle

[3] yky is'kh − ek;ksXyksfcu [3] Red muscles − Myoglobin

[4] Vªksiksfuu − rUrqdh; çksVhu [4] Troponin − Fibrous protein

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135. MkYVu dk ijek.kq fl)kUr lQyrkiwoZd 135. Dalton's atomic theory successfully

le>krk gS % explained :

(i) nzO;eku laj{k.k dk fu;e (i) Law of conservation of mass

(ii) fLFkj vuqikr dk fu;e (ii) Law of constant proportion

(iii) jsfM;kslfØ;rk dk fu;e (iii) Law of radioactivity

(iv) xqf.kr vuqikr dk fu;e (iv) Law of multiple proportion

lgh fodYi gS % Correct option is :

[1] (i), (iii) rFkk (iv) [1] (i), (iii) and (iv)

[2] (ii), (iii) rFkk (iv) [2] (ii), (iii) and (iv)

[3] (i), (ii) rFkk (iv) [3] (i), (ii) and (iv)

[4] (i), (ii) rFkk (iii) [4] (i), (ii) and (iii)

136. dkWij ds fo|qr vi?kVuh 'kks/ku esa ,suksM 136. Which of the following metals is
iad ds :i esa fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh present in the anode mud during
/kkrq mifLFkr gksrh gS \ electrolytic refining of copper ?

[1] ,syqehfu;e [1] Aluminium

[2] lksuk [2] Gold

[3] lksfM;e [3] Sodium

[4] fta+d [4] Zinc

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[A] [ 42 ]

137. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh Qly nqEeVh 137. Which of the following crop is not

e`nk ds fy, mi;qDr ugha gS \ suitable for loamy soil ?

[1] xsgw¡ [2] /kku [1] Wheat [2] Paddy

[3] nygu [4] dikl [3] Pulses [4] Cotton

138. csfdax lksMk rFkk lksMk ,s'k ;kSfxdksa esa 138. The element which is not common

dkSu&lk rRo mHk;fu"B ugha gS \ between the compounds called

baking soda and soda ash is ?

[1] gkbMªkstu [2] vkWDlhtu [1] Hydrogen [2] Oxygen

[3] lksfM;e [4] dkcZu [3] Sodium [4] Carbon

139. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk lehdj.k ,d 139. Which of the following equation does

ljy vkorZ xfr dks iznf'kZr ugha djrk not represent a simple harmonic
gS \ motion ?

[1] y = a sin ωt + b cos ωt [1] y = a sin ωt + b cos ωt

[2] y = ae [2] y = ae
iωt iωt

[3] y = b cos ωt [3] y = b cos ωt

[4] y = b tan ωt [4] y = b tan ωt

140. fuEu esa ls fdl xzg ds lcls vf/kd 140. Which of the Planet has the largest

mixzg gSa \ number of satellites ?

[1] c`gLifr [2] eaxy [1] Jupiter [2] Mars

[3] cq/k [4] 'kfu [3] Mercury [4] Saturn

Level-2/811

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[ 43 ] [A]

141. fojkekoLFkk esa j[ks ,d ifg;s ij fØ;kjr 141. A torque of 50 Nm acting on a wheel

50 Nm dk cyk?kw.kZ] bls 5 lsd.M esa at rest rotate it through 200 radians in

200 jsfM;u ?kqekrk gSA dks.kh; Roj.k 5 seconds. The angular acceleration
2
¼jsfM;u@lsd.M ½ esa gksxk % (in rad/sec2) will be :

[1] 4 [2] 8 [1] 4 [2] 8

[3] 12 [4] 16 [3] 12 [4] 16

142. ,sls lw{ethoh] tyh; izk.kh ftuesa xeuh; 142. Microscopic aquatic organisms

;ksX;rk,¡ ugha gksrh gSa rFkk ikuh ds izokg ds lacking locomotory ability and

lkFk cgrs gSa % drifting with water currents are :

[1] IY;wLVu [1] Pleuston

[2] IySadVu ¼Iyod½ [2] Plankton

[3] usDVu ¼rj.kd½ [3] Necton

[4] lSLVu [4] Saston

143. lkcqu ds cqycqys dh ,d cgqr iryh 143. A very thin transparent film of soap

ikjn'khZ fQYe ¼eksVkbZ → 0½] 'osr izdk'k bubble (thickness → 0) is seen under

ds ijkorZu ds v/khu ns[kh tkrh gS] rc reflection of white light. Then the

fQYe dk jax fn[kkbZ nsrk gS % colour of the film appear to be :

[1] uhyk [2] dkyk [1] Blue [2] Black

[3] 'osr ¼lQsn½ [4] ihyk [3] White [4] Yellow

Level-2/811 P. T. O.

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[A] [ 44 ]

144. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk xq.k ;kSfxd dh 144. Which of the following property
O;k[;k ugha djrk gS \ does not describe a compound ?

[1] HkkSfrd izØeksa ds }kjk bls] blds vo;oksa [1] It cannot be separated into its
esa i`Fkd ugha fd;k tk ldrk gSA constituents by physical means.

[2] ;g nks vFkok vf/kd rRoksa ls feydj [2] It is composed of two or more
cuk gksrk gSA elements.

[3] ;g ,d 'kq) inkFkZ gSA [3] It is a pure substance.

[4] bls nzO;eku ds fdlh Hkh vuqikr esa [4] It is mixed in any proportion by
feykdj cuk;k tk ldrk gSA mass.

145. jklk;fud inkFkZ X rFkk Y vkil esa 145. Two chemical substances X and Y
la;qDr gksdj mRikn P cukrs gSa ftlesa X combine together to form a product
rFkk Y nksuksa gSa % P which contains both X and Y :
X+Y→P X+Y→P
lkekU; jklk;fud vfHkfØ;kvksa ds }kjk X X and Y cannot be broken down into
rFkk Y dks ljy inkFkksZa esa ugha rksM+k tk simpler substances by simple
ldrk gSA X, Y rFkk P ds lanHkZ esa chemical reactions. Which of the
fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk dFku lgh gS \ following statements concerning X,
Y and P are correct ?
(i) P ,d ;kSfxd gS (i) P is a compound
(ii) X rFkk Y ;kSfxd gSa (ii) X and Y are compounds
(iii) X rFkk Y rRo gSa (iii) X and Y are elements
(iv) P dk fuf'pr la?kVu gksrk gS (iv) P has a fixed composition
lgh fodYi gS % Correct option is :
[1] (i), (ii) rFkk (iii) [1] (i), (ii) and (iii)
[2] (i), (ii) rFkk (iv) [2] (i), (ii) and (iv)
[3] (ii), (iii) rFkk (iv) [3] (ii), (iii) and (iv)
[4] (i), (iii) rFkk (iv) [4] (i), (iii) and (iv)
Level-2/811

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[ 45 ] [A]

146. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu-lh eq[;r;k jch dh 146. Which of the following is not chiefly
Qly ugha gS \ a Rabi crop ?

[1] ew¡xQyh [1] Groundnut

[2] puk [2] Gram

[3] eVj [3] Pea

[4] ljlksa [4] Mustard

147. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lh ifjfLFkfr;k¡ ty 147. The evaporation of water increases
ds ok"iu dks c<+krh gSa \ under the following conditions :

[1] rki esa o`f)] lkekU; yo.k dks feykuk [1] Increase in temperature, addition
of common salt

[2] i`"Bh; {ks=Qy esa o`f)] rki esa o`f) [2] Increase in surface area, rise in
temperature

[3] i`"Bh; {ks=Qy esa o`f)] rki esa deh [3] Increase in surface area,
decrease in temperature

[4] i`"Bh; {ks=Qy esa deh] nkc esa deh [4] Decrease in surface area,
decrease in pressure

148. IykT+ek f>Yyh ds rjy ekstsd ekWMy esa % 148. In fluid mosaic model of plasma
membrane :
[1] Åijh ijr v/kzqoh; ,oe~ tyjkxh [1] Upper layer is non-polar and
gksrh gSA hydrophilic.
[2] /kzqoh; ijr tyfojkxh gksrh gSA [2] Polar layer is hydrophobic.
[3] QkWLQksfyfiM f}Lrj cukrs gSa tks [3] Phospholipids form a bilayer that
rjyrk iznku djrk gSA provides fluidity.
[4] çksVhu e/; ijr cukrs gSaA [4] Proteins form a middle layer.

Level-2/811 P. T. O.

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[A] [ 46 ]

149. fuEufyf[kr esa ls dkSu&lk@ls izØe Å"ek 149. Which of the following process/
fuxZfer djrk@djrs gSa \ processes release heat ?

(i) la?kuu (i) Condensation

(ii) ok"iu (ii) Vaporisation

(iii) fgeu (iii) Freezing

(iv) xyu (iv) Melting

lgh fodYi gS % Correct option is :

[1] dsoy (i) [1] Only (i)

[2] dsoy (iv) [2] Only (iv)

[3] (ii) rFkk (iii) [3] (ii) and (iii)

[4] (i) rFkk (iii) [4] (i) and (iii)

150. fuEufyf[kr esa ls fdldk Hkkj lokZf/kd 150. Which of the following would weigh

gksxk \ the highest ?

[1] lqØksl ds 0.2 eksy (C12H 22O11) [1] 0.2 mole of sucrose (C12H 22O11)

[2] CaCO3 ds 2.0 eksy [2] 2.0 moles of CaCO3

[3] CO2 ds 2.0 eksy [3] 2.0 moles of CO2

[4] H 2O ds 10 eksy [4] 10 moles of H 2O

Level-2/811

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jQ dk;Z ds fy, (FOR ROUGH WORK)

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6. iz'uksa ds mÙkj] mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr [kkuksa dks dkys ckWy IokbaV 6. Answers to questions in answer sheet are to be
iSu ls iw.kZr;k Hkjuk gS] tSlk fd uhps fn[kk;k x;k gS % given by darkening complete circle using Black ball
point pen as shown below :
1  3 4 1  3 4
vki }kjk fn;k x;k mÙkj xyr ekuk tk,xk] ;fn mÙkj okys [kkus The answer will be treated wrong, if it is marked, as given
dks fuEu izdkj ls Hkjrs gSa % below :
   
    

;fn ,d ls T;knk [kkuksa dks Hkj nsrs gSa rks vkidk mÙkj xyr ekuk If you fill more than one circle it will be treated as a
tk,xkA wrong answer.
7. jQ dk;Z iz'u&iqfLrdk esa bl iz;kstu ds fy, nh xbZ [kkyh txg ij gh djsAa (Rough work should be done only in the space
provided in the Question Booklet for the same.)
8. lHkh mÙkj dsoy OMR mÙkj i=d ij gh vafdr djsAa vius mÙkj /;kuiwoZd vafdr djsAa mÙkj cnyus gsrq 'osr jatd ¼lQsn ¶Y;wM½ dk iz;ksx
fuf"k) gSA (The answers are to be recorded on the OMR Answer Sheet only. Mark your responses carefully. Whitener
(white fluid) is not allowed for changing answers.)
9. izR;sd iz'u ds fy, fn, x, pkj fodYiksa esa ls mfpr fodYi ds fy, OMR mÙkj i=d ij dsoy ,d o`Ùk dks gh iwjh rjg dkys ckWy IokbaV iSu
ls HkjsAa ,d ckj mÙkj vafdr djus ds ckn mls cnyk ugha tk ldrk gSA (Out of the four alternatives for each question, only one
circle for the most appropriate answer is to be darkened completely with Black Ball Point Pen on the OMR Answer
Sheet. The answer once marked is not allowed to be changed.)
10. vH;FkhZ lqfuf'pr djsa fd bl mÙkj i=d dks eksM+k u tk, ,oa ml ij dksbZ vU; fu'kku u yxk,¡A vH;FkhZ viuk vuqØekad mÙkj i=d esa
fu/kkZfjr LFkku ds vfrfjDr vU;= u fy[ksAa (The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make
any stray mark on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Roll No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the
Answer Sheet.)
11. iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d dk /;kuiwoZd iz;ksx djs]a D;ksafd fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa ¼iz'u&iqfLrdk ,oa mÙkj i=d ds Øekad esa fHkUurk dh fLFkfr
dks NksM+dj½ nwljh iz'u iqfLrdk
fLrdk lSV miyC/k ugha djokbZ tk,xhA
tk,xh (Handle the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet with care, as
under no circumstances (except for discrepancy in Question Booklet and Answer Sheet Serial No.), another set of
Question Booklet will not be provided.)
12. iz'u&iqfLrdk@mÙkj i=d esa fn, x, Øekad dks vH;FkhZ lgh rjhds ls gLrk{kj pkVZ esa fy[ksAa (The candidates should write the correct
Number as given in the Question Booklet/Answer Sheet in the Signature Chart.)
13. vH;FkhZ dks ijh{kk gkWy@d{k esa izos'k i= vkSj igpku i= ds vfrfjDr fdlh izdkj dh ikB~;&lkexzh] eqfnzr ;k gLrfyf[kr dkxt dh ifpZ;k¡]
istj] eksckby Qksu] bysDVªkWfud midj.k ;k fdlh vU; izdkj dh lkexzh dks ys tkus ;k mi;ksx djus dh vuqefr ugha gSA (Candidates are
not allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, electronic device or
any other material except the Admit Card and Identity Card inside the examination hall/room.)
14. i;Zo{s kd }kjk iwNs tkus ij izR;sd vH;FkhZ viuk izo's k dkMZ ¼jksy ua0½ vkSj igpku i= fn[kk,¡A (Each candidate must show on demand
his/her Admit Card (Roll No.) and identity card to the Invigilator.)
15. dsUnz v/kh{kd ;k i;Zo{s kd dh fo'ks"k vuqefr ds fcuk dksbZ vH;FkhZ viuk LFkku u NksMa+As (No candidate, without special permission of
the Superintendent or Invigilator, should leave his/her seat.)
16. dk;Zjr i;Zo{s kd dks viuk mÙkj i=d fn, fcuk ,oa gLrk{kj pkVZ ij nksckjk gLrk{kj fd, fcuk vH;FkhZ ijh{kk gkWy ugha NksMa+sxAs ;fn fdlh
vH;FkhZ us nwljh ckj gLrk{kj pkVZ ij gLrk{kj ugha fd, rks ;g ekuk tk,xk fd mlus mÙkj i=d ugha ykSVk;k gS vkSj ;g vuqfpr lk/ku dk
ekeyk ekuk tk,xkA OMR mÙkj i=d esa fu/kkZfjr LFkku ij lHkh vH;fFkZ;ksa }kjk ck;sa gkFk ds vaxwBs dk fu'fu'kku yxk;k tkuk gSA vaxwBs dk
fu'kku yxkrs le; bl ckr dk /;ku j[kk tk, fd L;kgh L;kgh lgh ek=k esa gh yxkbZ tk, vFkkZr~ L;kgh dh ek=k u rks cgqr vf/kd gks o u gh
cgqr deA (The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the
Invigilator on duty and signing the Signature Chart twice. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Signature Chart
second time will be deemed not to have handed over the Answer Sheet and dealt with as an unfair means case. All
candidates have to affix left hand thumb impression on the OMR answer sheet at the place specified which
should be properly inked i.e. they should not be either over inked or dried in nature.)
17. bysDVªkWfud@gLrpkfyr ifjdyd dk mi;ksx oftZr gSA (Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.)
18. ijh{kk gkWy esa vkpj.k ds fy,] vH;FkhZ foojf.kdk esa nh xbZ izfØ;k@fn'kk&funs'Z k o cksMZ ds lHkh fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa dk fo'ks"k /;ku j[ksAa vuqfpr
lk/kuksa ds lHkh ekeyksa dk QSlyk cksMZ ds fu;eksa ,oa fofu;eksa ds vuqlkj gksxkA (The candidates are governed by
Guidelines/Procedure given in the Information Bulletin, all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their
conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board.)
19. fdlh gkyr esa iz'u&iqfLrdk vkSj mÙkj i=d dk dksbZ Hkkx vyx u djsAa (No part of the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet shall
be detached under any circumstances.)
20. ijh{kk lEiUu gksus ij] vH;FkhZ d{k@gkWy NksM+us ls iwoZ mÙkj i=d d{k&i;Zo{s kd dks vo'; lkSai nsAa vH;FkhZ vius lkFk bl iz'u&iqfLrdk dks ys
tk ldrs gSAa (On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator in the
Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Question Booklet with them.)

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Telegram - @TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2022 Set : A
Level - 2
Sub. Code No.: 811 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 [2] 031 [4] 061 [4] 091 [4] 121 [3]
002 [4] 032 [3] 062 [2] 092 [2] 122 [2]
003 [3] 033 [4] 063 [1] 093 [3] 123 [4]
004 [4] 034 [3] 064 [1] 094 [1] 124 [3]
005 [1] 035 [2] 065 [3] 095 [2] 125 [1]
006 [3] 036 [1] 066 [1] 096 [4] 126 [2]
007 [3] 037 [3] 067 [2] 097 [3] 127 [1]
008 [*] 038 [1] 068 [2] 098 [3] 128 [1 & 2]
009 [4] 039 [2] 069 [3] 099 [4] 129 [4]
010 [3] 040 [1] 070 [1] 100 [3] 130 [4]
011 [3] 041 [3] 071 [4] 101 [3] 131 [4]
012 [3] 042 [3] 072 [4] 102 [2] 132 [3]
013 [4] 043 [4] 073 [2] 103 [3] 133 [3]
014 [1] 044 [4] 074 [3] 104 [1] 134 [4]
015 [1] 045 [1] 075 [4] 105 [1] 135 [3]
016 [4] 046 [2] 076 [3] 106 [1] 136 [2]
017 [1] 047 [*] 077 [2] 107 [2] 137 [2]
018 [1] 048 [3] 078 [1] 108 [3] 138 [1]
019 [4] 049 [4] 079 [3] 109 [3] 139 [4]
020 [2] 050 [1] 080 [3] 110 [2] 140 [1 & 4]
021 [3] 051 [3] 081 [2] 111 [4] 141 [4]
022 [1] 052 [2] 082 [1] 112 [3] 142 [2]
023 [1] 053 [3] 083 [2] 113 [3] 143 [2]
024 [2] 054 [4] 084 [4] 114 [3] 144 [4]
025 [3] 055 [2] 085 [1] 115 [4] 145 [4]
026 [2] 056 [2] 086 [1] 116 [1] 146 [1]
027 [4] 057 [1] 087 [2] 117 [1] 147 [2]
028 [4] 058 [4] 088 [2] 118 [2] 148 [3]
029 [2] 059 [2] 089 [4] 119 [3] 149 [4]
030 [3] 060 [2] 090 [4] 120 [1] 150 [2]

[*] means 1 mark given

Join Telegram - @TeachingExam For Kvs Nvs DSSSB Ctet and others
Telegram - @TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2022 Set : B
Level - 2
Sub. Code No.: 811 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 [4] 031 [3] 061 [4] 091 [3] 121 [4]
002 [3] 032 [3] 062 [3] 092 [3] 122 [3]
003 [1] 033 [1] 063 [2] 093 [4] 123 [2]
004 [4] 034 [1] 064 [1] 094 [2] 124 [4]
005 [3] 035 [4] 065 [3] 095 [1] 125 [4]
006 [4] 036 [3] 066 [3] 096 [1] 126 [1 & 4]
007 [3] 037 [1] 067 [3] 097 [3] 127 [4]
008 [2] 038 [2] 068 [2] 098 [1] 128 [3]
009 [4] 039 [2] 069 [1] 099 [1] 129 [1]
010 [1] 040 [3] 070 [4] 100 [3] 130 [4]
011 [1] 041 [3] 071 [1] 101 [3] 131 [2]
012 [3] 042 [4] 072 [1] 102 [1] 132 [4]
013 [2] 043 [4] 073 [2] 103 [4] 133 [2]
014 [1] 044 [1] 074 [2] 104 [3] 134 [4]
015 [4] 045 [4] 075 [3] 105 [2] 135 [2]
016 [2] 046 [1] 076 [1] 106 [2] 136 [4]
017 [2] 047 [2] 077 [4] 107 [1] 137 [4]
018 [*] 048 [2] 078 [4] 108 [2] 138 [1]
019 [4] 049 [*] 079 [2] 109 [1] 139 [2]
020 [3] 050 [4] 080 [3] 110 [3] 140 [3]
021 [3] 051 [4] 081 [4] 111 [4] 141 [3]
022 [1] 052 [3] 082 [1] 112 [3] 142 [1 & 2]
023 [3] 053 [3] 083 [1] 113 [3] 143 [4]
024 [3] 054 [3] 084 [1] 114 [3] 144 [2]
025 [1] 055 [2] 085 [2] 115 [4] 145 [3]
026 [1] 056 [2] 086 [2] 116 [2] 146 [1]
027 [2] 057 [2] 087 [2] 117 [3] 147 [1]
028 [4] 058 [1] 088 [4] 118 [4] 148 [2]
029 [3] 059 [2] 089 [2] 119 [3] 149 [2]
030 [4] 060 [4] 090 [4] 120 [2] 150 [3]

[*] means 1 mark given

Join Telegram - @TeachingExam For Kvs Nvs DSSSB Ctet and others
Telegram - @TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2022 Set : C
Level - 2
Sub. Code No.: 811 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 [2] 031 [3] 061 [2] 091 [4] 121 [4]
002 [1] 032 [3] 062 [1] 092 [3] 122 [1]
003 [3] 033 [3] 063 [3] 093 [3] 123 [4]
004 [3] 034 [1] 064 [3] 094 [4] 124 [3]
005 [2] 035 [3] 065 [3] 095 [3] 125 [2]
006 [1] 036 [1] 066 [2] 096 [2] 126 [3]
007 [2] 037 [2] 067 [1] 097 [4] 127 [2]
008 [1] 038 [4] 068 [4] 098 [3] 128 [1]
009 [2] 039 [4] 069 [1] 099 [4] 129 [4]
010 [4] 040 [4] 070 [1] 100 [3] 130 [2]
011 [4] 041 [1] 071 [2] 101 [4] 131 [4]
012 [3] 042 [4] 072 [2] 102 [1] 132 [1]
013 [*] 043 [1] 073 [3] 103 [2] 133 [3]
014 [3] 044 [2] 074 [1] 104 [3] 134 [2]
015 [4] 045 [3] 075 [4] 105 [2] 135 [4]
016 [3] 046 [2] 076 [4] 106 [3] 136 [4]
017 [4] 047 [4] 077 [2] 107 [1] 137 [4]
018 [4] 048 [1] 078 [3] 108 [2] 138 [3]
019 [2] 049 [3] 079 [4] 109 [1] 139 [4]
020 [1] 050 [2] 080 [3] 110 [3] 140 [2]
021 [3] 051 [2] 081 [2] 111 [3] 141 [3]
022 [4] 052 [3] 082 [4] 112 [1] 142 [2]
023 [4] 053 [4] 083 [2] 113 [3] 143 [1 & 2]
024 [3] 054 [2] 084 [2] 114 [2] 144 [3]
025 [1] 055 [1] 085 [4] 115 [1] 145 [1 & 4]
026 [1] 056 [4] 086 [1] 116 [1] 146 [2]
027 [1] 057 [2] 087 [1] 117 [3] 147 [4]
028 [3] 058 [*] 088 [4] 118 [1] 148 [1]
029 [3] 059 [3] 089 [2] 119 [3] 149 [2]
030 [4] 060 [2] 090 [1] 120 [2] 150 [4]

[*] means 1 mark given

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Telegram - @TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2022 Set : D
Level - 2
Sub. Code No.: 811 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 [3] 031 [4] 061 [1] 091 [4] 121 [1]
002 [4] 032 [1] 062 [1] 092 [2] 122 [2]
003 [4] 033 [3] 063 [2] 093 [1] 123 [4]
004 [2] 034 [4] 064 [2] 094 [3] 124 [3]
005 [1] 035 [2] 065 [3] 095 [3] 125 [2]
006 [3] 036 [3] 066 [1] 096 [3] 126 [4]
007 [2] 037 [3] 067 [4] 097 [1] 127 [3]
008 [3] 038 [1] 068 [4] 098 [3] 128 [4]
009 [3] 039 [1] 069 [2] 099 [1] 129 [1 & 4]
010 [4] 040 [4] 070 [3] 100 [4] 130 [1 & 2]
011 [4] 041 [3] 071 [4] 101 [1] 131 [4]
012 [4] 042 [3] 072 [3] 102 [2] 132 [1]
013 [1] 043 [4] 073 [2] 103 [4] 133 [3]
014 [2] 044 [1] 074 [1] 104 [2] 134 [1]
015 [3] 045 [2] 075 [3] 105 [1] 135 [2]
016 [1] 046 [2] 076 [3] 106 [1] 136 [3]
017 [1] 047 [2] 077 [3] 107 [3] 137 [2]
018 [1] 048 [1] 078 [2] 108 [1] 138 [4]
019 [*] 049 [4] 079 [1] 109 [3] 139 [3]
020 [3] 050 [2] 080 [4] 110 [4] 140 [2]
021 [2] 051 [2] 081 [4] 111 [2] 141 [2]
022 [4] 052 [2] 082 [2] 112 [3] 142 [4]
023 [4] 053 [3] 083 [4] 113 [3] 143 [2]
024 [3] 054 [3] 084 [2] 114 [3] 144 [4]
025 [4] 055 [4] 085 [2] 115 [3] 145 [4]
026 [3] 056 [1] 086 [4] 116 [4] 146 [4]
027 [2] 057 [2] 087 [1] 117 [3] 147 [2]
028 [3] 058 [4] 088 [1] 118 [2] 148 [1]
029 [1] 059 [*] 089 [1] 119 [2] 149 [4]
030 [1] 060 [3] 090 [2] 120 [3] 150 [3]

[*] means 1 mark given

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Telegram - @TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2023 Set : A
Level - 2
Sub. Code No.: 1211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 4 031 2 061 2 091 2 121 1
002 4 032 1 062 4 092 2 122 1
003 2 033 4 063 3 093 4 123 3
004 4 034 3 064 3 094 2 124 3
005 3 035 2 065 3 095 3 125 2
006 4 036 2 066 1 096 4 126 1
007 1 037 1 & 4 067 3 097 4 127 4
008 2 038 1 068 3 098 2 128 1
009 3 039 1 069 2 099 4 129 2 & 3
010 1 040 4 070 4 100 3 130 *
011 1 041 4 071 1 101 2 131 1
012 3 042 2 072 3 102 1 132 3
013 3 043 3 073 1 103 1 133 1
014 1 044 4 074 4 104 1 134 2
015 4 045 3 075 2 105 2 135 3
016 1 046 2 076 2 106 4 136 4
017 4 047 1 077 1 107 3 137 4
018 2 048 4 078 4 108 2 138 1
019 1 049 3 079 4 109 4 139 3
020 4 050 3 080 1 110 1 140 2
021 3 051 2 081 1 111 2 141 2
022 2 052 2 082 3 112 2 142 3
023 3 053 2 083 2 113 * 143 *
024 1 054 4 084 1 114 2 144 3
025 1 055 2 085 1 115 3 145 4
026 2 056 2 086 1 116 2 146 3
027 2 057 4 087 3 117 1 147 1
028 3 058 3 088 3 118 * 148 2
029 4 059 1 089 3 119 2 149 2
030 2 060 4 090 3 120 1 150 2

[*] means 1 mark given

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Telegram - @TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2023 Set : B
Level - 2
Sub. Code No.: 1211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 1 031 2 061 1 091 2 121 4
002 3 032 3 062 4 092 2 122 2
003 2 033 3 063 4 093 3 123 *
004 1 034 1 064 1 094 2 124 3
005 4 035 4 065 4 095 2 125 4
006 3 036 1 066 3 096 3 126 3
007 4 037 1 067 3 097 3 127 1
008 1 038 3 068 2 098 * 128 1
009 4 039 4 069 3 099 4 129 1
010 1 040 4 070 1 100 2 130 2
011 3 041 2 071 4 101 2 131 3
012 1 042 4 072 3 102 2 132 4
013 2 043 2 073 2 103 4 133 1
014 3 044 2 074 4 104 2 134 1
015 4 045 1 & 4 075 1 105 * 135 2
016 4 046 2 076 3 106 2 136 2
017 2 047 3 077 1 107 2 137 3
018 1 048 3 078 3 108 1 138 2
019 2 049 2 079 2 109 1 139 2 & 3
020 4 050 2 080 2 110 4 140 *
021 2 051 4 081 2 111 4 141 1
022 4 052 4 082 1 112 2 142 4
023 3 053 4 083 1 113 2 143 1
024 3 054 1 084 3 114 3 144 3
025 4 055 4 085 3 115 4 145 2
026 2 056 3 086 1 116 1 146 1
027 2 057 2 087 3 117 1 147 3
028 1 058 1 088 3 118 1 148 3
029 1 059 2 089 1 119 4 149 3
030 3 060 2 090 3 120 1 150 2

[*] means 1 mark given

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Telegram - @TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2023 Set : C
Level - 2
Sub. Code No.: 1211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 1 031 4 061 3 091 2 121 3
002 3 032 1 062 1 092 * 122 1
003 2 033 1 & 4 063 3 093 2 123 3
004 4 034 4 064 3 094 2 124 1
005 1 035 2 065 2 095 2 125 *
006 2 036 1 066 4 096 2 126 2
007 1 037 2 067 1 097 1 127 1
008 1 038 2 068 3 098 2 128 4
009 1 039 3 069 1 099 4 129 2
010 1 040 3 070 3 100 2 130 1
011 4 041 1 071 2 101 1 131 *
012 3 042 4 072 2 102 4 132 1
013 2 043 4 073 1 103 3 133 3
014 4 044 3 074 4 104 1 134 2
015 1 045 2 075 4 105 1 135 1
016 4 046 4 076 1 106 2 136 3
017 2 047 4 077 4 107 4 137 4
018 3 048 4 078 4 108 2 138 2
019 2 049 3 079 3 109 3 139 3
020 3 050 1 080 2 110 4 140 4
021 4 051 2 081 3 111 3 141 1
022 1 052 2 082 2 112 1 142 3
023 4 053 2 083 1 113 2 143 2
024 4 054 2 084 1 114 4 144 2
025 3 055 4 085 1 115 * 145 2 & 3
026 3 056 3 086 3 116 2 146 1
027 2 057 2 087 3 117 4 147 3
028 2 058 3 088 3 118 1 148 4
029 3 059 1 089 3 119 3 149 3
030 4 060 2 090 1 120 2 150 2

[*] means 1 mark given

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Telegram - @TeachingExam HTET Exam., - 2023 Set : D
Level - 2
Sub. Code No.: 1211 SCIENCE Final Answer Key

QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans. QN. Ans.
001 4 031 1 061 2 091 * 121 *
002 1 032 4 062 2 092 2 122 3
003 4 033 1 063 1 093 2 123 1
004 3 034 2 064 4 094 4 124 3
005 3 035 3 065 4 095 2 125 2
006 1 036 1 & 4 066 1 096 1 126 2
007 1 037 2 067 4 097 4 127 3
008 2 038 1 068 4 098 2 128 3
009 2 039 2 069 3 099 1 129 3
010 3 040 4 070 2 100 2 130 3
011 3 041 2 071 3 101 3 131 2
012 2 042 3 072 1 102 1 132 2
013 4 043 4 073 3 103 2 133 3
014 4 044 3 074 3 104 2 134 1
015 1 045 4 075 2 105 3 135 4
016 4 046 3 076 4 106 3 136 2 & 3
017 3 047 2 077 1 107 2 137 2
018 2 048 4 078 3 108 1 138 2
019 4 049 1 079 1 109 1 139 4
020 4 050 4 080 3 110 2 140 2
021 2 051 3 081 3 111 3 141 1
022 3 052 2 082 1 112 4 142 1
023 2 053 4 083 3 113 2 143 4
024 1 054 2 084 3 114 2 144 1
025 2 055 2 085 3 115 4 145 1
026 1 056 2 086 1 116 * 146 1
027 1 057 1 087 1 117 4 147 4
028 3 058 4 088 1 118 2 148 1
029 1 059 2 089 2 119 4 149 *
030 4 060 3 090 3 120 1 150 3

[*] means 1 mark given

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