UPSC EPFO – Past Years’ Labour Laws Questions

2023/2021/2017

1.Q: An employee shall be covered under the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, should the
employee be drawing a maximum monthly wage of:
(a) ₹15,000 (b) ₹18,000 (c) ₹21,000 (d) ₹24,000
Answer: ₹21,000 – (c)
Explanation: As per the 2017 amendment to the Act, the wage ceiling was raised from
₹18,000 to ₹21,000 to expand the coverage. Any employee earning up to ₹21,000 per
month is protected under the Act for timely payment of wages without unauthorized
deductions.

2.Q: Under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, which term ensures piece-rate workers get
wages equal to minimum time-rate wages?
(a) A minimum piece rate (b) A guaranteed time rate (c) A minimum time rate (d) A
guaranteed piece rate
Answer: Guaranteed time rate – (b)
Explanation: A guaranteed time rate is fixed to protect piece-rate workers from earning
below minimum wage, ensuring fair compensation even if output varies.

3.Q: Match the following:

● Recovery Officer →
● Compulsory Insurance →
● Scheduled Employment →
● Subsistence Allowance →

Acts:

● Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946

● Minimum Wages Act, 1948
● Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
● Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952
Answer:
● Recovery Officer → EPF Act, 1952
● Compulsory Insurance → Gratuity Act, 1972
● Scheduled Employment → Minimum Wages Act, 1948
● Subsistence Allowance → Standing Orders Act, 1946
Explanation: The matching reflects specific enforcement or benefit provisions under
each Act. For example, EPF Act allows a Recovery Officer to recover dues from
defaulting employers.

4.Q: Certified Standing Orders come into operation after how many days of dispatch by the
Appellate Authority?
(a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 30
Answer: Seven days – (a)
Explanation: Section 7 of the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act mandates a
7-day window after dispatch to allow both employer and union to prepare for
implementation.

5.Q: How many members are nominated by the Central Government to the National Social
Security Board under the Unorganised Workers' Social Security Act, 2008?
(a) 18 (b) 20 (c) 26 (d) 34
Answer: 34 – (d)
Explanation: The Board includes representatives from the Central and State
governments, workers, employers, NGOs, and subject experts to ensure inclusive
governance of social security.

6.Q: Which of the following is NOT a scheme under the Unorganised Workers' Social
Security Act, 2008?
(a) National Family Benefit Scheme
(b) Janshree Bima Yojana
(c) Employees’ Pension Scheme
(d) Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana
Answer: Employees’ Pension Scheme – (c)
Explanation: EPS is covered under the EPF Act, not the UWSS Act. The rest are
directly administered or supported under the 2008 legislation.

7.Q: What is the Appellate Authority under the EPF & MP Act, 1952?
(a) EPF Appellate Tribunal (b) National Tribunal
(c) Labour Appellate Tribunal (d) Industrial Tribunal
Answer: EPF Appellate Tribunal – (a)
 Explanation: The Employees’ Provident Funds Appellate Tribunal hears appeals under
the Act relating to dues, exemptions, and damages.

8.Q: Maximum maternity benefit for a woman giving birth to her third child is:
(a) 8 weeks (b) 12 weeks (c) 16 weeks (d) 26 weeks
Answer: 12 weeks – (b)
Explanation: For the first and second child, the benefit is 26 weeks. For the third child, it
is limited to 12 weeks (6 weeks before and 6 after delivery).

9.Q: Which is NOT correct under the EPF Act?

(a) Includes pension scheme
(b) Includes Deposit Linked Insurance
(c) Excludes co-op societies with 50+ workers without power
(d) Employer contributes on basic + DA + retaining allowance
Answer: (c) – Incorrect
Explanation: The Act excludes only those co-op societies that have less than 50
workers and do not use power.

10.Q: Which Act excludes "out-workers" from the definition of "workman"?

(a) Factories Act (b) Plantations Labour Act
(c) Contract Labour Act (d) Inter-State Migrant Workers Act
Answer: Factories Act – (a)
Explanation: The Factories Act applies only to workers working inside the premises.
Out-workers (e.g., home-based) are excluded.

11.Q: Which nature of work is NOT considered while prohibiting contract labour under the
CLRA Act?
(a) Incidental work (b) Permanent work
(c) Done through regular workers (d) Intermittent work
Answer: Intermittent work – (d)
Explanation: If the work is of intermittent or seasonal nature, contract labour may be
permitted. This is why it is not a ground for prohibition.
12.Q: A Safety Committee under the Factories Act is mandatory when:
(a) 1000+ workers (b) Hazardous substances are used
(c) Heavy machinery is used (d) 500+ workers
Answer: Hazardous substances – (b)
Explanation: Section 41G of the Factories Act mandates Safety Committees in factories
involving hazardous processes, regardless of worker count.

13.Q: Which statement is NOT correct about the Grievance Redressal Committee under the
Industrial Disputes Act?
(a) Equal representation
(b) Constituted in establishments with 20+ workers
(c) Chairperson is nominated by Govt
(d) Max 6 members
Answer: Chairperson nominated by Govt – (c)
Explanation: The chairperson is chosen by the committee members, not nominated by
the government.

14.Q: Legal representation in Labour Courts and Tribunals:

(a) Statutory right (b) Not allowed
(c) Allowed with other party’s consent (d) Only if High Court permits
Answer: With consent – (c)
Explanation: Representation by lawyers is allowed only when the opposite party
consents or court permits.

15.Q: Match the following provisions with the relevant Acts:

● Displacement Allowance → ?
● Certifying Surgeon → ?
● Half-monthly payment → ?
● Piece work → ?
Answer:
● Displacement Allowance → Inter-State Migrant Workmen Act
● Certifying Surgeon → Factories Act
● Half-monthly payment → Employees’ Compensation Act
● Piece work → Minimum Wages Act
Explanation: Each of these provisions is unique to the purpose of the listed Acts. For
example, half-monthly payments are for disablement under EC Act.
16.Q: Disputes about interpretation of Standing Orders under Standing Orders Act are
referred to:
(a) Industrial Tribunal (b) Labour Commissioner
(c) Labour Court (d) Employment Court
Answer: Labour Court – (c)
Explanation: Section 13A of the Act provides for Labour Courts to interpret Standing
Orders.

17.Q: A union that covers workers from multiple industries and occupations is called:
(a) Industrial union (b) General union (c) Craft union (d) Region-industry union
Answer: General union – (b)
Explanation: General unions have broad membership and are not restricted to a single craft
or industry.

18.Q: Workers’ participation in management is a Directive Principle under:

(a) Article 39A (b) Article 43A (c) Article 42 (d) Article 43B
Answer: Article 43A – (b)
Explanation: Inserted by the 42nd Amendment to promote industrial democracy.

19.Q: Which is a statutory central-level authority?

(a) Central Evaluation Committee
(b) Central Board for Workers’ Education
(c) Standing Labour Committee
(d) Employees’ State Insurance Corporation
Answer: ESIC – (d)
Explanation: ESIC is a statutory body under the ESI Act, 1948, providing social security.

20.Q: First law to introduce non-cash medical benefits in India:

(a) ESI Act, 1948 (b) Factories Act, 1948
(c) Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (d) Mines Act, 1952
Answer: ESI Act – (a)
Explanation: ESI provided comprehensive health benefits, including hospitals and
dispensaries, funded by contributions.
21.Q: Dr. Aykroyd’s formula is used for determining:
(a) Fair wage (b) Minimum wage (c) Living wage (d) Real wage
Answer: Minimum wage – (b)
Explanation: Dr. Aykroyd's formula calculates minimum wage based on a family's calorific
needs, clothing, housing, education, and medical expenses. It became the basis for the Indian
Labour Conference’s wage-setting guidelines.

22.Q: Which of the following is not a trade union security measure?

(a) Closed shop system (b) Agency shop system
(c) Open shop system (d) Union shop system
Answer: Open shop – (c)
Explanation: An open shop allows workers to join or not join a union freely. It offers no union
security. The others require union membership or dues.

23.Q: Who can be appointed as Chairperson of Central Advisory Board under the Minimum
Wages Act, 1948?
(a) Independent member (b) Employer representative
(c) Employee representative (d) Govt-nominated functionary
Answer: Govt-nominated functionary – (d)
Explanation: The Chairperson is nominated by the Central Government, often a senior
bureaucrat or labour secretary.

24.Q: Which of the following falls under the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the
Constitution?
(a) Relief of disabled and unemployable
(b) Labour regulation in mines
(c) Control of salt production
(d) Social security and insurance
Answer: Relief of disabled and unemployable – (a)
Explanation: While labour is in the Concurrent List, relief and rehabilitation for the
disabled/unemployed is a State List subject.

25.Q: The theory assuming “man is selfish and must be controlled by law” is:
(a) Placating theory (b) Police theory
(c) Religious theory (d) Philanthropic theory
Answer: Police theory – (b)
Explanation: This theory justifies labour welfare as a legal obligation to maintain order and
prevent unrest, not out of sympathy.

26.Q: “Everyone has the right to social security...” is from:

(a) Universal Declaration of Human Rights
(b) ILO Philadelphia Declaration
(c) First National Labour Commission
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy
Answer: Universal Declaration of Human Rights – (a)
Explanation: Article 22 of the UDHR (1948) guarantees the right to social security for all
through national and international effort.

27.Q: Which five “giants” were identified by William Beveridge for social reform?
(a) Want, disease, ignorance, squalor, idleness
(b) Want, sickness, disability, squalor, idleness
(c) Want, disease, old age, squalor, unemployment
(d) Disease, invalidity, old age, unemployment, ignorance
Answer: Want, disease, ignorance, squalor, idleness – (a)
Explanation: Beveridge's 1942 report laid the foundation of modern welfare state by targeting
these five root causes of poverty.

28.Q: Which statement about Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is not correct?
(a) Pension ranges ₹1,000–₹5,000/month
(b) Pension is guaranteed by Government
(c) Govt co-contributes ₹1,000 or 50%
(d) Applicable to all citizens aged above 40
Answer: Applicable to all citizens aged above 40 – (d)
Explanation: Only citizens aged 18–40 are eligible to join APY. Option (d) is factually
incorrect.

29Q: Annual premium for Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana (PMSBY) offering ₹2 lakh
accident cover is:
(a) ₹100 (b) ₹50 (c) ₹20 (d) ₹12
Answer: ₹12 – (d)
Explanation: PMSBY is a low-cost accident insurance scheme for people aged 18–70 years.
₹12/year covers accidental death and disability.

Key Trends Identified

● Payment of Wages Act, Minimum Wages Act, ESI, EPF, Maternity Benefit, Social
Security for Unorganised Workers, Factories Act—all are frequently asked.
● Static provisions + recent changes—very important!
● Scenario-based and authority/jurisdiction-based questions becoming more frequent.
1. Analysis of Labour Laws Questions in EPFO Exams

Observed Trends:

● Labour Law questions make up a substantial proportion of the EPFO exam—typically

10–15% of the paper.
● Questions test both static legal knowledge (Acts, definitions, constitutional provisions)
and current applications (recent amendments, landmark judgments, government
schemes).
● The scope is wide: Industrial relations, Trade unions, Social security legislation,
Wage laws, and the role of ILO are regularly featured.
● Questions often combine direct knowledge (e.g., “Which Act covers X?”) and
applied/analytical scenarios(e.g., “A dispute arises under Act Y, which authority has
jurisdiction?”).
● Recent years show an increasing trend of case-based and assertion-reason
questions in Labour Law.

2. Detailed Syllabus – Labour Laws for UPSC EPFO

A. Major Acts & Codes (with focus points)

● The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (Dispute settlement, Works Committee, Grievance
Redressal, types of settlement, legal representation)
● The Trade Unions Act, 1926 (Registration, Rights/Liabilities, Security measures like
closed shop, union types)
● The Minimum Wages Act, 1948 (Definitions, scheduled employment, fixation/revision of
wages)
● The Payment of Wages Act, 1936 (Coverage, authorized deductions, wage period,
recent wage limits)
● The Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948 (Medical benefits, coverage, recent
changes)
● The Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 (EPF,
EPS, EDLIS, eligibility, appellate authorities)
● The Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 (Eligibility, duration, amendments)
● The Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 (Applicability, calculation, recovery)
● The Factories Act, 1948 (Definition of worker, safety committees, working hours,
welfare, out-workers)
● The Contract Labour (Regulation & Abolition) Act, 1970 (Who is contract labour,
abolition conditions, welfare provisions)
● The Unorganised Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008 (Schemes, National Social
Security Board)
● Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946 (Certification, standing orders,
appellate authority)
● Code on Wages, 2019; Code on Social Security, 2020 (as per new pattern)
B. Constitutional Provisions

● Directive Principles relating to labour (Art. 39, 41, 42, 43, 43A)
● Fundamental Rights related to forced labour, equality (Art. 14, 16, 23)
● Schedules and Lists: Seventh Schedule, State List items (labour regulation)

C. Institutions & International Context

● ILO: Philadelphia Declaration, conventions, aims

● Labour Ministry bodies: Central/State Advisory Boards, Implementation Committees,
Social Security Boards

D. Miscellaneous/Applied

● Types of Unionism: business, general, industrial, craft, predatory, revolutionary

● Labour Welfare Theories: placating, police, religious, philanthropic
● Workers’ Participation: types of committees, constitutional provisions
● Contemporary Developments: Social Security Codes, new schemes (ESI, Atal
Pension Yojana), amendments

3. Relevance of Labour Laws in UPSC EPFO

● Direct Job Role: EPFO officers enforce, inspect, and implement social security/labour
legislations; practical knowledge is mandatory.
● Weightage: High (approx. 10–15% of questions); scoring if prepared systematically.
● Overlap with Polity & Current Affairs: Many questions require understanding of how
labour laws interact with constitutional rights, government schemes, and recent reforms.
● Skillset Tested: Both memory-based (sections/definitions) and analytical (case
scenarios, problem-solving).

4. Preparation Strategy Handout: Labour Laws for EPFO

Step 1: Master the Core Acts

● Prepare short notes (1–2 pages each) for every major act—cover definition,
applicability, key provisions, and important sections.
● Use tables and flowcharts for complex processes (e.g., dispute resolution under
Industrial Disputes Act, types of trade unions, wage calculation).

Step 2: Track Recent Amendments and Schemes

● Maintain a running list of latest amendments (especially wage/social security codes).

● Note any new schemes for unorganised workers, ESI, or social security.

Step 3: Learn with Context and Scenarios

 ● For each act, practice scenario-based MCQs—e.g., “A contract worker in X scenario,
which act applies?”
● Use PYQs and model papers to identify which areas are asked repeatedly.

Step 4: Link to Constitution and ILO

● Memorize key constitutional articles, DPSPs, and the significance of the ILO and its
declarations (esp. Philadelphia Declaration).
● Note overlaps—e.g., how DPSPs guide labour law reforms.

Step 5: Revision and Active Recall

● Regularly revise using flashcards or summary tables (sections, limits, authorities).

● Solve at least 50 MCQs solely on labour laws before exam.
● Attempt at least one full-length mock test focusing on Labour Law and Social Security
sections.

Step 6: Application & Current Affairs

● Stay updated with current developments—latest Supreme Court judgments, code

implementations, and government circulars relevant to labour.
● Relate provisions to real-world news for better retention.

Suggested Resources

● Bare Acts (short versions or summaries)

● Labour Law books by G.K. Sharma, S.N. Mishra, or commercial guides tailored for
EPFO/APO exams
● Official websites: Ministry of Labour, EPFO

Quick-Reference: One-Page Revision Sheet for Labour Laws

Act/Area Key Points to Remember

Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 Dispute types, authorities, Works Committee,

settlement types

Trade Unions Act, 1926 Registration, rights, security, types of union

Minimum Wages Act, 1948 Scheduled employment, wage fixation, guaranteed

time rate

Payment of Wages Act, 1936 Wage limits, authorized deductions

ESI Act, 1948 Medical/non-cash benefits, eligibility, recent updates

EPF Act, 1952 EPF, EPS, EDLIS, coverage, appellate authorities

Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 Entitlements, third child rule, amendments

Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 Applicability, calculation

Factories Act, 1948 Worker/child/woman definition, committees, working

hours

Contract Labour Act, 1970 Definition, abolition, benefits, prohibition

Social Security/Unorganised Workers Boards, schemes, recent codes

Acts

ILO/Philadelphia Declaration Key points, India's ratification, aims

DPSP/Constitutional Provisions Arts. 39, 41, 42, 43, 43A, 14, 16, 23

Sample One-Week Study Plan for Labour Laws (for Working Aspirants)

Day Focus Area Tasks

Day 1 Overview + Industrial Disputes Act Read, make notes, practice 10

MCQs

Day 2 Trade Unions Act + Types of Unionism Notes, diagrams, 10 MCQs

Day 3 Minimum Wages Act + Payment of Wages Act Notes, comparison table, 10 MCQs

Day 4 ESI Act + EPF Act Key provisions, 10 MCQs

Day 5 Maternity Benefit, Gratuity, Standing Orders Highlights, amendments, 10 MCQs

Acts

Day 6 Labour Welfare Theories, ILO, Social Security DPSPs, international aspects, 10
MCQs

Day 7 Revision + 1 full-length Labour Law mock test Revise, correct mistakes, fill gaps
Final Tips

● Prioritize Acts with highest historical weightage.

● Focus on provisions, not just names—know what each act does.
● Always link theory to practical/real-world examples for better retention and for
scenario-based questions.
● Revise regularly and track your progress through MCQs.