Class XI Biology MCQ for Final Examination (AHSEC)

Plant physiology – By Dr. A. Junaid

Animal Physiology – By Dr. Nilanjan Deb

The Living World

1. Which among the following best describes the word “Growth” in living organisms?

a) Increase in mass either due to accumulation or due to changes that body undergoes
internally

b) Increase in mass due to internally cell division and increase in number due to
replication are twin characteristic of growth

c) All living organisms grow throughout their life

d) Growth is a sufficient characteristic to determine whether an organism is living or

non-living

2. Reproduction in Planaria takes place through ________

a) Budding

b) Binary Fission

c) Asexual spores

d) Fragmentation

3. Reproduction is a sufficient condition to determine whether a thing is living or

nonliving.

a) True

b) False

4. Sexual reproduction results in variation of the progeny from the parents. What do you
think are the appropriate reasons?

a) Since sexual reproduction involves only gene from a single parent which undergoes
modifications to produce different traits in the progeny
b) Sexual reproduction involves gene from both the parents which undergoes
modifications to produce traits that vary from the parent

c) It is due to variation in the time

d) Parents decide the traits of the progeny and design them accordingly

5. Metabolism means ________

a) division of cells

b) expansion of cell

c) sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in our body

d) production of progeny

6. The action that the environment does on an organism is called ________

a) Response

b) Stimuli

c) Reflex

d) Reaction

7. Consciousness and cellular organization of the body are the defining features of living
organisms.

a) True

b) False

8. When the reactions that occur in the body are made to happen in laboratory
conditions they are said to be ________

a) Metabolic reactions

b) Oxidation reactions

c) Living reactions

d) Reduction reactions

9. A reaction that takes place in laboratory rather than in a living body is called _______

a) In situ

b) In vitro

c) Instant

d) In house
10. Among the following statements pick the statement that best describes a living
thing.

a) All living things reproduce

b) Living organisms grow endlessly throughout their life

c) Living organisms are those that are self replicating, evolving and self-regulating
interactive systems capable of responding to external stimuli

d) Living organisms are those that depend on AI to take decisions

11. Increase in mass and increase in number are twin characteristics of growth.

a) True

b) False

12. Which organism among the following reproduce?

a) Mules

b) Worker bees

c) Fertile human couple

d) Infertile human couple

13. The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in our body known as ______

a) Anabolism

b) Metabolism

c) Amphibolism

d) Catabolism

14. Living and non-living organisms can be differentiated unexceptionally on the basis of
_________

a) Growth

b) Consciousness

c) Metabolism

d) Reproduction

15. Pick the man-made non-living thing.

a) Mountains

b) Valleys
c) Books

d) Rivers

16. Statement A: Natural things can be living or non-living.

Statement B: Living things can be natural.

a) Both the statements are true

b) Both the statements are false

c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false

d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false

17. Sun is essential for plants as it provides _____

a) Water

b) Roots

c) Food

d) Energy

18. Budding is observed in _____

a) Planaria

b) Amoeba

c) Yeast

d) Protonema of mosses

19. Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events in case of the majority of
plants and animals.

a) True

b) False

20. What is the expansion of ICBN?

a) International Code for Botanical Nomenclature

b) International Code for Biological Naming

c) Indian Code for Biological Naming

d) International Council for Biodiversity and Nature

21. Which among the following is involved in the naming of the animals scientifically?
a) ICBN

b) ICAN

c) ICPN

d) ICZN

22. What do you think is the need of nomenclature?

a) Scientists can use this term in their seminars

b) To have a standard name for an organism instead of having many names in different
languages

c) Nomenclature is something which is same for all organisms and people need not
mention each organism with different names

d) Nomenclature looks fancier and more technical than regional names

23. A binomial nomenclature consists of _______ and_________

a) Generic name and Phyla

b) Class and Phyla

c) Generic name and specific epithet

d) Phyla and Kingdom

24. Binomial nomenclature is given by ____________

a) Carolus Linnaeus

b) Charles Darwin

c) Henry Cavendish

d) James Chadwick

25. The scientific name of lion is _________

a) Panthera Leo

b) Panthera Tigress

c) Panthera Lion

d) Panthera leo

26. Magnifera Indica is the binomial nomenclature of mango.

a) True

b) False
27. Which among the following statements are correct?

a) All the biological names have their origin in Latin

b) The first word in a biological name represents the genus and the next represents the
specific epithet

c) Canis lupus familaris is the binomial nomenclature of a dog

d) Panthera Tigress is the binomial nomenclature of a tiger

28. The word “Taxa” means ________

a) Phyla

b) Genus

c) Classification

d) Kingdom

29. Which of the following taxa are in their increasing order of their similarities?

a) Class, Phylum, Kingdom

b) Genus, Kingdom, Phylum

c) Kingdom, Genus, Specific epithet

d) Specific epithet, Phylum, Genus

30. Magnifera indica and Azadirachta indica belongs to __________

a) Same genus

b) Same species

c) Same phylum

d) Same region

31. Classification is the main concept behind taxonomy.

a) True

b) False

32. The number of described species of living organisms is _________

a) 1.25 million species

b) 0.5 million species

c) 1.025 million species

d) 1.7 million species

33. The organisation of the biological world begins with __________

a) cellular level

b) atomic level

c) submicroscopic molecular level

d) organismic level

34. Which of the following books is not written by Carolus Linnaeus?

a) Systema Naturae

b) Historia Naturalis

c) Species Plantarum

d) Philosophia Botanica

35. Who is the Father of New Systematics?

a) Aristotle

b) Linnaeus

c) Theophrastus

d) Julian Huxley

36. A taxon can be defined as _________

a) a group of related families

b) a group of related species

c) a taxonomic group of any ranking

d) the number and type of organisms present on Earth

37. Which among the following is not a code of nomenclature for organisms?

a) International Code of Botanical Nomenclature

b) International Code of Bacteriological Nomenclature

c) International Code of Zoological Nomenclature

d) International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry

38. Statement A: Species is the basic unit of classification.

Statement B: Two plants can be said to belong to the same species if they can
reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.

a) Both the statements are true

b) Both the statements are false

c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false

d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false

39. Statement A: The process of classification is called taxonomy.

Statement B: Characterisation, identification, classification and nomenclature are

basic to taxonomy.

a) Both the statements are true

b) Both the statements are false

c) Statement A is true but Statement B is false

d) Statement B is true but Statement A is false

40. Which of the following takes into account evolutionary relationships between
organisms?

a) Cladistics

b) Artificial System of Classification

c) Natural System of classification

d) Systematics

41. Binomial Nomenclature means giving a scientific name consisting of a generic

name and a family name.

a) True

b) False

42. The similarities among the taxa decrease as it becomes more inclusive.

a) True

b) False

43. The study of relationships among different organisms is called _________

a) Taxonomy

b) Biology
c) Systematics

d) Ornithology

44. Classes are characterized based on the mode of reproduction, habitat, type of
blood in animals.

a) True

b) False

45. Sexual reproduction must involve parents from _________

a) Same kingdom

b) Same phylum

c) Same genus

d) Same species

46. Cats and lions belong to the family called ________

a) Canidae

b) Panthera

c) Felidae

d) Mammalia

47. The action that the environment does on an organism is called ________

a) Response

b) Stimuli

c) Reflex

d) Reaction

48. A plant kingdom is further classified into phylum.

a) True

b) False

49. Animal kingdom is classified into different phyla based on ____________

a) Type of blood they have

b) The presence or absence of vertebral column.

c) Place they live

d) Food they eat on

50. Pick the odd one out.

a) Humans

b) Cats

c) Ape

d) Monkey

51. Bats belong to the class ________

a) Chiroptera

b) Mammalia

c) Scrotifera

d) Chordata

52. Scientific name of housefly is _________

a) Musca domestica

b) Eurycotis floridana

c) Oryctolagus cuniculus

d) Anopheles albimanus

53. Potato, Tomato and Brinjal belong to the order called ______________

a) Solanum

b) Solanaceae

c) Convolvulacae

d) Polymonioles

54. Orders are grouped to form a __________

a) Family

b) Genus

c) Class

d) Phylum

55. Binomial nomenclature of Potato is _________

a) Solanum tuberosum
b) Ipomoea batatas

c) Phaseolus vulgaris

d) Daucus carota subsp. Sativus

56. Panthera Pardus is the binomial nomenclature of leopard.

a) False

b) True

57. The binomial nomenclature of peacock is _________

a) Pavo cristatus

b) Corvus corone

c) Haliaeetus leucocephalus

d) Barnardius zonarius

58. Pick the incorrect statement.

a) Binomial nomenclature has two parts namely generic epithet and specific epithet
and also some descriptive information along with them

b) Binomial nomenclature helps you to identify the relationship between animals

c) The rules for binomial nomenclature are set by IUCN

d) Binomial nomenclature is introduced in order to avoid ambiguity that is arises due to

different names for a same animal in different languages

59. Binomial nomenclature of Wheat is _________

a) Tritica aestivum

b) Musca domestica

c) Oryza sativa

d) Glycine max

60. Which among the following is not a rule for writing binomial nomenclature?

a) The generic epithet should start with capital letter and specific epithet should start
with small letter with a hyphen separating them

b) All the words in the binomial nomenclature should either be Latinized or should be
derived from Latin

c) Binomial nomenclature may contain description about the organism

d) The first part of the binomial nomenclature contains the generic name and the
second part contains the specific epithet

61. Felis catus is the scientific name of __________

a) Cat

b) Lion

c) Dog

d) Cow

62. Magnifera Indica belongs to the family ________

a) Felicae

b) Convolvulacae

c) Anacardiacae

d) Poacae

63. Homo sapiens belong to the genus ________

a) Sapiens

b) Homo

c) Hominidae

d) Mammalia

64. Canis auerus belongs to the family _______

a) Felicae

b) Canidae

c) Hominidae

d) Canis

Biological Classification
11. In Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification, all the prokaryotic organisms are grouped
under ________

a) Monera

b) Protista
c) Fungi

d) Animalia

12. Whittaker classified organisms based on their cell structure, mode of nutrition and
method of reproduction.

a) True

b) False

13. In Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification, all the unicellular organisms are categorised
under ________

a) Protista

b) Monera

c) Porifera

d) Animals

14. Cell wall in fungi is made up of ________

a) Chitin

b) Cellulose

c) Amino acids

d) Proteins

15. Chlamydomanas is grouped under________

a) Monera

b) Protista

c) Plantae

d) Fungi

16. Which among the following don’t contain nuclear membrane?

a) Monera

b) Protista

c) Fungi

d) Animalia

17.Whittaker’s 5 kingdom classification failed to include Viruses.

a) True
b) False

18. All the heterotrophic plants are categorized under ____________

a) Protista

b) Fungi

c) Monera

d) Plantae

19. Which among the following are incorrect?

a) Whittaker’s classification managed to consider cell structure, nature of the cell wall,
mode of nutrition and method of reproduction

b) In 2 kingdom classification, all the fungi and algae are forcefully made to join
Animalia

c) Whittaker’s classification is polyphyletic and so failed to group similar organism

under the same kingdom

d) Whittaker’s classification didn’t include viruses

20. Plantae consists of _______

a) Prokaryotes

b) Unicellular organisms

c) Multi-cellular organism

d) Heterotrophs

21. Monera comprises of prokaryotic organisms like bacteria which are the oldest life
forms of the earth. Bacteria are classified based on their shape.

a) True

b) False
22. The bacteria shown in the following picture belongs to the category______

a) Coccus

b) Bacillus

c) Vibrium

d) Spirillum

23. Which among the following is incorrect about Cyanobacteria?

a) The word cyano means greenish-blue because of which cyanobacteria is also called
as blue-green algae

b) The colour of cyanobacteria is due to presence of chlorophyll

c) Cyanobacteria are chemosynthetic autotroph

d) Cyanobacteria help in enriching oxygen levels in the atmosphere

24. Pseudomonas adopt ___________

a) Parasitic mode of nutrition

b) Heterotrophic mode of nutrition

c) Saprophytic mode of nutrition

d) Autotrophic mode of nutrition

25. Which among the following are incorrect about Mycoplasma?

a) It has rigid cell wall

b) It adopts parasitic mode of nutrition

c) It is present in urogenital tract and in rare cases, in blood smears

d) Mycoplasma is extremely small in size

26. Dunaliella salina belongs to the category of ________

a) Halophiles

b) Thermophiles

c) Hydrophiles

d) Methanogens

27. Methanogens are present in the ______

a) Mouth of cow

b) Guts of cow

c) Respiratory system of cow

d) Ribs of a cow

28. Archaebacteria can survive in extreme conditions because of the ________

a) complex metabolic reactions in their body

b) fact that they are the oldest life forms on the earth

c) rigid cell wall they have

d) double membrane nucleus

29. In chemosynthetic autotrophs energy to prepare food is obtained from __________

a) Light energy

b) Chemical energy

c) Bio-energy

d) Thermal energy

30. E.Coli is a rod-shaped bacterium present in ________

a) Digestive tract of humans

b) Respiratory tract of humans

c) Urogenital tract of humans

d) Excretory tract of humans

31. Assume that the growth of bacteria follows first order kinetics with a rate constant of
2/s. If the initial population of the bacteria is 2000, then the population of it after 30s will
be _____

a) 2 × 1029

b) 4 × 1029

c) 2 × 1030

d) 8 × 1029

32. Which among the following is incorrect about Lacto bacilli?

a) These are rod shaped bacteria

b) These are the bacteria responsible for turning milk into curd

c) These are parasites

d) They are also useful in industries for fermentation of wine

33. Bacteria reproduce by ___________

a) Sexual reproduction

b) Asexual reproduction

c) Spores

d) Sexual reproduction and asexual reproduction

34. Protists survive in ________

a) dry desert

b) aquatic regions

c) dry mountains

d) hot hills

35. Which among the following comprises of animal like protists?

a) Protozoans

b) Chrysophytes

c) Slime molds

d) Dianoflagellates

36. Diatoms are grouped under _________

a) Chrysophytes
b) Protozoans

c) Dianoflagelletes

d) Euglenoids

37. Cell wall in diatoms is made of _______

a) Chitin

b) Pectin

c) Silica

d) Cellulose

38. Diatomaceous earth can be used as a pest control because _________

a) it is porous

b) it contains silica which is poisonous for pests when eaten and therefore they die

c) it snatches out lipids from the outermost waxy layer of pests called cuticle and
makes them dry which results in their death

d) it acts as anesthesia when given in minor quantities but pests die when large
quantities are in taken

39. Diatoms store food as _______

a) Starch

b) Glucose

c) Oil

d) Fructose

40. Chrysophytes contain chlorophyll or carotene or xanthophyll in them. Their cell wall
is rigid and is made up of chitin.

a) True

b) False

41. Cell wall in dianoflagelllates contain _______

a) Chitin

b) Cortex

c) Silica

d) Pectin
42. Dianoflagellates contain ________

a) two flagella with both being transversal

b) two flagella with both being longitudinal

c) two flagella with lone being longitudinal and other being transversal

d) three flagella with one being along x-axis, other being along y-axis and the third one
being along z-axis

42. Dianoflagellates are plant like protists.

a) True

b) False

43. What is red tide?

a) Accumulation of cell wall deposits of red algae is called red tide

b) Accumulation of red blood cells in water

c) Coloration of water due to rapid multiplication of red dianoflagellates

d) Spread of chrysophytes due to rapid reproduction

44. Which among the following is responsible for red tide?

a) Gonyaulax

b) Udinium

c) Noctiluca

d) Golden algae

45. Which among the following belong to plankton?

a) Dianoflagellates

b) Chrysophytes

c) Euglenoids

d) Protozoans
46. Protists are unicellular eukaryotes.
a) True

b) False

47. Desmids belong to ________

a) Dianoflagellates

b) Chrysophytes

c) Euglenoids

d) Protozoans

48. Which among the following statements are incorrect about the given organism?

a) They are found in stagnated fresh water

b) They have a rigid cell wall made up of pellicle

c) They contain chlorophyll and can make their own food in presence of sunlight

d) They have two flagella with one being shorter than the other

49. Euglenoids are flexible due to ___________

a) Pellicle

b) Pectin

c) Chitin

d) Cortex

50. Which among the following are saprophytic protists?

a) Euglenoids

b) Protozoans

c) Dianoflagellates

d) Slime moulds

51. Slime moulds grow on ______

a) Oceans

b) Fresh water

c) Dead and decay mater

d) Hills

52. Which among the following are incorrect statements?

a) Slime moulds feed on bacteria, yeast and fungi and have amoeba like food ingestion

b) The pigments in Euglena are identical to that of higher plants

c) Slime moulds reproduce either by forming an aggregate called plasmodium or by

spore formation

d) All the other protists except Slime moulds have cell wall

53.Protozoans are animal like protists.

a) True

b) False

54. Pseudopodia help amoeboids in _______

a) locomotion

b) ingestion of food

c) locomotion and ingestion of food

d) performing metabolic reactions

55. Pseudopodia help amoeboids in _______

a) locomotion

b) ingestion of food

c) locomotion and ingestion of food

d) performing metabolic reactions

56. Amebiasis is caused due to _______

a) Amoeba proteus

b) Entamoeba hystalica

c) Chaos carolinense

d) Trypanosoma

57. Movement in paramoecium is due to ______

a) gullet

b) photo-receptors

c) cillia

d) radiating canals

58. Sleeping sickness is due to ________

a) Trypanosoma

b) Entamoeba hystalica

c) Noctiluca

d) Golden algae

59. Which among the following are non-mobile protozoa?

a) Sporozoans

b) Chrysophytes

c) Euglenoids

d) Amoeboids

60. All protozoans are either parasitic or predators. They depend on other animals for
their food.

a) True
b) False

61. Why do you think that food is protected from fungi when stored in refrigerator?

a) Fungi doesn’t grow in warm conditions

b) Refrigerator provides dry and cold conditions that don’t let fungi grow

c) Refrigerator contains CFC gas that is toxic and doesn’t let fungi to grow

d) Since the device works with electricity which doesn’t let fungus to grow

62. All fungi are multi-cellular.

a) True

b) False

63. Which among the following statements are incorrect about Fungi?

a) All the fungi are multi-cellular organisms except yeast

b) Fungi are heterotrophic and are either parasitic or saprophytic

c) Fungi prefer cold-dry conditions to grow

d) Fungi are immobile and this is the major difference between slime molds and that of
fungi

64. Lichens are __________

a) symbiotic existence of blue-green algae and fungi

b) symbiotic existence of rhizobium bacteria in the roots of leguminous plants

c) co-existence of coral reef with zooxanthellae

d) existence of mycorrhiza along with leguminous plants

65. Karyogamy means ______

a) fusion of nuclei

b) removal of cell wall

c) formation of new cell wall

d) division of nucleus

66. Diploid cell refers to __________

a) two set of chromosomes in a cell

b) germ cells in an organism

c) single set of chromosomes

d) double-membraned nuclei

67. Budding is ________

a) sexual mode of reproduction

b) an asexual mode of reproduction where an outgrowth from the parent splits to form
the daughter organism

c) an asexual mode of reproduction where the parent organisms splits into fragments
and then develops into a new organism

d) an asexual mode of reproduction where cytoplasm and nuclei splits into two equal
parts to form two daughter nuclei

68. During reproduction of fungus through fragmentation, ______

a) Mycelium separates into pieces which in turn form new one

b) Germ cells separate into pieces which in turn form new one

c) Zoospores are formed which further germinates to form new mycelium

d) Zygospores are formed which further germinates to form new mycelium

69. Coenocytic means _______

a) sharing of common cytoplasm

b) removal of plasma membrane

c) sharing of common nucleus

d) sharing of common hyphael wall

70. Phycomycetes are also called as ______

a) Sac fungi

b) Conjugation fungi

c) Club fungi

d) Imperfect fungi

71. Rhizopus belongs to _________

a) Phycomycetes

b) Ascomycetes

c) Basidiomycetes
d) Deuteromycetes

72. Which among the following are incorrect about Phycomycetes?

a) Phycomycetes are aseptate fungi and are coenocytic

b) Phycomycetes are also called as algal fungi

c) Zygospores are formed due to isogamous fertilization and zoospores are formed due
to anisogamous fertilization

d) Phycomycetes are also called as conjugation fungi

73. Asexual spores in Ascomycetes are called as _______

a) Ascospores

b) Conidia

c) Sporangiospores

d) Aeciospores

74. Which of the following is used in brewing of beer?

a) Penicillium

b) Yeast

c) Club fungi

d) Mushroom

75. Penicillin was first discovered from _______

a) Penicillium roqueforti

b) Penicillium chrysogenum

c) Penicillium notatum

d) Penicillium camemberti

76. Yeast grows in ______

a) damp and dark conditions

b) dry and cold conditions

c) sunlight

d) hot deserts

77. Which among the following fungus are used in the manufacture of proteins?
a) Asperigillus niger

b) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

c) Trichoderma

d) Aspergillus flavus

78. Viruses are living organisms.

a) True

b) False

79. Viruses in animals contain both RNA and DNA.

a) True

b) False

80. Viruses that infect plants have ________

a) single stranded RNA

b) double stranded RNA

c) single stranded DNA

d) double stranded DNA

81. Which among the following are incorrect about Viruses?

a) Viruses are acellular

b) Viruses are smaller than bacterium

c) Viruses can perform all of their metabolic activities except reproduction when
outside a living host

d) Viruses are non-living organisms

82. Who proved that viruses are crystalline like structures?

a) W M Stanley

b) Ivanowsky

c) M W Beijerinek

d) Lavoisier

83. Viruses are smaller than viroids.

a) True
b) False

84. Which among the following is not a difference between viruses and viroids?

a) Viruses contain DNA whereas viroids don’t contain DNA

b) Viruses contain protein coat whereas viroids don’t contain protein coat

c) Viruses contain RNA whereas viroids don’t contain RNA

d) Viruses are found in bacteria, animals and plants but viroids only in plants

85. Who discovered viroids?

a) T.O. Diener

b) Alexander Flemming

c) W.M. Stanley

d) Robert Hooke

86. Which among the following is odd?

a) Mumps

b) Small pox

c) Influenza

d) Potato spindle tuber disease

87. Who proved that viruses are crystalline like structures?

a) W M Stanley

b) Ivanowsky

c) M W Beijerinek

d) Lavoisier

88. The fungal portion in Lichens is known as _________

a) Mycobiant

b) Phycobiant

c) Capsobiant

d) Deuterobiant

89. Lichens are indicators of pollution because ________

a) They grow in oxygen depleted regions

b) They don’t grow in polluted regions

c) They grow in polluted regions

d) Their growth indicates that the region has very high carbon levels

90. AIDS stands for _______

a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

b) Acquired Immuno Disease Syndrome

c) All India Disease Syndromes

d) Aided Institute for Development and Sciences

Plant Kingdom
1. Blue-green algae belong to the phylum of algae.

a) True

b) False

2. Plantae doesn’t consist of mushrooms.

a) True

b) False

3. What is the major difference between plant cell and an animal cell?

a) Cell wall

b) Cell membrane

c) Eukaryotic nature of cells

d) Genetic material

4. Artificial classification of plant kingdom is based on _______

a) Morphological characteristics

b) Embryotic structure

c) Ultra structure

d) Filamentous structure

5. Which among the following is incorrect about artificial classification of plantae

kingdom?
a) This classification is mainly based on external features of a plant than that of their
internal features

b) It laid the concept of classification in plants

c) Sexual organs are given more preference than vegetative organs

d) Artificial classification classifies closely related species

6. The mode of classifying plants as shrubs, herbs and trees comes under ________

a) Artificial classification

b) Natural classification

c) Phylogenetic classification

d) Whittaker’s classification

7. Which among the following are incorrect about natural classification?

a) In natural classification, only internal structures of the plants are considered

b) Natural classification overcomes the limitations of the artificial classification

c) Natural classification considers reproductive mode, embryotic structure and ultra

structure of plants

d) Natural classification establishes close relationship between plants

8. Phylogenetic classification considers __________

a) Morphological characteristics

b) Embryotic structure

c) Evolutionary relationships

d) Ultra structure

9. Which among the following is incorrect about numerical taxonomy?

a) Numerical classification is based on mathematical calculations based on observable

characteristics

b) Numbers are given to each character

c) The more the number of similar characters, the more is the chance that they belong
to similar taxa
d) Numerical taxonomy gives the same result irrespective of the different sets of
characteristics considered

10. Which among the following is incorrect about cytotaxonomy and chemotaxonomy?

a) Cytotaxonomy is based on the chromosomes present in the organism

b) Chemotaxonomy is based on the chemical composition of plants

c) Cytotaxonomy involves characteristics like number of chromosomes, division of cell

and position centromere

d) Cytotaxonomy involves only external characteristics

11. Which of the following is not the basis for sub-classification in plants?

a) Well differentiable structure

b) Presence of seeds

c) Structure of branches

d) Seed coat

12. The word “Thallophyta” means ________

a) plants that don’t have well-differentiable structure

b) plants that have large leaves

c) plants that grow in colonies

d) plants that are filamentous

13. Which among the following is an incorrect statement?

a) Chlamydomanas is an example of unicellular algae

b) Chlamydomanas have flagella to promote their movement

c) Ulothrea is a unicellular autotrophic algal

d) Spirogyra attains its name because of spiral like arrangement of chloroplast

14. Which among the following are called as salad leaves?

a) Ulothrea

b) Ulva
c) Chladophora

d) Spirogyra

15. Which among the following are incorrect about volvox?

a) Volvox grow in colonies

b) The structure that connects them are called cytoplasmic bridges

c) Daughter colonies of volvox grow inside the parent colony

d) They are immobile due to absence of flagellum

16. The inner cell wall in spirogyra is made up of ________

a) Pectin

b) Cellulose

c) Chitin

d) Lipids

View Answer

17. Which among the following is incorrect about Ulothrea?

a) Ulothrea is a multicellular filamentous algae

b) Ulothrea contains three different sets of cells i.e. apical, basal and lateral cells

c) Apical cells are rounded at one end whereas basal cells are elongated at one end

d) Every cell contains chlorophyll in them

18. Which among the following are incorrect about Chladophora?

a) Chladophora is a filamentous branched algal

b) Chladophora is also called river weed in some areas

c) It is edible and are used in salads

d) There are many different varieties of chladophora that are difficult to be classified

19. Thallophyta follows cryptogamae.

a) True
b) False

20. Plants other than that of Thallophyta are classified based on the presence or
absence of vascular tissues as Bryophyta and others.

a) True

b) False

21. Which of the following modes are used by spirogyra to reproduce?

a) Fragmentation

b) Multiple fission

c) Spore formation

d) Binary fission

22.During unfavourable conditions, the outer layer that is formed in chlamydomonas is

called as ______

a) Cyst

b) Nuclear membrane

c) Cell wall

d) Cellular membrane

23.Which among the following is an incorrect statement?

a) Multiple fission is a process through which many individuals are produced by

repeated nuclear division

b) Multiple fission takes place under suitable conditions

c) During multiple fission, an outer layer called cyst is formed

d) Nucleus divides repeatedly and new individuals are formed inside the cyst after
which cyst breaks to release new individuals

24.Reproduction in humans is an example of _______

a) Isogamous

b) Anisogamous

c) Oogamous

d) Sapiogamous

25. The female sex organs in bryophytes are called as ________

a) Antheridium

b) Archegonium

c) Basiogonium

d) Thallogonium

26.Which among the following are incorrect?

a) Bryophytes are sub-classified into liverworts and mosses

b) Bryophytes are mostly found in dry hilly areas

c) Bryophytes don’t contain vascular tissues to transmit water and therefore don’t grow
tall

d) Bryophytes follow cryptogamae

27.Bryophytes are erect with hair like structures called as ________

a) Rhizoids

b) Stipe

c) Seta

d) Foot

28.Which among the following is an incorrect statement?

a) Bryophytes prevent soil erosion

b) Bryophytes decompose rocks and make soil fertile

c) Bryophytes are used in packing materials and are also good fuel

d) Bryophytes don’t absorb water and are used to pack food materials

29.Bryophytes are thalloid like structures and don’t have true roots, stems and leaves.

a) True

b) False

30.Which of the following is incorrect?

a) Gametes are produced in sex organs called gametophytes

b) Male gametes are transported to female gametes through water

c) Male and female gametes further fuse to form a zygotic structure that develops into
an embryo
d) This embryo further develops to form a haploidic structure called sporophytes that
bear spores

31.Sporophyte bears spores in ___________

a) Capsule

b) Seta

c) Foot

d) Strond

32.Which is the dominant phase in the life cycle of liverworts?

a) Diploid sporophyte

b) Diploid zygote

c) Haploid gametophyte

d) Diploid spores

33.Which among the following is the tallest tree?

a) Red wood tree

b) Pine

c) Deodar

d) Cycads

34.Which among the following are incorrect?

a) Gymnosperms are fruitless plants that are mostly found in hilly areas

b) Gymnosperms are perennial, evergreen and woody trees

c) Gymnosperms have needle-shaped leaves that are well-adapted to withstand

extreme weather conditions

d) Gymnosperms are also termed as hard wood trees

35.In coralloid roots, roots are short and irregularly arranged and exist in symbiotic
association with cyanobacteria.

a) True

b) False

36.Gymnosperms are homosporous i.e. they contain similar spores.

a) True
b) False

37.Which of the following is incorrect about haplontic life cycle?

a) Gametophytes are the dominant phase in this life cycle

b) Sporophytes are free-living

c) Spores are haploid in nature and form gametophyte by mitotic division

d) Zygote acts as sporophyte

38.Which among the following life cycle suits Chlamydomanas?

a) Haplontic

b) Diplontic

c) Triplontic

d) Haplo-diplontic

39.Haploid cells undergo mitosis and diploid cells undergo meiosis to form plant body

a) True

b) False

40.Which among the following life cycle is exhibited by Polysiphonia?

a) Diplontic

b) Haplontic

c) Triplolntic

d) Haplo-diplontic

Animal Kingdom

1. Which among the following is not the basis of classification in Animalia?

a) Segmentation

b) Symmetry

c) Mode of nutrition

d) Levels of organization
View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Levels of organization, symmetry, arrangement of cells in embryo,

presence of coelom, segmentation and presence of notochord are the basis for the
classification in Animalia. Since all the animals are heterotrophic, there is no need to
classify Animalia based on their mode of nutrition.

2. Which among the following is incorrect about levels of organization in animals?

a) Cells are organized in different ways to form the basic body in animals

b) Cellular level of organization refers to the cluster of the cells that combine to form an
animal body

c) Tissue level of organization refers to the way tissues combine to form organs which in
turn form animal body

d) In organ system level of organization, various organs of the system work coordinately
to achieve a specific function

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Tissue level of organization refers to the grouping of cells to form tissues
that combine to form an animal body. There are no organs present in this level of
organization. Example: Platyhelmenthes.

3. Which among the following is incorrect about cellular level of organization?

a) A group of cells combine to form the whole body

b) Each cell carries over a specific function

c) This level of organization is also called as cell aggregate of body plan

d) Hydra exhibits this level of organization

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: In cellular level of organization, a group of cells combine to form the whole
body. Each cell carries over a specific function. This level of organization is also called
as cell aggregate of body plan. Sponges exhibit this level of organization. Hydra exhibits
tissue level of organization.

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4. Which among the following is incorrect about tissue level of organization?

a) Cells performing same functions group together to form a tissue

b) Organs are absent

c) Planaria exhibits this level of organization

d) Cells are specialized with division of labour

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Cells performing same functions group together to form a tissue. Organs
are absent in this level of organization. Cells are specialized with division of labour.
Example for this level of organization is Hydra. Planaria exhibits organ level of
organization.

5. Platyhelmenthes exhibit organ level of organization.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In organ level of organization, organs are specialized to perform a specific

action. Tissues are grouped to form organs. Example for this level of organization is
Platyhelmenthes.

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6. Which among the following is incorrect about organ system level of organization?

a) Organs group to form organ systems

b) Each and every organ system are specialized to perform a specific physiological
activity
c) Annelids exhibit this level of organization

d) All of these animals have a cavity between their digestive tract and body wall called
as coelom

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Organs group to form organ systems. Each and every organ system is
specialized to perform a specific physiological activity. Annelids exhibit this level of
organization. Some of these animals are coelomates, few others are pseudo
coelomates and others are acoelomates.

7. In a closed circulatory system, interstitial fluids and blood has no specific distinction
and therefore called as hemolymph.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In an open circulatory system, interstitial fluids and blood has no specific
distinction and therefore called as hemolymph. Whereas in closed circulatory system,
interstitial fluids and blood has specific distinction. Because in closed circulatory
system, blood flows through blood vessels.

8. Which among the following is incorrect about circulatory system in different animals?

a) In open circulatory system, blood is pumped by heart into blood cavity

b) In closed circulatory system, blood is enclosed in blood vessels

c) Interstitial fluid is separated from blood in the case of closed circulatory system

d) Closed circulatory system is exhibited by arthropods

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: In open circulatory system, blood is pumped by heart into blood cavity. In
closed circulatory system, blood is enclosed in blood vessels. Interstitial fluid is
separated from blood in the case of closed circulatory system. Closed circulatory
system is exhibited by chordates and open circulatory system is exhibited by mollusca
and arthropods.

9. Sponges are ______

a) Asymmetrical

b) Radially Symmetrical

c) Bilaterally symmetrical

d) Bimedially symmetrical

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Sponges are asymmetrical. They contain uneven branches growing on their
surface that makes them asymmetrical. Symmetry is also considered as the basis of
classification. An animal is considered to be radially symmetrical if their body looks
similar when cut in any radial direction. Examples: Colentrates and echinodermata. An
animal is considered to be bilaterally symmetrical if their body looks when cut along the
lateral direction. Examples: Annelids, Arthropods and humans.

10. Which among the following is incorrect about arrangement of cells in embryo?

a) The word “blasted” derives its origin from the word blastula which means a hollow
ball of cells formed during the early stage of embryo

b) If the number of cell layers in blastula is two in number, i.e. ectoderm and endoderm,
then such organisms are considered to diploblastic

c) If the number of cell layers in blastula is three in number, i.e. ectoderm, mesoderm
and endoderm, then such organisms are considered to triploblastic

d) In diploblastic organisms, mesoglea, a well differentiated substance, is present

between endoderm and ectoderm

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The word “blasted” derives its origin from the word blastula which means a
hollow ball of cells formed during the early stage of embryo. If the number of cell layers
in blastula is two in number, i.e. ectoderm and endoderm, then such organisms are
considered to diploblastic. If the number of cell layers in blastula is three in number, i.e.
ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm, then such organisms are considered to
triploblastic. In diploblastic organisms, mesoglea, an undifferentiated substance, is
present between endoderm and ectoderm.

11. Mesoderm gives rise to ______

a) Muscular tissues

b) CNS

c) Urinary bladder

d) Skin

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Mesoderm gives rise to skeletal and muscle tissues, blood, lymph and
connective tissues. Ectoderm gives rise to epidermis, hair, mammary glands and CNS.
Endoderm gives rise to organs like stomach, pancreas, urinary bladder and intestines.

12. Which among the following is incorrect about types of digestive system in animals?

a) A digestive system with one opening to outside is called incomplete digestive system

b) A digestive system with separate openings for ingestion and egestion is called
complete digestive system

c) Platyhelmenthes have a complete digestive system

d) Sea sponges have an incomplete digestive system

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: A digestive system with one opening to outside is called an incomplete

digestive system and a digestive system with separate openings for ingestion and
egestion is called complete digestive system. Platyhelmenthes and sea sponges have
an incomplete digestive system.

13. Which among the following is incorrect about classification on the basis of coelom?

a) Coelom is the cavity between the body wall and gut wall

b) Animals are divided into coelomates, acoelomates and pseudocoelomates

c) Coelom is the fluid filled space other than lymph vessels and blood vessels

d) In coelomates, cavities between the gut wall and mesoderm is absent

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Coelom is the cavity between the body wall and gut wall. It is the fluid filled
space other than lymph vessels and blood vessels. Animals are divided into
coelomates, acoelomates and pseudocoelomates based on the presence or absence
of the coelom or false coelom respectively.

14. Which among the following is incorrect about pseudocoelomates?

a) Pseudocoelomates means those organisms with false coelom

b) Mesoderm in pseudocoelom is scattered into pouches

c) In pseudocoelomates, coelom is lined completely through mesoderm

d) Nematodes are examples of pseudocoelomates

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Pseudocoelomates means those organisms with false coelom. Mesoderm

in pseudocoelom is scattered into pouches. In pseudocoelomates, coelom is lined
partially through mesoderm. Nematodes are examples of pseudocoelomates.

15. Which among the following is incorrect about coelomates?

a) Coelomates is also called as Eucoelomates

b) Body cavity is lined by mesoderm

c) Internal organs are suspended in the coelom and is attached through peritonium

d) Porifera is the best example for coelomates

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Coelomates is also called as Eucoelomates which means true coelom.

Body cavity is lined by mesoderm. Internal organs are suspended in the coelom and are
attached through peritoneum. Hemichordates, chordates, annelids and arthropods are
the best examples for coelomates.

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16. Which among the following is incorrect about acoelomates?

a) Body cavity is absent in these type of organisms

b) Coelenterates are the best examples for acoelomates

c) Mesoderm holds the internal organs in its own place

d) Nematodes also belong to acoelomates

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Body cavity is absent in acoelomates. In this type of animals, mesoderm

helps in holding the internal organs in its own place. Coelenterates, platyhelminthes
and porifera are the best examples for acoelomates.

17. Echinoderms are an example for coelomates.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Animals classified into coelomates, pseudocoelomates and acoelomates

based on the presence or absence of pseudocoelom. Echinoderms, annelids, mollusks
and arthropods are examples of coelomates.

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18. Which among the following is incorrect about segmentation?

a) Some animal bodies are divided into segments both internally and externally

b) The functions of each and every segment are unique and don’t intersect in their
functions

c) The phenomenon of segmentation is termed as metamerism

d) Segmentation helps few animals in locomotion

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Some animal bodies are divided into segments both internally and
externally. Along with few specific functions each and every segment has many
common functions. The phenomenon of segmentation is termed as metamerism.
Segmentation helps few animals in locomotion.

19. Incomplete digestive system is found in animals like tape worms.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

20. Notochord is formed by __________

a) Mesodermal cells

b) Ectodermal cells

c) Epidermal cells

d) Endodermal cells

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Animals are classified as chordates and non-chordates based on the

presence or absence of notochord respectively. Notochord is a rod-like structure
formed from mesodermal cells.

21. Which among the following is incorrect about notochords?

a) Notochord is a rod-like structure on the dorsal side of the animals

b) During the embryonic development notochord is formed on the dorsal side

c) Notochord is formed from epidermal cells

d) Pisces are an example for chordates

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Notochord is a rod-like structure formed on the dorsal side of animals.

During the embryonic development, notochord gets developed from mesodermal cells.
Animals are classified as chordates and non-chordates based on the presence or
absence of notochord. Pisces are an example for chordates.

22. Which among the following is coelomate, bilateral and has organ system level of
organization?

a) Hemichordates

b) Aschelminthes

c) Coelenterata

d) Platyhelminthes

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Animals are classified considering several factors like level of organization
in the organism, symmetry, arrangement of cells in the embryo, presence or absence of
coelom, segmentation in the organism and presence or absence of notochord.
Hemichordate is one such organism which has organ system level of organization,
bilateral symmetry and body cavity.

23. Which among the following is incorrect about chordates?

a) They must have notochord at every point of their life

b) They have a post anal tail

c) They have hollow dorsal nerve cord

d) They have a ventral heart

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: In chordates, notochord at some point of their life and may vanish after
certain period of time. They have a post anal tail. They have a dorsal nerve cord. They
have a ventral heart.

24. Which among the following is incorrect about chordata?

a) They have paired muscles

b) Post anal tail must be present in chordates

c) Their notochord vanishes after certain period of time

d) Pharyngeal gill slits are present

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Chordates have paired muscles. Post anal tail is present at the embryo but
might vanish after certain period of time. Their notochord also vanishes after certain
period of time. Pharyngeal gill slits are present.

25. Which among the following is odd?

a) Urochordata

b) Cephalochordata

c) Vertebrata

d) Agnatha

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Urochordata, Cephalochordata and Vertebrata are sub-phyla of Chordata.

These sub-phyla are classified based on the period of presence of notochord in
Chordates. Whereas unlike other three options, Agnatha is a super class in Chordates.

26. Which among the following is not correct about Urochordata?

a) They are a classification under Protochordates

b) They have post anal tail only till their larval stage
c) Most of these are marine and almost extinct

d) They don’t contain gill clefts

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Urochordata is classified under Protochordates. They have post anal tail
only till their larval stage. Most of these are marine and almost extinct. They contain
pharyngeal gill slits in the form of gill clefts.

27. Branchiostoma is an example of Cephalochordata.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum etc. are examples of Urochordata.

Branchiostoma which resembles like finless fish is actually an example of
Cephalochordata. The Cephalochordates and Urochordates are grouped under
Protochordates.

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28. Which among the following is incorrect about Vertebrata?

a) All chordates are vertebrates

b) In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by vertebral column in adults

c) They might not have post-anal tail after a certain period of time

d) Notochord is present during embryonic period

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: All vertebrates are chordates but the vice-versa is not true. Notochord is
present during embryonic period. It is replaced by vertebral column in adults. They
might also not have post-anal tail after a certain period of time.
29. Agnatha is an example of ________

a) Sub-phylum

b) Phylum

c) Super-class

d) Class

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Super-class is a taxonomic category that is just above the class and below
sub-phylum. Animal kingdom is divided into 10 phyla and one among them is
Chordates. Chordates are further classified into two sub-phylum, namely,
protochordates and vertebrata. Vertebrata are further classified into super classes,
namely, agnatha and gnathostomata.

30. Which among the following is incorrect about Agnatha?

a) These are also called as jawless fishes

b) Scales and fins are present

c) They adopt parasitic mode of nutrition

d) They have a circular mouth that acts as sucker

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Agnatha are also called as jawless fishes. Scales and fins are absent. They
adopt parasitic mode of nutrition. Their circular mouth acts as sucker. They are aquatic
and most of them are extinct. The only class that exists in this super-class is
cyclostomata.

31. Which among the following is incorrect about Cyclostomata?

a) Their vertebral column is made of cartilage

b) Lamprey and hagfish are examples of this class

c) Their digestive system is complete with stomach, food pipe and intestines

d) Their circulatory system is closed with a 2 chambered heart

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Vertebral column is made of cartilage in Cyclostomata. They don’t have a

stomach. Their circulatory system is closed with a 2 chambered heart. Lamprey and
hagfish are examples of this class.

32. Which among the following is incorrect about Gnathostomata?

a) These are vertebrates with jaws

b) This super class is classified into Pisces and tetrapods based on their type of blood

c) Pisces use fins for their movement

d) Tetrapods use limbs for their movement

View Answer

Answer: b

33. Which among the following is incorrect about Arthropoda?

a) This is the second largest phylum of Animalia Kingdom

b) They have jointed legs due to which they are named Arthropoda

c) Their jointed legs help them in fast mobility

d) Their body is bilaterally symmetrical

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Arthropoda is the second largest phylum of Animalia Kingdom. They have
jointed legs due to which they are named Arthropoda. Their jointed legs help them in
fast mobility. Their body is bilaterally symmetrical.

34. Which among the following statements is incorrect about Arthropoda?

a) Their Exoskeleton is made of chitin which helps them from extreme conditions

b) They are triploblastic, segmented and hemocoelomate animals

c) Some of these animals are dioecious and others are monoecious

d) Internal fertilization is seen in terrestrial animals and external fertilization is noticed
in aquatic animals

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Arthropoda are triploblastic, segmented and hemocoelomate animals.

Their Exoskeleton is made of chitin which helps them from extreme conditions. They are
dioecious and internal fertilization is seen in terrestrial arthropods whereas external
fertilization is noticed in aquatic arthropods.

35. Which among the following is incorrect about reproduction in Arthropoda?

a) They are dioecious

b) Internal fertilization takes place in the case of terrestrial arthropods

c) These are mostly viviparous organisms

d) Development of embryo is either direct or indirect

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Arthropods are dioecious animals. In most of the terrestrial arthropods,

internal fertilization occurs whereas in the case of aquatic arthropods external
fertilization occurs. Development of Embryo is either direct or indirect. These are mostly
oviparous.

36. Which among the following is not correct about Arthropods?

a) Their body consists of three parts, namely, head, thorax and abdomen

b) Their respiratory organs can be either lungs or gills

c) Their digestive system is complete with mouth, esophagus, intestines and rectum

d) They have a heart and blood vessels to supply blood to the organs of the body

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Arthropods consist of three parts, namely, head, thorax and abdomen.
Their respiratory organs can be either lungs or gills. Their digestive system is complete
with mouth, esophagus, intestines and rectum. Their circulatory system is of open type
i.e. they don’t have either heart or blood vessels to supply blood to the organs of the
body.

37. Ganglia fuse to form brain in Arthropods.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Ganglia fuse to form brain in Arthropods. Ladder like nervous system is
present in these organisms. Paired ventral nerve cord run through different segments of
the body. Paired Ganglia is noticed I each segment.

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38. Which among the following is incorrect about Annelids?

a) The name Annelids is derived from the word “Annulus” which means small ring like
structure

b) Some of these organisms are dioecious while few others are monoecious

c) The level of organization in these organisms is organ level of organization

d) The circulatory system is of open type

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The name Annelids is derived from the word “Annulus” which means small
ring like structure. Some of these organisms are dioecious while few others are
monoecious. The level of organization in these organisms is organ level of organization.
The circulatory system is of closed type.

39. Arthropods excrete through ___________

a) Malpighian tubules
b) Pores

c) Nephridia

d) Kidneys

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Arthropods excrete through malpighian tubules. These are usually found in
the posterior areas of arthropods’ alimentary canal. The structure of malpighian tubules
includes a single layer of epithelial cells.

40. Which among the following is incorrect about nervous system in Annelids?

a) Each segment has ganglia that help in the muscular movements

b) They have two ventral nerve chords throughout the body

c) Specialized sensory receptors to help in sense of touch and light

d) The pigmented photo receptors are called Oceli

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Annelids have ganglia in each segment that help in the muscular
movements. They have two ventral nerve chords throughout the body. Specialized
sensory receptors are present to help in sense of touch and light. Pigmented photo
receptors called Oceli are present in Annelids.

41. Which among the following is incorrect about nervous system in Nematodes?

a) Nerve ring made of four ganglia serves as brain

b) Nerve chords are present on the dorsal and ventral side of their body

c) Dorsal nerves act as sensory nerves of the body

d) Ventral nerves act as both motor controllers and sensory nerves of the body

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Nerve ring made of four ganglia serves as brain. Nerve chords are present
on the dorsal and ventral side of their body. Dorsal nerves act as motor nerves of the
body. Ventral nerves act as both motor controllers and sensory nerves of the body.

42. Which among the following is incorrect?

a) Nereis is a monoecious and Pheretima are dioecious

b) Annelids have a complete digestive system with Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach and
Intestines

c) Annelids possess heart and blood vessels

d) Locusta is one of the sociable Arthropods

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Nereis is a dioecious and Pheretima are monoecious. Annelids have a

complete digestive system with Pharynx, Esophagus, Stomach and Intestines. Annelids
possess heart and blood vessels i.e. they have a closed circulatory system. Locusta is
one of the sociable Arthropods.

43. Which among the following is incorrect about Mollusca?

a) This is the second largest phylum of Animal Kingdom

b) They have organ system level of organization

c) They have a dorsal heart along with dorsal and ventral blood vessels

d) Their body is covered with calcareous shell

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Mollusks constitute the second largest phylum of Animal kingdom. They
have organ system level of organization. They have open type of circulatory system.
Their body is covered with calcareous shell.

44. Which among the following statements is incorrect about nervous system in
Mollusca?

a) Ganglia are present at important parts of body

b) All the mollusks exhibit cephalization

c) Many of them have eyespots that act as photoreceptors

d) The anterior head region has sensory tentacles that help in sense of touch

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Most of the mollusks don’t exhibit cephalization. Ganglia are present at
important parts of their body. Many of them have eyespots that act as photoreceptors.
The anterior head region has sensory tentacles that help in sense of touch.

45. The soft spongy layer of skin over the hump is called as ________

a) Visceral Hump

b) Mantle

c) Radula

d) Foot

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The soft spongy layer of skin over the hump is called Mantle. The gap
between hump and the mantle is called mantle cavity. In some mollusks, mantle cavity
acts as the respiratory organs of the body.

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46. Which among the following is not correct about organ systems in mollusks?

a) Pair of main nerve cords extends throughout their body

b) Mollusks respire either through gills or mantle cavity

c) Excretion occurs through malpighian tubules

d) They have an open type of circulatory system

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pair of main nerve cords extends throughout their body. Mollusks respire
either through gills or mantle cavity. Excretion occurs through nephridia. They have an
open type of circulatory system.

47. Mollusks have a file like rasping organ called as radula that helps them in catching
prey

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Mollusks have a file like rasping organ called as radula that helps them in
catching prey. Mollusks have ganglia at important parts of their body which helps them
perform important functions.

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48. Which among the following is incorrect about Echinodermata?

a) The word “Echino” means spiny and “dermata” means skinned

b) Echinoderms are dioecious with fertilization being external in most cases

c) They have a central nerve ring that extends throughout their body

d) The circulatory system is closed and they have a heart along with blood vessels

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The word “Echino” means spiny and “dermata” means skinned.
Echinoderms are dioecious with fertilization being external in most cases. They have a
central nerve ring that extends throughout their body. The circulatory system in
Echinoderms is of open type.

49. Which among the following is incorrect about water vascular system in
Echinoderms?

a) Water driven tube feet system helps in locomotion as well as in excretion

b) Water vascular system has a ring canal which fills initially followed by that of radial
canals
c) Echinoderms excrete waste by osmosis in the tube feet

d) Exchange of gases takes place due to water vascular system

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Water driven tube feet system helps in locomotion as well as in excretion.
Water vascular system has a ring canal which fills initially followed by that of radial
canals. Echinoderms excrete waste by diffusion through the tube feet. Exchange of
gases takes place due to water vascular system.

51. Which among the following is incorrect about Echinoderms?

a) Larval stage is bilaterally symmetrical and adults are radially symmetrical

b) They are dioecious and most of the times the fertilization is external

c) The larvae is immobile and bilaterally symmetrical

d) They have a complete digestive system with mouth on the ventral side and anus on
the dorsal side

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Larval stage is bilaterally symmetrical and adults are radially symmetrical.
They are dioecious and most of the times the fertilization is external. The larvae is
immobile and bilaterally symmetrical. They have a complete digestive system with
mouth on the ventral side and anus on the dorsal side.

52. Which among the following is incorrect about nervous system in Echinodermata?

a) Radial nerves extend through the arms from the central nerve ring that surrounds the
mouth

b) Sensory tentacles help in sense of touch

c) Epidermis contains sensory cells that help in sense of touch

d) Their brain is made up of 4 nerve rings

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Radial nerves extend through the arms from the central nerve ring that
surrounds the mouth. Sensory tentacles help in sense of touch. Epidermis contains
sensory cells that help in sense of touch. In Echinoderms, brain is absent.

53. Which among the following is incorrect about Hemichordata?

a) They have three main parts in their body, namely, Proboscis, Collar and a long trunk

b) Open circulatory system is present in these organisms

c) Excretion takes place through proboscis gland

d) Hemichordates are organisms that contain notochord like chordates but lack in all
other features

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Hemichordates have three main parts in their body, namely, Proboscis,
Collar and a long trunk. Open circulatory system is present in these organisms.
Excretion takes place through proboscis gland. Hemichordates don’t have a notochord
instead have a structure similar to notochord called as stomochord.

54. Which among the following is incorrect about Hemichordates?

a) Their digestive system is complete with both mouth and anus

b) They are bilaterally symmetrical and are coelomates

c) They adopt tracheal mode of respiration

d) These organisms are also called as acorn worms

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The digestive system in hemichordates is complete with both mouth and
anus. They are bilaterally symmetrical and are coelomates. They use their gills to
respire. These organisms are also called as acorn worms.

55. Which among the following statements is incorrect about Hemichordates?

a) Embryo development is indirect i.e. they have an intermediate larval stage

b) The circulatory system is of closed type i.e. they have a dorsal heart and blood
vessels

c) They have dorsal and ventral nerves that help in coordination

d) They are monoecious

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Embryo development is indirect i.e. they have an intermediate larval stage.
The circulatory system is of closed type i.e. they have a dorsal heart and blood vessels.
They have dorsal and ventral nerves that help in coordination. They are dioecious.

56. Which among the following is correct about the following diagram?

Hemichordates with Proboscis, Collar & Trunk

a) a – helps in excretion; b-has mouth and helps in peristalsis of food; c-has gills and
helps in respiration

b) a – mouth and helps in peristalsis of food; b – has gills and helps in respiration; c –
has brain and central nervous system

c) a – helps in excretion; b – has gills and helps in respiration; c – has mouth and helps in
peristalsis of food

d) a – has mouth and helps in peristalsis of food; b – has brain and central nervous
system; c – helps in excretion

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Hemichordates have three main body parts. They are Proboscis, Collar and
Trunk. Proboscis helps in excretion. Collar has a mouth and helps in peristalsis of food.
Trunk has gills and helps in respiration.

57. Which among the following statements is incorrect about the following diagram?

Gastro-vascular cavity, hypostome, tentacles & cnidoblasts of Medusa

a) The above figure shows medusa

b) “d” has stingy capsules that help in catching prey

c) “b” helps in ingesting food

d) “a” is the cavity between gut wall and body wall

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The above figure shows medusa. In the above diagram, a, b, c, d indicates
gastro-vascular cavity, hypostome, tentacles and cnidoblasts respectively. Cnidoblasts
have stingy capsules that help in catching prey

58. Which among the following is incorrect about chordates?

a) They must have notochord at every point of their life

b) They have a post anal tail

c) They have hollow dorsal nerve cord

d) They have a ventral heart

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In chordates, notochord at some point of their life and may vanish after
certain period of time. They have a post anal tail. They have a dorsal nerve cord. They
have a ventral heart.

59. Which among the following is incorrect about chordata?

a) They have paired muscles

b) Post anal tail must be present in chordates

c) Their notochord vanishes after certain period of time

d) Pharyngeal gill slits are present

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Chordates have paired muscles. Post anal tail is present at the embryo but
might vanish after certain period of time. Their notochord also vanishes after certain
period of time. Pharyngeal gill slits are present.

60. Which among the following is odd?

a) Urochordata

b) Cephalochordata

c) Vertebrata

d) Agnatha

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Urochordata, Cephalochordata and Vertebrata are sub-phyla of Chordata.

These sub-phyla are classified based on the period of presence of notochord in
Chordates. Whereas unlike other three options, Agnatha is a super class in Chordates.

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61. Which among the following is not correct about Urochordata?

a) They are a classification under Protochordates

b) They have post anal tail only till their larval stage

c) Most of these are marine and almost extinct

d) They don’t contain gill clefts

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Urochordata is classified under Protochordates. They have post anal tail
only till their larval stage. Most of these are marine and almost extinct. They contain
pharyngeal gill slits in the form of gill clefts.

62. Branchiostoma is an example of Cephalochordata.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Ascidia, Salpa, Doliolum etc. Are examples of Urochordata.
Branchiostoma which resembles like finless fish is actually an example of
Cephalochordata. The Cephalochordates and Urochordates are grouped under
Protochordates.

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63. Which among the following is incorrect about Vertebrata?

a) All chordates are vertebrates

b) In vertebrates, notochord is replaced by vertebral column in adults

c) They might not have post-anal tail after a certain period of time

d) Notochord is present during embryonic period

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: All vertebrates are chordates but the vice-versa is not true. Notochord is
present during embryonic period. It is replaced by vertebral column in adults. They
might also not have post-anal tail after a certain period of time.

64. Agnatha is an example of ________

a) Sub-phylum

b) Phylum

c) Super-class

d) Class

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Super-class is a taxonomic category that is just above the class and below
sub-phylum. Animal kingdom is divided into 10 phyla and one among them is
Chordates. Chordates are further classified into two sub-phylum, namely,
protochordates and vertebrata. Vertebrata are further classified into super classes,
namely, agnatha and gnathostomata.

65. Which among the following is incorrect about Agnatha?

a) These are also called as jawless fishes

b) Scales and fins are present

c) They adopt parasitic mode of nutrition

d) They have a circular mouth that acts as sucker

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Agnatha are also called as jawless fishes. Scales and fins are absent. They
adopt parasitic mode of nutrition. Their circular mouth acts as sucker. They are aquatic
and most of them are extinct. The only class that exists in this super-class is
cyclostomata.

66. Which among the following is incorrect about cyclostomata?

a) Their vertebral column is made of cartilage

b) Lamprey and hagfish are examples of this class

c) Their digestive system is complete with stomach, food pipe and intestines

d) Their circulatory system is closed with a 2 chambered heart

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Vertebral column is made of cartilage in Cyclostomata. They don’t have a

stomach. Their circulatory system is closed with a 2 chambered heart. Lamprey and
hagfish are examples of this class.

67. Which among the following is incorrect about Gnathostomata?

a) These are vertebrates with jaws

b) This super class is classified into Pisces and tetrapods based on their type of blood

c) Pisces use fins for their movement

d) Tetrapods use limbs for their movement

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Gnathostomata are vertebrates with jaws. This super class is classified
into psices and tetrapods based on the organs they use for their movement. Pisces use
fins for their movement. Tetrapods use limbs for their movement.

68. Which among the following is incorrect about Pisces?

a) They have a streamlined body and a muscular tail that helps them in their movement

b) They are cold-blooded animals and can regulate the body temperature

c) Their heart is 2 chambered

d) Their skeleton is made of cartilage and bone

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Pisces have a streamlined body and a muscular tail that helps them in
their movement. They are cold-blooded animals and hence cannot regulate their body
temperature and rely on the environment to maintain a suitable temperature range.
Their heart is 2 chambered. Their skeleton is made of cartilage and bone.

69. Which among the following is an incorrect statement about circulatory system in
Pisces?

a) Their circulatory system is of closed type

b) They have two-chambered heart i.e. they have an auricle and a ventricle

c) They have a single circulatory system with gills i.e. oxygenated blood is pumped to
body parts only once

d) Auricle is also called receiving chamber and ventricle is also called as pumping
chamber

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Circulatory system is of closed type in Pisces. They have two-chambered

heart i.e. they have an auricle and a ventricle. They have a single circulatory system with
gills i.e. heart receives blood only once. Auricle is also called receiving chamber and
ventricle is also called as pumping chamber.

70. Which among the following is the main difference between Chondrichthytes and
Osteichthytes?
a) Endoskeleton composition

b) Fins

c) Type of blood

d) Type of jaws

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Pisces are sub-classified into Chondrichthytes and Osteichthytes based

on the composition of endoskeleton. In Chondrichthytes or cartilaginous fishes,
endoskeleton is made of cartilage. In Osteichthytes, endoskeleton is made of bone.

71. Which among the following is not correct about Chondrichthytes?

a) Chondrichthytes are jawless fishes

b) They have stream-lined body

c) Notochord is present throughout their life

d) Their skin is covered with pointed denticles

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Chondrichthytes have powerful jaws. They have stream-lined body.

Notochord is present through-out their life. Their skin is covered with pointed denticles.
Some chondrichthytes like Tripado have electric organs to paralyze the prey. Some of
them also use poisonous sting to catch prey.

72. Which among the following is incorrect about Osteichthyes?

a) Swim bladder helps them retain buoyancy

b) Many of them are edible

c) Gills are separate without operculum

d) Skin covered with cycloid/ ctenoid scales

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Swim bladder helps them retain buoyancy. Many of them are edible. Gills
have operculum. Skin covered with cycloid/ ctenoid scales. Most of the Osteichthyes
like Katla and Rhono are edible.

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73. Which among the following is incorrect about Tetrapoda?

a) Lobe-finned fishes were ancestors of tetrapods

b) Tetrapoda are classified into 4 sub-classes i.e. Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and
Mammalia

c) The word tetrapoda means those that have four chambered heart

d) Most of them are terrestrial

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Lobe-finned fishes were ancestors of tetrapods. Tetrapoda are classified

into 4 sub-classes i.e. Amphibia, Reptilia, Aves and Mammalia. The word tetrapoda
means those that have four limbs. Most of them are terrestrial.

74. Which among the following is incorrect about Amphibia?

a) They can live both on land and water

b) They are warm-blooded animals

c) They have three chambered heart

d) They have gills/ lungs to respire

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Amphibians can live both on land and water. They are cold-blooded
animals i.e. they can’t regulate temperature. They have three chambered heart. They
have gills/ lungs to respire.
75. Which among the following is incorrect about organ system in Amphibia?

a) In amphibians, blood passes the heart twice

b) Left auricle deals with deoxygenated blood

c) Ventricle deals with both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood

d) Tympanum represents ears in amphibians

View Answer

76. Which among the following is incorrect about Reptilia?

a) These are cold-blooded animals with scales on them

b) All of them have a three-chambered heart

c) Kidneys are present for excretion

d) These are oviparous

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Reptiles are cold-blooded animals with scales on them. Most of them have
three-chambered heart except crocodile. Crocodile has a four chambered heart.
Kidneys are present for excretion. These are oviparous.

77. Which among the following is incorrect about Aves?

a) Scales are absent and skin is dry except at the one end there is an oil gland

b) Endoskeleton is made of bones and they respire through lungs

c) They have cold-blooded animals

d) They are dioecious and oviparous

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Scales are absent and skin is dry except at the one end there is an oil
gland. Endoskeleton is made of bones and they respire through lungs. They are warm-
blooded animals. They are dioecious and oviparous.
78. Which among the following is incorrect about Mammals?

a) They are mostly terrestrial and feed their young ones with milk

b) Scales are absent, instead hairs, sweat and oil glands on skin

c) They respire through lungs and their heart is four-chambered

d) Bats are the only mammals that lay eggs and feed their young ones with milk

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Mammals are mostly terrestrial and feed their young ones with milk.
Scales are absent, instead hairs, sweat and oil glands on skin. They respire through
lungs and their heart is four-chambered. Platypus is the only mammal that lays eggs
and feed its young ones with milk.

79. The word Chordata gets its origin from ________

a) Greek

b) Latin

c) Arab

d) Sanskrit

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The word Chordata derives its origin from the Latin word Chordate which
means those that posses’ chord. In most of the chordates spinal cord might gradually
mature to form back bone.

80. Salamander is an example of __________

a) Reptile

b) Osteichthytes

c) Amphibians

d) Mammals

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Salamander is an example of the phylum amphibia. Salamander can

survive both in water and on land. They use their gills when inside water and they use
lungs when on land. Their skin is moist.

81. Scutes are also called as _____

a) Wings

b) Scales

c) Gills

d) Glands

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Scutes are also called scales. Reptiles are covered with scales and help
them in movement and in respiration. Vipera, garden lizard, chelone, testudo, alligator
and hemicydactylus are examples of scales.

82. What does the word homoiothermous refer to?

a) Lie in the same temperature

b) Warm blooded animals

c) The animal is in thermal equilibrium with its surrounding

d) The animal lives in isotonic conditions

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Homoiothermous are the warm blooded animals i.e. they can generate
heat internally. Examples of the warm-blooded include aves and mammals and
examples of cold blooded animals include reptiles and Pisces.

83. Mammals are the milk feeding animals.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Mammals are the milk feeding animals. Mammals are derived from the
Latin word “mamma” which means breast. All the mammals feed the animals with milk.
Sometimes, mammals lay eggs to reproduce and may give birth to reproduce.

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84. Which among the following is an incorrect interesting fact about Aves?

a) Their bones are hollow and help them to fly

b) Air sacs are sites of gas exchange in Avian Dinosaurs

c) Humming bird is the smallest bird

d) Ostrich and penguins are few birds that can’t fly

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The Aves have hollow bones and help them to fly. Air sacs are not sites of
gas exchange in Avian Dinosaurs. Humming bird is the smallest bird. Ostrich and
penguins are few birds that can’t fly.

85. Which among the following is incorrect about mammals?

a) African elephant is the largest mammal on the Earth

b) Mammalia derives its origin from Latin word Mamma which means breast

c) Mammals have hair or fur and are warm-blooded

d) The necessary condition for being a mammal is to give birth to their young ones

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: African elephant is the largest mammal on the Earth. Mammalia derives its
origin from Latin word Mamma which means breast. Mammals have hair or fur and are
warm-blooded. The necessary condition for being a mammal is to feed their young ones
with milk. Although most animals reproduce by laying eggs there are few exceptions to
this.

86. Which among the following is incorrect about reptiles?

a) Reptiles cannot generate their body heat internally like humans do

b) Reptiles cannot sense smell like humans do instead they flick their tongue out in
order to sense chemo receptors

c) Reptiles derive its origin from the word reptum which means creep or crawl

d) Reptiles are warm blooded animals

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Reptiles cannot generate their body heat internally like humans do.
Reptiles cannot sense smell like humans do instead they flick their tongue out in order
to sense chemo receptors. Reptiles derive its origin from the word reptum which means
creep or crawl. Reptiles are cold blooded animals

87. Which of the following functions is not performed by unicellular organisms?

a) Digestion

b) Respiration

c) Reproduction

d) Neural coordination

View Answer

88. The human body is composed of how many cells?

a) Billions

b) Millions

c) Thousands

d) Quadrillion
View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The human body is composed of billions of cell to perform various

functions. These cells aggregate to form tissues which in turn aggregate to form organs.
Many organs coordinate with each other to form the organ system.

89. What is meant by a tissue?

a) Group of cells of similar origin

b) Group of cells of dissimilar origin

c) Group of similar or dissimilar cells

d) Group of unrelated cells

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The group of similar or dissimilar cells that have a common origin and
perform a similar function is called tissue. These tissues are organised in specific
proportion and pattern to form an organ like stomach, lung, heart and kidney.

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90. The structure of the cell varies according to which of the following?

a) Shape

b) Size

c) Life

d) Function

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The structure of the cells varies according to their function. Therefore, the
tissues are different and are broadly classified into four types –
i. Epithelial tissue

ii. Connective tissue

iii. Muscular tissue

iv. Neural tissue.

91. Which of the following tissues has the most regenerative power?

a) Epithelial tissue

b) Connective tissue

c) Muscular tissue

d) Neural tissue

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Epithelial tissue has the most regenerative power while neural tissue has
the least regenerative power. We commonly refer to an epithelial tissue as epithelium.

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92. Which of the following tissues is derived from all the three germinal layers?

a) Connective tissue

b) Epithelial tissue

c) Muscular tissue

d) Neural tissue

View Answer

93. Which of the following functions is not performed by epithelial tissue?

a) Protection

b) Secretion

c) Absorption

d) Conduction

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Epithelial tissue performs the function of protection, secretion,

absorption, excretion and diffusion. Conduction of stimulus is the function of neural
tissue.

94. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding epithelial tissue?

a) It does not have a free surface

b) Provides a covering for some part of the body

c) Cells are compactly packed

d) It is of two types

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Epithelial tissue has a free surface, which faces either a body fluid or the
outside environment and thus provides a covering or a lining for some part of the body.
The cells of this tissue are compactly packed with a little intercellular matrix. There are
two types of epithelial tissues namely simple epithelium and compound epithelium.

95. The simple epithelium consists of two or more cell layers and has a protective
function.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer of cells and functions as a

lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes. The compound epithelium consists of two or
more cell layers and has a protective function as it does in our skin.

96. Which of the following is not a type of simple epithelial tissue?

a) Squamous epithelium

b) Cuboidal epithelium
c) Columnar epithelium

d) Compound epithelium

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Based on structural modification of the cells, simple epithelium is further

divided into three types. These are:

i. Squamous epithelium

ii. Cuboidal epithelium

iii. Columnar epithelium.

97. In which of the following places, the squamous epithelium is not found?

a) Wall of blood vessels

b) Air sacs of lungs

c) Trachea

d) Bowman’s capsule

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Squamous epithelium is made of a single thin layer of flattened cells with
irregular boundaries. They are found in the walls of blood vessels, lymph vessels, air
sacs of lung alveoli, Bowman’s capsule and Henle’s loop.

98. In which of the following places, the cuboidal epithelium is not found?

a) Ducts of glands

b) Tubular parts of the nephron

c) Germinal epithelium of gonads

d) Vasa deferens

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in the ducts of glands, tubular
part of nephrons like DCT, collecting tubule and collecting duct. It is also found in the
germinal epithelium of gonads.

99. Where is brush bordered cuboidal epithelium found?

a) DCT

b) PCT

c) Collecting duct

d) Collecting tubule

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is found in Proximal Convoluted

Tubule. It is responsible for 70% reabsorption of glomerular filtrate. This epithelium has
microvilli.

100. The nuclei of columnar epithelial cells are located at the base.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The nuclei of columnar epithelial cells are located at the base. The
columnar epithelium is composed of a single layer of tall and slender cells. This
epithelium is found in small intestine and stomach.

101. What are cuboidal or columnar cells called when they bear cilia?

a) Ciliated epithelium

b) Flagellated epithelium

c) Convoluted epithelium

d) Brush bordered epithelium

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: If the columnar or cuboidal cells bear cilia on their free surface they are
called the ciliated epithelium. Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific
direction over the epithelium.

Morphology of Flowering Plants

1. Which among the following is incorrect about the root?

A) Radicle grows to form a primary root inside the soil

B) From the primary roots grows the secondary roots from lateral surfaces

C) Most of the monocotyledons adopt tap root system

D) Adventitious roots are present in Banyan tree

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Radicle grows to form a primary root inside the soil. Radicle grows to
form a primary root inside the soil. Most of the dicotyledons adopt tap root system.
Adventitious roots are present in Banyan tree

2.Which among the following is incorrect about the modifications in roots?

a) Roots undergo modifications to perform conduction of water and minerals

b) Prop roots help in anchoring banyan tree to the ground

c) Pneumatophores are present in maize and sugar cane that help them to respire easily

d) Tap roots in turnip and carrot store food in their roots

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The root is covered at the end by a thimble like structure called root cap.
Meristematic tissue helps in the growth of plants. Meristematic cells when mature form
the so called permanent cells. Root hairs increase the surface area which helps in
increasing the levels of water absorption

3.Which among the following is incorrect about the modifications in roots?

a) Roots undergo modifications to perform conduction of water and minerals

b) Prop roots help in anchoring banyan tree to the ground

c) Pneumatophores are present in maize and sugar cane that help them to respire easily

d) Tap roots in turnip and carrot store food in their roots

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Roots undergo modifications to perform conduction of water and minerals.

Prop roots help in anchoring banyan tree to the ground. Pneumatophores are present in
Rhizopora that help them to respire easily. Tap roots in turnip and carrot store food in
their roots.

4.The word morphology means ___________

a) Study of structure

b) Study of bones

c) Study of change

d) Study of skin

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The word morphology derives its origin from Greek which means study of
structure. Morphology is a branch of biology that deals with the structure of living
organisms and the relationship between their structures.

5.Fibrous roots are present in monocotyledons.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: There are mainly two kinds of roots, namely, tap root and fibrous root. Tap
root are present in most of the dicotyledons whereas fibrous roots are present in
monocotyledons.

6.Roots in few huge trees are modifies to provide mechanical support.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Roots in few huge trees are modifies to provide mechanical support. For
example prop roots present in banyan tree, stilt roots present in sugarcane and maize
and climbing roots in betel plant.

7.Which among the following is incorrect about importance of root system?

a) Root system helps in absorption of water and minerals from soil

b) In plants like mangroves, breathing roots called pneumatophores are present

c) Pneumatophores grow vertically upwards and exchange gases through lenticels

d) Plants that grow tall derive their additional mechanical support by sending pillar like
woody roots called stilt roots

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Root system helps in absorption of water and minerals from soil. In plants
like mangroves, breathing roots called pneumatophores are present. Pneumatophores
grow vertically upwards and exchange gases through lenticels. Plants that grow tall
derive their additional mechanical support by sending pillar like woody roots called
prop roots.

8.Modification is necessary for plants to ensure that few specific functions other than
water and mineral absorption.

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Modification is necessary for plants to ensure that few specific functions
other than water and mineral absorption. Some of these functions include food storage,
support and respiration.

9.Which among the following is incorrect about modifications of roots with respect to
food storage?

a) Most of the times, tap roots become swollen to store food

b) Radish adopts napiform to store food

c) Napiform is found in turnip and the root is spherical in the top and tapers in the
bottom

d) If the root is swollen in the middle and those that tapers on both the sides are called
fusiform roots

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Most of the times, tap roots become swollen to store. Radish adopts
fusiform to store food. Napiform is found in turnip and the root is spherical in the top
and tapers in the bottom. If the root is swollen in the middle and those that tapers on
both the sides are called fusiform roots.

10.Which among the following is incorrect about climbing roots?

a) These roots originate from nodes or internodes

b) They help plant climb on the surface

c) These roots secrete sticky substances that help the plants to stick on the walls

d) Climbing roots help in anchoring the plant to the soil

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Climbing roots originate from nodes or internodes. They help plant climb
on the surface. These roots secrete sticky substances that help the plants to stick on
the walls. Climbing roots don’t help in anchoring the plant to the soil.
11.Green, lateral, flattened structure borne on stem nodes and essential to perform
photosynthesis is called a leaf.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Green, lateral, flattened structure borne on stem nodes and essential to
perform photosynthesis is called a leaf. Leaf has mainly three parts, namely, lamen,
petiole and leaf base.

12. Which among the following is incorrect about different parts of the leaf?

a) Lamina contains veins and veinlets that transmit water to different regions of the leaf

b) Petiole is flexible thin structure that helps in fluttering of leaves in the air

c) Grass is an example of petiolate plants

d) Legumes have a swollen leaf base called Pulvinus

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Lamina contains veins and veinlets that transmit water to different regions
of the leaf. Petiole is flexible thin structure that helps in fluttering of leaves in the air.
Based on the presence or absence of petiole, plants are classified into petiolate and
sessile respectively. Since petiole is absent in grass, it is considered to be sessile.
Legumes have a swollen leaf base called Pulvinus

13.In China rose, the mid-ribs converge at the tip.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: China rose is an example of divergent palmate reticulate i.e. the leaf of
China rose has many strong ribs and these ribs are diverge from each other. However
there are also leaves which exhibit convergent palmate reticulate like that of Anjeer.

14.Which among the following is incorrect about reticulate and parallel venation?

a) In reticulate venation, veins are arranged haphazardly

b) In parallel venation, veins are arranged in a parallel manner

c) In palmate venation, only one strong mid-rib is present

d) Rice is an example of convergent palmate parallel venation

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In reticulate venation, veins are arranged haphazardly. However in parallel

venation, veins are arranged in a parallel manner. Both the kinds can be further
classified into palmate and pinnate. In pinnate venation, only one strong mid-rib is
present and in palmate venation more than one strong rib is present. Rice is an example
of convergent palmate parallel venation.

15.Which among the following is incorrect about phyllotaxy?

a) The arrangement of leaves in the plant is called phyllotaxy

b) In alternate phyllotaxy, a single leaf is present at each node

c) Opposite phyllotaxy is present in China rose

d) In whorled phyllotaxy, multiple leaves are present at each node

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The arrangement of leaves in the plant is called phyllotaxy. In alternate

phyllotaxy, a single leaf is present at each node. This kind of phyllotaxy is seen in China
rose. In whorled phyllotaxy, multiple leaves are present at each node.

16. Flower is a modified shoot and is the reproductive organ in a flowering plant.

a) True

b) False
View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Flower is a modified shoot and is the reproductive organ in a flowering

plant i.e. flowers are the vital organs in propagating the species of existing plants. The
arrangement of flowers on the floral axis is called inflorescence.

17. Which among the following is incorrect about racemose and cymose?

a) In racemose inflorescence, the youngest flower remains at the top of floral axis

b) In cymose inflorescence, the floral main axis continues to grow throughout the life

c) In racemose inflorescence, indefinite number of flowers are formed

d) In cymose inflorescence, the axilary branches continue to grow throughout the life

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In racemose inflorescence, the youngest flower remains at the top of floral
axis and indefinite number of flowers are formed. In cymose inflorescence, the floral
main axis is limited however the axilary branches continue to grow throughout the life.

18. Which among the following is not correct about flower?

a) A flower has 4 whorls arranged successively i.e. calyx, corolla, androecium and
gynoecium

b) Members of calyx and corolla are called as sepals and petals respectively

c) In polysepalous, the sepals are arranged in a free manner whereas in gamosepalous,

the sepals are united

d) Tulip is an example of polypetalous

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: A flower has 4 whorls arranged successively i.e. calyx, corolla, androecium
and gynoecium. Members of calyx and corolla are called as sepals and petals
respectively. In polysepalous, the sepals are arranged in a free manner whereas in
gamosepalous, the sepals are united. Tulip is an example of gamopetalus.
19. The inner most whirl in a flower is called Gynoecium and the members of
Gynoecium are called carpels.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The inner most whirl in a flower is called Gynoecium and the members of
Gynoecium are called carpels. Gynoecium is referred to be the female reproductive
organ of a flower bearing egg cells in it.

20. Which among the following plays a vital role in pollination of pollen grains?

a) Petals

b) Sepals

c) Pedicel

d) Carpel

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Petals are the colorful floral parts that attract insects and promote
pollination. Sepals are the green color leaf like structure that ensures protection to bud.
Pedicel is the stalk like structure that holds the leaves. Carpel is the female
reproductive organ that produces ovum.

21.Flowers are classified as trimerous, tetramerous and pentamerous based on the

number of floral appendages in multiples of 3, 4 and 5 respectively.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Flowers are classified as trimerous (example: lily), tetramerous (example:
jasmine) and pentamerous (example: hibiscus) based on the number of floral
appendages in multiples of 3, 4 and 5 respectively.

22.Which among the following is incorrect about aestivation?

a) Arrangement of sepals or petals in a floral bud with respect to the other members of
the same whorl is called aestivation

b) In valvate aestivation, sepals or petals in a whorl just touch each other at the margin,
without overlapping

c) In twisted aestivation, margin of a sepal overlaps with that of the next one and so on
in either clock-wise or counter clock-wise direction

d) Gulmohar flower is an example of twisted aestivation

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Arrangement of sepals or petals in a floral bud with respect to the other
members of the same whorl is called aestivation. In valvate aestivation, sepals or petals
in a whorl just touch each other at the margin, without overlapping. In twisted
aestivation, margin of a sepal overlaps with that of the next one and so on in either
clock-wise or counter clock-wise direction. Gulmohar flower is an example of imbricate
aestivation.

23.Flowers are classified as unisexual or bisexual flowers based on the presence of

male/ female sex organs.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Flowers are classified as unisexual or bisexual flowers based on the

presence of male/ female sex organs. Flowers that posses either androecium
(staminate) or gynoecium (pistillate) are called unisexual flowers. Flowers that possess
both androecium and gynoecium are called bisexual flowers.

24.A mustard flower is an example of ___________

a) Actinomorphic flower

b) Zygomorphic flower

c) Asymmetric flower

d) Epigynous flower

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A mustard flower is an example of an actinomorphic flower. A flower is said

to be actinomorphic if it possesses radial symmetry and zygomorphic if it possesses
bilateral symmetry.

25.A single cotyledon is also termed as __________

a) Scutellum

b) Aleurone

c) Epicarp

d) Endocarp

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A single cotyledon i.e. a monocotyledon is also termed as scutellum. A

scutellum consists of the embryonic shoot called plumule and the embryonic root
called radicle. They get their nourishment from the endosperm in the initial stage and
from the cotyledons during their development into a shoot system.

26.A scar on seed coat through which seed is attached to the fruit is called ________

a) Cotyledons

b) Seed coat

c) Hilum

d) Micropyle

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: A scar on seed coat through which seed is attached to the fruit is called
Hilum. The hilum on a bean seed is called an eye. It marks the former place of
attachment of a seed.

27.Dicotyledon seeds have two seed leaves.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Dicotyledon seeds have two seed leaves. The word cotyledon means seed
leaves. When a dicotyledonous seed germinates it initially gives rise to two seed leaves
whereas in monocotyledonous seed only a single leaf arises.

Note:- Read Ncert book for morphology

Anatomy in Flowering Plants

1.The branch of biology that deals with the internal structure and parts of an organism is
called “Anatomy”.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The branch of biology that deals with the internal structure and parts of an
organism is called “Anatomy”. Plant anatomy deals with internal tissues and cells
present in a plant.

2.Which among the following is incorrect about tissues in a plant?

a) A cluster of cells that have a common origin and work together to achieve a specific
function
b) A plant tissue varies from that of an animal because they vary in their functions and
characters

c) In plant there are two types of tissues, namely, Meristematic and permanent tissues

d) Secondary Meristematic tissues comprises of sclerenchyma, collenchymas,

parenchyma and epidermis

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: A cluster of cells that have a common origin and work together to achieve a
specific function. A plant tissue varies from that of an animal because they vary in their
functions and characters. In plant there are two types of tissues, namely, Meristematic
and permanent tissues. Simple permanent tissues comprise of sclerenchyma,
collenchymas, parenchyma and epidermis

3.Which among the following is not correct about permanent tissues?

a) Permanent cells are formed from the meristem tissues that gradually lose their ability
to divide and perform few other specific functions

b) Process by which meristem tissues gradually change to permanent tissues is called

Differentiation

c) Permanent tissues are classified into simple and complex permanent tissues

d) Simple permanent tissues and complex permanent tissues are classified based on
their intercellular gaps

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Permanent cells are formed from the meristem tissues that gradually lose
their ability to divide and perform few other specific functions. Process by which
meristem tissues gradually change to permanent tissues is called Differentiation.
Permanent tissues are classified into simple and complex permanent tissues. Simple
permanent tissues and complex permanent tissues are classified based on their
similarity in structure

4.Which among the following are incorrect about Xylem?

a) Complex permanent tissues are made of many types of cells and comprises of Xylem
and Phloem
b) Xylem and Phloem are together termed as vascular bundles

c) Xylem contains mostly of dead cells and helps in conduction of water and minerals
from roots to the stem and leaves

d) Tracheids are the living cells that conduct water and minerals vertically

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Complex permanent tissues are made of many types of cells and
comprises of Xylem and Phloem. Complex permanent tissues are made of many types
of cells and comprises of Xylem and Phloem. Xylem contains mostly of dead cells and
helps in conduction of water and minerals from roots to the stem and leaves. Tracheids
are the dead cells that conduct water and minerals vertically.

5.Which among the following is incorrect about different cells in Phloem?

a) Sieve tubes are tubular cells with perforated walls with large vacuoles, peripheral
cytoplasm and without nucleus

b) Companion cells are specialized parenchyma cells that help in regulation of

metabolic activities

c) Phloem parenchyma cells are elongated cylindrical cells that support sieve tubes

d) Phloem fibers are living cells with extremely thick cell walls and provide mechanical
strength

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Sieve tubes are tubular cells with perforated walls with large vacuoles,
peripheral cytoplasm and without nucleus. Companion cells are specialized
parenchyma cells that help in regulation of metabolic activities. Phloem parenchyma
cells are elongated cylindrical cells that support sieve tubes. Phloem fibers are dead
cells with extremely thick cell walls and provide mechanical strength.

6.Which among the following is incorrect about the anatomy of dicot root?

a) The layer just inside the endodermis in a dicot root is called pericycle

b) The portion between endodermis and epidermis is covered by parenchyma cells

c) Secondary growth initiates from the cells of pericycle

d) Pith in a dicot root quite larger than that of a mono cot root

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The layer just inside the endodermis in a dicot root is called pericycle. The
portion between endodermis and epidermis is covered by parenchyma cells. Secondary
growth initiates from the cells of pericycle. Pith in a mono cot root is quite larger than
that of a dicot root

7.Which among the following is incorrect about anatomy of a dicot stem?

a) Epidermis is covered with a thin layer of cuticle and it bears few stomata and
trichomes

b) The hypodermis is made of collenchymatous cells and is present just below the
epidermis

c) Cortex is made of parenchymatic cells with conspicuous intercellular spaces

d) Endodermis are also called as wax sheath as they are rich in waxy materials

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Epidermis is covered with a thin layer of cuticle and it bears few stomata
and trichomes. The hypodermis is made of collenchymatous cells and is present just
below the epidermis. Cortex is made of parenchymatic cells with conspicuous
intercellular spaces. Endodermis of a dicot stem is also called as starch sheath as they
are rich in waxy materials.

8.Vascular bundles are surrounded by _________

a) Bundle sheath cells

b) Endodermis

c) Epidermis

d) Hypodermis

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Vascular bundles are surrounded by bundle sheath cells. Sometimes
these cells contain chloroplasts and helps in carrying photosynthesis. These are tightly
packed sheaths around the veins of the leaf

9.Which among the following is incorrect about anatomy of the dicot leaf?

a) Mesophyll is the portion in between adaxial and abaxial epidermis

b) Mesophyll that performs photosynthesis are called palisade parenchyma and spongy
parenchyma

c) Spongy parenchyma are placed towards the adaxial epidermis

d) Palisade parenchymatic cells are elongated cells that are arranged parallel to each
other

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Mesophyll is the portion in between adaxial and abaxial epidermis.

Mesophyll cells that perform photosynthesis are called palisade parenchyma and
spongy parenchyma. Spongy parenchyma cells are placed towards the abaxial
epidermis. Palisade parenchymatic cells are elongated cells that are arranged parallel
to each other

10.The central portion of the stem is called ________

a) Pith

b) Cortex

c) Vascular bundles

d) Ground tissue

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The central portion of the stem or a root or a leaf is called the pith. Cortex
is the region outside the endodermis. Vascular bundles are those that help in
transportation of food and water. Ground tissue is that region of a plant excluding
vascular bundles and epidermis.

11.Vascular cylinder comprises of the pericycle, xylem, phloem and pith.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Vascular cylinder comprises of the pericycle, xylem, phloem and pith.
Cortex includes the portion exterior to the endodermis and comprising of parenchyma
cells, hypodermis and epidermis.

12.Which among the following is correct about the anatomy of monocot root?

a) The outermost layer in the root is called epidermis

b) The endodermis has casparian strip that avoids water leakage from the vascular
bundles and invasion of foreign particles

c) Channels that connects the parenchyma cells are called plasmodermata

d) A cambium is present in between the xylem and phloem

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The outermost layer in the root is called epidermis. The endodermis has
casparian strip that avoids water leakage from the vascular bundles and invasion of
foreign particles. Channels that connect the parenchyma cells are called
plasmodermata. Cambium is absent in between the xylem and phloem.

13.The layer just below the epidermis in a monocot stem is _________

a) Hypodermis

b) Vascular bundles

c) Endodermis

d) Parenchyma

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The layer just below the epidermis in a monocot stem is called
Hypodermis. Hypodermis provides additional mechanical strength to the epidermis and
avoids water leakage from the stem.

14.about monocot stem?

a) In a monocot stem, the vascular bundles are scattered

b) More than one conjoint vascular bundle is present

c) Cambium is absent

d) Cortex is present

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: In a monocot stem, the vascular bundles are scattered. More than one
conjoint vascular bundle is present. Cambium is absent i.e. secondary growth of
vascular bundles are not possible. Cortex is absent.

15.In a monocot stem, endodermis and cambium is absent.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In a monocot stem, endodermis and cambium is absent. They don’t

require an endodermis since their vascular bundles are scattered. Absence of cambium
leads to the lack of secondary growth.

Note:- Read Ncert

Structural Organisms of Animals

1. The classification of glands is based on which of the following?

a) Mode of differentiation
b) Mode of pouring of secretions

c) Mode of cellular division

d) Number of cells

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Glands are of mainly two types- exocrine and endocrine glands. These
glands are divided on the basis of mode of pouring of their secretions. For example, if
secretions are poured through the ducts then these are called exocrine glands and if
secretions are poured directly into the blood then they are called endocrine glands.

2. Some of the squamous epithelial cells get specialised for the secretion and are called
the glandular epithelium.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Some of the columnar or cuboidal cells get specialised for the secretion
and are called as glandular epithelium. They are mainly of two types- unicellular glands
and multicellular glands.

2. Which of the following structures does the given figure represent?

Unicellular gland of isolated glandular cells

a) Multicellular gland

b) Endocrine gland

c) Exocrine gland

d) Unicellular gland

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The given diagram represents unicellular gland. The unicellular gland
consists of isolated glandular cells, for example, goblet cells of the alimentary canal
which secrete mucus.

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3. Which of the following structures does the given figure represent?

A multicellular gland of a cluster of cells

a) Multicellular gland

b) Compound epithelium

c) Squamous epithelium

d) Unicellular gland

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The given diagram represents a multicellular gland. It consists of a cluster

of cells, for example, the salivary gland. Most of the glands present in our body are
multicellular glands.

5. Which of the following is not a secretion of exocrine glands?

a) Mucus

b) Saliva

c) Hormones

d) Ear wax

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Exocrine gland secretes mucus, saliva, earwax, oil, milk, digestive
enzymes and other cell products. Their products are released through ducts or tubes. In
contrast, endocrine glands do not have ducts. Their products are called hormones and
are secreted directly into the fluid bathing the gland.

Note: Join free Sanfoundry classes at Telegram or Youtube

6. Which of the following is an incorrect statement regarding compound epithelium?

a) The main function is secretion and absorption

b) Cover dry surface of the skin

c) Made of more than one layer of cells

d) Cover moist surface of the buccal cavity

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Compound epithelium is made up of more than one layer of cells and thus
has a limited role in secretion and absorption. Their main function is to protect against
chemical and mechanical stresses. They cover the dry surface of the skin and also the
moist surface of the buccal cavity.

7. Which of the following junctions help to stop substances from leaking against a
tissue?

a) Adhering junctions

b) Gap junctions

c) Tight junctions

d) Loose junctions

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In nearly all the animal tissues, specialised junctions provide both
structural and functional links between its cells. Tight junctions help to stop substances
from leaking across a tissue.

8. Which of the following is the most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the
human body?

a) Muscular tissue

b) Connective tissue

c) Epithelial tissue

d) Neural tissue
View Answer

9. Which of the following is not a type of connective tissue?

a) Loose

b) Dense

c) Specialised

d) Smooth

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Connective tissues are classified into three types-

i. Loose connective tissue

ii. Dense connective tissue
iii. Specialised connective tissue

In all the connective tissues except blood, the cells secret fibres of structural proteins
called collagen or elastin.

10. Which of the following is not a function of fibres of connective tissue?

a) Strength

b) Elasticity

c) Flexibility

d) Longevity

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The fibres of connective tissue provide strength, elasticity and flexibility to
the tissue. These cells also secrete modified polysaccharides, which accumulate
between cells and fibres and act as a matrix.

11. What does the question mark represent in the following figure?

Fibroblast that produce & secrete fibres

a) Mast cell

b) Fibroblast

c) Collagen fibres

d) Macrophage

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The question mark in the given diagram represents a fibroblast which are
cells that produce and secrete fibres. The diagram represents areolar tissue.

Areolar tissue that produce & secrete fibres

12. What is the name of the tissue given in the following figure?

Adipose tissue located beneath the skin

a) Areolar tissue

b) Adipose tissue

c) Bone

d) Cartilage

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The given diagram represents an adipose tissue. It is located beneath the
skin. The cells of this tissue are specialised to store fats. It also acts as an insulator by
preventing the loss of heat from the body.

13. Areolar tissue is present beneath the skin.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: Areolar tissue is present beneath the skin. It serves as a support
framework for epithelium. It contains fibroblasts, macrophages and mast cells. It is a
type of loose connective tissue.

14. What type of tissue does the following diagram represent?

Dense regular connective tissue

a) Dense regular

b) Dense irregular

c) Loose connective

d) Adipose tissue

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The given figure represents dense regular connective tissue. In this type of
tissue, the collagen fibres are present in rows between many parallel bundles of fibres.
Tendons and ligaments are examples of this tissue.

15. What type of tissue does the given figure represent?

Dense irregular connective tissue of fibroblasts

a) Dense regular

b) Areolar tissue

c) Dense irregular

d) Adipose

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The given figure represents dense irregular connective tissue. It has
fibroblasts and many fibres that are oriented differently. This tissue is present beneath
the skin.

1. Which of the following represents the intercellular matrix of cartilage?

a) Solid and pliable

b) Hard and non-pliable

c) Solid and non-pliable

d) Hard and pliable

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The intercellular matrix of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists
compression. Cartilage is present in the tip of the nose, outer ear joints, between
adjacent bones of the vertebral column, limbs and hands in adults.

2. What does the question mark represent in the following diagram?

A chondrocyte or a cartilage cell enclosed in small cavities

a) Osteocyte

b) Chondrocyte

c) Collagen cells

d) Lacunae

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The question mark in the given diagram represents a chondrocyte or a

cartilage cell. Cells of cartilage or chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities within
the matrix secreted by them. Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced
by bones in adults.

Cells of cartilage or chondrocytes in vertebrate embryos

3. Which of the following represent the intercellular matrix of a bone?

a) Solid and pliable

b) Hard and non-pliable

c) Loose and non-pliable

d) Hard and pliable

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Bones have a hard and a non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium
salts and collagen fibres which give bone its strength. Also, the matrix of the bone is
present in the form of layers called lamellae.

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4. Cartilage is the main tissue that provides the structural frame to the body.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Bone is the main tissue that provides the structural frame to the body.
Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs. Limb bones, such as the long
bones of the legs, serve weight-bearing functions.

4. Which of the following tissue sections has been represented in the given
diagram?

A section of the bone present in the spaces

a) Cartilage

b) Muscle

c) Bone

d) Tendon

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The given figure represents a section of the bone. The bone cells or the
osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae. Haversian system in mammalian
bones provides passage to the blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerve fibres which are
present in the bone.

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6. Which of the following is the main circulating fluid of the body?

a) Blood

b) Lymph

c) Water

d) Sebum

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Blood is a fluid connective tissue containing plasma, red blood cells, white
blood cells and platelets. It is the main circulating fluid that helps in the transport of
various substances.

7. What does muscle fibres consist of?

a) Fibriliocytes

b) Short fibrils

c) Fibroblasts

d) Myofibrils

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Each muscle is made up of many long, cylindrical fibres arranged in

parallel arrays. These fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils called myofibrils.

8. Muscles are of how many types?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Muscles are of three types namely skeletal, smooth and cardiac muscles.
Muscles play an active role in all the movements of the body.

9. Which of the following muscle is represented in the given diagram?

The skeletal muscle closely attached to the skeletal bones

a) Skeletal muscle

b) Smooth muscle

c) Complicated muscle

d) Loose muscle

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The given diagram represents the skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscles are
closely attached to the skeletal bones. In a typical skeletal muscle, striated muscle
fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion.

10. What does the given figure represent?

Smooth muscle or involuntary muscle taper at both the ends

a) Skeletal muscle

b) Smooth muscle

c) Cardiac muscle

d) Simple muscle

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The given figure represents smooth muscle or involuntary muscle. The
smooth muscle fibres taper at both the ends and do not show striations. Cell junction
holds them together and they are bundled together in a connective tissue sheath.

11. Which of the following is not the correct location of a smooth muscle?

a) Stomach

b) Bones
c) Blood vessels

d) Intestine

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and
intestine contain smooth muscles. They are involuntary as their functioning cannot be
directly controlled.

12. Where are the cardiac muscles found?

a) Only in the heart

b) Around the heart

c) Outside the heart

d) Away from the heart

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present only in the heart. Cell
junctions fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac muscle cells and make them stick
together. Fastest contraction is seen in cardiac muscles.

13. What does the question mark in the given diagram represent?

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

a) Striped muscles

b) Plasma membrane

c) Blood capillaries

d) The junction between adjacent cells

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The question mark here represents the junction between the adjacent
cells. Communication junctions or the intercalated discs at some points allow the cells
to contract as a unit.

The junction between adjacent cells in Cardiac Muscle Tissue

14. Which of the following tissue exerts the greatest control over the body?

a) Connective tissue

b) Muscular tissue

c) Neural tissue

d) Epithelial tissue

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to
changing conditions. Neurons, the unit of the neural system are excitable cells.

15. Which of the following cells make more than half the volume of neural tissue?

a) Microglial cells

b) Epithelial cells

c) Neuroglial cells

d) Macrophages

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Neuroglial cells make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue in
our body. These cells protect, support and insulate the neurons. They do not conduct
the impulse but they can divide and hence they have regeneration power.

1. Which of the following represents the intercellular matrix of cartilage?

a) Solid and pliable

b) Hard and non-pliable

c) Solid and non-pliable

d) Hard and pliable

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The intercellular matrix of cartilage is solid and pliable and resists
compression. Cartilage is present in the tip of the nose, outer ear joints, between
adjacent bones of the vertebral column, limbs and hands in adults.

2. What does the question mark represent in the following diagram?

A chondrocyte or a cartilage cell enclosed in small cavities

a) Osteocyte

b) Chondrocyte

c) Collagen cells

d) Lacunae

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The question mark in the given diagram represents a chondrocyte or a

cartilage cell. Cells of cartilage or chondrocytes are enclosed in small cavities within
the matrix secreted by them. Most of the cartilages in vertebrate embryos are replaced
by bones in adults.

Cells of cartilage or chondrocytes in vertebrate embryos

3. Which of the following represent the intercellular matrix of a bone?

a) Solid and pliable

b) Hard and non-pliable

c) Loose and non-pliable

d) Hard and pliable

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Bones have a hard and a non-pliable ground substance rich in calcium
salts and collagen fibres which give bone its strength. Also, the matrix of the bone is
present in the form of layers called lamellae.

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4. Cartilage is the main tissue that provides the structural frame to the body.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Bone is the main tissue that provides the structural frame to the body.
Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs. Limb bones, such as the long
bones of the legs, serve weight-bearing functions.

5. Which of the following tissue sections has been represented in the given
diagram?

A section of the bone present in the spaces

a) Cartilage

b) Muscle

c) Bone

d) Tendon

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The given figure represents a section of the bone. The bone cells or the
osteocytes are present in the spaces called lacunae. Haversian system in mammalian
bones provides passage to the blood vessels, lymph vessels and nerve fibres which are
present in the bone.

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6. Which of the following is the main circulating fluid of the body?

a) Blood

b) Lymph

c) Water

d) Sebum

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Blood is a fluid connective tissue containing plasma, red blood cells, white
blood cells and platelets. It is the main circulating fluid that helps in the transport of
various substances.

7. What does muscle fibres consist of?

a) Fibriliocytes

b) Short fibrils

c) Fibroblasts

d) Myofibrils

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Each muscle is made up of many long, cylindrical fibres arranged in

parallel arrays. These fibres are composed of numerous fine fibrils called myofibrils.

8. Muscles are of how many types?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Muscles are of three types namely skeletal, smooth and cardiac muscles.
Muscles play an active role in all the movements of the body.

9. Which of the following muscle is represented in the given diagram?

The skeletal muscle closely attached to the skeletal bones

a) Skeletal muscle

b) Smooth muscle

c) Complicated muscle

d) Loose muscle

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The given diagram represents the skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscles are
closely attached to the skeletal bones. In a typical skeletal muscle, striated muscle
fibres are bundled together in a parallel fashion.

10. What does the given figure represent?

Smooth muscle or involuntary muscle taper at both the ends

a) Skeletal muscle

b) Smooth muscle

c) Cardiac muscle

d) Simple muscle

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The given figure represents smooth muscle or involuntary muscle. The
smooth muscle fibres taper at both the ends and do not show striations. Cell junction
holds them together and they are bundled together in a connective tissue sheath.

11. Which of the following is not the correct location of a smooth muscle?

a) Stomach

b) Bones
c) Blood vessels

d) Intestine

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The wall of internal organs such as the blood vessels, stomach and
intestine contain smooth muscles. They are involuntary as their functioning cannot be
directly controlled.

12. Where are the cardiac muscles found?

a) Only in the heart

b) Around the heart

c) Outside the heart

d) Away from the heart

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Cardiac muscle tissue is a contractile tissue present only in the heart. Cell
junctions fuse the plasma membranes of cardiac muscle cells and make them stick
together. Fastest contraction is seen in cardiac muscles.

13. What does the question mark in the given diagram represent?

Cardiac Muscle Tissue

a) Striped muscles

b) Plasma membrane

c) Blood capillaries

d) The junction between adjacent cells

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The question mark here represents the junction between the adjacent
cells. Communication junctions or the intercalated discs at some points allow the cells
to contract as a unit.

The junction between adjacent cells in Cardiac Muscle Tissue

14. Which of the following tissue exerts the greatest control over the body?

a) Connective tissue

b) Muscular tissue

c) Neural tissue

d) Epithelial tissue

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Neural tissue exerts the greatest control over the body’s responsiveness to
changing conditions. Neurons, the unit of the neural system are excitable cells.

15. Which of the following cells make more than half the volume of neural tissue?

a) Microglial cells

b) Epithelial cells

c) Neuroglial cells

d) Macrophages

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Neuroglial cells make up more than one-half the volume of neural tissue in
our body. These cells protect, support and insulate the neurons. They do not conduct
the impulse but they can divide and hence they have regeneration power.

1. What type of tissue is present in the lining of ducts?

a) Connective

b) Neural

c) Muscular
d) Epithelial

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Epithelial tissue consists of single layer of cells and lines body cavities,
ducts and tubes. Connective tissue, muscular tissue and neural tissue are other
classifications of animal tissues with different functions.

2. Which of these is not a structural classification of simple epithelium?

a) Columnar

b) Cuboidal

c) Cubical

d) Squamous

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Based on structure, simple epithelium is classified into three types. These
are columnar, cuboidal and squamous. Cubical is not a classification of epithelial
tissue.

3. Microvilli is present in the epithelium of _______

a) walls of blood vessels

b) air sacs of lungs

c) proximal convoluted tubule of nephron

d) skin surface

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Proximal convoluted tubule of nephron in the kidneys contain cuboidal

epithelium with microvilli. This helps in absorption. The rest of the options contain
squamous epithelium.

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4. Which of the following do not contain ciliated epithelium?

a) Gastrointestinal tract

b) Bronchioles

c) Uterus

d) Fallopian tubes

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Ciliated epithelium present on the inner lining of uterus, fallopian tubes
and bronchioles facilitate the movement of particles and mucus in a specific direction.
The lining of the gastrointestinal tract contains non-ciliated epithelial tissue.

5. What is the main function of compound epithelium?

a) Secretion

b) Protection

c) Absorption

d) Discharge

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Compound epithelium is multi – layered and has a minimal role in

secretion and absorption. The main function of these cells is to provide protection
against stresses – both mechanical and chemical. Glandular epithelium plays a major
role in secretion and absorption.

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6. Which of the following cellular junctions create a cytoplasmic connection between

adjoining cells?

a) Tight junctions

b) Adhering junctions

c) Gap junctions
d) Occluding junctions

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Gap junctions facilitate cell-to-cell communication by creating

cytoplasmic connections for the rapid movement of ions, small molecules and
sometimes big molecules. Tight or occluding junctions create intercellular barriers
while adhering junctions facilitate intercellular attachment.

7. Which of these is not true about areolar tissue?

a) Macrophages are absent

b) It is a support framework for epithelium

c) It contains mast cells

d) It contains fibroblasts

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Areolar tissue is a type of loose connective tissue which is present below
the skin. It provides a support for epithelium and contains macrophages, mast cells and
fibroblasts.

8. Which of these is not a secondary lymphoid organ?

a) Lymph nodes

b) Tonsils

c) Spleen

d) Thymus

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Thymus and bone marrow are primary lymphoid organs. Lymph nodes,
tonsils, and spleen are secondary lymphoid organs.
9. In which of these structures is collagen fibers present in rows between parallel
bundles of fibers?

a) Skin

b) Submucosa of digestive tract

c) Tendon

d) Tunica albuginea

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Collagen fibers are present in parallel bundles in dense regular connective
tissues, such as in tendons. Skin, submucosa of digestive tract and tunica albuginea
covering the testes have dense irregular connective tissue.

10. Osteocytes are present in spaces called ______

a) lamellae

b) lacunae

c) lacrimal sacs

d) lacteals

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Osteocytes or bone cells are present in spaces called lacunae. Lamella is
a thin membrane, lacrimal sacs are present in the upper end of the nasolacrimal duct,
while lacteals are lymphatic vessels connected to the intestines.

11. Skeletal muscles are _______

a) not attached to bones

b) involuntary

c) non-striated

d) striated

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Skeletal muscles are attached to skeletal bones. They control voluntary
actions and are striated. Smooth muscles are non-striated.

12. What type of muscle fiber is shown below?

Fusiform cell with smooth muscle fiber & no striations

a) Cardiac

b) Skeletal

c) Smooth

d) Voluntary

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The diagram shows a fusiform cell. It does not have striations. Hence, it is
smooth muscle fiber. It is not a cardiac muscle fiber or skeletal or voluntary muscle
fiber as it is not branched and does not have striations.

13. Which of the following is true about neuroglial cells?

a) They act as neurons during stress

b) They conduct impulses to and from neurons

c) They protect and support neurons

d) They are only present in the brain

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Neuroglial cells help to protect and support neurons. They constitute more
than half of the volume of neural tissue. They are not neurons and hence, do not
conduct impulses.

14. When a neuron is stimulated, the electrical signal travels along the _______

a) plasma membrane
b) cytoplasm

c) cytoskeleton

d) extracellular matrix

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The electrical signal of a stimulated neuron travels along the plasma
membrane by a series of polarization and depolarization. At the ending of the neuron,
the signal is transmitted to the target tissue or the adjacent neuron.

15. What does adipose tissue store?

a) Proteins

b) Fat

c) Glycogen

d) Water

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Adipose tissue is a classification of loose connective tissue. Excess

nutrients are stored as fat in these tissues. It also serves to protect the body from
shocks and stresses.

1. Which of these statements is true about frog?

a) It lives both on land and in sea water

b) They cannot survive in freshwater

c) Rana tigrina is a rare species

d) They belong to class Amphibia

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Frog belongs to class Amphibia. It lives on land and in fresh water. The
species Rana tigrina is the most common in India. Frogs are chordates and are
poikilotherms. This means they do not have a constant body temperature.

2. Frogs are _______

a) homeothermic

b) warm-blooded

c) poikilothermic

d) heterothermic

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Frogs are poikilothermic animals. This means that they have a fluctuating
body temperature which varies with the environmental conditions, or they lack constant
body temperature.

3. Which of these methods are utilized by frogs for protection?

a) Speed

b) Spikes

c) Mimicry

d) Playing dead

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Frogs have the ability to change their color to defend themselves from
predators. This phenomenon is known as camouflage and the protective coloration
using which it hides in its surroundings is knows as mimicry.

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4. Which of these statements is false about frogs?

a) They do not aestivate

b) They change color

c) They live in burrows

d) They hibernate

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Frogs have the ability to change color to protect themselves from
predators. This camouflaging technique is called mimicry. They live in burrows to shelter
themselves from extreme weather and they show both aestivation and hibernation.

5. Which of these describes the skin of frog?

a) Thick, leathery

b) Smooth, slippery

c) Hard, dry

d) Thin, membranous

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The skin of a frog is smooth and slippery due to the presence of mucus.
The skin has a moist characteristic which is maintained. A frog does not drink water but
has the ability to absorb water through its skin.

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6. Which of these are the divisions of the body of a frog?

a) Head, trunk, abdomen

b) Head, thorax, abdomen

c) Head, trunk

d) Head, thorax, trunk

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The body of the frog is divided into a head and a trunk. Neck and tail are
absent. Frogs are green with dark irregular spots on the dorsal side. On the ventral side,
they are pale yellow in color.

7. Which of these structures protects the eyes of the frog in water?

a) Nictitating membrane

b) Tympanum

c) Bidder’s canal

d) Cloaca

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The nictitating membrane protects the eyes of the frog in water. The
tympanum is the ear of the frog. Cloaca are excretory organs. Bidder’s canal is a part of
the male reproductive system of frogs.

8. Which of these structures in frog receive sound signals?

a) Webbed feet

b) Skin

c) Nictitating membrane

d) Tympanum

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The tympanum is the ear of frog. It receives sound signals from the
environment. The tympanum is a membranous structure. The received environmental
sound signals is then transmitted to the nervous system.

9. How many digits does the forelimb and hindlimb of frog have respectively?

a) 3, 4

b) 5, 4

c) 4, 5

d) 4, 3
View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Each forelimb of frog has four digits while each hindlimb of frog has five
digits. The hindlimbs are larger and more muscular than the forelimbs. The limbs are
used for leaping, swimming and burrowing.

10. Frogs show sexual dimorphism. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Frogs show sexual dimorphism. This means that apart from differences in
reproductive organs of the two sexes, the appearance or phenotypic characteristics
differs with sex within the same animal species.

11. Which of this is not a distinguishing feature of a male frog?

a) Narrow abdomen

b) Copulatory pad

c) Vocal sacs

d) Moist, slippery skin

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: All frogs have characteristic moist, slippery skin. This is due to the
secretion of mucus on the surface of the skin. Male frogs can be differentiated from
female frogs by distinguishing features such as narrow abdomen, copulatory pad and
vocal sacs.

12. Where are the copulatory pads in male frog present?

a) Second digit of the hindlimbs

b) First digit of the hindlimbs

c) First digit of the forelimbs

d) Second digit of the forelimbs

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The copulatory pads of the male frog are present on the first digit of the
forelimbs. Frogs show sexual dimorphism and the presence of copulatory pads in male
frogs is a distinguishing feature of the two sexes.

13. Frogs are ______

a) herbivores

b) omnivores

c) carnivores

d) scavengers

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Frogs are carnivores. This means that their diets consist of food material
which are solely animal in origin. Frogs normally feed on insects such ad flies,
mosquitoes, dragonflies and worms.

14. Which of these characteristics of frog is the reason for its short alimentary canal?

a) Carnivorous

b) Sexual dimorphism

c) Amphibian

d) Chordate

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Frogs are carnivorous. This means that their diet consists of food which is
purely of animal origin. For this reason, the length of its intestine is reduced. Thus, frogs
have a short alimentary canal.
15. Identify ‘3’ in the pathway of food ingested by frog.

Pharynx located after the buccal cavity and before the esophagus in frog

a) Larynx

b) Pharynx

c) Gizzard

d) Crop

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Structure 3 is pharynx. In the digestive system of frog, the pharynx lies after
the buccal cavity and before the esophagus. The structures larynx, gizzard and crop are
not a part of the digestive system of frog.

1. Which of these organs secrete bile?

a) Kidney

b) Spleen

c) Gall bladder

d) Liver

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The liver is the organ responsible for the secretion of bile. The secreted bile
is stored in the gall bladder. Bile is a greenish-yellow fluid that acts as an emulsifying
agent for the catabolic breakdown of fats.

2. Where is bile stored in the body of frog?

a) Pancreas

b) Liver

c) Gall bladder

d) Bidder’s canal

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Bile is stored in the gall bladder of the frog after it has been secreted by the
liver. Bile is a greenish-yellow fluid that emulsifies fats. Bidder’s canal is a part of the
male reproductive system of frogs.

3. Which of these is not a characteristic feature of Rana tigrina?

a) Webbed feet

b) Bilobed tongue

c) Thick, leathery skin

d) Membranous tympanum

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Rana tigrina or frog possesses a bilobed tongue to capture food. It has
webbed feet for the purpose of swimming in water. It also has a membranous
tympanum to receive sound signals. It has moist, slippery skin.

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4. In frogs, chyme is passed to the ______

a) duodenum

b) ileum

c) jejunum

d) cloaca

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Duodenum is the first part of the small intestine. Food ingested by the frog
is churned with bile, pancreatic juices and hydrochloric acid in the stomach to form an
acidic mixture called chyme. This is passed to the duodenum.

5. Pancreatic juice is delivered to the duodenum by the _______

a) pancreatic duct

b) common bile duct

c) parotid duct

d) hepatic duct

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Pancreatic juice is first delivered from the pancreas to the common bile
duct via the pancreatic duct. The common bile duct, which also receives bile from the
gall bladder delivers its contents into the duodenum.

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6. Where does final digestion take place in frogs?

a) Rectum

b) Cloaca

c) Intestine

d) Bidder’s canal

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Final digestion in frogs takes place in the intestine where pancreatic juices
break down proteins and carbohydrates and bile break down fat. The undigested food
moves to the rectum end exits through the cloaca.

7. In frogs, the undigested food passes out through the ______

a) cloaca

b) rectum

c) anus

d) intestine

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The undigested food in frogs is passed out through the cloaca. The rectum
lies before the cloaca. The undigested food is digested completely in the intestine and
passed into the cloaca via the rectum.

8. What type of respiration is shown by frogs in water?

a) pulmonary respiration

b) Branchial respiration

c) Subcutaneous respiration

d) Cutaneous respiration

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Frogs can breathe both on land and in freshwater. In water, the exchange of
gases occurs through the moist skin. This type of respiration shown by frogs is known as
cutaneous respiration.

9. Cutaneous respiration in frogs takes place by _______

a) endosmosis

b) active transport

c) diffusion

d) exosmosis

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Frogs can breathe both on land and in water. Frogs breathe in water
through the skin. This is known as cutaneous respiration. Cutaneous respiration in frogs
takes place by the process of diffusion.

10. Frogs have a lymphatic system. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Frogs possess a lymphatic system. The lymphatic system contains lymph,
lymph channels and lymph nodes. The circulatory or vascular system of frogs is also
well-developed and of closed type.

11. During aestivation in frogs, gaseous exchange takes place through ______

a) Anaerobic respiration

b) Stored oxygen

c) Lungs

d) Skin

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Frogs show both aestivation and hibernation, which are long periods of
rest during the peak summer and peak winter periods, respectively. During aestivation,
gaseous exchange takes place through the skin.

12. How many chambers are present in a frog’s heart?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 3

d) 5

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The heart of a frog has three chambers- two auricles and one ventricle. The
heart is covered by a membrane called pericardium. The heart is a muscular structure
and is situated in the upper part of the body.

13. What is the shape of the sinus venosus?

a) Spherical

b) Irregular
c) Triangular

d) Cylindrical

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The sinus venosus is a triangular structure. It receives blood from the vena
cava which are major veins of the body. The sinus venosus then joins the right atrium
and delivers the deoxygenated blood.

14. In frog, the ventricle opens into ______

a) conus arteriosus

b) sinus venosus

c) hepatic portal vein

d) vena cava

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The heart of the frog has three chambers- two auricles and one ventricle.
The heart is covered by a covering called pericardium. Oxygenated blood leaves the
heart through the conus arteriosus.

15. Which of these is not present in frog?

a) Renal portal system

b) Enucleated erythrocytes

c) Hepatic portal system

d) Lymphatic system

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Frogs have specialized vein connections between the intestine and liver
and as well as between the kidneys and the lower parts of the frog body, known as
hepatic and renal portal systems. They have a lymphatic system and nucleated
erythrocytes.

1. Which of these structures is not a part of excretory system in frogs?

a) Cloaca

b) Ureter

c) Urinary bladder

d) Anus

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The anus is not a part of the excretory system of frogs. Their excretory
system consists of a pair of kidneys, a urinary bladder, a ureter and a cloaca. Waste is
passed out of the cloaca. Frogs are ureotelic.

2. Which of these statements is true with respect to the anatomy of frog?

a) The oviduct and ureters are merged in female frog

b) The urinary and genital ducts are separate in male frogs

c) The urinary bladder is ventral to the rectum

d) Frogs are uricotelic

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In frogs, the urinary bladder is thin walled and is situated ventral to the
rectum. In female frogs, the oviduct and ureters are separate, whereas in male frogs, the
urinary and genital ducts fuse to form urinogenital ducts.

3. How many pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain of frog?

a) 12

b) 8

c) 10

d) 6
View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The frog has a well-developed nervous system as well as an endocrine

system. The nervous system is divided into central, peripheral and autonomic nervous
systems. 10 pairs of cranial nerves arise from the brain.

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4. In the brain of frogs, optic lobes are present in the _______

a) midbrain

b) hindbrain

c) forebrain

d) medulla oblongata

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A pair of optic lobes are present in the midbrain of frogs. The forebrain
contains olfactory lobes and the diencephalon while the hindbrain contains the
cerebellum and medulla oblongata.

5. What lies between the medulla oblongata and spinal cord in frogs?

a) Foramen lacerum

b) Foramen magnum

c) Foramen ovale

d) Foramen of Monro

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The foramen magnum lies between the medulla oblongata and the spinal
cord in frogs. The medulla oblongata is a part of the hindbrain of frogs. The brain and the
spinal cord together make up its central nervous system.
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6. Which of these is a cellular aggregation in frog?

a) Tympanum

b) Eyes

c) Nasal epithelium

d) Internal ears

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The sensory organs in frog are eyes for vision, tympanum and internal ears
for hearing, organs of touch called sensory papillae, taste buds for taste and nasal
epithelium for smell. The senses for vision and hearing are well developed and the rest
are cellular aggregations.

7. Which of these is not a function of ear in frog?

a) Defense

b) Hearing

c) Balance

d) Equilibrium

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The ears of frogs contain two part- the tympanum and the internal ear. The
tympanum is thin and sheet like. It receives sound waves from the environment. The
internal ear helps with balance and equilibrium.

8. What is the shape of testes in male frogs?

a) Triangular

b) Irregular

c) Spherical

d) Ovoid
View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The testes in male frogs is ovoid in shape. They are yellow in color. The
testes are attached to the upper part of each kidney of the frog with the help of a double
fold of the peritoneum.

9. Which of these structures attach the testes to the kidneys in male frogs?

a) Tympanum

b) Bidder’s canal

c) Mesorchium

d) Sensory papillae

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The mesorchium attaches each of the yellowish ovoid testes of the male
frogs to the upper part of each kidney. The mesorchium is a double fold of the
peritoneum that attaches both the structures.

10. Frogs have compound eyes. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Frogs have simple eyes. This means that their eyes are made of single units
each. Compound eyes are made of several ommatidia and are characteristic of
arthropods, annelids and mollusks.

11. Which of these is not a function of cloaca in frogs?

a) Passing of fecal matter

b) Passing of sperm or ova

c) Passing of urine
d) None of the mentioned

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The cloaca is an excretory organ of frog. The cloaca serves as a common
opening for the urinary, reproductive, and digestive systems of the frog. It helps in the
passing of sperm, ova, fecal matter and urine. During reproduction, the female frog
releases eggs through the cloacal vent, which is the opening of the cloaca, into the
water where they can be fertilized externally by the male’s sperm.

12. In frogs, vasa efferentia arises from the _____

a) Bidder’s canal

b) Kidneys

c) Testes

d) Cloaca

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Vasa efferentia arises from the testes. They are 10 to 12 in number. The
vasa efferentia enter each of the kidneys and open into the Bidder’s canals. The vasa
efferentia is a part of the male reproductive system.

13. How many ova does a female frog lay at a time?

a) 30 to 40

b) 10,000 to 20,000

c) 2500 to 3000

d) 50,000 to 80,000

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: A female frog typically lays 2500 to 3000 ova. Fertilization is external in
frogs and takes place in water. The development consists of a larval stage called
tadpole. The tadpole is aquatic in nature.

14. Where does fertilization take place in frogs?

a) Water

b) Land

c) Inside the female frog

d) Inside the male frog

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Frogs show external fertilization. This process takes place in water. The
development of frogs involves a larval stage called tadpole. Tadpoles are restricted to
the water and later metamorphosize into an adult frog.

15. Which of these statements is true with respect to frog?

a) They are pests for agricultural crop

b) Legs of frogs can be eaten

c) They do not play a part in ecological balance

d) They are herbivores

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Frogs are beneficial for farming as they feed on insects and hence protect
the agricultural crop. They are an essential part of the food web and hence maintain
ecological balance. They are not herbivores. Frog legs can be eaten.
Note:- Cell- the unit of life, biomolecules, cell cycle,
respiration in plants, photosynthesis in higher plants &
plant growth....(Use NCERT)

Breathing and Exchange of Gases

1. Which of the following is not part of the human respiratory system?

a) Pharynx

b) Alveoli

c) Trachea

d) Lumen

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Lumen is not a part of the human respiratory system whereas it belongs to
the digestive system. Lumen increases the surface area for the absorption of food.
Pharynx, alveoli, and trachea are part of respiratory system.

2. The common passage for both food and air is called the esophagus.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: It is a wrong statement. The pharynx is a common passage for both food
and air. Esophagus also is known as food pipe is part of the digestive system, that
allows passage of food from mouth to stomach.

3. Which of the following part is known as the soundbox of our body system?

a) Vocal gland
b) Pharynx

c) Larynx

d) Nasopharynx

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Larynx is known as the soundbox of our body system. It is made of

cartilage and helps in production of sound, hence the name soundbox. The larynx is
guarded by epiglottis. Also, larynx helps in regulation of our pitch and volume.

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4. ________ prevents the food from entering into the glottis during swallowing.

a) Larynx

b) Peri glottis

c) Post glottis

d) Epiglottis

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Epiglottis prevents the food from entering into glottis during swallowing. It
is a thin elastic cartilaginous flap. And if the food enters into the glottis, then it can lead
to severe coughing or choking.

5. At which thoracic vertebrae does the trachea branch?

a) Sixth

b) Fourth

c) Fifth

d) Second

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The trachea is a straight tube that extends up to the mid-thoracic cavity. It
divides at the fifth thoracic vertebra into left and right bronchi. The first division of the
respiratory system occurs through trachea.

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6. Trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles are all supported by _______

a) incomplete cartilaginous rings

b) complete cartilaginous rings

c) in-cartilaginous rings

d) bones

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles are all supported by incomplete

cartilaginous rings. They are actually hyaline cartilage and this is strong enough to hold
the mentioned parts. They are also supported by a small smooth muscle at the end of
the trachea.

7. Which of the following is not a characteristic of alveoli?

a) Thick

b) Thin

c) Irregular walled

d) Vascularized

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Alveoli is a thin, irregular walled and vascularized bag-like structure. It is

the main site for diffusion of gases. Terminal bronchioles give rise to alveoli. Lungs
without alveoli is a dead lung as they play a major role in respiration.

8. Which network comprises the lung?

a) Bronchi and bronchioles

b) Trachea, tracheoles

c) Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli

d) Trachea only

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli together comprise the lung. They are the
main vital organs compared to other secondary parts. They have a perfect network for
respiration to take place.

9. Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the ________

a) end of pharynx

b) middle of larynx

c) posterior of the thoracic cavity

d) anterior of the thoracic cavity

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Trachea is a straight tube extending up to the anterior part of the thoracic
cavity. It is also known as the windpipe. The trachea connects the soundbox to the
bronchi. Also, it provides the passage for air.

10. Pleura is _______ layered.

a) Not

b) Single

c) Double

d) Triple

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Pleura is doubled layered. It protects the lungs. Also, there is a fluid called
pleural fluid present between the pleura. It reduces the friction between the surfaces of
the lungs.

11. In which respiratory part does the diffusion of gas take place?

a) Alveoli

b) Bronchi

c) Bronchioles

d) Trachea

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Alveoli is the part where the diffusion of gases takes place. It exchanges
oxygen and carbon dioxide between the bloodstream. They are arranged as small
balloon clusters throughout the lungs.

1. Where are Bowman’s glands found?

a) Olfactory epithelium

b) Cortical nephrons

c) Juxtamedullary nephrons

d) Anterior pitutary

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Olfactory region of nassal passage is lined by nuero sensory epithelium

known as ‘Olfactory epithelium or Schneidarian membrane’. They secrete
chemoreceptive substances which help in sensing smell.

2. Hyaline cartilage is not found in_________

a) thyroid cartilage

b) cricoid cartilage

c) arytenoid cartilage

d) cartilage of santorini
View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Hyaline cartilage is glass like and found mainly in ribs, nose, larynx and
trachea. Cartilage of Santorini is made up of elastic cartilage, while thyroid, cricoid,
arytenoid cartilages are made up of hyaline cartilage.

3. Gaseous exchange occurs in ______

a) bronchial tree

b) respiratory tree

c) trachea

d) larynx

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Gaseous exchange occurs in respiratory tree, while it is absent in bronchial

tree. Respiratory tree is also known as exchange zone which which includes respiratory
bronchiole, alveolar duct, atria, alveolar sac and alveoli.

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4. Which one of the following is secreted by Pnuemocyte type-II cells?

a) Actin

b) Lecithin

c) Mucous

d) Lysine

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Pnuemocyte type-I help in gaseous exchange whereas Pnuemocyte type-II

secretes lecithin, which act as surfactant and prevents collapsing of alveoli by reducing
the surface tension.
5. Human lungs are made up of _____

a) 2 right lobes and 3 left lobes

b) 2 right lobes and 3 left lobes

c) 3 right lobes and 2 left lobes

d) 3 right lobes and 3 left lobes

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Human lungs are made up of 3 right lobes and 2 left lobes. Right lung
includes right anterior lobe, middle lobe, right posterior lobe. Left lung is made up of left
anterior and left posterior lobe.

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6. External nostrils → vestibules → nasal chambers → internal nares → naso pharynx → X →

larynx → trachea. What is X?

a) Glottis

b) Alveoli

c) Atria

d) Bronchi

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Glottis is a part of respiratory passage and it opens into larynx. Near the
glottis is a flap like structure called epiglottis. At the time of swallowing of food this flap
covers the glottis to prevent the entry of food particles into it.

7. In the trachea _____ ‘C’ shaped cartilagenous rings are present.

a) 5-10

b) 10-15

c) 16-20

d) 20-25
View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In the trachea 16-20 ‘C’ shaped cartilagenous rings are present which
prevent the trachea from collapsing. These rings are c shaped in order to allow easy
passage of food through oesophagus.

8. Diaphragm increases volume of thoracic cavity in _________

a) dorsal-ventral axis

b) anterior posterior axis

c) lateral regions

d) side ways

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Radial muscles are present in diaphgram. By the contraction in these

muscles, diaphragm becomes flattened in shape, so, volume of thoracic cavity
increases in anterior posterior axis.

9. Alveoli is derived from the__________

a) endoderm

b) ectoderm

c) mesoderm

d) ecto-mesoderm

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Endoderm is one of the primary germ layers of embryo. It gives rise to
epithelium of pharynx including the eustachian tube, the tonsils, the thyroid gland,
parathyroid glands, and thymus gland; the larynx, trachea, and lungs; GIT, the urinary
bladder, the vagina, and urethra. Alveoli is derived from the endoderm of the embryo.

10. In which part of lungs gaseous exchange takes place in human?

a) Trachea & alveolar duct

b) Trachea & bronchi

c) Alveolar duct & alveoli

d) Alveoli & Trachea

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: whole passage is divided into two parts one is conducting region and other
is respiratory region. Conducting zone do not play any role in exchange of gases but
respiratory zone does. Alveolar duct & alveoli are the part of respiratory tree and are
involved in gaseous exchange.

1. Which instrument is used for measuring volume of air involved in breathing?

a) Spirometer

b) Galvanometer

c) Aerometer

d) Electrocardiogram

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The volume of air involved in breathing movements can be estimated by

using a spirometer which helps in clinical assessment of pulmonary functions. It
measures the amount of air inspired or expired by an individual.

2. Which of the following is passive process?

a) Inspiration

b) Normal expiration

c) Forceful inspiration

d) Forceful expiration

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Normal expiration is a passive process as during expiration, contraction (in

any muscle) does not take place. Thus, there is no expenditure of energy. Relaxation in
diaphgram and external intercoastal muscles is found.

3. At the time of inspiration, _________ takes place.

a) relaxation in external intercostal muscle

b) relaxation in diaphragm

c) contraction in diaphragm

d) no effect on diaphragm

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Inspiration is an active process in which muscle contraction do take place.

At the time of inspiration, contraction in diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
takes place.

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4. Inspiration occurs when there is ___________

a) no pressure gradient

b) negative pressure in the lungs

c) positive pressure in the lungs

d) more pressure in lungs than atmosphere

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Inspiration can occur if the pressure within the lungs is less than the
atmospheric pressure. So, there is a negative pressure in the lungs than the
atmospheric pressure.

5. The amount of air inspired or expired during normal breathing is_________ ml.

a) 500
b) 500-1000

c) 1000-1100

d) 2100

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Tidal volume is the amount of air inspired or expired during normal
breathing. Its value for man is 500ml, out of which 150ml is dead space volume which
remains in the respiratory tract.

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6. Which muscles can help in increasing the strength of breathing?

a) Arm muscle

b) Chest muscles

c) Abdominal muscles

d) Facial muscle

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: We have the ability to increase the strength of inspiration and expiration
with the help of additional muscles called abdominal muscles. This is called as forceful
breathing.

7. Vital capacity = ________

a) ERV + RV

b) IRV + TV

c) IRV + TV + ERV + RV

d) IRV + ERV + TV

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Vital capacity is the amount of air that can be expired by most forceful
expiration after a deepest inspiration. Inspiratory reserve volume, expiratory reserve
volume and tidal volume are included in it.

8. Which one of the following changes takes place during inspiration?

a) Decrease in thoracic cavity

b) Relaxation in diaphragm

c) Relaxation in external intercostal muscles

d) Sternum moves towards ventral and anterior direction

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: During inspiration, thoracic volume increases. Sternum moves towards

ventral and anterior direction, diaphragm contracts, ribs move towards outside and
ventral side.

9. Decrease in thoracic volume is marked by________

a) diaphragm relaxed

b) diaphragm contracted

c) sternum moving towards ventral and anterior direction

d) ribs moving out

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Decrease in thoracic volume is necessary for expiration and is marked by

relaxation in diaphragm and external intercostal muscle. Decrease in thoracic volume is
necessary in order to build more pressure than atmospheric pressure.

10. Time taken in breathing _______

a) inspiration 2 sec and expiration 3 sec

b) inspiration 3 sec and expiration 3 sec

c) inspiration 2 sec and expiration 2 sec

d) inspiration 3 sec and expiration 2 sec

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Inspiration takes about 2 second and expiration takes about 3 second in
normal condition and process. On an average an adult human breathes for about 16
times in a minute.

1. Which of the following is the most important muscular structure in respiratory system
of human?

a) External intercoastal muscle

b) Internal intercoastal muscle

c) Diaphgram

d) Vertebral column

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Diaphgram is the most important muscular structure in respiratory system

of human. At the time of inspiration, diaphgram contracts leading to increase in thoracic
volume whereas during expiration it relaxes causing decrease in thoracic volume.

2. Air that remains in lungs after most powerful expiration is _______

a) inspiratory air

b) residual air

c) dead space air

d) tidal air

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Residual air is the volume of air remaining in the lungs even after most
forceful expiration. It cannot be expelled out of the lungs. Its value on an average in
adult man is approximately 1200 ml.

3. Contraction in diaphgram causes increase in thoracic volume in the _____

a) dorso-ventral axis

b) antero-posterior axis

c) dorso-posterior axis

d) antero-ventral axis

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: At the time of inspiration diaphgram contracts leading to increase in

thoracic volume in the anterior posterior axis. Whereas movement of sternum causes
increment in antero-ventral direction.

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4. Where is the respiratory rhythm center is located?

a) Medulla region

b) Aortic arch

c) Pons region

d) Carotid artery

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The respiratory rhythm center in the Medulla is primarily responsible for
the regulation. Dorsal respiratory group(DRG) generate the basic respiratory rhythm
whereas the ventral respiratory(VRG) which remains inactive during normal respiration.

5. What happens to RBC of human blood at high altitude?

a) Decrease in size

b) Decrease in number

c) Increase in size

d) Increase in number

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: At high altitude oxygen pressure is lower thus lungs have to take in more
oxygen to fulfill the demands of the body. Therefore, an increase in RBC helps to
transport more oxygen to the body parts.

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6. Strength of inspiration and expiration can be increased with the help of_______

a) abdominal muscles

b) external intercoastal muscle

c) diaphragm

d) internal intercoastal muscle

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Abdominal muscles can increase the strength of inspiration and

expiration. This type of breathing is also known as forceful breathing and can be found in
pregnant women.

7. Pneumotaxic centre is located in ________

a) pons

b) cerebrum

c) medulla

d) cerebellum

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The Pneumotaxic centre is located on pons. It is called switch off point of
inspiration. Neural signal from this centre can reduce the duration of inspiration and
thereby alter the respiratory rate.

8. Which does not occur on normal inspiration?

a) Contraction in diaphragm
b) Contraction in external intercoastal muscle

c) Contraction in internal intercoastal muscle

d) Sternum moves upward

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: At the time of inspiration diaphgram and external intercoastal muscle

contracts leading to increase in thoracic volume. Also, ribs move outward and sternum
moves upward.

9. Dead space air is _______

a) 150 CC

b) 350 CC

c) 500 CC

d) 1500 CC

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Dead space air is 150 CC. Dead space air represents the volume of air that
does not participate in the gaseous exchange and remains in the lungs. It can’t be
expired or inspired or altered.

10. The signal for voluntary muscle for forced breathing starts in ______

a) medulla

b) cerebrum

c) pons

d) cerebellum

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The signal for voluntary muscle for forced breathing starts in cerebrum.
Cerebrum is the control center of all the voluntary actions of the body. In forceful
inspiration or expiration, signals are generated through this.

1. Gaseous exchange is held by ________

a) osmosis

b) simple diffusion

c) facilitated diffusion

d) co-transport

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Gaseous exchange is a passive process. It is held by simple diffusion.

Diffusion pressure for every gas is called partial pressure. At the time of diffusion, gases
move from high partial pressure to low partial pressure.

2. What is the primary site for exchange of gases in lungs?

a) Larynx

b) Trachea

c) Alveoli

d) Bronchi

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Alveoli are the primary site for exchange of gases in lungs. Exchange of
gases is found only in respiratory zone of the lungs, as they are covered by simple
squamous epithelium.

3. Solubility of carbon dioxide is ________ than oxygen.

a) more

b) less

c) 50 times more

d) equal
View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The solubility of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times higher than that of oxygen,
therefore the amount of carbon dioxide that can diffuse through the diffusion
membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of
oxygen.

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4. What is the concentration of oxygen in expired air?

a) 19%

b) 4%

c) 10%

d) 16%

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Inspired air contains 19.6% oxygen and expired air has 15.7% oxygen. So
approximately 4% oxygen goes to blood from air. In the same way inspired air contains
carbon dioxide 0.04% and expired air has 3.6% carbon dioxide so approximately 3.56%
carbon dioxide goes to air from blood.

5. Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is ________

a) 159 mm Hg

b) 90 mm Hg

c) 104 mm Hg

d) 45 mm Hg

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air is 104 mm Hg, its value in
arterial blood is 40 mm Hg. So, oxygen goes from alveolar air to arterial air. At the time of
diffusion, gases move from high partial pressure to low partial pressure.

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6. On which of the following factors diffusion does not depend?

a) Solubility of gases

b) Thickness of the respiratory membrane

c) Partial pressure difference

d) Molecular weight of gases

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Diffusing capacity depends on solubility of gases, thickness of the

respiratory membrane, partial pressure difference. These all factors play an important
role in the exchange of gases through the process of simple diffusion.

7. Which one of the following does not consist diffusion membrane?

a) Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli

b) Cuboidal epithelium of alveoli

c) Basement membrane

d) Endothelium of blood capillaries

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Alveoli is made up of simple squamous epithelium. Diffusion membrane is

made up of three major layers: Thin squamous epithelium of alveoli, endothelium of
blood capillaries, basement substances in between them.

8. Carbon dioxide is _______ times more soluble than oxygen.

a) 20-25

b) 5-10

c) 15-20
d) 25-30

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The solubility of carbon dioxide is 20-25 times higher than that of oxygen,
therefore the amount of carbon dioxide that can diffuse through the diffusion
membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher compared to that of
oxygen.

9. What is the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in alveolar air and in deoxygenated
blood respectively?

a) 50 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg

b) 104 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg

c) 45 mm Hg, 40 mm Hg

d) 40 mm Hg, 45 mm Hg

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: In alveolar air, partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 40 mm Hg and its value
in deoxygenated blood is 45 mm Hg. So, carbon dioxide moves from arterial blood to
alveoli. In this way, according to partial pressure exchange of gases takes place.

10. Right comparison of partial pressure of oxygen and partial pressure of carbon
dioxide in the atmospheric air than in alveolar air is _________

a) partial pressure of oxygen lesser, partial pressure of carbon dioxide higher

b) partial pressure of oxygen higher, partial pressure of carbon dioxide lesser

c) partial pressure of oxygen lesser, partial pressure of carbon dioxide higher

d) partial pressure of oxygen lesser, partial pressure of carbon dioxide lesser

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: Partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air is 159 mm Hg and in alveoli is
104 mm Hg. Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in atmospheric air is 0.3 mm Hg and in
alveoli is 40 mm Hg.

1. One haemoglobin carries __________ molecules of oxygen.

a) 6

b) 3

c) 4

d) 2

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Haemoglobin is made up of 4 units. Each unit has 1 Fe in +2 state. Each

haemoglobin molecules can carry a maximum of four molecules of oxygen. 1 gm
haemoglobin transports 1.34 ml of oxygen.

2. How the majority of oxygen gets transported?

a) In dissolved form in blood plasma

b) In form of oxyhaemoglobin

c) In form of methaemoglobin

d) In form of carbamino haemoglobin

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Approximately 3% of oxygen dissolves in the blood plasma. Remaining

97% oxygen combines with haemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin. Oxygen can bind
with Hb in a reversible mannner to form oxyhaemoglobin.

3. Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is a/an ________

a) oxygenation

b) oxidation

c) reduction

d) deoxygenation
View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Oxygen does not oxidize haemoglobin. Formation of oxyhaemoglobin is a

process of oxygenation. The valency of iron is 2 in oxyhaemoglobin. Some gases like
ozone oxidise haemoglobin. This oxidized Hb is called methamoglobin.

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4. What is the shape of Haemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve?

a) Straight

b) Constant

c) Hyperbolic

d) Sigmoid

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: A graph is plotted between oxygen concentration and percentage

saturation of haemoglobin with this curve is called dissociation curve. Dissociation
curve is sigmoid in shape.

5. Every 100 ml deoxygenated blood delivers around _______ carbon dioxide to alveoli.

a) 20 ml

b) 25 ml

c) 5 ml

d) 4 ml

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Every 100 ml deoxygenated blood delivers around 4 ml carbon dioxide to

alveoli, whereas every 100 ml oxygenated blood can deliver around 5 ml of oxygen to
tissues under physiological conditions.
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6. What is chloride shift?

a) Movement of chloride ion from plasma to WBC

b) Movement of chloride ion from plasma to RBC

c) Movement of chloride ion from WBC to plasma

d) Movement of chloride ion from RBC to plasma

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In response of bicarbonate ion, chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the
erythrocyte to maintain the ionic balance. Thus, electrochemical neutrality is
maintained. This is called chloride shift or Hamburger phenomenon.

7. Chloride shift occurs in response to _____

a) H+

b) K+

c) HCO3-

d) Na+

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Chloride shift occurs in response to HCO3-. In response of bicarbonate

ion, chloride ions diffuse from plasma into the erythrocyte to maintain the ionic
balance. Thus, electrochemical neutrality is maintained. This is called chloride shift or
Hamburger phenomenon.

8. Bulk of carbon dioxide is transported by __________

a) dissolved state

b) plasma as bicarbonate

c) carbamino haemoglobin

d) methamoglobin
View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Nearly 70% carbon dioxide is transported by plasma as sodium

bicarbonate. Approximately, 5-7% of carbon dioxide is transported in dissolves form in
plasma. About 20-25% carbon dioxide react with the amine group of haemoglobin and
form carbamino-haemoglobin.

9. Oxygen dissociation curve will shift to right on decrease of________

a) temperature

b) acidity

c) pH

d) carbon dioxide concentration

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Shift to the right means that decrease in affinity between oxygen and Hb
and dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin. Low oxygen, high carbon dioxide, high hydrogen
ion, low pH and high temperature are responsible for this.

10. What percentage of carbon dioxide transport in the form of carbamino

haemoglobin?

a) 20-25%

b) 5-7%

c) 3%

d) 97%

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: About 20-25% carbon dioxide react with the amine group of haemoglobin
and form carbamino-haemoglobin. Approximately 5-7% of carbon dioxide is
transported in dissolves form in plasma.
1. Asthma is caused due to inflammation of ______________

a) bronchi and broncioles

b) alveoli

c) trachea

d) pharynx

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Asthma is difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of

bronchi and bronchioles. Because of this air passage becomes narrow also it produces
extra mucous which lastly leads into difficulty in breathing.

2. Which of the following diseases can be found in workers working in a mill?

a) Emphysema

b) Occupational respiratory disorders

c) Bronchitis

d) Asthma

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In industries, produced dust can’t be cope up by the defense system of

human body. Long and continuous exposure gives rise to inflammation leading to
fibrosis and thus leading to severe lung damage.

3. Low oxygen supply to tissues is scientifically known as ________

a) bronchitis

b) emphysema

c) asphyxia

d) hypoxia

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: When a body or a particular region of the body start depriving of oxygen
due to its inadequate transport than this condition is known as hypoxia. Hypoxia may
even lead into death of an individual.

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4. Cigarette smoking causes______________

a) bronchitis

b) fibrosis

c) emphysema

d) asthma

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Emphysema is chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due
to which respiratory surface is decreased. This is one of the causes of cigarette
smoking.

5. Swelling and itching in bronchi is a symptom of __________

a) bronchitis

b) asthma

c) fibrosis

d) asphyxia

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Bronchitis is a disorder of bronchi in which there is regular swelling and

itching of bronchi and is characterized by regular coughing. It may be both acute
disorder or chronic disorder.

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6. Emphysema is marked by ______

a) inflammation of nasal passage

b) twisting of trachea

c) filling of mucous in lungs

d) damage of alveolar walls

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Emphysema is a chronic disorder which is marked of damage of alveolar

walls. This leads to inadequate supply of oxygen to the body parts. The most common
cause found so far is cigarette smoking.

7. What changes may be observed due to increase in carbon dioxide and hydrogen ions
body?

a) Decrease in breathing rate

b) Increase in breathing rate

c) No change in breathing rate

d) Increase in lung volume

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Chemosensitive area is highly sensitive to carbon dioxide and hydrogen

ions. Increase in these substances can activate this center which in turn can signal the
rhythm centre and increase breathing rate.

8. Suffocation is caused due to_______

a) increase in carbon dioxide

b) decrease in oxygen

c) decrease in hydrogen ions

d) increase in oxygen

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The receptors found in the body are highly sensitive to the carbon dioxide
and hydrogen ions. Asphyxia is the state of suffocation due to high carbon dioxide
concentration. The role of oxygen in the regulation of respiratory rhythm is quite
insignificant.

9. What causes increase in respiratory rate?

a) Increase in body temperature

b) Decrease in carbon dioxide

c) Decrease in blood pressure

d) Increased oxygen

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The activity of respiratory centre is also affected by blood pressure and
body temperature. Whenever body temperature or blood pressure is increased,
respiratory center becomes more active and increase the respiratory rate.

10. Fibrosis may be caused due to_______

a) cigarette smoking

b) snorting

c) inflammation of alveoli

d) dust particles

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Fibrosis means proliferation of fibrous tissues. This is a kind of

occupational respiratory disorder which is found mainly in workers of industries
involved mainly in stone grinding. Our body do not have defense mechanism to cope up
with this and it thus causes serious lung damage.
Body Fluids
1. Which of the following is the most commonly used body fluid?

a) Blood

b) Plasma

c) Lymph

d) Serum

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Blood is the most commonly used body fluid by most of the higher
organisms including humans for the transportation of essential nutrients to the body
tissues. Another body fluid, lymph also helps in the transport of certain substances.

2. Which of the following is absent on blood?

a) Fluid matrix

b) Plasma

c) Fibroblast

d) Formed elements

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Fibroblast are special cells which are responsible for the formation of
fibres in the areolar tissue which is a type of connective tissue. Blood is a special type of
connective tissue which consists of a fluid matrix, plasma and formed elements.

3. How much percentage of plasma is present in the blood?

a) 35%

b) 45%

c) 50%

d) 55%

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Plasma constitutes nearly 55% of the blood. 90-92% of plasma is water
and proteins contribute 6-8 per cent of it. Fibrinogens, albumins and globulins are the
major proteins.

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4. Which of the following are needed for clotting of blood?

a) Fibrinogen

b) Albumin

c) Globulin

d) Magnesium ions

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Fibrinogens are needed for clotting or coagulation of blood. Globulins

primarily are involved in defence mechanisms of the body and the albumins help in the
osmotic balance.

5. What is plasma without clotting factors known as?

a) Blood

b) Serum

c) Lymph

d) Fluid

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Plasma without the clotting factors is known as serum. Factors for
coagulation or clotting of blood are also present in the plasma in an inactive form.

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6. Which of the following is not a formed element?

a) Erythrocytes

b) Leucocytes

c) Platelets

d) Lymph

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Erythrocytes, leucocytes and platelets are collectively called as formed

elements. They constitute nearly 45% of the blood. A reduction in these number can
lead to numerous disorders.

7. RBCs are formed in the thymus.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: RBCs are formed in the red bone marrow in the adults. RBCs are devoid of
the nucleus in most of the mammals and are biconcave in shape. They have a red
coloured iron-containing pigment called haemoglobin.

8. What is the average life span of RBCs?

a) 120 seconds

b) 120 hours

c) 120 days

d) 120 weeks

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: RBCs have an average life span of about 120 days after which they are
destroyed in the spleen which is also known as the graveyard of RBCs. These molecules
play a significant role in the transport of gases.

9. What is the colour of leucocytes?

a) White

b) Black

c) Red

d) Colourless

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Leucocytes which are also known as white blood cells because they are
colourless in nature as they lack haemoglobin. They are nucleated and are relatively
lesser in number as compared to RBCs.

10. WBCs are characterised into 4 main categories.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: WBCs are characterised into 2 main categories- granulocytes and

agranulocytes. Neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils are different types of
granulocytes while lymphocytes and monocytes are the agranulocytes.

11. Which of the following are the most abundant in WBCs?

a) Neutrophils

b) Basophils

c) Eosinophils

d) Lymphocytes

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: Neutrophils are the most abundant cells of the total WBCs as they
constitute about 60-65 per cent of the total. Basophils are the least amongst as they
constitute only 0.5-1 per cent of the total WBCs.

12. Which of the following is not secreted by basophils?

a) Histamine

b) Serotonin

c) Heparin

d) Serum

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin which are involved in
the inflammatory reactions. Histamine acts as a vasodilator while serotonin acts as a
vasoconstrictor.

13. Which of the following WBCs are involved in allergic reactions?

a) Basophils

b) Eosinophils

c) Neutrophils

d) Monocytes

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Eosinophils resist infections and are also associated with allergic
reactions. Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells which destroy foreign
organisms entering the body.

14. Lymphocytes constitute how much per cent of the total WBCs?

a) 10-15%

b) 20-25%

c) 40-50%
d) 56%

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Lymphocytes constitute for about 20-25% of the total WBCs. These are of
two major types-B and T forms. Both B and T lymphocytes are responsible for the
immune responses of the body.

15. Platelets are produced from which of the following cells?

a) Erythrocytes

b) Thrombocytes

c) Megakaryocytes

d) Lymphocytes

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Platelets are also called thrombocytes which are the cell fragments
produced from megakaryocytes which are the special cells in the bone marrow.

1. What type of tissue is blood?

a) Loose connective tissue

b) Dense connective tissue

c) Mucoid connective tissue

d) Specialized connective tissue

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Blood is specialized fluid connective tissue. It consists of plasma, a fluid

matrix and the formed elements, which are the erythrocytes or red blood cells,
leukocytes or white blood cells and thrombocytes or platelets.

2. What percentage of blood is plasma?

a) 90%

b) 60%

c) 55%

d) 20%

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Plasma, which is an element of blood, constitutes 55% of it. The rest 45%
consists of the formed elements-the RBCs, the WBCs and the blood platelets. Plasma
is straw colored and a viscous fluid.

3. What percentage of plasma is proteins?

a) 22-25%

b) 50-55%

c) 6-8%

d) 15-18%

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Plasma, which is an element of blood, constitutes 55% of it. Plasma is

straw colored and a viscous fluid. 6-8% of plasma is made up of proteins while 90-92
per cent of plasma is made up of water.

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4. Which of these is not a major protein of plasma?

a) Keratin

b) Fibrinogen

c) Globulins

d) Albumins

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: 6-8% of plasma is made up of proteins while 90-92 per cent of plasma is
made up of water. The major proteins present in plasma are fibrinogen, globulins and
albumins. Keratin is not a major protein of plasma.

5. What is serum comprised of?

a) Blood without plasma

b) Plasma without clotting factors

c) Plasma without minerals

d) Plasma without proteins

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Serum is composed of plasma which is devoid of clotting factors.

Normally, plasma contains 6-8% of proteins and 90-92% of water. It also contains
minerals, biomolecules and clotting factors.

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6. What percentage of blood contains the formed elements?

a) 90%

b) 55%

c) 45%

d) 20%

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: 45% of blood contains the formed elements while 55% of the blood is
plasma. The formed elements are the erythrocytes or red blood cells, leukocytes or
white blood cells and thrombocytes or platelets.

7. Where are erythrocytes formed in adults?

a) Red bone marrow

b) Liver

c) Spleen

d) Muscles

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Erythrocytes are also known as red blood cells or RBCs. In adults,
erythrocytes are formed in the red bone marrow. They are formed from hematopoietic
stem cells via a process known as erythropoiesis.

8. How much hemoglobin is normally present in 100ml of blood?

a) 6-8g

b) 2-3g

c) 20-25g

d) 12-16g

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Hemoglobin is a complex iron containing protein present in erythrocytes or

red blood cells. It is red in color and hence, gives erythrocytes its red color. 12-16g of
hemoglobin is present in 100ml of blood.

9. What is the average number of leukocytes per cubic mm of blood?

a) 10,000-20,000

b) 5-5.5 million

c) 6000-8000

d) 300-1000

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The formed elements of blood are the erythrocytes or red blood cells,
leukocytes or white blood cells and thrombocytes or platelets. the average number of
leukocytes per cubic mm of blood is 6000-8000.

10. Eosinophils are a type of agranulocyte. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Leukocytes or white blood cells are of two types- granulocytes and
agranulocytes. Neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils are the granulocytes while
monocytes and lymphocytes are agranulocytes.

11. Which of these are the most abundant in blood?

a) Eosinophils

b) Basophils

c) Monocytes

d) Neutrophils

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Out of all the different types of leukocytes present in blood, neutrophils are
the most abundant in blood. They constitute 60-65% of the total number of white blood
cells. They are phagocytic cells.

12. Which of these cells are phagocytic?

a) Eosinophils

b) Lymphocytes

c) Monocytes

d) Basophils

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Monocytes and neutrophils are phagocytic white blood cells or leukocytes.
These cells engulf and destroy foreign particles and various pathogenic organisms by
the process of phagocytosis.

13. Which of these chemicals is not secreted by basophils?

a) Histamine

b) Serotonin

c) Ghrelin

d) Heparin

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Basophils are a type of white blood cell or leukocyte. They constitute 0.5-
1% of the total number of white blood cells. They participate in inflammatory reactions
and secrete histamine, serotonin and heparin.

14. Which of these cells are associated with allergic reactions?

a) Eosinophils

b) Monocytes

c) Neutrophils

d) Lymphocytes

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Eosinophils are associated with allergic reactions. They constitute 2-3% of
the total number of white blood cells. They resist infections. They also have anti-
parasitic and bactericidal activity.

15. Which of these cells are thrombocytes formed from?

a) Erythrocytes

b) Megakaryocytes

c) T lymphocytes
d) B lymphocytes

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Thrombocytes or blood platelets are formed from megakaryocytes, which

are special cells present in the bone marrow. Thrombocytes are cell fragments which
are involved in the clotting of blood.

1. Which of these blood groups do not have a surface antigen?

a) A

b) B

c) AB

d) O

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: In the ABO blood grouping system, the blood group is determined by
antigenic determinants present on the surface of the red blood cell. ‘O’ blood group
does not have any surface antigen.

2. What happens when blood groups are not compatible during blood transfusion?

a) Formation of eosinophils

b) Only neutrophils are destroyed

c) Destruction of RBCs

d) Formation of basophils

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: A successful blood transfusion takes place only when the blood groups of
the donor and the recipient are compatible. When the blood groups are not compatible,
it results in the destruction of RBCs.

3. Persons having which blood group are known as universal donors?

a) A

b) B

c) O

d) AB

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: People having the blood group ‘O’ are said to be universal donors. This is
because they lack antigens on the surface of their RBCs and hence, their blood can be
used to carry out blood transfusions.

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4. Which of these are present in the plasma of a person having ‘O’ blood group?

a) Anti-A and anti-B

b) Anti-A

c) Anti-B

d) Antibodies are absent

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: For people having ‘O’ blood group, their red blood cells do not have any
surface antigens. However, the antibodies anti-A and anti-B are present in the plasma of
people having this blood group.

5. Approximately what percentage of people are Rh positive?

a) 50%

b) 80%

c) 90%

d) 75%

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Blood can be classified on the basis of several factors. Apart from the ABO
blood grouping system, the Rh blood grouping is widely used. Around 80% of people are
Rh positive (Rh+ve).

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6. Which of these structures prevent the mixing of fetal blood with mother’s blood?

a) Amniotic fluid

b) Amnion

c) Placenta

d) Chorion

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The placenta prevents the mixing of the blood of the fetus with the blood of
the mother. The placenta provides oxygen and nutrients to the fetus and removes
carbon dioxide and waste products.

7. What antibodies are formed when a Rh-negative mother bears a Rh-positive child?

a) Rh antibodies are formed in the mother

b) Rh antibodies are formed in the fetus

c) Rh antibodies are formed during the second pregnancy

d) Rh antibodies are formed in both

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: When a Rh-negative mother bears a Rh-positive child, the placenta

prevents the mixing of their blood. If their bloods come in contact with each other, Rh
antibodies are formed in the mother.

8. Which of these does not happen to the baby during erythroblastosis fetalis?

a) Jaundice
b) Anemia

c) Swollen liver

d) High erythrocyte count

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: When a Rh-negative mother produces antibodies to an antigen in the blood

of a Rh-positive fetus, it leads to a condition known as erythroblastosis fetalis, which is
characterized by jaundice, anemia and a swollen liver in the baby.

9. How can erythroblastosis fetalis be avoided?

a) By administering Rh antibodies to the mother

b) By administering anti-Rh antibodies to the baby

c) By administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother

d) By administering anti-Rh antibodies to both

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: When a Rh-negative mother produces antibodies to an antigen in the blood

of a Rh-positive fetus, it leads to a condition known as erythroblastosis fetalis. It can be
avoided by administering anti-Rh antibodies to the mother.

10. Fibrins trap destroyed formed elements during blood clotting. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: During the process of blood clotting or coagulation, a network or mesh of

fibrin is formed over the wound. This traps the destroyed formed elements, which are
the RBCs, WBCs and the platelets.

11. Which of these are not involved in the coagulation of blood?

a) Thrombin

b) Fibrin

c) Thrombokinase

d) Trypsinogen

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The activities of various enzymes make blood coagulation possible.

Thrombokinase, an enzyme complex, fibrin, a mesh covering the wound, and thrombin
are involved in blood coagulation.

12. Where is prothrombin present?

a) Inside lymphocytes

b) Inside thrombocytes

c) In the plasma

d) On the surface of RBCs

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Prothrombin is present in the plasma of blood. Prothrombin is the inactive

form of thrombin. Thrombin is the enzyme that converts the inactive fibrinogen to fibrin,
which is a mesh that covers wounds.

13. What is the network of threads in a coagulum known as?

a) Clot

b) Clotting factors

c) Fibrin

d) Formed elements

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The network of threads or the mesh in a coagulum or clot is known as
fibrin. It covers the wound and traps the destroyed formed elements of blood. Fibrin is
the active form of fibrinogen.

14. Which of these activates fibrinogen?

a) Thrombin

b) Fibrin

c) Thrombokinase

d) Prothrombin

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The inactive fibrinogen is converted into its active form, fibrin, with the help
of the enzyme thrombin. Thrombin is the active form of prothrombin, which is present in
the blood plasma.

15. Which of these ions play an important role in blood clotting?

a) Sodium ions

b) Calcium ions

c) Potassium ions

d) Phosphate ions

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Calcium ions play an important role in blood clotting or coagulation as it is

needed for the activation of various clotting factors. It is required for the formation of
the fibrin mesh network that covers the wound.

3. In the joint diastole state, which of these events do not occur?

a) All four chambers are relaxed

b) Both tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open

c) Blood from pulmonary vein flows into the right atrium

d) Both semilunar valves are closed

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: In the joint diastole state, all four chambers of the heart are relaxed. The
tricuspid and bicuspid valves are open while the semilunar valves are closed. Blood
from pulmonary vein flows into the left ventricle.

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4. Which of these occurs during the atrial systole?

a) Both atria contract simultaneously

b) Action potential is generated by the AVN initially

c) Tricuspid valve closes

d) The semilunar valves remain open

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: During the atrial systole, both the atria contract simultaneously while the
ventricles remain relaxed. It occurs due to the action potential generated by the SAN.
The tricuspid and bicuspid valves open.

5. During atrial systole, blood flow toward the ventricles increases by what percent?

a) 10%

b) 30%

c) 50%

d) 70%

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: During the atrial systole, both the atria contract simultaneously while the
ventricles remain relaxed. The increase in pressure in the atria forces 30% more blood
to flow into the ventricles.
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6. Which structure is not responsible for the transmission of action potential to the
ventricles?

a) AV bundle

b) AVN

c) SAN

d) Bundle of His

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: SAN or the sinoatrial node is auto excitable and is responsible for
generating the action potential. This action potential is transmitted to the ventricles via
the AVN, the AV bundle and the Bundle of His.

7. Which of these events coincide with ventricular systole?

a) Atrial diastole

b) Atrial systole

c) Joint diastole

d) Ventricular diastole

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The relaxation of the atria or the atrial diastole coincides with the
contraction of the ventricles or the ventricular systole. The right and left semilunar
valves open up due to the increase in pressure in the ventricles.

8. Which of these events do not occur during ventricular systole?

a) Closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves

b) Atrial diastole

c) Opening of the semilunar valves

d) Flow of blood from atria to ventricles

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: During ventricular systole or the contraction of the ventricles, the tricuspid
and bicuspid valves close and the semilunar valves open. The atrial diastole occurs at
the same time as the ventricular systole.

9. What happens when the ventricular pressure decreases?

a) Blood from pulmonary artery flows into ventricle

b) The semilunar valves remain open

c) The tricuspid and bicuspid valves open

d) Atrial pressure decreases

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The ventricular pressure decreases during the ventricular diastole or when
the ventricles relax. The tricuspid and bicuspid valves open to allow blood to flow from
the atria to the ventricles.

10. The first heart sound occurs due to the closure of the semilunar valves. True or
false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Two distinct heart sounds are audible with the help of the stethoscope.
The first heart sound occurs due to the simultaneous closure of the bicuspid valve and
the tricuspid valve. It is heard as a ‘lub’.

11. What is the approximate duration of a cardiac cycle?

a) 0.1 seconds

b) 72 seconds
c) 1 minute

d) 0.8 seconds

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: We know that the heart beats 70-75 times per minute. It beats
approximately 72 times per minute. Hence, 72 cardiac cycles take place in one minute.
Therefore, the duration of one cardiac cycle is 0.8 seconds.

12. What is the approximate stroke volume?

a) 250 ml

b) 5000 ml

c) 70 ml

d) 500 ml

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: 72 cardiac cycles take place in one minute. The duration of one cardiac
cycle is 0.8 seconds. During each cardiac cycle, each of the two ventricles pump 70 ml
of blood, which is known as the stroke volume.

13. What is the formula for cardiac output?

a) Stroke volume – heart rate

b) Stroke volume + heart rate

c) Stroke volume × heart rate

d) Stroke volume / heart rate

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Cardiac output is the product of the stroke volume and the heart rate. It is
the total amount of blood pumped by each ventricle per minute. The average cardiac
output of a healthy adult is 5000ml.
14. What is the average cardiac output for a healthy individual?

a) 5000 ml

b) 70 ml

c) 500 ml

d) 1000 ml

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The average cardiac output of a healthy adult is 5000ml or 5 liters. This
means that if the heart rate is 72 beats per minute and the stroke volume is 70ml, then
around 5000ml of blood is pumped by each ventricle in one minute.

15. Which of these devices is used to hear the heart sounds?

a) Endoscope

b) Stethoscope

c) Sphygmomanometer

d) Electrocardiograph

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The heart makes two distinct sounds, termed ‘lub’ and ‘dub’, which can be
audible to the human ear with the help of an instrument known as the stethoscope.
These sounds are important for clinical diagnoses

1. How many types of circulatory pathways are present in the animal kingdom?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: The circulatory pathways are of two major types-open circulatory systems
and closed circulatory system. The closed circulatory system is considered to be more
advantageous as the flow can be more precisely regulated.

2. How many chambers are present in the heart of crocodiles?

a) Two

b) Three

c) Four

d) Five

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: All vertebrates possess a muscular chambered heart. Amphibians and the
reptiles (except crocodiles) have a three-chambered heart while crocodiles, birds and
mammals possess a four-chambered heart.

3. Which of the following organisms show single circulation?

a) Fishes

b) Birds

c) Mammals

d) Reptiles

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood which is oxygenated by
the gills and is supplied to the body parts where deoxygenated blood is returned to the
heart. This type of circulation is known as single circulation.

1. How many types of circulatory pathways are present in the animal kingdom?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three
d) Four

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The circulatory pathways are of two major types-open circulatory systems
and closed circulatory system. The closed circulatory system is considered to be more
advantageous as the flow can be more precisely regulated.

2. How many chambers are present in the heart of crocodiles?

a) Two

b) Three

c) Four

d) Five

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: All vertebrates possess a muscular chambered heart. Amphibians and the
reptiles (except crocodiles) have a three-chambered heart while crocodiles, birds and
mammals possess a four-chambered heart.

3. Which of the following organisms show single circulation?

a) Fishes

b) Birds

c) Mammals

d) Reptiles

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood which is oxygenated by
the gills and is supplied to the body parts where deoxygenated blood is returned to the
heart. This type of circulation is known as single circulation.

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4. Which of the following organisms show incomplete double circulation?

a) Birds

b) Reptiles

c) Mammals

d) Crocodiles

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In amphibians and reptiles, the left atrium receives oxygenated blood from
the gills/lungs/skin and the right atrium gets deoxygenated blood from other body parts.
However, they get mixed up in the single ventricle which pumps out mixed blood and is
therefore known as incomplete double circulation.

5. Which of the following organisms do not show double circulation?

a) Birds

b) Mammals

c) Crocodiles

d) Reptiles

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: In crocodiles, birds and mammals, oxygenated and deoxygenated blood is

received by the left and right atrium respectively. The ventricles pump it out without any
mixing up, i.e., two separate circulatory pathways, hence these animals have double
circulation.

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6. The heart is an ectodermally derived organ.

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Heart is derived from the innermost germ layer i.e., mesoderm. It is
situated in the thoracic cavity, in between the two lungs and is slightly tilted to the left.
Skin, nails, lens of the eye, the mouth are all derived from ectoderm.

7. Which of the following is not included in the human circulatory system?

a) Heart

b) Blood vessels

c) Blood

d) Skin

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Human circulatory system which is also called a blood vascular system
consists of a muscular chambered heart, a network of closed branching blood vessels
and blood, the fluid which is circulated.

8. The heart is covered by a membranous bag of how many walls?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) It is not covered by a membranous bag

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Heart is protected by a double-walled membranous bag, pericardium,

enclosing the pericardial fluid which acts as a shock absorber. Our heart consists of
four chambers.

9. Which of the following walls separate the right and left atria?

a) Thin, intra-atrial septum

b) Thick, intra-atrial septum

c) Thick, inter-atrial septum

d) Thin, inter-atrial septum

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: A thin, muscular wall called as the inter-atrial septum separates the right
and the left atria, whereas a thick-walled, inter-ventricular septum separates the left
and the right ventricles.

10. The atrium and ventricle are separated by which of the following tissues?

a) Intra-ventricular wall

b) Atrio-ventricular septum

c) Inter-ventricular septum

d) Intra-atrial septum

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The atrium and ventricle of the same side are separated by a thick fibrous
tissue called the atrioventricular septum. However, each of these septa is provided with
an opening through which the two chambers of the same sides are connected.

11. Mitral valve is present between which of the following?

a) The left atrium and left ventricle

b) The right atrium and right ventricle

c) Left and right atrium

d) Left and right ventricles

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A bicuspid or mitral valve guards the opening between the left atrium and
the left ventricle. The opening between the right atrium and right ventricle is guarded by
a tricuspid valve.
12. Each artery and vein consists of two layers.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Each artery and vein consists of three layers: an inner lining of squamous
endothelium, a middle layer of smooth muscle and elastic fibres and an external layer
of fibrous connective tissue with collagen fibres.

13. What is the hepatic portal system?

a) The connection between the digestive tract and kidneys

b) The connection between the alimentary canal and heart

c) The connection between the alimentary canal and the brain

d) The connection between the alimentary canal and the liver

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: A unique vascular connection exists between the digestive tract and the
liver which is called a hepatic portal system. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from
intestine to the liver before it is delivered to the systemic circulation.

1. What is the diastolic blood pressure?

a) 120 mm Hg

b) 140 mm Hg

c) 90 mm Hg

d) 80 mm Hg

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury
pressure). The systolic pressure or pumping pressure is 120 mm Hg while the diastolic
pressure or resting pressure is 80 mm Hg.

2. What is the minimum blood pressure for hypertension?

a) 170/90 mm Hg

b) 130/70 mm Hg

c) 140/90 mm Hg

d) 120/80 mm Hg

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The normal blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury

pressure). Hypertension is also known as high blood pressure as the systolic and
diastolic pressures increase to 140/90 mm Hg.

3. What is CAD also known as?

a) Hypertension

b) Arteriosclerosis

c) Atherosclerosis

d) Angina

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: CAD or Coronary Artery Disease is also known as atherosclerosis. It occurs

in the coronary arteries, which supply blood to the heart muscles. It leads to the
narrowing of the arteria lumens.

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4. Which of these diseases make the lumen of arteries narrower?

a) Atherosclerosis

b) Hypertension
c) Angina

d) Heart failure

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Atherosclerosis or Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) leads to the narrowing of

the lumen of arteries. This occurs due to the deposition of cholesterol, fibrous tissue
and calcium in the coronary arteries.

5. Which of these are not deposited in the lumen of coronary arteries in CAD?

a) Calcium

b) Phosphorus

c) Fats

d) Fibrous tissue

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In CAD (Coronary Artery Disease), the lumens of the coronary arteries,
which supply blood to the heart muscles, becomes narrow. This happens due to the
deposition of cholesterol, fibrous tissue and calcium.

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6. What is acute chest pain known as?

a) Atherosclerosis

b) Hypertension

c) Angina pectoris

d) Heart failure

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Acute chest pain is also known as angina or angina pectoris. It occurs
when an adequate amount of oxygen does not reach the heart. Hence, the heart
muscles cannot function properly and this causes chest pain.

7. What causes angina pectoris?

a) Lack of oxygen in heart muscles

b) Increase in blood pressure

c) Deposition of phosphorus in blood vessels

d) Irregular heartbeat

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Angina pectoris or acute chest pain is a heart disease that occurs when an
adequate amount of oxygen does not reach the heart muscles. It is caused due to
factors which affect proper blood flow.

8. Which of these is a main symptom of congestive heart failure?

a) Heart stops beating

b) Increase in blood pressure

c) Acute chest pain

d) Congestion of the lungs

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Congestive heart failure is a heart disease which is characterized by the

heart not being able to pump blood adequately enough to meet the requirements of the
body. Congestion of the lungs is a main symptom of this disease.

9. Which of these is not a heart disease?

a) Hypertension

b) Angina pectoris

c) Celiac disease

d) Atherosclerosis
View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Hypertension or high blood pressure, angina pectoris or acute chest pain
and atherosclerosis or Coronary Artery Disease (CAD) are examples od heart disease.
Celiac disease is a disease of the digestive system.

10. Hypertension can cause kidney damage. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Hypertension or high blood pressure is when the blood pressure recorded
is 140/90 mm Hg and above. It can affect vital organs such as the brain and kidney.
Hence, hypertension can cause kidney damage.

Excretory Products and their Elimination

1. Which of the following is not accumulated by the body of living organisms?

a) Ammonia

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Urea

d) Oxygen

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Oxygen is not accumulated by the body of living organisms as this is

required by the cells to perform respiration. Also, it is not a waste product of the cells.
Animals accumulate ammonia, urea, uric acid, carbon dioxide, water, and ions like Na+,
K+, Cl–, phosphate, sulphate, etc., by certain metabolic activities.
2. Which of the following is not the major form of nitrogenous wastes?

a) Ammonia

b) Urea

c) Carbon dioxide

d) Uric acid

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Ammonia, urea, and uric acid are the major forms of nitrogenous wastes
excreted by the animals. These substances have to be removed totally or partially from
the body.

3. Which of the following is the most toxic form of nitrogenous waste?

a) Guanine

b) Ammonia

c) Urea

d) Uric acid

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Ammonia is the most toxic form of nitrogenous waste as it is corrosive.

Also, it requires large amounts of energy for its elimination. Ammonia also needs a huge
amount of water for its removal from the body.

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4. Ammonia is generally excreted through which of the following?

a) Kidneys

b) Gills

c) Lungs

d) Skin
View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Ammonia is generally excreted through the gills. It is generally excreted by

the diffusion across the body surfaces or through the gill surfaces as it is readily soluble.
Kidneys do not play a significant role in the elimination of ammonia.

5. The process of excreting ammonia is called as ureotelism.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

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6. Which of the following organisms is not ureotelic?

a) Bony fishes

b) Mammals

c) Terrestrial amphibians

d) Marine fishes

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Mammals, many terrestrial amphibians, and marine fishes mainly excrete
urea and are called as ureotelic animals. Terrestrial adaptations necessitated the
production of lesser toxic nitrogenous waste like urea.

7. In ureotelic organisms, ammonia is converted into which of the following?

a) Uric acid

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Remains as such

d) Urea

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: In ureotelic organisms, ammonia produced by metabolism is converted

into urea in the liver of these animals and released into the blood which is filtered and
excreted out by the kidneys.

8. Which of the following is not a uricotelic organism?

a) Mammals

b) Reptiles

c) Birds

d) Land snails

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Those organisms which secrete uric acid as a nitrogenous waste are
known as uricotelic organisms. Some uricotelic organisms are reptiles, birds, land
snails, and insects. They excrete uric acid in the form of a pellet or paste to conserve
water and to reduce the weight of the body because removal of uric acid requires a
minimum amount of water.

9. Which of the following is not a guanotelic organism?

a) Spiders

b) Scorpions

c) Starfish

d) Marine birds

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Guanotelic organisms are those organisms whose main excretory product
is guanine in the urine. These include spiders, scorpions, and some marine birds like an
arctic tern, etc.

10. Excretion of which of the following is for the adaptation of water conservation?
a) Ammonia

b) Urea

c) Uric acid

d) Carbon dioxide

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Excretion of uric acid is an adaptation for water conservation as uric acid is
least soluble in water and is formed by nucleic acid metabolism.

11. In most of the invertebrates, kidneys are present for excretion.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In most of the invertebrates, kidneys are not present for excretion. Their
excretory structures are simple tubular forms like nephridia, flame cells, etc. It is the
vertebrates who have complex tubular organs called kidneys.

12. Which of the following organism has flame cells for excretion?

a) Flatworms

b) Roundworms

c) Hookworms

d) Pinworms

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Flame cells are also known as protonephridia. These are the excretory
structures of flatworms like planaria, rotifers, some annelids and some
cephalochordates like the Amphioxus. Flame cells are the primitive forms of nephridia.
13. Which of the following phyla have nephridia as an excretory structure?

a) Arthropods

b) Annelids

c) Platyhelminthes

d) Ctenophora

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Nephridia are the tubular excretory structures of earthworms and other
annelids. Nephridia help to remove nitrogenous wastes and maintain a fluid and ionic
balance.

14. Malpighian tubules are the excretory structures of which of the following?

a) Insects

b) Flatworms

c) Roundworms

d) Crustaceans

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Malpighian tubules are the excretory structures of most of the insects
including cockroaches. Malpighian tubules help in the removal of nitrogenous wastes
and osmoregulation.

15. Which of the following are the excretory structures of crustaceans?

a) Nephridia

b) Protonephridia

c) Malpighian tubules

d) Antennal glands

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: Antennal glands or green glands perform the excretory function in

crustaceans like prawns. Protonephridia are the excretory structures which are
primarily concerned with ionic and fluid volume regulation.

1. Which of the following is not included in the excretory system of humans?

a) Cloaca

b) Kidneys

c) Ureters

d) Urethra

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In humans, the excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, one pair of
ureters, a urinary bladder, and urethra. Kidneys are reddish-brown and bean-shaped
structures.

2. Where are the kidneys situated?

a) Between the 7th and 10th ribs

b) Between the last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra

c) Between the 8th and 9th ribs

d) Between the first and second thoracic vertebra

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Kidneys are reddish-brown, bean-shaped structures situated between the

levels of the last thoracic and third lumbar vertebra close to the dorsal inner wall of the
abdominal cavity.

3. What is the average weight of a human kidney?

a) 40 g

b) 100 g

c) 120 g
d) 10 g

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Each kidney of an adult human measures for about 10-12 cm in length, 5-7
cm in width, and 2-3 cm in thickness with an average weight of 120-170 grams.

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4. Through which of the following nerves and blood vessels enter the kidneys?

a) Hilum

b) Tubules

c) Pelvis

d) Medulla

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Through the hilum, the nerves, the ureters and the blood vessels enter the
kidneys. The hilum is a notch which is present towards the centre of the inner concave
surface of the kidney.

5. Inside the kidney, there are three zones.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The outer layer of the kidney is a tough capsule. Inside the kidney, there are
two zones, an outer cortex, and an inner medulla. Inner to the hilum, a broad funnel-
shaped space is presently called the renal pelvis.

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6. Which of the following is responsible for the formation of Columns of Bertini?

a) Medulla

b) Renal pelvis

c) Calyces

d) Cortex

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Cortex is mainly responsible for the formation of columns of Bertini. The
portion of the cortex which extends in between the medullary pyramids as renal
columns form the columns of Bertini. The medulla region of the kidney is divided into a
few conical masses called medullary pyramids which project into the calyces.

1. Which of the following structure encloses glomerulus?

a) Bowman’s capsule

b) Medullary pyramids

c) Cortex

d) Renal capsule

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The renal tubule, Bowman’s capsule encloses the glomerulus. Bowman’s
capsule is a double-walled cup-like structure. Glomerulus along with Bowman’s
capsule is called a Malpighian body. The inner wall of Bowman’s capsule consists of a
special type of cells known as podocytes.

2. What is the full form of PCT?

a) Proximal Coronary Tube

b) Proximal Convoluted Tubule

c) Proximal Carotid Tube

d) Part Covering Thymus

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: PCT stands for Proximal Convoluted Tubule. The renal corpuscle continues
further to form a highly coiled network of PCT. Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium is
present in PCT.

3. Which of the following is succeeded by PCT?

a) Henle’s loop

b) Glomerulus

c) DCT

d) Collecting duct

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The highly coiled proximal convoluted tubule leads to a hairpin shaped
Henle’s loop which has a descending and an ascending limb. The ascending limb
continues further to another tubule.

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4. Where do the DCTs of nephrons open into?

a) PCT

b) Henle’s loop

c) Conducting duct

d) Glomerulus

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The ascending limb of Henle’s loop continues as another highly coiled
tubular region called distal convoluted tubule (DCT). The DCTs of many nephrons open
into a straight tube called collecting duct, many of which converge and open into the
renal pelvis through medullary pyramids in the calyces.
5. Which of the following is not situated in the cortical region of the kidney?

a) PCT

b) DCT

c) Malpighian corpuscle

d) Loop of Henle

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The loop of Henle is not situated in the cortical regions of the kidney as it is
that part of renal tubule which dips into the medulla. The Malpighian corpuscle, PCT,
and DCT are some parts of the nephron which are situated in the cortical regions of the
kidney.

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6. In the majority of nephrons, the loop of Henle is too large.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: In the majority of nephrons, the loop of Henle is too short and extends to a
very little extent into the medulla. Such nephrons are called cortical nephrons.

7. Where do the juxtamedullary nephrons dip?

a) Medullary pyramids

b) Calyces

c) Deep in the medulla

d) Renal pelvis

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: In some of the nephrons in the kidney, the loop of Henle is very long and
runs deep into the medulla. These nephrons dipping into the medullary region are
known as juxtamedullary nephrons.

8. The peritubular capillaries emerge from which of the following?

a) Efferent arteriole

b) Afferent arteriole

c) Henle’s loop

d) Renal artery

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The peritubular capillaries emerge from the efferent arteriole which initially
emerges out of glomerulus. This arteriole forms a fine capillary network around the
renal tubule which is known as peritubular capillaries. These capillaries further
surround the loop of Henle.

9. Which of the following runs parallel to the Henle’s loop?

a) Renal artery

b) Renal vein

c) Vasa recta

d) Ureters

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: A minute vessel of peritubular capillaries run parallel to the Henle’s loop
forming a U shaped vasa recta. Vasa recta are absent or highly reduced in cortical
nephrons.

1. Which of the following is not a process of urine formation?

a) Glomerular filtration

b) Reabsorption

c) Secretion
d) Excretion

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Urine formation involves three main processes namely, glomerular

filtration, reabsorption, and secretion, that take place in different parts of the nephron.

2. Which of the following is the first step towards urine formation?

a) Glomerular filtration

b) Ultrafiltration

c) Secretion

d) Reabsorption

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The first step in the urine formation is the filtration of blood, which is
carried out by the glomerulus and is therefore known as glomerular filtration.

3. On average, how much volume of blood is filtered by the kidneys per minute?

a) 100-150 ml

b) 500 ml

c) 1100-1200 ml

d) 5000 ml

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: On average, our kidneys filter 1100-1200 ml of blood every minute. This
blood that is filtered per minute constitutes for about 1/5 th of the total blood pumped
out by each ventricle of the heart in a minute. Therefore, we can say that the whole
blood of our body gets filtered in approximately 5 minutes.

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4. How many layers of glomerular epithelium are involved in the filtration of blood?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Three layers of the glomerular epithelium of the Malpighian corpuscle are
involved in the filtration of the blood. These layers include the endothelium of
glomerular blood vessels, the epithelium of Bowman’s capsule and a basement
membrane between these two layers.

5. Podocytes are present in the epithelial lining of PCT.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: No, the podocytes are not present in the epithelial lining of PCT. Instead,
the epithelial cells of the Bowman’s capsule are called podocytes. These cells are
arranged very closed to each other but some minute spaces are left between these cells
for the filtration to take place.

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6. Which of the following are not passed on to the lumen of Bowman’s capsule during
glomerular filtration?

a) Fat molecules

b) Glucose

c) Water

d) Proteins
View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Proteins are not passed on to the lumen of Bowman’s capsule during
glomerular filtration because the blood is filtered so finely through the podocytes of the
Bowman’s capsule that almost all the constituents of the plasma except the proteins
pass onto the lumen of Bowman’s capsule. This process of filtration of blood is known
as ultra-filtration.

7. What is the percentage of cortical nephrons concerning the total nephrons present in
the kidneys?

a) 75-80%

b) 50%

c) 15-20%

d) 95%

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Cortical nephrons constitute for about 75-80% of the total nephrons
present in the kidneys. These nephrons have reduced Henle’s loop and vasa recta.
Sometimes both of them may be absent.

8. Which of the following type of nephrons are prominently present in the desert
mammals?

a) Cortical nephrons

b) No nephrons are present

c) Medullary nephrons

d) Juxta-medullary nephrons

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: In desert mammals, juxtamedullary nephrons are present because they
have a very long loop of Henle which helps in the reabsorption of water as more as
possible.

9. What is the full form of GFR?

a) Glomerulus filtering unit

b) Glomerular filtration rate

c) Globulin fast rate

d) Globulin filtering rate

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: GFR stands for the Glomerular filtration rate. It is the amount of the filtrate
formed by the kidneys per minute. It plays an important role in determining the health
status of the kidneys.

10. In approximately how many minutes, the whole blood of the body is filtered through
the kidneys?

a) 10 minutes

b) 7 minutes

c) 4-5 minutes

d) 2 minutes

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: As we know that our kidney filters approximately 1100-1200 ml of the blood
per minute and our cardiac output is 5 times this volume, therefore our kidneys take
approximately 4-5 minutes to filter the whole blood of the body.

11. Which of the following pair of amino acids are removed by the ornithine cycle?

a) CO2 and H2O

b) H2O and O2

c) CO2 and urea

d) Ammonia and CO2

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: CO2 and ammonia are a pair of waste substances removed from the blood
during the ornithine cycle. The most abundant, harmful, and universal waste product of
metabolism is CO2.

12. Urea formation takes place in the adipocytes.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Urea formation takes place in the hepatocytes of the liver. The cycle of the
formation of urea is called an ornithine cycle of the urea cycle or the Krebs-Henseleit
cycle.

1. PCT is lined by which of the following cells?

a) Brush border columnar cells

b) Brush border cuboidal cells

c) Ciliated cuboidal cells

d) Ciliated columnar cells

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium which increases
the surface area for reabsorption. Nearly all of the essential nutrients are reabsorbed
here.

2. Which of the following is not reabsorbed in the PCT segment?

a) Water

b) Glucose
c) HCO3–

d) H+

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Nearly all the essential nutrients, 70-80% of electrolytes and water are
reabsorbed by this segment. Absorption of HCO3– also takes place here.

3. Which of the following is not correct regarding PCT?

a) It does not maintain the pH

b) It maintains the ionic balance of the body

c) It absorbs HCO3– ions

d) It secretes potassium ions

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: PCT is responsible for maintaining the pH of the body fluids. It is also
responsible for maintaining the ionic balance of the body fluids by selective secretion of
hydrogen ions, ammonia, and potassium ions into the filtrate. It also absorbs HCO3–
ions to maintain the ionic balance.

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4. In which renal tubule, the reabsorption is minimum?

a) Descending limb of Henle’s loop

b) Glomerulus

c) Collecting tubule

d) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Reabsorption of water is minimum in ascending limb of Henle’s loop as it
is impermeable to water which means that it does not allow the movement of water
through itself.

5. The descending loop of Henle is impermeable to water.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The descending limb of the loop of Henle is permeable to water. It means
that water can easily pass the loop. But the descending limb is almost impermeable to
electrolytes which means it does not allow the movement of electrolytes through itself.

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6. How does the ascending loop of Henle allow the movement of electrolytes?

a) Only active transport

b) Only passive transport

c) By both active and passive transport

d) Only by diffusion

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The ascending limb of Henle’s loop is impermeable to water but allows the
transport of electrolytes actively or passively. Moreover, the width of this tubule also
varies as it has a thin segment and a thick segment of the ascending limb.

7. What happens when the filtrate passes through the ascending loop of Henle?

a) It gets dilute

b) It gets concentrated

c) No effect

d) It reverts back

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: As the ascending limb is impermeable to water, therefore as the

concentrated filtrate from the descending limb passes upwards, then it gets diluted due
to the passage of electrolytes to the medullary fluid.

8. Which of the following is reabsorbed completely in the PCT?

a) Amino acids

b) Glucose

c) Ascorbic acid

d) Sodium ions

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Glucose is reabsorbed completely in the PCT by active transport. 70-80%

of water is reabsorbed by osmosis while 70% sodium, potassium, and calcium ions are
actively transported.

9. Is the nephric filtrate present in which segment of the renal tubule is isotonic to
plasma?

a) Collecting duct

b) Collecting tubule

c) PCT

d) DCT

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The nephric filtrate present in the PCT is isotonic to blood plasma i.e. 300
mOsmol/L. In PCT, there is obligatory reabsorption of water, i.e., absorption without the
influence of any hormone.

10. Which of the following does not show maximum osmolarity?

a) Tip of Henle’s loop

b) Interstitial fluid

c) PCT

d) Collecting duct

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The tip of Henle’s loop, interstitial fluid, and collecting duct show
maximum osmolarity i.e. 1200 mOsmol/L. All of these structures are present in the
inner medullary regions of the kidney.

1. In which of the following segments, conditional reabsorption of sodium ions take

place?

a) PCT

b) DCT

c) Collecting duct

d) Henle’s loop

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Conditional reabsorption of sodium ions and water takes place in the
distal convoluted tubule. This segment is also capable of the reabsorption of HCO3–
ions.

2. Which of the following segments are responsible for maintaining the sodium-
potassium balance?

a) Ascending loop of Henle

b) Descending loop of Henle

c) DCT

d) Glomerulus

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Selective secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions and ammonia
maintain the pH and also the sodium-potassium balance in the body by reabsorption of
bicarbonate ions.

3. The collecting duct extends from the cortex of the kidney to which of the following
parts?

a) Outer parts of medulla

b) Inner parts of medulla

c) Into the medullary pyramids

d) Into the renal pelvis

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The collecting duct is a long duct which extends from the cortex of the
kidney to the inner parts of the medulla. Large amounts of water can also be reabsorbed
through this segment.

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4. Which of the following segments can allow the passage of urea through them?

a) Collecting duct

b) PCT

c) DCT

d) Henle’s loop

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Through the collecting duct, large amounts of water can be reabsorbed to
produce concentrated urine. This segment also allows the passage of small amounts of
urea into the medullary interstitium to keep up the osmolarity.

5. The collecting duct plays no role in secretion.

a) True
b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Collecting duct plays a significant role, along with PCT and DCT in the
secretion of hydrogen and potassium ions to maintain the pH and ionic balance of the
blood.

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6. What are diuretics?

a) Substances which increase the urine formation

b) Substances which decrease the urine formation

c) Substances which increase the glucose content in the urine

d) Substances which change the colour of the urine

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Diuretics are substances that produce more urine output. These include
tea, alcohol, coffee, etc. These substances suppress the release of anti-diuretic
hormone.

7. Which of the following is called a salt retaining hormone?

a) ANF

b) ADH

c) Oxytocin

d) Aldosterone

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Aldosterone is secreted by the adrenal cortex and is also known as the salt
retaining hormone because its main function is the reabsorption of NaCl in blood and
excretion of potassium ions in the blood.
8. Hyposecretion of ADH causes which of the following diseases?

a) Diabetes mellitus

b) Diabetes insipidus

c) Addison’s disease

d) Simmonds’s disease

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Hyposecretion of Anti-diuretic hormone causes diabetes insipidus, i.e.,

urine without glucose. Hyposecretion of aldosterone causes Addison’s disease which is
characterized by the darkening of the skin.

9. What happens due to the increase of sodium ions in the blood?

a) Increase in blood pressure

b) A decrease in blood pressure

c) Increase in the solubility of nitrogen

d) A decrease in solubility of sodium ions

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: More sodium ions in the blood or fewer potassium ions in the blood lead to
increased blood pressure and blood volume. This condition can be a symptom of the
hypersecretion of the salt retaining hormone, i.e., aldosterone.

10. What happens when there is an increase in sodium ions in the urine?

a) Increase in blood pressure

b) Increase in blood volume

c) A decrease in blood pressure

d) A decrease in the solubility of sodium ions

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: More sodium ions in the urine or fewer potassium ions in the urine can
lead to a decrease in blood pressure and blood volume. This can be due to the
hyposecretion of Aldosterone.

11. Macula densa of DCT are sensitive to magnesium ions.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Macula densa of DCT is sensitive to NaCl. These are the cells of DCT
epithelium which are in contact with the arteriolar wall and are denser than other
epithelial cells.

12. Juxtaglomerular cells are the modifications of which of the following?

a) Smooth muscle cells

b) Skeletal muscle cells

c) Adipocytes

d) Areolar cells

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Juxtaglomerular cells are modified smooth muscle cells of the afferent
renal arteriole which secrete renin. This renin is a hormone cum enzyme. It goes from
the kidney to the liver. When the liver detects renin, then it releases angiotensinogen
which changes into angiotensin I.

13. What is the myogenic mechanism of the kidney?

a) As blood pressure increases, arteries get constricted

b) As blood pressure decreases, arteries get dilated

c) As blood pressure increases, efferent renal arteriole dilates

d) As blood pressure increases, afferent renal arteriole dilates

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Myogenic mechanism of the kidney is the main mechanism to regulate the
glomerular filtration rate. As the blood pressure increases, the efferent renal arteriole
gets dilated and hence reduces the blood pressure.

14. Which of the following organs does not help in the elimination of excretory wastes?

a) Skin

b) Lungs

c) Liver

d) Heart

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Other than kidneys, lungs, liver, and skin also helps in the elimination of
excretory wastes. Our lungs remove large amounts of CO2 and also significant
quantities of water every day.

1. Which of the following plays a significant role in the concentration of urine?

a) Henle’s loop and vasa recta

b) PCT and DCT

c) Glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule

d) Collecting duct and tubule

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Mammals can produce concentrated urine. The Henle’s loop and vasa
recta present in the mammals play a significant role in the concentration of the urine.

2. What is meant by counter-current?

a) When blood flows in the opposite direction in two limbs of the Henle’s loop
b) When the blood flows in the same direction in two limbs of the Henle’s loop

c) When the blood does not flow through any of the limbs of Henle’s loop

d) When some blood flows in Henle’s loop and the other blood flows in the vasa recta

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: As the flow of filtrate in the two limbs of Henle’s loop is in opposite
directions, therefore it forms a counter current. The flow of blood through the two limbs
of the vasa recta is also in a counter-current pattern.

3. What is the significance of the proximity of Henle’s loop and vasa recta?

a) Maintains osmolarity

b) Maintains the concentration of only water

c) For reabsorption of nutrients

d) No proximity at all

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The proximity between the Henle’s loop and vasa recta, as well as the
counter-current in them, help in maintaining an increasing osmolarity towards the inner
medullary interstitium.

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4. What is the osmolarity of the urine in the cortex?

a) 300 mOsmol/L

b) 600 mOsmol/L

c) 900 mOsmol/L

d) 1200 mOsmol/L

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The osmolarity of the filtrate in the cortex is about 300 mOsmol/L while in
the inner medulla it is 1200 mOsmol/L. In the inner medulla, urine is four times more
concentrated than the initial filtrate.

5. The gradient of osmolarity is mainly caused by NaCl.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The osmotic gradient is mainly caused by NaCl and urea. NaCl is
transported by the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the
descending limb of the vasa recta.

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6. Which of the following returns NaCl into the interstitium?

a) Ascending loop of Henle

b) Descending loop of Henle

c) Ascending portion of the vasa recta

d) Descending portion of the vasa recta

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: NaCl is returned to the interstitium by the ascending portion of the vasa
recta. Just like NaCl, small amounts of urea are also transported back to the interstitial
fluid by the collecting tubule.

7. Which of the following structure make the countercurrent mechanism?

a) Henle’s loop and glomerulus

b) PCT and DCT

c) Henle’s loop and vasa recta

d) Vasa recta and collecting duct

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The specialized arrangement of Henle’s loop and vasa recta which
enhances the transport of substances and helps in concentrating the urine is known as
counter-current mechanism.

8. Which of the following is not a feature of a counter-current mechanism?

a) Helps in maintaining the concentration gradient

b) Helps in making the passage of water easier

c) Helps in concentrating the urine

d) Helps in diluting the urine

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Countercurrent mechanism helps to maintain a concentration gradient in

the medullary interstitium. The presence of such an interstitial gradient helps in easy
passage of water from the collecting tubule and therefore helps in concentrating the
urine.

9. Which of the following are not involved in the monitoring of kidneys?

a) Hypothalamus

b) Heart

c) Eyes

d) JGA

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The functioning of the kidneys is efficiently monitored and regulated by the
hormonal feedback mechanisms involving the hypothalamus, JGA, and to a certain
extent, the heart.

10. Osmoreceptors in the body is not directly activated by which of the following?
a) Ionic concentration

b) Blood volume

c) Body fluid volume

d) Blood pressure

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Osmoreceptors in the body are directly activated by changes in the blood
volume, body fluid volume, and ionic concentration. An excessive loss of fluid from the
body can activate these receptors

1. Which of these are not involved in the regulation of kidney function?

a) Hypothalamus

b) Heart

c) JGA

d) Spleen

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The functions of the kidneys are regulated by several organs of the body,
such as the hypothalamus, the heart and the JGA or the juxtaglomerular apparatus, and
some of their hormones.

2. Which of these do not activate osmoreceptors?

a) Blood volume

b) Body fluid volume

c) Homoeostasis

d) Ionic concentration

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Osmoreceptors are activated by the blood volume, the body fluid volume
and the ionic concentration. When these elements are within the normal range, or
during homeostasis, the osmoreceptors are not active.

3. What is another name for ADH?

a) Oxytocin

b) Noradrenaline

c) Vasopressin

d) Ghrelin

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Another name for ADH or the antidiuretic hormone is vasopressin. It is

released from the pituitary gland. The functions of ADH or vasopressin include
prevention of diuresis and increasing blood pressure.

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4. Where is vasopressin released from?

a) Neurohypophysis

b) Pineal gland

c) Adrenal gland

d) Pancreas

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Vasopressin or the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released from the

neurohypophysis or the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Oxytocin is also released
from here. ADH prevents diuresis.

5. Which of these is not a function of ADH?

a) Stimulates water reabsorption

b) Decreases blood pressure

c) Prevents diuresis

d) Decreases perspiration

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: ADH or the antidiuretic hormone is also known as vasopressin.

Vasopressin stimulates water reabsorption from the kidneys, prevents diuresis,
decreases perspiration and increases blood pressure.

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6. Which of these hormones do not lead to the constriction of blood vessels?

a) Epinephrine

b) Angiotensin II

c) ANF

d) ADH

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Epinephrine, which is released from the adrenal medulla, ADH or

vasopressin, which is released from the posterior pituitary gland and angiotensin II lead
to the constriction of blood vessels. They are vasoconstrictors.

7. Which of the following can increase GFR?

a) Increase in blood pressure

b) Decrease in blood pressure

c) Increased Bowman’s capsule hydrostatic pressure

d) Ureteral constriction

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: GFR or the glomerular filtration rate of the kidneys can be increased by
increasing the blood pressure. The higher the pressure with which blood flows through
the glomerulus, the higher is the rate of filtration.

8. On which of these does ADH act upon?

a) Glomerulus

b) Loop of Henle

c) PCT

d) Collecting duct

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: ADH or the antidiuretic hormone acts upon the latter parts of the nephron
to increase reabsorption and prevent diuresis. Hence, ADH or vasopressin mainly acts
upon the DCT and the collecting duct.

9. A fall in GFR can stimulate the juxtaglomerular cells to release which hormone from
the kidney?

a) Angiotensinogen

b) ADH

c) Renin

d) Angiotensin I

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: A fall in the GFR or the glomerular filtration rate leads to the release of
renin from the kidney. Renin converts the inactive angiotensinogen present in blood to
its active form, angiotensin I.

10. Aldosterone decreases the reabsorption of sodium ions. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Aldosterone is a hormone which is released from the adrenal cortex. It

increases the reabsorption of sodium ions and water from the latter parts of the
nephrons, such as the DCT and the collecting tube.

11. Which of these hormones converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I?

a) Aldosterone

b) ADH

c) Angiotensin II

d) Renin

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Renin is a hormone released by the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney

when there is a fall in the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). It converts the inactive
angiotensinogen present in blood to angiotensin I.

12. Which of these hormones activates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone?

a) ADH

b) Angiotensinogen

c) Angiotensin II

d) Angiotensin I

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: When the GFR decreases, the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney release
renin, which converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I and further to angiotensin II.
Angiotensin II activates the adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.

13. Which of these hormones can decrease blood pressure?

a) Epinephrine

b) ADH
c) ANF

d) Angiotensin II

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Angiotensin II, epinephrine and ADH or the antidiuretic hormone or

vasopressin are vasoconstrictors. They can increase blood pressure. ANF or the Atrial
Natriuretic Factor is a vasodilator and can decrease blood pressure.

14. Which of these hormones acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism?

a) ANF

b) ADH

c) Renin

d) Angiotensinogen

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: ANF or the Atrial Natriuretic Factor is a vasodilator and can decrease blood
pressure. It acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism that is activated when
the glomerular filtration rate decreases.

15. Where is aldosterone released from?

a) Pituitary gland

b) Adrenal cortex

c) Pineal gland

d) Adrenal medulla

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Aldosterone is released from the zona glomerulosa of the adrenal cortex. It
is a mineralocorticoid hormone that increases the reabsorption of sodium ions and
water from the distal parts of the nephron.
1. Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until which of the following?

a) A voluntary signal from the CNS

b) An involuntary signal from the CNS

c) A voluntary signal from the ANS

d) An involuntary signal from the ANS

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Urine is stored in the urinary bladder until a voluntary signal comes from
the Central nervous system. The receptors present on the urinary bladder receive these
signals.

2. Which of the following initiates the voluntary signal given by CNS?

a) Loosening of stretch receptors in the urinary bladder

b) Stretching of the urinary bladder

c) Movement of the urinary bladder

d) Movement of urethra

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The signal given by CNS is initiated by the stretching of the urinary bladder
as it gets filled with the urine. In response, the stretch receptors on the walls of the
bladder send signals to the CNS.

3. Which of the following sphincters cause the release of the urine?

a) Cardiac sphincter

b) Pyloric sphincter

c) Urethral sphincter

d) Oesophageal sphincter

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Urethral sphincter causes the release of urine to the outside of the body.
This process starts when the central nervous system passes on the motor messages to
the smooth muscles of the bladder. This signal initiates their contraction.
Simultaneously, relaxation of the urethral sphincter takes place which causes the
release of the urine.

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4. What is the process of excreting urine known as?

a) Diuresis

b) Polyuria

c) Defaecation

d) Micturition

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The process of release of urine is called micturition and the neural
mechanisms causing it is called micturition reflex. An adult human excretes about 1 to
1.5 litres of urine per day.

5. The urine formed is brownish.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The urine formed is a light yellow coloured watery fluid that is slightly
acidic and has a characteristic odour. On average, 25-30 grams of urea is excreted out
per day.

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6. The presence of ketone bodies is an indication of which of the following diseases?

a) Diabetes mellitus

b) Diabetes insipidus

c) High blood cholesterol

d) Liver Cirrhosis

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Analysis of urine helps in the clinical diagnosis of many metabolic

disorders. For example, the presence of glucose or Glycosuria and ketone bodies or
Ketonuria in urine is indicative of diabetes mellitus.

7. What is uraemia?

a) Accumulation of sodium ions in the blood

b) Accumulation of potassium ions in the blood

c) Accumulation of urea in the blood

d) Accumulation of ammonia in the blood

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Malfunctioning of kidneys can lead to the accumulation of urea in blood, a

condition known as uraemia, which is highly harmful and may lead to kidney failure.

8. What is haemodialysis?

a) Removal of ammonia in the blood by artificial means

b) Removal of potassium ions in the blood by artificial means

c) Removal of sodium ions in the blood by artificial means

d) Removal of urea in the blood by artificial means

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Urea from blood can be removed by artificial means if a person is not able
to excrete out urea. It is removed by a process called haemodialysis in which blood is
drained from a convenient artery into a dialysing unit called an artificial kidney.

9. The dialysing fluid has all of the following except?

a) Nitrogenous wastes

b) Proteins

c) Electrolytes

d) Glucose

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Nitrogenous wastes are not present in the dialysing fluid. The dialysing unit
after the addition of an anticoagulant like heparin contains a coiled cellophane tube
surrounded by a fluid which proteins, electrolytes and glucose (almost same as that of
the plasma) except for the fact that it does not have nitrogenous wastes.

10. What is the significance of the porous nature of the cellophane membrane?

a) It does not allow the movement of molecules

b) It does not allow the movement of water

c) It allows the molecules based on their concentration gradient

d) It allows only water molecules

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The porous membrane of the cellophane tube of the dialysing unit allows
the passage or movement of molecules, based on their concentration gradient. As
nitrogenous wastes are not present in the dialysing fluid, therefore these wastes
passively move out from our blood and hence filtering it.

11. Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute renal
failures.

a) True

b) False
View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Kidney transplantation is the ultimate method in the correction of acute

renal failures or kidney failures. A functioning kidney is used in the transplantation from
a donor, preferably a close relative to avoid rejection by the immune system of the host.

12. What is the inflammation of the glomeruli of the kidney referred to?

a) Cystitis

b) Nephritis

c) Glomerulonephritis

d) Pyelonephritis

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Inflammation of glomeruli is referred to as glomerulonephritis. The

inflammation of urinary bladder, nephron, and pelvis of the kidney is referred to as
Cystitis, Nephritis, and Pyelonephritis respectively.

13. Which of the following is the term given to the condition of RBCs in urine?

a) Haematuria

b) Pyuria

c) Haemoglobinuria

d) Proteinuria

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: When RBCs are present in the urine then it is termed as haematuria. The
presence of white blood cells, haemoglobin and proteins are termed as pyuria,
haemoglobinuria, and proteinuria respectively.

14. Which of the following is not a symptom of diabetes mellitus?

a) Ketonuria
b) Glycosuria

c) Renal calculi

d) Polyphagia

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Diabetes mellitus is due to the deficiency of insulin due to which the
glucose level increases in the blood. The symptoms include Ketonuria, glycosuria,
polyuria, polyphagia, and polydipsia.

Locomotion and Movement

1. How many types of movement do the cells of the human body exhibit?

a) 4

b) 1

c) 2

d) 3

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The human body has various types of cells which have different
morphologies and perform specific functions. The cells have mainly three types of
movement- amoeboid, ciliary and muscular.

2. Which of these is not a type of movement mainly shown by cells of the human body?

a) Amoeboid

b) Ciliary

c) Flagellar

d) Muscular

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The human body has various types of cells which perform various
functions. The most common types of movements seen are amoeboid, ciliary and
muscular. Flagellar locomotion is rare in human cells.

3. Which of these cells can be found in blood?

a) Islet cells

b) Zymogenic cells

c) Macrophages

d) Thymocytes

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Macrophages can be found in blood as well as in various tissues of the

body. They are phagocytic cells that show amoeboid movement. Macrophages can
especially be found at sites of infection.

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4. Which of these cells show amoeboid movement?

a) Macrophages

b) Ciliated epithelia

c) Columnar epithelia

d) Squamous epithelia

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Macrophages show amoeboid movement. They can be found in blood as

well as in various tissues of the body. Epithelia do not usually show such movement.
Ciliated epithelia show ciliary movement.

5. Which blood corpuscle exhibits amoeboid locomotion?

a) Erythrocytes

b) Leucocytes

c) Thrombocytes

d) Blood platelets

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The three types of blood corpuscles are erythrocytes or red blood cells,
leucocytes or white blood cells and thrombocytes or blood platelets. Leucocytes or
white blood cells show amoeboid movement.

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6. Which of these structures is used to carry out amoeboid movement?

a) Pili

b) Flagella

c) Pseudopodia

d) Cilia

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The human body has various types of cells which perform various
functions. The most common types of movements seen are amoeboid, ciliary and
muscular. Amoeboid movement is carried out by pseudopodia.

7. Where does pseudopodia arise from?

a) Protoplasm

b) Nucleoplasm

c) Cell membrane

d) Nuclear membrane

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The most common types of movements seen in cells of the human body
are amoeboid, ciliary and muscular. Amoeboid movement is carried out by
pseudopodia, which are formed from the protoplasm.

8. Which of these cells do not use pseudopodia?

a) Macrophages

b) Amoeba

c) Entamoeba histolytica

d) Sperm cells

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Entamoeba histolytica, amoeba and macrophages show amoeboid

movement. Hence, they make use of pseudopodia to carry out their movement.
However, sperm cells do not locomote using pseudopodia.

9. Which of these structures are involved in amoeboid movement?

a) Cilia

b) Pili

c) Microfilaments

d) Flagella

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The most common types of movements seen in cells of the human body
are amoeboid, ciliary and muscular. Amoeboid movement makes use of pseudopodia
and cytoskeletal elements such as microfilaments.

10. Epithelia of the trachea show ciliary movement. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The inner surface of the trachea is lined by ciliary epithelium. Ciliary
epithelium shows ciliary movement. This movement drives the dust particles which are
inhaled by us, away from the lungs.

11. Which of these do not show ciliary movement?

a) Inner lining of trachea

b) Oviducts

c) Vasa efferentia

d) Vas deferens

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The ciliated epithelium of the inner surface of the trachea, the movement
of ova through the oviducts and the vasa efferentia show ciliary movement. The vas
deferens does not show ciliary movement.

12. The passage of ova through oviducts involves what type of movement?

a) Muscular

b) Flagellar

c) Ciliary

d) Amoeboid

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The most common types of movements seen in cells of the human body
are amoeboid, ciliary and muscular. The passage of ova through oviducts involves
ciliary movement due to the presence of cili

1. Which of these do not involve flagellar movement?

a) Swimming of spermatozoa

b) Maintenance of water current in sponges

c) Locomotion of some protozoans

d) Movement of macrophages in blood

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The movement of macrophages in blood does not involve the use of
flagella. Macrophages are phagocytic in nature and are a part of the immune system.
They show amoeboid movement.

2. What percentage of body weight of an adult human is contributed by muscles?

a) 20-30%

b) 10-20%

c) 40-50%

d) 30-40%

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: 40-50% of the total body weight of an adult human is contributed by

muscles. Muscles are required for numerous processes of the body in order to survive
and locomote. They are of mesodermal origin.

3. Which of these is not a property of muscles?

a) Extensibility

b) Excitability

c) Degradability

d) Elasticity

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: 40-50% of the total body weight of an adult human is contributed by

muscles. Muscles have several properties such as elasticity, extensibility, excitability
and contractibility. Degradability is not a property.
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4. Which of these is not a basis of classification for muscles?

a) Excitability

b) Appearance

c) Location

d) Regulation of activities

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Muscles have several properties such as elasticity, extensibility, excitability

and contractibility. Muscles can be classified on the basis of appearance, location and
regulation of activities.

5. Which of these statements is not true regarding skeletal muscles?

a) They are also called voluntary muscles

b) They help in the movement of food through the oesophagus

c) They have striations

d) They are involved in changing of body posture

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Skeletal muscles are also known as voluntary muscles. They have
striations and are also known as striated muscles. They are involved in changing of body
posture but not in the movement of food through the oesophagus.

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6. Which of these is not a characteristic of cardiac muscles?

a) They work continuously

b) They are branched

c) They are not striated

d) They are involuntary

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Cardiac muscles are the muscles of the heart. Cardiac muscles are
involuntary muscles that work continuously to pump blood throughout the body. They
are branched and are striated in appearance.

7. What is fascia made of?

a) Collagen

b) Keratin

c) Microtubules

d) Muscle fibres

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Fascia is a layer of connective tissue that surrounds the fascicles or

muscle bundles in a muscle. It is made out of collagen. Each muscle bundle contains a
number of muscle fibres or muscle cells.

1. What is present in the centre of each ‘I’ band?

a) ‘H’ line

b) ‘A’ line

c) ‘M’ line

d) ‘Z’ line

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The ‘I’ band or the isotropic band is also known as the light band. It
contains the protein actin. The ‘Z’ line is present in the centre of each ‘I’ band which
bisects it. The ‘Z’ line is an elastic fibre.

2. Which of these structures holds myosin filaments together?

a) ‘H’ line

b) ‘A’ line

c) ‘M’ line

d) ‘Z’ line

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The myosin filaments or the thick filaments are held together by the ‘M’
line. The ‘M’ line is present in the middle of the ‘A’ band or the anisotropic band or the
dark band, and is thin and fibrous.

3. Which of these is found at the two ends of a sarcomere?

a) ‘H’ line

b) ‘A’ line

c) ‘M’ line

d) ‘Z’ line

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The two ends of a sarcomere or a contractile unit of a muscle is marked by

the presence of ‘Z’ lines. It contains one whole ‘A’ band or anisotropic band and half of
an ‘I’ band or isotropic band.

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4. Which of these is not a component of the thin filament?

a) LMM

b) Tropomyosin

c) Troponin

d) ‘F’ actin

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The thin filament or the actin filament is composed of two filaments of ‘F’
actin wound helically to each other. ‘F’ actin is a polymer of monomeric ‘G’ actins. The
proteins troponin and tropomyosin are also present.

5. What is present in the globular head of meromyosin?

a) Troponin

b) ATPase

c) Tropomyosin

d) LMM

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Each thick filament is made of meromyosins, which are monomeric

proteins. Each meromyosin has a globular head with a short arm and a tail. The globular
head of the meromyosin is an ATPase.

1. Which of these is not a function of the skeletal system?

a) Mineral storage

b) Protection of organs

c) Movement

d) Metabolism

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The skeletal system is made of bones and cartilages. The skeletal system
has several important functions, which include storage of minerals, protection of vital
organs, support and movement.

2. What type of tissue is cartilage?

a) Muscular

b) Epithelial
c) Connective

d) Nervous

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The skeletal system is made of bones and cartilages. Both bones and
cartilages are specialised connective tissues. Cartilages have a slightly pliable matrix,
unlike bones, which possess a hard matrix.

3. The presence of what makes the matrix of bones hard?

a) Phosphate salts

b) Chondroitin salts

c) Calcium salts

d) Sodium salts

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The bones and cartilages that make up our skeletal system are specialised
connective tissues. The matrix of bones is hard due to the presence of calcium salts,
while that of cartilage is slightly pliable.

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4. The presence of what makes the matrix of cartilages slightly pliable?

a) Chondroitin salts

b) Phosphate salts

c) Calcium salts

d) Sodium salts

View Answer

Answer: a
Explanation: The bones and cartilages that make up our skeletal system are specialised
connective tissues. The presence of chondroitin salts in the matrix of cartilages is what
makes the matrix slightly pliable.

5. How many bones do we have?

a) 273

b) 270

c) 206

d) 201

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The human body has 206 bones. However, at birth, the human body
possesses 270 bones. As we grow up, some of the bones fuse together and hence the
number of bones decreases from 270 to 206.

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6. How many bones are present in the axial skeleton?

a) 126

b) 65

c) 80

d) 106

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The bones of the skeletal system are divided into two parts-the axial
skeleton and the appendicular skeleton. The axial skeleton consists of 80 bones. These
bones are present along the main axis of the body.

7. Which of these bones are not a part of the axial skeleton?

a) Clavicle

b) Skull

c) Sternum
d) Ribs

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The bones of the skeletal system are divided into two parts- the axial
skeleton and the appendicular skeleton. The skull, sternum, vertebral column and ribs
make up the axial skeleton of the body.

8. How many facial bones does the skull possess?

a) 22

b) 8

c) 12

d) 14

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The skull is made up of 22 bones. These bones are classified into two
categories- the cranial bones and the facial bones. There are 8 cranial bones and 22
facial bones. The facial bones form the front part of the skull.

9. What is the shape of the hyoid bone?

a) S – shape

b) L – shape

c) U – shape

d) C – shape

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The hyoid bone is a U – shaped bone which is located at the base of the
buccal cavity. It is a single bone and is included along with the bones of the skull. The
skull possesses a total of 22 bones.

10. The inner ear contains three bones-Malleus, Incus and Stapes. True or false?
a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The middle ear consists of the three bones- Malleus, Incus and Stapes.
They are also called the hammer, anvil and stirrup, respectively. The Malleus, Incus and
Stapes are collectively called the ear ossicles.

11. How many occipital condyles do humans possess?

a) 4

b) 1

c) 3

d) 2

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Humans possess two occipital condyles. Hence, humans have a

dicondylic skull. The function of the occipital condyles is to articulate the skull region
with the superior region of the vertebral column.

12. How many vertebrae do humans possess?

a) 33

b) 30

c) 26

d) 22

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Humans possess 26 vertebrae in the vertebral column. These vertebrae are
divided into five different regions, namely the cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5),
sacral (1-fused) and coccygeal (1-fused) regions.
1. How many lumbar vertebrae are present in the vertebral column?

a) 7

b) 12

c) 1

d) 5

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Humans possess 26 vertebrae in the vertebral column. These vertebrae are
divided into five different regions, namely the cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5),
sacral (1-fused) and coccygeal (1-fused) regions.

2. Which of these is not a function of the vertebral column?

a) Supports the head

b) Protects the spinal cord

c) Protects the vital organs

d) Point of attachment for ribs

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The vertebral column has several important functions, which include
protection of the spinal cord and providing support to the head. It also serves as a point
of attachment for ribs. It does not protect all vital organs.

3. In which region is the sternum present?

a) Cervical

b) Lumbar

c) Thoracic

d) Coccygeal

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The sternum or the breast bone is present in the thoracic region. It is a flat
bone that is present in the midline of the thorax. The sternum is present ventrally in the
body and helps in the attachment of ribs.

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4. How many true ribs are present in the human body?

a) 7 pairs

b) 8 pairs

c) 9 pairs

d) 10 pairs

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The human body has 12 pairs of ribs. They articulate with the vertebral
column dorsally and with the sternum ventrally with the help of hyaline cartilage. First
seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs.

5. With what are the ribs connected to the vertebral column?

a) Elastic cartilage

b) Hyaline cartilage

c) Fibro cartilage

d) Tendons

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The human body has 12 pairs of ribs. The ribs articulate with the vertebral
column dorsally and with the sternum ventrally with the help of hyaline cartilage.
Hyaline cartilage is a precursor of bone.

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6. Which of these is not a component of the rib cage?

a) Vertebral column

b) Ribs

c) Spinal cord

d) Sternum

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The rib cage is formed out of skeletal structures, namely, the vertebral
column, the ribs and the sternum. The spinal cord which runs through the vertebral
column and is not a part of the rib cage.

7. What is the number of bones in each limb?

a) 30

b) 36

c) 26

d) 22

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The number of bones in each limb is 30. The bones of all the limbs, along
with their girdles, make up the appendicular skeleton. The appendicular and the axial
skeleton are the two divisions of the skeletal system.

1. Which of these is not a function of joints?

a) Articulations

b) Allows bone growth

c) Enables mobility

d) Supports body

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: Joints are found between bones. Their functions include articulations of
bones to each, permitting bones to grow, and enabling movement and locomotion.
Joints do not support the body like bones do.

2. Which of these are the point of contact between bones and cartilage?

a) Tendons

b) Ligaments

c) Joints

d) Fascia

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Joints are found between bones and between bones and cartilages.
Hence, they are the points of contact bones and cartilage. Ligaments attach bone to
bone while tendons attach bone to muscle.

3. What do joints act as during movement?

a) Effort

b) Lever

c) Fulcrum

d) Load

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Movement is generated initially by muscles. Muscles receive an impulse

from the nervous system and contract. This force generated carries out movement
through joints, which act as fulcrums.

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4. Which of these is not a classification of joints?

a) Connective

b) Fibrous
c) Cartilaginous

d) Synovial

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The points of connection of bones to each other and to cartilages are
called joints. They are of three types, namely fibrous joints, cartilaginous joints and
synovial joints. Connective is a classification of tissue.

5. Which of these joints do not show any movement?

a) Fibrous

b) Synovial

c) Pivot

d) Cartilaginous

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Joints are classified into three types, namely fibrous joints, cartilaginous
joints and synovial joints. Fibrous joints do not show any movement due to the presence
of dense fibrous connective tissues.

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6. Which of these show no movement?

a) Joint between atlas and axis

b) Knee joint

c) Skull bones

d) Joints between carpals

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: The joints of the skull bones show no movement. They are fibrous joints.
The knee joint is a hinge joint. The joint between atlas and axis is a pivot joint and the
joints between the carpals are gliding joints.

7. Which of these join the skull bones to each other to form the cranium?

a) Dense fibrous connective tissues

b) Loose fibrous connective tissues

c) Specialized connective tissue

d) Dense irregular connective tissue

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The joints of the skull bones are fibrous joint. They show no movement. The
skull bones are fused end-to-end with each other with the help of dense fibrous
connective tissues to form the cranium.

8. What is the immovable junction between two bones known as?

a) Socket

b) Saddle

c) Hinge

d) Suture

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The immovable junction between two bones is known as a suture and
occurs due to the presence of fibrous joints. Fibrous joints do not allow any movement
of the bones, such as in the skull bones.

9. What type of joint is present between adjacent vertebrae?

a) Pivot joint

b) Fibrous joint

c) Cartilaginous joint

d) Gliding joint
View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Cartilaginous joint is present between adjacent vertebrae. These joints are
characterized by the presence of cartilage. Cartilaginous joints permit limited
movement of the body part.

10. In synovial joints, bones are joined together with the help of cartilages. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Joints are of three types, which are namely fibrous joints, cartilaginous
joints and synovial joints. Bones are joined to each other with the help of cartilages at
cartilaginous joints.

11. Which of these joints permit limited movement?

a) Hinge joints

b) Ball and socket joints

c) Fibrous joints

d) Cartilaginous joints

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Cartilaginous joints permit limited movement, such as the cartilaginous

joints present between adjacent vertebrae of the vertebral column. Fibrous joints do not
allow any movement, such as in the skull bones.

12. Which of these is an example of hinge joint?

a) Between the carpals

b) Between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

c) Knee joint
d) Between atlas and axis

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: An example of hinge joint is the knee joint. It is a type of synovial joint.
Hinge joints are also present at the ankles, interphalangeal joints and elbows. It allows
movement along only one axis.

1. Which of these is an autoimmune disorder?

a) Arthritis

b) Osteoporosis

c) Gout

d) Myasthenia gravis

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder which affects

neuromuscular junctions. It leads to various degrees of weakness in skeletal muscles.
The onset of myasthenia gravis can be sudden.

2. Which of these is disorder of the muscular system?

a) Crohn’s Disease

b) Celiac Disease

c) Myasthenia gravis

d) Gastroenteritis

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder of the muscular system

which affects neuromuscular junctions. Crohn’s Disease, Celiac Disease and
gastroenteritis are disorders of the digestive system.

3. Which of these disorders affect the neuromuscular junction?

a) Arthritis

b) Osteoporosis

c) Myasthenia gravis

d) Gout

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder which affects

neuromuscular junctions. It leads to various degrees of weakness in skeletal muscles.
The onset of myasthenia gravis can be sudden.

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4. Which of these is not a symptom of myasthenia gravis?

a) Rapid spasms

b) Fatigue

c) Muscle weakness

d) Paralysis of skeletal muscles

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder which affects

neuromuscular junctions. It leads to fatigue, muscle weakness and paralysis of skeletal
muscles. Rapid spasms are a result of tetany.

5. Which of these statements is false regarding myasthenia gravis?

a) It affects neuromuscular junctions

b) It is a genetic disease

c) It results in fatigue

d) It leads to paralysis of skeletal muscles

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Myasthenia gravis is not a genetic disease. Rather, it is an autoimmune

disorder which affects neuromuscular junctions. It leads to fatigue, muscle weakness
and paralysis of skeletal muscles.

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6. Which of these is a genetic disorder?

a) Gout

b) Myasthenia gravis

c) Muscular dystrophy

d) Tetany

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder of the muscular system. It leads

to the progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles and loss of muscle mass. The life
span of patients is often shortened.

7. Which of these disorders lead to degeneration of skeletal muscles?

a) Muscular dystrophy

b) Gout

c) Tetany

d) Osteoporosis

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Muscular dystrophy is a genetic disorder of the muscular system. It leads

to the progressive degeneration of skeletal muscles and loss of muscle mass. The life
span of patients is often shortened.

8. Which of these disorders lead to rapid spasms?

a) Gout
b) Myasthenia gravis

c) Muscular dystrophy

d) Tetany

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Tetany is a disorder of the muscular system characterized by rapid spasms

or wild contractions. It occurs due to low concentrations of calcium ions in body fluids.
Calcium ions play an important role in muscle contraction.

9. Which of these disorders is caused due to low concentrations of calcium ions?

a) Muscular dystrophy

b) Gout

c) Tetany

d) Osteoporosis

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Muscular dystrophy, gout, tetany and osteoporosis are disorders of the
muscular system and the skeletal system. Out of these, tetany is caused due to low
concentrations of calcium ions.

10. Decreased levels of oestrogen causes osteoporosis. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Osteoporosis is a disorder of the skeletal system. It leads to a reduction in

bone mass and increases the chances of the patient getting fractures. Reduced
oestrogen level is a common cause.

11. What is the effect of arthritis?

a) Paralysis

b) Rapid spasms

c) Reduced bone mass

d) Inflammation of joints

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Arthritis is a disorder of the muscular system and the skeletal system. It
leads to the inflammation of joints. This results in pain, swelling, reduced range of
motion, muscle weakness and stiffness.

12. Which of these is an age-related disorder?

a) Tetany

b) Gout

c) Osteoporosis

d) Muscular dystrophy

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Osteoporosis is a disorder of the skeletal system. It leads to a reduction in

bone mass and increases the chances of the patient getting fractures. Reduced
oestrogen level is a common cause.

13. Which disease increases the chance of fractures?

a) Tetany

b) Gout

c) Osteoporosis

d) Crohn’s Disease

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Osteoporosis leads to a reduction in bone mass and increases the
chances of the patient getting fractures. It is an age-related skeletal disorder. Crohn’s
Disease is a digestive disorder.

14. Which of these disorders lead to the inflammation of joints?

a) Gout

b) Myasthenia gravis

c) Muscular dystrophy

d) Tetany

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Gout is a disorder of the muscular system and the skeletal system. It leads
to the inflammation of joints due to crystallization and deposition of uric acid crystals. It
is a form of arthritis.

Chemical Control and Coordination

1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the endocrine glands?

a) They are known as ductless glands

b) Their secretions are called hormones

c) Hormones are secreted through ducts in the bloodstream

d) These glands lack ducts

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Endocrine glands lack ducts and are hence, known as ductless glands.
Their secretions are called hormones. As these glands do not have ducts, therefore they
release their secretions directly into the bloodstream.
2. Which of the following is not an endocrine gland?

a) Pituitary gland

b) Sebaceous gland

c) Pineal gland

d) Adrenal gland

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Pituitary, pineal, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, parathyroid, thymus, and

gonads are the organised endocrine bodies in our body. The endocrine glands and their
hormones constitute the endocrine system.

3. Hypothalamus is the basal part of which of the following?

a) Forebrain

b) Midbrain

c) Hindbrain

d) Mesencephalon

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The hypothalamus is the basal part of the diencephalon, forebrain and it
regulates a wide spectrum of body functions. It contains several groups of
neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce hormones.

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4. How many types of hormones are released by the pituitary?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four
View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The hormones produced by the hypothalamus are of two types:

i. Releasing hormones-which stimulate the secretion of pituitary hormones

ii. Inhibiting hormones-which inhibit the secretion of pituitary hormones.

5. Where do the hypothalamic hormones originate?

a) Nerve endings

b) Synaptic vesicles

c) Hypothalamic neurons

d) Axons

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The hypothalamic hormones originate in the hypothalamic neurons, pass

through axons, and are released from their nerve endings. These hormones reach the
pituitary gland through a portal circulatory system and regulate the function of the
anterior pituitary.

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6. Gonadotrophins inhibits the release of growth hormones from the pituitary gland.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Somatostatin from the hypothalamus inhibits the release of growth

hormones from the pituitary gland. Gonadotrophin releasing hormones stimulate the
pituitary synthesis and release of gonadotrophins.

7. Which part of the pituitary is under the direct control of the hypothalamus?
a) Posterior part

b) Anterior part

c) Dorsal part

d) Ventral part

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the
hypothalamus. The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called Sella turcica and is
attached to the hypothalamus by a stalk.

8. In how many parts, the pituitary is divided?

a) One

b) Two

c) Four

d) Five

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The pituitary is anatomically divided into two major portions known as
adenohypophysis and neurohypophysis. Adenohypophysis consists of two portions,
pars distalis, and pars intermedia.

9. Which of the following hormone is not secreted by the pars distalis region of the
pituitary?

a) Prolactin

b) Growth hormone

c) Follicle-stimulating hormone

d) Oxytocin

View Answer
Answer: d

Explanation: The pars distalis region of pituitary produces growth hormone, prolactin,
thyroid-stimulating hormone, adrenocorticotrophic hormone, luteinizing hormone, and
follicle-stimulating hormone.

10. Oxytocin and vasopressin are synthesised by the pituitary.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Posterior pituitary stores and releases two hormones called oxytocin and
vasopressin, which are actually synthesised by the hypothalamus and are transported
axonally to the neurohypophysis

1. Which of these glands are not endocrine?

a) Pituitary

b) Parathyroid

c) Pineal

d) Parotid

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Endocrine glands release chemical messengers called hormones.

Hormones act on distant targets. The pituitary, pineal and parathyroid glands are
endocrine while the parotid gland is exocrine in nature.

2. Where is the hypothalamus located?

a) Top of the telencephalon

b) Base of the telencephalon

c) Base of the diencephalon

d) Top of the diencephalon

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The hypothalamus is located at the base of the diencephalon in the

forebrain. It has several important functions including the regulation of the levels of
several hormones as well as overall homeostasis.

3. What are the hormone secreting cells of the hypothalamus called?

a) Mast cells

b) Osteocytes

c) Neurosecretory cells

d) Neuroglia

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The hormone secreting cells of the hypothalamus are the neurosecretory
cells. The hypothalamus is present at the base of the diencephalon and is responsible
for maintaining homeostasis.

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4. Which of these hormones is released by the hypothalamus?

a) Somatostatin

b) Prolactin

c) Melatonin

d) Glucocorticoids

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Somatostatin is a hormone released by the hypothalamus. Prolactin is

released by the pituitary gland; melatonin is released by the pineal gland and
glucocorticoids are released by the adrenal cortex.

5. GnRH is released by the ______

a) pituitary gland

b) hypothalamus

c) gonads

d) pineal gland

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: GnRH is known as gonadotropin-releasing hormone. It is secreted by the

hypothalamus to regulate the synthesis and release of gonadotropins from the pituitary
gland. They have an effect on the gonads.

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6. What is the function of somatostatin?

a) Inhibits adrenaline release

b) Inhibits gonadotropin release

c) Inhibits growth hormone release

d) Inhibits epinephrine release

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Somatostatin is a hormone released by the hypothalamus. The function of

somatostatin is inhibitory in nature. It inhibits the release of the growth hormone from
the anterior pituitary gland.

7. What is the pars distalis also known as?

a) Anterior pituitary

b) Posterior pituitary

c) Adrenal cortex

d) Adrenal medulla

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The pituitary gland is anatomically divided into the adenohypophysis and
the neurohypophysis. The adenohypophysis is divided into the pars distalis and pars
intermedia. The pars distalis is known as the anterior pituitary.

8. Which of these hormones is not secreted by the anterior pituitary gland?

a) ACTH

b) TSH

c) PRL

d) MSH

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The MSH or the melanocyte stimulating hormone is not released by the
anterior pituitary gland or the pars distalis. Instead, it is released by the pars intermedia
of the adenohypophysis.

9. Which of these hormones is released by the pars nervosa?

a) Luteinizing hormone

b) Prolactin

c) Oxytocin

d) Follicle stimulating hormone

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The pars nervosa is also known as the posterior pituitary gland or the
neurohypophysis. It secretes oxytocin and vasopressin or anti diuretic hormone. The
rest are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland.

10. Pars intermedia is a distinct structure in humans. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: The pars intermedia is a division of the adenohypophysis, along with the
pars distalis. The pars distalis is the anterior pituitary gland. However, the pars
intermedia is mostly fused or merged with the pars distalis.

11. Where is vasopressin synthesized?

a) Pars intermedia

b) Anterior pituitary gland

c) Posterior pituitary gland

d) Hypothalamus

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Although the posterior pituitary gland or the pars nervosa secretes
vasopressin or anti diuretic hormone, it is synthesized by the hypothalamus. It is then
transported through the axon to the posterior pituitary gland.

12. Low secretion of growth hormone results in ______

a) acromegaly

b) gigantism

c) dwarfism

d) turner’s syndrome

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Growth hormone is required for the proper maintenance, growth and
development of the body. Low secretion of growth hormone results in dwarfism, which
is characterized by short stature.

1. What is the function of FSH in males?

a) Fight or flight response

b) Secretion of androgens
c) Synthesis of androgens

d) Regulation of spermatogenesis

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: FSH or follicle stimulating hormone regulates spermatogenesis.

Luteinizing hormone or LH is responsible for the synthesis and secretion of androgens,
while catecholamines are responsible for the fight or flight response.

2. Which of these is not a function of gonadotropins in females?

a) Induction of ovulation

b) Maintenance of corpus luteum

c) Breakdown of corpus luteum

d) Development of ovarian follicles

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The gonadotropins are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating
hormone (FSH). In females, they are responsible for inducing ovulation, maintaining the
corpus luteum and developing ovarian follicles.

3. What is the function of MSH?

a) Formation of milk in females

b) Growth of mammary glands

c) Regulation of pigmentation

d) Stimulation of smooth muscle contraction

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: MSH or melanocyte stimulating hormone is responsible for regulating the

pigmentation of the body. It does so by acting on melanin containing cells or
melanocytes. MSH is secreted by the pineal gland.
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4. Which of these is not a function of oxytocin?

a) Stimulation of breastmilk production

b) Stimulation of smooth muscle contraction

c) Stimulation of uterine contraction at childbirth

d) Ejection of milk

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Oxytocin is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Its functions include
stimulating the contraction of smooth muscles as well as contractions of the uterus
during childbirth and ejection of milk. Prolactin is responsible for the production of
breastmilk.

5. Where does vasopressin act on in the kidneys?

a) Afferent arteriole

b) DCT

c) PCT

d) Efferent arteriole

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Vasopressin or anti-diuretic hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary

gland. It acts on the DCT or distal convoluted tubule of the nephrons of the kidney for
the reabsorption of water and electrolytes.

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6. An abnormality in the functioning of which of these hormones can lead to diabetes

insipidus?

a) Insulin

b) Glucagon
c) Vasopressin

d) Growth hormone

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: An abnormality in the synthesis or secretion of anti-diuretic hormone

(ADH) or vasopressin leads to diabetes insipidus. This disorder is characterized by
dehydration due to excess water loss.

7. What is the location of the pineal gland?

a) Dorsal side of forebrain

b) Ventral side of forebrain

c) Dorsal side of midbrain

d) Ventral side of midbrain

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The pineal gland is located on the dorsal side of the forebrain. It secretes
melatonin, which is an important hormone that regulates the diurnal cycle of the body
as well as body temperature.

8. Which of these is not a function of melatonin?

a) Regulation of the diurnal cycle

b) Regulation of body temperature

c) Regulation of menstrual cycle

d) Regulation of bowel movements

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Melatonin is secreted by the pineal gland. It is responsible for the

regulation of the sleep-wake or diurnal cycle, body temperature as well as menstrual
cycle, but not bowel movements.
11. Thyroid gland contains ______

a) granules, collagen fibers

b) goblet cells, plasma

c) mast cells, matrix

d) follicles, stromal tissue

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The thyroid gland is made up of follicles and stromal tissue. The follicular
cells are responsible for the production of hormones thyroxine or tetraiodothyronine as
well as triiodothyronine.

12. Which element is crucial for the normal functioning of the thyroid gland?

a) Potassium

b) Sulphur

c) Iodine

d) Calcium

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Iodine is responsible for the normal functioning of the thyroid gland. It is
used for the production of the thyroid hormones thyroxine or tetraiodothyronine (T4) as
well as triiodothyronine(T3).

13. Goiter is caused by ______

a) deficiency of calcium

b) surplus of iodine

c) deficiency of iodine

d) surplus of calcium

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Goiter is caused due to the deficiency of iodine in the diet. The element
iodine is important for the proper functioning of the thyroid gland and its deficiency
leads to the enlargement of the gland.

14. Hypothyroidism causes _____

a) goiter

b) Addison’s disease

c) Graves’ disease

d) dwarfism

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Hypothyroidism is the decreased synthesis and secretion of thyroid

hormones. It is caused due to the deficiency of iodine and leads to the enlargement of
the thyroid gland which is called goiter.

15. Graves’ disease is caused by ______

a) hypothyroidism

b) hyperthyroidism

c) deficiency of vasopressin

d) deficiency of adrenaline

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Graves’ disease is caused due to hyperthyroidism or excess production of

thyroid hormones. It is characterized by enlargement of the thyroid gland, protruding
eyeballs and weight loss.

1. Which of these is not a function of thyroid hormones?

a) Regulation of basal metabolic rate

b) Erythropoiesis

c) Maintenance of electrolyte balance

d) Regulation of diurnal cycle

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Thyroid hormones are important for the regulation of basal metabolic rate.
It also helps erythropoiesis and maintains water and electrolyte balance. However, the
pineal gland regulates the diurnal cycle.

2. TCT is secreted by the ______

a) hypothalamus

b) pituitary gland

c) thyroid gland

d) adrenal cortex

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: TCT or thyrocalcitonin is secreted by the thyroid gland, along with thyroxine
and triiodothyronine. The function of thyrocalcitonin is to regulate the blood calcium
level. Thyrocalcitonin is a protein hormone.

3. How many parathyroid glands do humans possess?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 1

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Humans possess 4 parathyroid glands. They are present on the back side
of the thyroid glands. The thyroid gland has two lobes. Each lobe of the thyroid gland
contains one pair of parathyroid glands.

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4. Which of these is not a function of PTH?

a) Reduces calcium ion reabsorption from digested food

b) Increases calcium ion level in blood

c) Stimulates demineralization

d) Stimulates reabsorption of calcium ions in kidneys

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: PTH or parathyroid hormone is secreted by the parathyroid gland. It is

important for regulating the blood calcium level along with thyrocalcitonin. PTH
increases calcium ion absorption from digested food.

5. What is the shape of the thymus gland?

a) Spherical

b) Lobular

c) Irregular

d) Triangular

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The thymus gland is lobular in shape. It is an important lymphatic organ.

The thymus is situated behind the sternum and between the lungs. It secretes thymosin
which is a peptide hormone.

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6. Which of these statements is false about thymus?

a) Differentiation of T-lymphocytes take place here

b) It secretes thymosin

c) It is intact for persons of all ages

d) Promotes production of antibodies

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Thymus is an endocrine gland situated between the lungs and behind the
sternum. It secretes thymosin and the differentiation of T-lymphocytes takes place here.
It promotes antibody production. However, the thymus degenerates in old individuals.

7. Where are the adrenal glands located?

a) Above the kidneys

b) Between the lungs

c) Around the trachea

d) Base of the hypothalamus

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The adrenal glands are located just above the kidneys. It is pyramidal in
shape. The thyroid gland is located around the trachea, the thymus is located between
the lungs and the pituitary gland is located at the base of the hypothalamus

1. Which hormone is responsible for reabsorption of sodium ions and water?

a) Adrenaline

b) Glucocorticoids

c) Testosterone

d) Aldosterone

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid in our body. It is mainly

responsible for fluid regulation in the body and hence propagates reabsorption of
sodium ions and excretion of phosphate ions.

2. Which of these hormones generates lipolysis and proteolysis and also inhibits
cellular uptake?
a) Insulin

b) Aldosterone

c) Glucocorticoid

d) Glucagon

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Glucocorticoids are responsible for carbohydrate metabolism in our body.

It is responsible for gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis. It inhibits cellular uptake
of available nutrients.

3. Which hormone is responsible for regulating the osmotic pressure and body fluid
volume?

a) Oxytocin

b) Prolactin

c) Aldosterone

d) Glucocorticoids

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The adrenal cortex mainly secretes hormones commonly known as

corticoids. Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid in the body responsible for
regulating osmotic pressure and body fluid levels.

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4. Which type of cells of the Islet of Langerhans are responsible for hyperglycemia?

a) β-cells

b) α-cells

c) δ-cells

d) F cells
View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Islet of Langerhans consists of two major types of cells, namely, α-cells
and β-cells. Β-cells are responsible for the secretion of insulin, which is responsible for
hyperglycaemia or high blood sugar.

5. Corpus luteum is responsible for the secretion of which hormone?

a) Estrogen

b) Progesterone

c) Vasopressin

d) Melatonin

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Ovaries produce two groups of steroid hormones known as estrogen and
progesterone. After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is converted into a structure known
as corpus luteum, which is responsible for progesterone secretion.

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6. Which of these supports pregnancy and stimulates milk secretion?

a) Corpus luteum

b) Ovum

c) Progesterone

d) Estrogen

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Ovaries release two steroid hormones known as estrogen and

progesterone which are a part of female reproductive system. Progesterone helps with
the formation of alveoli and the process of secretion of milk.

7. Leydig cells are responsible for the production of ______

a) testosterone

b) estrogen

c) progesterone

d) erythropoietin

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Testis is composed of seminiferous tubules and Leydig cells or interstitial

cells. The Leydig cells are responsible for the production of androgens, especially
testosterone which is the male sex hormone.

8. Which disorder involves the formation of ketone bodies?

a) Graves’ disease

b) Diabetes insipidus

c) Acromegaly

d) Diabetes mellitus

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to a disorder called diabetes mellitus. It is

characterized by weight loss, frequent urination, presence of glucose in urine or
glycosuria and the formation of ketone bodies.

9. Which gland is both endocrine and exocrine?

a) Thyroid gland

b) Adrenal gland

c) Pancreas

d) Parathyroid gland

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Many glands in the endocrine system can perform more than one function.
Pancreas is a composite gland that acts as both an endocrine and an exocrine gland.
The Islets of Langerhans cells are mainly endocrine.

10. The stromal tissue of the testis is responsible for the production of testosterone.
True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Testis is composed of seminiferous tubules and stromal or interstitial

tissue. The stromal tissue which is composed of Leydig cells is responsible for the
production of androgens, mainly testosterone.

11. The α-cells in the pancreas secrete which hormone?

a) Somatotropin

b) Somatostatin

c) Insulin

d) Glucagon

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas contain mostly α-cells and β-
cells. The α-cells are responsible for the secretion of glucagon while the latter is
responsible for the secretion of insulin.

12. Which of these hormones stimulates glycogenesis?

a) Glucagon

b) Erythropoietin

c) Insulin

d) Secretin

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Insulin stimulates the conversion of glucose to glycogen, which is stored in

the liver and muscles, via a process known as glycogenesis. Thus, insulin helps
maintain homeostasis by regulating the blood sugar level.

1. Which of these structures of heart secrete hormones?

a) Bundle of His

b) Ventricle

c) SA node

d) Atrium

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The atria are the two upper chambers of the heart. The walls of the atria
secrete a hormone known as atrial natriuretic factor or ANF. Its function is to reduce
blood pressure to maintain homeostasis.

2. Which hormone is secreted by the heart?

a) MSH

b) CCK

c) ANF

d) PRL

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: ANF or atrial natriuretic factor is secreted by the heart. It is secreted by the
walls of the atria. PRL is secreted by the anterior pituitary gland, MSH by the pars
intermedia and CCK by the GI tract.

3. What is the effect of secretion of ANS?

a) Increases urination frequency

b) Constricts blood vessels

c) Dilates blood vessels

d) Decreases urination frequency

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: ANS or atrial natriuretic factor is secreted by the walls of the atria of the
heart. Its effect is to dilate the blood vessels. As a result, blood is provided more space
to flow, and hence the blood pressure decreases.

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4. Which of these hormones reduce blood pressure?

a) Atrial natriuretic factor

b) Adrenaline

c) Noradrenaline

d) Somatotropin

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Atrial natriuretic factor or ANF is secreted by the walls of the atria of the
heart. Its effect is to dilate blood vessels and hence decrease blood pressure.
Adrenaline and noradrenaline increase blood pressure.

5. Which hormone is produced in the kidney?

a) Angiotensinogen

b) Erythropoietin

c) Thrombopoietin

d) Somatostatin

View Answer

Answer: b
Explanation: The kidney produces erythropoietin. It is produced by the juxtaglomerular
cells of the kidney. Angiotensinogen and thrombopoietin are produced by the liver.
Somatostatin is secreted by the pancreas.

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6. Which part of kidney produces erythropoietin?

a) PCT

b) DCT

c) Juxtaglomerular apparatus

d) Loop of Henle

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Juxtaglomerular cells of the nephrons of kidney are responsible for the
production of the hormone erythropoietin. It is a peptide hormone that induces
erythropoiesis or formation of erythrocytes.

7. Which of these hormones is not produced by the GI tract?

a) MSH

b) CCK

c) GIP

d) Secretin

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The GI tract or gastrointestinal tract contains endocrine tissue at different

parts that secrete peptide hormones such as CCK or cholecystokinin, GIP or gastric
inhibitory peptide, secretin and gastrin.

8. Pepsinogen secretion is stimulated by ______

a) GIP

b) CCK

c) secretin
d) gastrin

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Gastrin is a peptide hormone secreted by endocrine tissue located at

various parts of the GI tract or gastrointestinal tract. It acts on gastric glands to
stimulate the secretion of pepsinogen.

9. Hydrochloric acid secretion is stimulated by ______

a) GIP

b) CCK

c) gastrin

d) secretin

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Gastrin is a peptide hormone secreted by endocrine tissue located at

various parts of the GI tract or gastrointestinal tract. It acts on the gastric glands to
stimulate hydrochloric acid secretion.

10. CCK is a peptide hormone. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: CCK or cholecystokinin is produced by the endocrine tissue present in the

gastrointestinal tract. It is a peptide hormone. It has a stimulating effect on pancreas
and gall bladder.

1. Hormone receptors are ______

a) glycolipids

b) lipids
c) polysaccharides

d) proteins

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Hormone receptors are proteinaceous in nature. These receptors are

located on or inside the cells. It is where a hormone binds on a cell. The binding of the
hormone signals the cells to perform their tasks.

2. Which of these is false regarding receptors?

a) Intracellular receptors are present within the cell

b) Receptors form complexes with hormones

c) Receptors disintegrate after contact with hormones

d) Receptors are specific

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Receptors are the structures of the cell to which hormones bind and form
hormone-receptor complex. They do not disintegrate. Receptors are specific for each
hormone. Intracellular receptors are present in the cytoplasm.

3. What type of hormone is glucagon?

a) Iodothyronines

b) Steroids

c) Peptide

d) Amino acid derivatives

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Glucagon is a peptide hormone. It is synthesized and secreted by the alpha

cells of the pancreas. The function of glucagon is to break glycogen into glucose. This
raises the blood sugar level.
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4. Hypothalamic hormones are ______

a) peptides

b) steroids

c) iodothyronines

d) amino acid derivates

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Hypothalamic hormones are peptides. They are secreted by the

hypothalamus. Peptides, steroids, iodothyronines and amino acid derivatives are the
different categories of hormones.

5. Adrenaline is derived from ______

a) lipopolysaccharides

b) amino acids

c) lipids

d) sugars

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Adrenaline or epinephrine is derived from amino acids. It is secreted by the

outer cortex of the pair of adrenal glands. It is the emergency hormone secreted during
a fight or flight response.

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6. Which of these is a secondary messenger?

a) Ca2+

b) Mg2+

c) Na+
d) K+

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Ca2+ is an important secondary messenger. It carries signals or messages

from membrane receptors to the designated areas inside the cells. It is also important
for muscle contractions.

7. IP3 is a(n) _____

a) secondary messenger

b) membrane receptor

c) intracellular receptor

d) nuclear receptor

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: IP3 is an important secondary messenger. When a hormone binds to a

receptor, it forms a hormone receptor complex. This hormone receptor complex
transmits a secondary signal inside the cell via secondary messengers.

8. Which of these functions is not regulated by intracellular hormone-receptor

complexes?

a) Regulation of gene expression

b) Regulation of chromosome function

c) Interaction with the genome

d) Regulation of K+ entry into the cell

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Intracellular hormone-receptor complexes transmit signals mainly to the

nucleus for the regulation of gene expression, regulation of chromosome function
through indirect interaction with the genome.
Neural control and Coordination
1. Which of the following integrates all the activities of the organs?

a) The neural and endocrine system

b) The neural and digestive system

c) Digestive and excretory system

d) Excretory and Respiratory system

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: In our body, the neural and the endocrine system jointly coordinate and
integrate all the activities of the organs so that they function in a synchronised fashion.

2. Which network does the neural system provide?

a) Cell to cell connection only

b) Point to point connection

c) Organ to organ connection only

d) Tissue to tissue connection only

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The neural system provides an organized network of point to point

connections for quick coordination. These functions of the organs or the organ systems
must be coordinated in our body to maintain homeostasis.

3. What is meant by coordination?

a) Only two organs interact

b) Only three organs interact

c) Only two organs systems interact

d) Two or more organs interact

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Coordination is the process through which two or more organs interact and
complement the functions of one another. For example, the functions of muscles,
lungs, heart, blood vessels, kidney, and other organs are coordinated while performing
physical exercises.

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4. What does the endocrine system provide us?

a) Chemical integration through cell secretions

b) Chemical integration through cell division

c) Chemical integration through hormones

d) Chemical integration through tissues

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The endocrine system provides chemical integration through the

hormones. The neural and the endocrine systems jointly coordinate and regulate the
physiological functions in the body.

5. Which of the following functions is not performed by neurons?

a) Detect the stimuli

b) Receive the stimuli

c) Transmit the stimuli

d) Secrete the stimuli

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The neurons are not responsible for secreting the stimuli. Instead, their
main functions include-detecting, receiving and transmitting stimuli over large
distances in our body.

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6. What kind of neurons is present in Hydra?

a) Apolar neurons

b) Unipolar neurons

c) Bipolar neurons

d) Multipolar neurons

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The neural organisation is very simple in lower invertebrates. For example,
Hydra neural organisation just consists of a network of neurons. Apolar or non-polar
types of neurons are present in hydra.

7. The neural system of lower invertebrates is better than the insects.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The neural system of insects is better organised than the lower
invertebrates as a brain is present along with several ganglia and neural tissues. The
vertebrates have a more developed neural system.

8. How can a nerve cell be distinguished from other cells of the body?

a) Presence of granules in nucleus

b) Presence of different nucleus

c) Presence of neurites

d) Presence of ribosomes

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: A nerve cell can be distinguished from other cells of the body by the
presence of neurites. Neurites are any projection from the cell body of the neuron-like
dendrites or the axons.

9. What is the full form of PNS?

a) Peripheral neural systole

b) Peripheral nervous system

c) Peritubular neural systole

d) Peritubular nervous system

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: PNS stands for the Peripheral nervous system. The PNS comprises of all
the nerves of the body associated with the central nervous system-brain and the spinal
cord.

10. How many different types of PNS fibres are there?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The nerve fibres of the PNS are of two types:

i. Afferent fibres which transmit impulses from tissues/organs to CNS

ii. Efferent fibres which transmit regulatory impulses from CNS to the
concerned tissues/organs.

1. Based on which of the following, the neurons are divided into three major types?

a) Based on the size of neurons

b) Based on the length of neurons

c) Based on the number of axons and dendrites

d) Based on the power of their division

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Based on the number of axons and dendrites, the neurons are divided into
three major types:

i. Multipolar neurons-with one axon and two or more dendrites

ii. Bipolar-with one axon and one Dendrite

iii. Unipolar-cell body with one axon only.

2. Which of the following cells secrete a myelin sheath?

a) Schwann cells

b) Adipocytes

c) Cartilage cells

d) Bone marrow cells

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The myelinated nerve fibres are enveloped with Schwann cells, which form
a myelin sheath around the axon. The gaps between the two adjacent myelin sheaths
are called Nodes of Ranvier.

3. Where are the myelinated neurons found?

a) Only in the embryonic condition

b) In Spinal cord and cranial nerves

c) In peripheral nerve

d) In motor neurons

View Answer
Answer: b

Explanation: Myelinated nerve fibres are found in spinal and cranial nerves.
Unmyelinated nerve fibres are enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin
sheath around the axon and is commonly found in autonomous and the somatic neural
system.

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4. How are impulses transmitted from one neuron to another?

a) Through intercellular junctions

b) Through tight junctions

c) Through gap junctions

d) Through synapses

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through

junctions called synapses. A synapse is formed by the membranes of pre-synaptic and
a post-synaptic neuron.

5. There are three types of synapses.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Two types of synapses exist in the human body-electrical and chemical
synapses. The transmission of impulse is very fast in electrical synapses as compared
to the transmission of impulse in the chemical synapse.

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6. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding electrical synapses?

a) Transmission of signals is faster than chemical synapses

b) Pre and postsynaptic membranes are in very close proximity

c) They are very common in our system

d) Electrical synapse can flow directly from one neuron to another

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Electrical synapses are very rare in our system. At electrical synapses, the
membranes of pre and post synaptic neurons are in very close proximity. Impulse
transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than chemical synapse.

7. What is the fluid-filled space known as in chemical synapses?

a) Synaptic cleft

b) Gap junctions

c) Synapse

d) Synaptic vesicles

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: At a chemical synapse, the membranes of the pre-and post-synaptic

neurons are separated by a fluid-filled space called the synaptic cleft. Chemicals called
neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulse at these synapses.

8. Which of the following is not a feature of the chemical synapse?

a) Slow

b) Common

c) Neurotransmitters

d) Multidirectional

View Answer

Answer: d
Explanation: The impulse through chemical synapses passes slowly and only in one
direction. Unlike electrical synapses, where no neurotransmitters are involved, in
chemical synapses neurotransmitters are involved here.

9. Where are the specific receptors of neurotransmitters present?

a) Synaptic cleft

b) Post-synaptic membrane

c) Pre-synaptic membrane

d) Synaptic vesicle

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The released neurotransmitters bind to their specific receptors which are
present on the post-synaptic membrane. The new potential developed may be either
excitatory or inhibitory.

10. Which of the following is the central processing organ of our body?

a) Heart

b) Kidney

c) Brain

d) Spinal cord

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The brain is the central information processing organ of our body and acts
as the command and control system. It is the site for processing vision, hearing,
speech, memory, intelligence, emotions, and thoughts.

1. Which of these structures is not a part of a neuron?

a) Cell body

b) Axon

c) Dendrite

d) Glomerulus
View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The neuron is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system. The
neuron or the nerve cell has three main parts-the cell body, the axon and the dendrites.
Glomerulus is a part of nephron.

2. Where are Nissl’s granules present?

a) Axon

b) Dendrites

c) Cell body

d) Dendrons

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Nissl’s granules are present in the cell body of the neuron or nerve cell. The
cell body contains the cytoplasm, in which the various cell organelles are present.
Nissl’s granules are also present along with them.

3. Which of these is not characteristic of dendrites?

a) They contain Nissl’s granules

b) They branch repeatedly

c) They project out from the axon

d) They transmit impulses

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Dendrites are a part of the nerve cell or the neuron. They are short fibers
that project out from the cell body, but not the axon. They branch repeatedly and help in
the transmission of impulses.

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4. What are the terminal branched ends of axons known as?

a) Synaptic knobs

b) Synaptic vesicles

c) Dendrons

d) Dendrites

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: An axon is a part of the nerve cell or the neuron. Each axon is a long fiber
that projects from the cell body. The terminal end of the axon branches out and each
end terminates with a synaptic knob.

5. Where are neurotransmitters present inside the neuron?

a) Synaptic knob

b) Synaptic vesicles

c) Nissl’s granules

d) Schwan cells

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: Neurotransmitters are the chemicals which help in the transmission of

impulses from neuron to neuron and from to neuron the target tissue or cell. They are
stored in the synaptic vesicles.

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6. Which of these statements is not true regarding axons?

a) They carry impulses away from the cell body

b) They transmit impulses to synapses

c) They are short fibers

d) Their terminal ends are branched

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: Axons are long fibers while dendrites are short fibers. Axons carry or
transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body towards synapses. Their terminal ends
are branched and end with synaptic knobs.

7. How many types are neurons classified into?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 1

d) 2

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Neurons or nerve cells are classified into three types based on the number
of axon and dendrites. The three types of neurons are namely, multipolar neurons,
unipolar neurons and bipolar neurons.

8. Where are bipolar neurons found?

a) Autonomic ganglia

b) Embryo

c) Cerebral cortex

d) Retina of eye

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: Bipolar neurons are found in the retina of the eye. They possess one axon
and one dendrite. The cerebral cortex and autonomic ganglia have multipolar neurons.
Unipolar neurons are found in embryo.

9. Which of these structures is present in both non-myelinated and myelinated

neurons?

a) Myelin forming Schwan cells

b) Myelin sheath

c) Nissl’s granules

d) Nodes of Ranvier

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Non-myelinated neurons lack myelinated axons. Hence, myelin forming

Schwan cells, which surround and form myelin, are absent. Nodes of Ranvier are also
absent as they are the points between two adjacent myelin sheaths.

10. Unipolar neurons lack dendrites. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: There are three types of neurons or nerve cells. These types are multipolar
neurons, unipolar neurons and bipolar neurons. Unipolar neurons lack dendrites. They
have a cell body with only one axon.

1. At resting membrane potential, the axonal membrane is impermeable to which ions?

a) Calcium ions

b) Sodium ions

c) Potassium ions

d) Chlorine ions

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The axonal membrane of the neuron or nerve cell is semi-permeable in

nature. At resting membrane potential, the membrane is permeable to potassium ions
but nearly impermeable to sodium ions.

2. Which of the following is not true regarding resting potential?

a) There is a potential difference across the plasma membrane

b) The potential difference is maintained by the Na-K pump

c) The outer surface of the membrane is negatively charged

d) The axonal membrane is polarized

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The axonal membrane is positively charged on the outer surface and
negatively charged on the inner surface. This makes the membrane polarized. The
potential difference is maintained by the Na-K pump.

3. Which of these does not take place when a stimulus is applied to a polarized axonal
membrane?

a) It becomes permeable to sodium ions

b) The membrane is depolarized

c) There is a slow influx of sodium ions

d) Outer surface of the membrane becomes negatively charged

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: When a stimulus is applied to a polarized axonal membrane, the polarity of

the membrane is reversed. It becomes permeable to sodium ions and leads to its rapid
influx. Outer surface of the membrane becomes negatively charged.

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4. What is a nerve impulse also known as?

a) Action potential

b) Graded potential

c) Resting potential

d) Membrane potential
View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A nerve impulse is also known as an action potential. It changes the resting
membrane potential as it reverses the polarity of the axonal membrane. It becomes
permeable to sodium ions and leads to its rapid influx.

5. How is the resting potential restored after a nerve impulse?

a) Potassium ions diffuse inside the membrane

b) Potassium ions diffuse outside the membrane

c) The membrane becomes impermeable to potassium ions

d) There is no movement of potassium ions

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: After a nerve impulse, the permeability of the membrane to sodium ions
reduces and increases for potassium ions. Potassium ions diffuse outside the
membrane and hence restore the resting potential.

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6. Nerve impulses are transmitted from one neuron to another via which of these?

a) Schwan cells

b) Nissl’s granules

c) Synapses

d) Myelin sheath

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Synapses are the gaps or junctions between two adjacent neurons via
which nerve impulses are transmitted. This occurs by the release of chemical
compounds known as neurotransmitters.

7. Which of these is not a component of the synapse?

a) Synaptic vesicles

b) Pre-synaptic membrane

c) Post-synaptic membrane

d) Synaptic cleft

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: A synapse is present between two adjacent neurons. The pre-synaptic

membrane of one neuron, the post-synaptic membrane of the next neuron and the
synaptic cleft make up the synapse.

8. Which of the following statements is false regarding electrical synapses?

a) Membranes of pre and post-synaptic neurons are in very close proximity

b) Transmission is always faster than that across a chemical synapse

c) It is similar to impulse conduction along a single axon

d) Electrical synapses are common in our system

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: In electrical synapses, the membranes of pre and post-synaptic neurons

are in close proximity. It is similar to impulse conduction along a single axon and is
always faster than transmission across a chemical synapse. It is rare in our system.

9. Which of these is false regarding synaptic clefts?

a) It lies between the membranes of pre and post-synaptic neurons

b) It is a fluid filled space

c) Electrical synapses have large synaptic clefts

d) It is a portion of the synapse

View Answer

Answer: c
Explanation: Synaptic clefts are fluid filled spaces that lie between the membranes of
pre and post-synaptic neurons. These together make up the synapse. Electrical
synapses have very small synaptic clefts.

10. The outer surface of the axon has a positive charge at resting membrane potential.
True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: At resting membrane potential, the concentration of sodium ions is high

outside the axonal membrane. Due to the sodium-potassium pump, the outer surface
of the axon has a positive charge.

1. Which of these is the command and control system of the body?

a) Lungs

b) Spinal cord

c) Heart

d) Brain

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The brain is the command and control system of the body. It is the central
information processing center. The brain controls and regulates the various processes
of the body required to survive.

2. What are the coverings of the brain known as?

a) Peritoneum

b) Pericardia

c) Meninges

d) Pleura

View Answer
Answer: c

Explanation: The coverings of the brain are known as cranial meninges. Peritoneum is
the covering around the stomach, pleura is the covering around the lungs and the
pericardium surrounds the heart.

3. What is the outer layer of the brain called?

a) Arachnoid

b) Pia mater

c) Dura mater

d) Corpus callosum

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The outer layer of the cranial meninges is known as the dura mater. The
middle layer is called the arachnoid membrane, and the innermost layer is known as the
pia mater. The corpus callosum is a part of the forebrain.

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4. Which of these is in contact with the brain tissue?

a) Pia mater

b) Dura mater

c) Arachnoid

d) Cranium

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The cranium or the skull is the outermost covering that protects the brain.
The dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges. The pia mater, which is the
innermost layer, is in contact with the brain tissue.

5. Which of these is not a part of the forebrain?

a) Cerebrum

b) Pons

c) Thalamus

d) Hypothalamus

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The brain is divided into three parts- the forebrain, the midbrain and the
hindbrain. The forebrain, which is the largest of all three, consists of the cerebrum, the
thalamus and the hypothalamus.

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6. Which of these structures connect the cerebral hemispheres?

a) Corpus luteum

b) Corpus albicans

c) Corpus callosum

d) Corpora quadrigemina

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The cerebrum of the forebrain is divided longitudinally into two halves or
hemispheres by a deep cleft. The two cerebral hemispheres are connected to each
other with the help of the corpus callosum.

7. Which part of the neuron is present in a high concentration in the grey matter?

a) Cell body

b) Axon

c) Dendrites

d) Synaptic knobs

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The cell bodies or neurons or nerve cells are present in a high
concentration in the grey matter of the brain and spinal cord. The axons of neurons are
present in a high concentration in the white matter.

8. Which of these is not a function of the association areas?

a) Intersensory associations

b) Memory

c) Communication

d) Breathing

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The association areas of the brain are a part of the cerebral cortex of the
forebrain. They do not have a clear sensory or motor function, and are involved in
intersensory associations, memory and communication.

9. Which of these is not true about the hypothalamus?

a) It contains neurosecretory cells

b) It regulates body temperature

c) It lies beside the thalamus

d) It controls hunger

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The hypothalamus is a part of the forebrain. It lies at the base of the
thalamus. The hypothalamus controls body temperature and hunger. It has
neurosecretory cells which secrete hormones.

10. The cerebral cortex is known as grey matter. True or false?

a) True

b) False

View Answer
Answer: a

Explanation: The cerebral cortex has a greyish appearance due to the presence of the
cell bodies of the nerve cells or neurons. Hence, it is also known as grey matter. The
white matter contains the axons of neurons.

1. Which of the following is not stimulation for reflex action?

a) Hot object

b) Happiness

c) Cold object

d) Scary animals

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The withdrawal of the body part can be due to our contact with extremely
hot or cold objects, pointed objects, animals that are scary, or are poisonous.

2. What is a reflex action?

a) Action that flexes the body

b) Involuntary action in response to a peripheral nervous stimulation

c) Voluntary action in response to a peripheral nervous stimulation

d) Voluntary action that flexes our body

View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: A reflex action is an involuntary action taken by our body in response to

peripheral nerve stimulation. This process does not require the conscious effort of our
brain and it takes place instantly to save us from bearing any harm.

3. In a reflex action, the efferent neurons receive a signal from the CNS.

a) True

b) False
View Answer

Answer: b

Explanation: The afferent neurons receive the signals from a sensory organ and
transmits the impulse via a dorsal nerve root into the CNS and at the level of the spinal
cord.

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4. Which of the following forms a reflex arc?

a) Organ and tissue

b) Cells and neurons involved

c) Effort and load

d) Stimulus and response

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The efferent neurons carry the signals from the central nervous system to
the effector organs. The stimulus and response thus form a reflex arc, for example; the
knee jerk reflex.

5. Which of the following is not a function of sensory organs?

a) Detect all the changes in the environment

b) Send appropriate signals to CNS

c) Analysis of signals

d) Receive signals

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: The sensory organs detect all types of changes in the environment and
send appropriate signals to the CNS, where all the inputs are processed and analysed.
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6. In which of the following, olfactory receptors are present?

a) Nose

b) Eyes

c) Throat

d) Ears

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: The nose contains mucus coated receptors that are specialised for
receiving the sense of smell and are called olfactory receptors. These are made up of
olfactory epithelium.

7. The olfactory epithelium consists of how many cells?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

View Answer

Answer: c

Explanation: Olfactory epithelium consists of three kinds of cells namely:

i. Basal cells
ii. Supporting cells
iii. Olfactory receptor cells

They get modified to form olfactory neurons.

8. The olfactory epithelium is the extension of which of the following?

a) Hypothalamus

b) Pituitary gland

c) Association areas
d) Limbic system

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The neurons of the olfactory epithelium extend from the outside
environment directly into a pair of broad bean-sized organs, called olfactory bulb, which
are extensions of the brain’s limbic system.

9. Which of the following has the gustatory receptors?

a) Nose

b) Tongue

c) Eyes

d) Skin

View Answer

Answer: d

Explanation: The tongue detects taste through taste buds, containing gustatory
receptors. With each taste of food or sip of a drink, the brain integrates the differential
input from the taste buds and a complex flavour is perceived.

10. Both nose and tongue detect dissolved chemicals.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Answer: a

Explanation: Both nose and tongue detect dissolved chemicals. The chemical senses of
gustation (taste) and olfactory (smell) are functionally similar and interrelated.

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