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PMF IAS
LEARN SMART

Test Series For UPSC

CSE Prelims 2025

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Prelims All India Mock Test 2025 – Test 01

Questions only

1) Biotechnology research plays a crucial role in advancing sustainable and innovative

solutions. Consider the following key focus areas in biotechnology:
1. High-value bio-based chemicals, biopolymers, and enzymes
2. Functional foods and smart proteins
3. Precision biotherapeutics
4. Artificial intelligence in healthcare
5. Climate-resilient agriculture
6. Carbon capture and utilization

How many of the focus areas mentioned above align with the six priority areas identified under the
BioE3 Policy for biotechnology research and development?
a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six

2) Consider the following information:

Space Mission Agency Purpose/Detail
1. RISE European Space To extend the life of geostationary satellites through in-or-
Agency bit servicing
2. Dragonfly NASA Exploration of Saturn's moon Titan
3. Europa Clip- NASA Largest spacecraft NASA has ever developed for a planetary
per mission

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

3) With reference to electromagnetic waves, consider the following statements:

1. Microwaves are used in satellite communication due to their ability to penetrate the Earth's atmos-
phere with minimal attenuation.
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2. Infrared radiation is primarily responsible for the greenhouse effect as it gets trapped by greenhouse
gases in the atmosphere.
3. X-rays have higher energy than visible light and can penetrate through soft tissues but are absorbed
by denser materials like bones.
4. Radio waves have the shortest wavelength among all electromagnetic waves.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4

4) Consider the following:

1. Aerial photography
2. Search and rescue operations
3. Crop spraying
4. Underwater exploration
5. Underground mining
6. Weather forecasting
7. Targeted strikes
8. Traffic monitoring

How many of the above are uses of Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs)?
a) Only five
b) Only six
c) Only seven
d) All eight

5) Consider the following products:

1. Methods of agriculture or horticulture
2. Traditional Knowledge
3. Computer Program
4. Inventions related to Atomic Energy
5. Plants & Animals
6. Discovery of scientific principles

How many of the products give above cannot be patented?

a) Only three
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b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six

6) Which of the following best describes 'Project Strawberry,' recently seen in the
news?
a) A defense project aimed at developing AI-powered systems for military applications.
b) A biotech initiative focused on genetically modifying strawberries to enhance nutritional value.
c) An AI model designed to generate high-quality synthetic data to improve training accuracy.
d) A quantum computing research project focused on enhancing data processing capabilities for com-
plex tasks.

7) Consider the following statements with reference to Poverty, Prosperity, and Planet
Report 2024:
1. The report is released annually by the World Health Organization.
2. The 2024 report showed a continuous reduction in global poverty for the past five years.
3. Asia and Southeast Asia are the most affected regions, accounting for two-thirds of the world's ex-
treme poor.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

8) The Bhavishya portal is primarily associated with which of the following functions?

a) Mapping the demand for skilled workforce

b) Enhancing network applications for gram panchayats
c) Combatting child labour, trafficking, and sexual abuse
d) Pension sanction and payment tracking

9) Eaton, Hurst, Lidia and Sunset, recently seen in the news, refer to:
a) Names of winter storms
b) Wildfires occurring during an unusual winter season
c) Fault lines in the Pacific Ring of Fire
d) Climate change mitigation programs
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10) India launched ‘Operation Indravati’ to evacuate its citizens from which turmoil-
stricken country facing widespread criminal gang activity?
a) Haiti
b) Congo
c) Venezuela
d) Tanzania

11) Consider the following statements about the military exercise ‘Nomadic Ele-
phant’:
1. It is an annual bilateral military exercise between India and Malaysia.
2. The 16th edition of Nomadic Elephant was held at Umroi, Meghalaya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

12) Consider the following statements regarding the Marine Cloud Brightening:
1. Statement-I: Marine cloud brightening helps protect coral reefs from bleaching.
2. Statement-ll: Marine cloud brightening is a geoengineering method that enhances the brightness and
reflectivity of low-lying marine clouds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for State-
ment-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

13) The ‘Emissions Gap Report’ is published by:

a) World Meteorological Organization (WMO)
b) Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
c) International Energy Agency (IEA)
d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
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14) With reference to Geographical Indication (GI) tags and their states of origin,
consider the following pairs:
Product Name State
1. Magji Ladoo Odisha
2. Matabari Peda Assam
3. Jaapi Tripura

How many of the pairs given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

15) The India Employment Report 2024 is a significant publication in the context of
employment trends and challenges in India. Which of the following organizations
are responsible for publishing this report?
a) NITI Aayog
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) International Labour Organisation
d) Ministry of Labour and Employment

16) Consider the following statements regarding Project Nexus:

1. It is a multilateral initiative to enable instant cross-border retail payments by interlinking domestic
Fast Payments System.
2. It aims to connect the Fast Payment Systems of Malaysia, Indonesia, Singapore and Thailand with that
of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

17) Consider the following statements about Nano DAP (di-ammonium phosphate)
launched by Indian Farm Forestry Development Cooperative (IFFCO):
1. Statement-I: Nano DAP is more efficient than other traditional fertilisers.
2. Statement-II: Nano DAP is a liquid fertiliser which has lower surface area than traditional fertilisers.
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3. Statement-III: Nano size enables the fertiliser to enter easily inside the seed surface or through sto-
mata and other plant openings.

Which one of the following is correct in respect to the above statements?

a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I
c) Only one of the Statements-II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I
d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct

18) Direct Seeding of Rice, also known as the ‘broadcasting seed technique,’ is a wa-
ter-efficient method of paddy cultivation. In this context, consider the following
benefits:
1. Higher yield
2. Less fertilizer input
3. Low seed requirement
4. Easy weed management

How many of the above correctly reflect the advantages of Direct Seeding of Rice as a paddy cultiva-
tion method?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

19) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: India is the largest producer of milk in the world, with total milk production reaching
over 200 million tonnes in 2022-23.
2. Statement-ll: White Revolution 2.0 focuses on increasing milk production, improving dairy facilities,
and expanding exports.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for State-
ment-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

20) With reference to Sorghum (Jowar), consider the following statements:

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1. Sorghum is grown both as kharif as well as a rabi crop.

2. The Government of India provides minimum support price for Sorghum.
3. It can be used as a biofuel crop to produce Bioethanol.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

21) With respect to the socio-religious reform associations in Modern India, consider
the following informations:
Association Place Founder
1. Manav Dharma Sabha Calcutta Radhakanta Deb
2. Paramahansa Mandali Surat Atmaram Pandurang
3. Prarthana Samaj Nagpur Keshub Chandra Sen
4. Vidhva Vivaha Uttejak Mandal Bombay Vishnu Parashuram Shastri Pandit

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

22) Consider the following pairs of freedom fighters and their contributions:
Freedom Fighters Contributions
1. Sardar Ajit Singh Swadesh Sewak
2. Rash Behari Bose Indian Independence League
3. Guru Dutt Kumar Bharat Mata Society

How many of the pairs given above are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

23) Arrange the following education commissions of British India in chronological

order:
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1. Hunter Commission (Indian Education Commission)

2. Calcutta Universities Commission
3. Hartog Commission
4. Indian Universities Commission

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1-2-4-3
b) 1-2-3-4
c) 1-4-3-2
d) 1-4-2-3

24) Consider the following places:

1. Cochin
2. Patna
3. Panaji
4. Chittagong

In which of the above locations did the Portuguese established their trading factories?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 3 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

25) Bargirs and Silahdars are terms related to which of the following?
a) Maratha cavalry system
b) Mughal administrative divisions
c) Vijayanagara temple guards
d) British East India Company's trade officers

26) Consider the following statements regarding the administrative and military de-
velopments in India during the later Mughal period:
1. Ijarah system was introduced by Zulfiqar Khan during the reign of Bahadur Shah.
2. Both the third battle of Panipat and the battle of Buxar were fought during the reign of Shah Alam II.
3. Farrukh Siyar issued farmans granting the English East India Company duty-free export and import of
their goods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 3 only
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c) 3 only
d) None

27) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: The early Rig Vedic society can be considered as a totally egalitarian society.
2. Statement-II: The society was not divided on caste lines, occupations were not based on birth, and
even Rajans, Purohits, and artisans were part of the clan networks.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for State-
ment-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

28) With reference to the Magadha Empire, consider the following statements:
1. King Bimbisara started the policy of conquests and aggrandisement to extent the empire.
2. King Bimbisara was a contemporary of Buddha, Susrutha, and Chanda Pradyota Mahasena.
3. The earliest capital of Magadha was at Patna, which were closed by stone walls on all sides.
4. King Ajatasatru had war engine which was used to throw stones like catapults.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only two
b) Only three
c) All four
d) None

29) Consider the following statements about Prithviraj Chauhan:

1. He defeated Muhammad Ghori in both the First and Second Battles of Tarain.
2. Prithviraj Raso and Prithviraj Vijaya were composed by his court poets Chandbardai and Jayanaka,
respectively.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
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30) Which of the following statements about Mughal architecture is not correct?
a) Sher Shah Suri’s tomb at Sasaram is made of red sandstone and located inside a lake.
b) The tomb of Itmad-ud-Daulah was the first Mughal work made completely of white marble.
c) Aurangzeb commissioned the construction of Bibi-ka-Maqbara in memory of his wife.
d) Shah Jahan developed Shalimar Bagh in Kashmir during his reign.

31) Consider the following statements:

1. The Indo-Greeks were the first rulers in India to issue coins which can be attributed to the kings.
2. The Indo-Greeks were the first to issue gold coins in India, which increased in number under the
Kushans.
3. The Sudarsana Lake was made by the Saka ruler Rudraman-I.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

32) Consider the following statements with reference to the cultural history of India:
1. Pranjaptivada sect was an off shoot of Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism.
2. Hinayana school of Buddhism do not believe in idol worship of Buddha.
3. Emperor Kanishka was a follower of Hinayana sect of Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1 and 3 only

33) Which of the following statements about Moidams in Assam is/are correct?
1. It is the first cultural World Heritage Site from the North East region of India.
2. They are located in the foothills of the Patkai Ranges in eastern Assam.
3. Moidams refers to burial mounds built by the Tai-Ahom dynasty.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2, and 3
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d) 1 only

34) What is ADVIKA, which was recently released as a breakthrough in agricultural

research?
a) A high-yielding wheat variety.
b) A drought-tolerant, climate-smart chickpea variety.
c) A pest-resistant rice variety.
d) A new hybrid variety of cotton.

35) Which of the following countries have signed a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) with
India?
1. Australia
2. New Zealand
3. United Kingdom
4. European Union
5. South Korea
6. Japan
7. Canada

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1, 5, and 6 only
b) 2, 3, and 7 only
c) 1, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

36) With reference to National Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI), consider the
following statements:
1. India’s National MPI is published annually by NITI Aayog.
2. The MPI measures simultaneous deprivations across the three dimensions of health and nutrition,
education, and standard of living.
3. India’s National MPI uses 12 indicators, compared to the 10 indicators used in the Global MPI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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37) Which of the following statements is/are not correct with respect to Consumer
Price Index (CPI) and Wholesale Price Index (WPI):
1. The Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) is published monthly by National Statistical
Office (NSO).
2. CPI excludes the impact of indirect taxes.
3. The base year for WPI is 2011-12, and it is published monthly by the Office of Economic Advisor,
Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

38) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement I: If a foreign bank maintains a vostro account with an Indian bank, trade between the two
countries can be settled in Indian Rupees.
2. Statement II: A vostro account is an account held by a domestic bank on behalf of a foreign bank,
denominated in the domestic currency of the former.

Which one of the following is correct in respect to the above statements?

a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, and Statement II explains Statement I.
b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct, but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.

39) Consider the following statements regarding "Ways and Means Advances"
(WMA) provided by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI):
1. They are temporary loans provided by the RBI to the central and state/UT governments to address
short-term mismatches in their receipts and payments.
2. The WMA facility is available for 90 days, and the interest rate is linked to the Bank rate.
3. They are tradable and are used to fund fiscal deficits.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3
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40) Which of the following statements about the National Housing Bank (NHB) is
correct?
a) It provides direct credit to individual borrowers for housing finance.
b) It operates as a principal agency to promote housing finance institutions and offers refinance to them.
c) It was established in 1995 under the National Housing Policy of 1987.
d) It primarily functions as a commercial bank for housing finance.

41) In an economy, the demand for money is likely to increase under which of the
following conditions?
1. Rising general price levels
2. Higher market interest rates
3. Growth in income levels
4. Economic uncertainty

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1, 2, and 4
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3
d) 1, 3 and 4

42) Consider the following pairs:

Five Year Plan Primary Aim
1. Second Plan Rapid industrialization
2. Third Plan Make India a 'self-reliant' and 'self-generating' economy
3. Fifth Plan Growth with Social Justice & Equality

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

a) 2 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

43) Which of the following factors can contribute to a rise in gold prices?
1. Increase in crude oil prices
2. Appreciation of the US dollar
3. Increased demand from central banks
4. Geopolitical instability
5. Seasonal demand for gold jewellery
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Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 2, 4, and 5 only
b) 1, 3, and 5 only
c) 1, 3, 4, and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

44) With respect to Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Bonds, consider the follow-
ing statements:
1. They are issued by non-profit organisations (NPOs) listed on the Social Stock Exchange (SSE).
2. The funds raised are considered investments but are not refundable.
3. They do not have a fixed maturity period and remain valid indefinitely.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

45) With reference to the ‘Namo Drone Didi Scheme’, consider the following state-
ments:
1. It is a Central Sector Scheme that aims to empower women Self-Help Groups by providing them with
drones.
2. The scheme focuses on 1 lakh selected Women SHGs during the period from 2023-24 to 2025-26.
3. To be eligible for the scheme, at least 90% of the members in an SHG should be women.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

46) Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA Scheme:

1. It is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development.
2. The scheme aims to provide legal property ownership rights to rural households through drone-
based surveying.
3. The scheme enables rural landowners to use their property as collateral for loans.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 2 only
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b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

47) Which of the following statements regarding the One Nation One Subscription
(ONOS) scheme is not correct?
a) It is a Central Sector Scheme designed to provide nationwide access to high-impact international
scholarly research and journal publications.
b) The University Grants Commission (UGC) directly serve as the central coordinating agency for access
under this scheme.
c) The Department of Higher Education will oversee the implementation of ONOS through a dedicated
portal.
d) It is aimed at benefiting students, faculties, and researchers from government institutions, particularly
in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities.

48) Consider the following statements regarding the Jal Hi Amrit Scheme:
1. The scheme was launched by Ministry of Jal Shakti under AMRUT 2.0 initiative.
2. The key purpose is to ensuring good quality water after recycling used water and treating sewage.
3. Clean Water Credit System under this initiative awards clean water credits to sewge treatment plants
in terms of star ratings between 1 star to 5 stars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

49) Consider the following information:

Dam River State
1. Tehri Dam Bhagirathi Uttar Pradesh
2. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam Krishna Karnataka
3. Hirakud Dam Mahanadi Odisha
4. Indira Sagar Dam Narmada Telangana

In how many of the above rows is the information not correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
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d) All four

50) With reference to Indian Standard Time, consider the following statements:
1. Statement I: There is a time difference of nearly two hours between the easternmost and westernmost
parts of India due to a longitudinal variation of about 30 degrees.
2. Statement II: A difference of 1° longitude results in a time difference of 4 minutes.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for State-
ment-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
d) Statement I is incorrect, and Statement II is correct.

51) Consider the following statements:

1. This tribe resides in the Trans-Giri region of Himachal Pradesh and the Jaunsar Bawar region of Utta-
rakhand, in the basins of the Giri and Tons Rivers.
2. They are governed by a traditional council called 'Khumbli', similar to the 'Khaps' of Haryana.
3. Polyandry is a main practice of this community.
4. This tribe follows a rigid caste system and traditionally discourages inter-caste marriages.

Which among the following tribes is described above?

a) Shom Pens
b) Hatti
c) Chakma
d) Adiyan

52) Arrange the following Nuclear Power Plants in India in the correct North-South
order:
1. Kudankulam
2. Kaiga
3. Kalpakkam
4. Kakrapar

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 4-2-1-3
b) 3-4-2-1
c) 4-2-3-1
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d) 3-2-4-1

53) With reference to Shield Volcano, consider the following statements:

1. Shield volcano is a large and steep conical volcano built up by many layers.
2. They are made up of basaltic lava which is very fluid.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

54) With reference to Tropical Dry Evergreen Forests in India, consider the following
statements:
1. These forests are primarily distributed along the coasts of Tamil Nadu.
2. They receive most of their annual rainfall from the northeast monsoon.
3. Bamboo and grasses are prominent features of these forests.
4. Many areas of these forests have been cleared for agriculture or casuarina plantations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

55) Consider the following Ocean Currents:

1. California current
2. Gulf stream
3. Kuroshio current
4. Brazilian current
5. Peruvian current

How many of the above ocean currents are cold currents?

a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

56) Which of the following factors favour(s) temperature inversion in a region?

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1. Cloudy sky
2. Humid air near ground
3. Still air
4. Long winter nights

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 4 only

57) Arrange the following rock systems of India in chronological order from earliest
to latest:
1. Dharwar System
2. Purana System
3. Archean System
4. Dravidian System

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 3-1-2-4
b) 1-3-4-2
c) 3-2-1-4
d) 2-3-1-4

58) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: Rip currents are narrow, powerful streams of water flowing perpendicular to the shore-
line, extending from near the beach through the surf zone into the ocean.
2. Statement-II: Rip currents form due to the piling up of water between breaking waves and the shore-
line, which returns to the sea through narrow, fast-moving streams.
3. Statement-III: Rip currents occur only in areas with hard-bottom beach topography and always move
beneath the water's surface.

Which one of the following is correct in respect to the above statements?

a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I.
b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct, but only one of them explains Statement-I.
c) Only one of the Statements-II and III is correct and that explains Statement-I.
d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is correct.
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59) How many of the following pairs of drainage patterns and their descriptions are
correctly matched?
Drainage Pattern Description
1. Dendritic Main river and tributaries form a grid-like pattern
2. Trellis Streams follow the slope and form a tree-like pattern
3. Rectangular Rivers form a rectangular network due to joints/faults
4. Radial Tributaries from a summit follow the slope downwards and drain down in all
directions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

60) Consider the following:

1. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating
2. Emergence of pressure belts
3. Migration of pressure belts following the apparent path of the Sun
4. Distribution of continents and oceans
5. Rotation of the Earth

How many of the above factors influence the pattern of planetary winds?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) All five

61) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: A member of the panel of chairpersons presides over the Lok Sabha when the office of
the Speaker or Deputy Speaker is vacant.
2. Statement-II: Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, any member of the panel of chairpersons can preside
over the House in the absence of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is the correct explanation for State-
ment-I.
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b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.

62) With reference to the Supreme Court, consider the following statements:
1. The Supreme Court can review its own judgments under Article 137.
2. The power of judicial review is explicitly mentioned in the Constitution.
3. The President can refer legal questions to the Supreme Court under Article 141.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

63) The Constitution of India provides for a federal system of government in the
country. In this context, which of the following features exhibit(s) the federal na-
ture of our polity?
1. Provision for creation of a bicameral legislature at the central level.
2. Office of the Governor and appointment of the Governor as the chief executive head of the state by
the President.
3. The jurisdiction and appointment to the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 3 only

64) With reference to Indian Constitution, consider the following pairs:

Parts Subject matter
1. Part II Citizenship
2. Part IX-A The Panchayats
3. Part VIII The State Government
4. Part I The Union and its territory

How many of the above pairs are correct?

 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

65) Which of the following disputes can be adjudicated by tribunals established

under Article 323B?
1. Taxation
2. Elections
3. Foreign exchange
4. Industrial and labour matters

Select the correct answer using the code below:

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

66) ‘Right to fair trial’ and ‘right against custodial harassment’ are protected under
which Article of the Constitution of India?
a) Article 20
b) Article 21
c) Article 22
d) Article 19

67) Consider the following statements:

1. Statement-I: A wife’s claim for maintenance is not automatically denied due to her refusal to comply
with a restitution decree.
2. Statement-II: Maintenance and restitution of conjugal rights are independent legal matters.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for State-
ment-I.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct, but Statement-II is not the correct explanation for
Statement-I.
c) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct.
 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

68) Consider the following languages:

1. Punjabi
2. Sindhi
3. Santhali
4. Bodo
5. Manipuri
6. Kashmiri

How many of the above were recognised by the Indian Constitution under its eighth schedule as of 26th
January 1950?
a) Only two
b) Only three
c) Only four
d) Only five

69) With reference to ASHA workers in India, consider the following statements:
1. ASHA workers are compensated with a fixed monthly salary for their services in healthcare.
2. ASHA workers were awarded the WHO Global Health Leaders Award in 2022 for their contributions
to public health.
3. ASHA workers must be aged between 25-40 years and are selected through a community-driven
process

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

70) Which of the following are the likely consequences of the proclamation of Na-
tional Emergency by the Indian President?
1. Dissolution of the state legislative assembly.
2. Suspension of the state government.
3. Cancellation or reduction of the transfer of finances from the centre to the state.
4. The Parliament becomes empowered to make laws on any subject listed in the state list.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
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c) 3 and 4 only
d) 2, 3 and 4 only

71) Consider the following provisions:

1. Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages.
2. Reservation of seats (both members and chairpersons) for Scheduled Castes (SCs) and Scheduled
Tribes (STs) in panchayats at all three levels.
3. Reservation of one-third of the seats (both members and chairpersons) for women in panchayats at
all three levels.

How many of the above provisions are voluntary provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment
Act (1992)?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

72) Consider the following offices or commissions:

1. Inter-State Trade and Commerce Commission
2. Official Language Commission
3. Official Language Committee of Parliament
4. National Commission for Women

How many of the above offices or commissions are constituted by the Constitution of India?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

73) Consider the following statements regarding the appointment and removal of
Governors in India:
1. The Governor holds office at the pleasure of the President and must step down if this pleasure is
withdrawn before completing the five-year term.
2. The Sarkaria Commission recommended consulting the Chief Minister for the appointment of a Gov-
ernor.
3. The Venkatachaliah Commission proposed a process of impeachment for the removal of Governors,
similar to that of the President.
4. A Governor can be removed solely because the central government has lost confidence in them.
 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 3 and 4 only
d) 2 and 4 only

74) With reference to the Writs issued by the courts in India, consider the following
statements:
1. A writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities and it can’t be
directed against administrative or legislative bodies.
2. A writ of certiorari can be issued against legislative bodies that affect the rights of individuals, but not
against administrative bodies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

75) Consider the following statements regarding the Central Bureau of Investigation
(CBI):
1. The CBI is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body functioning under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
2. The Central Government can authorise CBI to investigate a crime in a state without the consent of the
concerned State Government.
3. CBI can suo-moto investigate offences in any Union Territories including Delhi.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

76) Consider the following matters:

1. Approval of ordinances issued by the President.
2. Passage of a resolution for the discontinuance of the national emergency.
3. Introduction of a financial bill not containing solely the matters of Article 110.
4. Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the consolidated fund of India.
5. Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President.
 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

In which of the above matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of Lok
Sabha?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 4 and 5 only
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
All of the above

77) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding a hung parliament in
India?
1. A hung parliament occurs when no single political party or coalition has an absolute majority in the
Lok Sabha.
2. In a hung parliament, legislation can be passed without support from other parties or independent
members.
3. The President of India invites the leader of the party or coalition most likely to command a majority
to form the government.
4. A government losing a confidence vote in a hung parliament can lead to frequent elections.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 2 only
c) 1, 2, and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4

78) Consider the following Acts:

1. The Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act, 2022
2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955
3. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967

How many of the above Acts can ensure effective implementation of Fundamental Duties enshrined in
Part IV-A of the Constitution of India?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

79) Consider the following pollutants:

1. Lead (Pb)
2. Ammonia (NH3)
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3. Arsenic (As)
4. Carbon Monoxide (CO)

Which of the above are considered under the National Air Quality Index (NAQI)?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

80) In meteorology, what does the term 'wet bulb temperature' represent, and how
is it significant in the context of atmospheric conditions?
a) The highest possible temperature that can be achieved by evaporating water into the air under given
environmental conditions.
b) The lowest temperature that can be reached through the process of evaporative cooling at a constant
atmospheric pressure, offering insights into humidity levels.
c) The temperature at which water transitions to vapor under standard atmospheric pressure, commonly
referred to as the boiling point.
d) The temperature difference measured between the wet bulb and dry bulb thermometers in a psy-
chrometer, which helps determine the relative humidity of the air.

81) The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) plays a critical role in
global environmental governance. Consider the following statements regarding
UNEP:
1. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations that coordinates the UN's environmental activities.
2. It was established following the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment in 1972.
3. UNEP and the World Meteorological Organization jointly established the Intergovernmental Panel on
Climate Change (IPCC).
4. Important reports by UNEP include the Emission Gap Report and Frontiers.

Which of the above statements regarding the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) are
correct?
a) 1, 2, and 3
b) 2, 3, and 4
c) 1, 3, and 4
d) 1, 2, and 4

82) Consider the following information:

Conservation Areas State Details
 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

1. Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanc- Madhya Pra- Became second home for Cheetahs in India, after
tuary desh Kuno National Park
2. Indira Gandhi Zoological Telangana First and only conservation breeding centre for Dhole
Park (IGZP)
3. Rajaji Tiger Reserve Uttar Pradesh Ganga river flows through it

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

83) Consider the following statements regarding the 29th Conference of the Parties
(COP29) under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UN-
FCCC), held in Baku, Azerbaijan:
1. Climate finance for developing nations was raised to USD 300 billion by 2035 under the New Collec-
tive Quantified Goal (NCQG).
2. A target of USD 1.3 trillion in annual mobilizations by 2035 was set under the Baku Finance Goal.
3. The Baku Workplan was adopted to incorporate diverse values and knowledge systems into climate
policies and actions.
4. The Lima Work Programme on Gender was renewed for five years.
5. Hosted the first-ever Health Day and a climate ministerial session.

Which of the above statements accurately describes the outcomes of COP29?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
c) 1 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

84) Consider the following statements regarding Ecological Succession:

1. Ecological succession leads to increased productivity, more complex food webs, and greater biodi-
versity over time.
2. Succession occurs faster in coastal regions than in central continental regions because ocean currents
facilitate seed dispersal more efficiently.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

d) Neither 1 nor 2

85) Which one of the following statements best describes ‘Teal Carbon’?
a) Carbon released through biological particles on snow and ice that reduce albedo.
b) Carbon released by incomplete combustion of organic matter.
c) Carbon captured through the air or industrial emissions.
d) Carbon stored in freshwater and wetland environments.

86) Consider the following statements regarding the Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(BEE):
1. The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) was established under the Electricity Act, 2003.
2. One of the regulatory functions of BEE is to certify energy managers and energy auditors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

87) Consider the following statements regarding New Rules under the Water Act
2024:
1. Monetary penalties under the act have been replaced by criminal charges for violations.
2. White category industries, previously considered non-polluting, now require prior operational ap-
proval.
3. Adjudicating officers appointed by state governments are tasked with managing complaints, issuing
violation notices, and overseeing inquiries.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

88) Consider the following statements:

1. Keystone species are those whose addition to or loss from an ecosystem leads to major changes in
the occurrence of at least one other species.
2. Umbrella species serve as early warning signals because they are sensitive to environmental condi-
tions.
 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

3. Flagship species are those chosen to represent an environmental cause, such as an ecosystem in need
of conservation, to generate public support.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None of the above

89) Consider the following species:

1. Koala
2. Orangutan
3. Lion-tailed macaque
4. Polar bear

How many of the above are primarily social animals?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

90) Which of the following protected areas is well known for the conservation of the
critically endangered Jerdon’s Courser?
a) Kolleru Lake Wildlife Sanctuary
b) Rann of Kutch Wildlife Sanctuary
c) Panna Tiger Reserve
d) Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary

91) The organisms "Crimsonback, Moorhen, Little ringed plover" are:

a) Fish
b) Birds
c) Butterflies
d) Mammals

92) Which of the following is not a mammal?

a) Chiru
b) Dugong
c) Takin
 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

d) Bugun Liocichla

93) Which of the following statements about Yakshagana, a traditional theatre form
recognized by UNESCO, is not correct?
a) Yakshagana is traditionally performed in Karnataka and Kerala.
b) It was influenced by the Vaishnava Bhakti movement that began in the 11th century.
c) The Vijayanagara Empire was a major patron of Yakshagana.
d) Only men are allowed to perform all roles, including female characters.

94) Recently International Criminal Court (ICC) decided to issue arrest warrants
against Hamas and Israeli Leaders, in this context consider the following statements
about the International Criminal Court (ICC):
1. The ICC is the first international permanent court established to investigate and prosecute individuals
accused of serious international crimes.
2. The Rome statute grants ICC jurisdiction over five main crimes.
3. India, the United States, Russia, and China are not parties to the Rome statute.
4. The ICC has its own independent police force to enforce its decisions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 3 only
b) 2 and 4 only
c) 1, 3 and 4
d) 1, 2, and 4

95) Consider the following countries:

1. UAE
2. Turkey
3. Indonesia
4. Malaysia
5. Nigeria
6. Ethiopia

How many of the above countries are members of BRICS?

a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) All six
 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

96) With reference to the TRUST (Transforming the Relationship Utilizing Strategic
Technology) Initiative, consider the following statements:
1. It is a bilateral initiative launched between India and the United States.
2. The initiative aims to enhance cooperation in critical and emerging technologies.
3. It was launched under the framework of the Quad grouping.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

97) Consider the following statements about the United Nations Human Rights
Council (UNHRC):
1. The Human Rights Council is an intergovernmental body within the United Nations system responsi-
ble for promoting and protecting human rights globally.
2. The Council is composed of 47 Member States, each serving a term of five years, with elections taking
place every three years.
3. The Human Rights Council meets at the United Nations Office in New York.
4. The Council benefits from technical and secretariat support from the United Nations High Commis-
sioner for Refugees (UNHCR).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 1 only
c) 2, 3 and 4 only
d) 1, 2 and 4 only

98) Consider the following countries:

1. Egypt
2. Eritrea
3. Ethiopia
4. South Sudan
5. Chad
6. Libya

Which of the above countries share a border with Sudan?

a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
 NjM4dWRoMzgyO

b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

99) Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned in the news Location
1. Oromia Ethiopia
2. Biafra Region Nigeria
3. The Liptako-Gourma region Central Sahel area
4. Cabo Delgado Region Mozambique

How many of the pairs are correct?

a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

100) Consider the following diseases/viruses:

1. Malaria
2. Yellow fever
3. Tuberculosis
4. Zika Virus
5. West Nile Virus
6. Chikungunya
7. Sickle cell Anaemia

How many of the diseases/viruses given above are transmitted by Mosquitoes?

a) Only three
b) Only four
c) Only five
d) Only six
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