c) 2kQ/R​

PHYSICS d) kQ/2R

Q1. NEET 2019​ Q7. NEET 2016​

A charge Q is placed at the center of a cube. The The electric field due to a point charge at a distance
electric flux through one face of the cube is:​ r is E. The electric potential at that point is:​
a) Q/ε₀​ a) Er​
b) Q/2ε₀​ b) E/r​
c) Q/6ε₀​ c) E·r​
d) Zero d) E/r²

Q2. JEE Main 2020​ Q8. JEE Advanced 2015​

Two point charges +q and -q are placed at a A conducting sphere of radius R carries a charge Q.
distance 2a apart. The electric field at the midpoint The electric potential at the surface of the sphere is:​
between the charges is:​ a) kQ/R​
a) Zero​ b) Zero​
b) Directed towards +q​ c) kQ/2R​
c) Directed towards -q​ d) kQ/3R
d) None of these
Q9. NEET 2015​
Q3. NEET 2018​ The potential energy of a system of two charges q₁
The electric potential at a point due to a point and q₂ separated by a distance r is:​
charge is 5 V. If the distance from the charge is a) kq₁q₂/r​
doubled, the potential becomes:​ b) kq₁q₂/r²​
a) 10 V​ c) Zero​
b) 2.5 V​ d) kq₁q₂
c) 1.25 V​
Q10. JEE Main 2014​
d) 20 V
An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field.
Q4. JEE Advanced 2017​ The torque acting on it is maximum when the angle
A spherical shell of radius R carries a uniform between the dipole moment and the electric field is:​
surface charge density σ. The electric field inside the a) 0°​
shell is:​ b) 45°​
a) σ/ε₀​ c) 90°​
b) Zero​ d) 180°
c) σR/ε₀​
Q11. NEET 2014​
d) σ/(2ε₀)
The electric field inside a conductor is:​
Q5. NEET 2017​ a) Zero​
The work done in moving a charge q from infinity to b) Infinite​
a point at distance r from a point charge Q is:​ c) Constant​
a) kQq/r​ d) Varies with distance
b) kQq/r²​
Q12. JEE Advanced 2013​
c) Zero​
A point charge is placed at the center of a spherical
d) kQq
Gaussian surface. The electric flux through the
Q6. JEE Main 2016​ surface depends on:​
A uniformly charged ring of radius R has total a) The radius of the sphere​
charge Q. The electric potential at the center of the b) The charge enclosed​
ring is:​ c) The shape of the surface​
a) Zero​ d) The distance from the charge
b) kQ/R​
Q13. NEET 2013​
The potential difference between two points in an
1.
electric field is 10 V. A charge of 2 C moves between Q20. JEE Advanced 2009​
these points. The work done is:​ A point charge is placed outside a closed surface.
a) 5 J​ The net electric flux through the surface is:​
b) 10 J​ a) Zero​
c) 20 J​ b) Depends on the distance​
d) 0 J c) Infinite​
d) Depends on the shape of the surface
Q14. JEE Main 2012​
A charge q is placed at the center of a cube. The Q21. NEET 2009​
total electric flux through the cube is:​ The SI unit of electric flux is:​
a) q/ε₀​ a) Nm²/C​
b) Zero​ b) N/C​
c) q/6ε₀​ c) V/m​
d) q/2ε₀ d) C/m²

Q15. NEET 2012​ Q22. JEE Main 2008​

The electric potential due to a point charge at a The electric potential at a point due to a dipole is
distance r is V. The electric field at that point is:​ zero. The electric field at that point is:​
a) V/r​ a) Zero​
b) V·r​ b) Maximum​
c) V/r²​ c) Minimum​
d) V²/r d) Cannot be determined

Q16. JEE Advanced 2011​ Q23. NEET 2008​

A charged particle is placed in a uniform electric The electric field due to a uniformly charged infinite
field. The force acting on it is:​ plane sheet is:​
a) Zero​ a) Zero​
b) qE​ b) Constant​
c) qE²​ c) Inversely proportional to distance​
d) E/q d) Directly proportional to distance

Q17. NEET 2011​ Q24. JEE Advanced 2007​

The potential energy of a system of two charges q The potential energy of a dipole in a uniform electric
and -q separated by a distance r is:​ field is minimum when the angle between the dipole
a) Zero​ moment and the field is:​
b) Negative​ a) 0°​
c) Positive​ b) 90°​
d) Infinite c) 180°​
d) 45°
Q18. JEE Main 2010​
The electric field at a point on the axis of a uniformly Q25. NEET 2007​
charged ring is:​ The electric field at the surface of a charged
a) Zero​ conductor is:​
b) Maximum at the center​ a) Perpendicular to the surface​
c) Decreases with distance​ b) Parallel to the surface​
d) Constant c) Zero​
d) At an angle of 45°
Q19. NEET 2010​
The work done in moving a unit positive charge from Q26. JEE Main 2006​
infinity to a point in an electric field is called:​ The electric potential at a point on the axis of a
a) Electric potential​ dipole is:​
b) Electric field​ a) Zero​
c) Electric flux​ b) Maximum​
d) Electric force
2.
c) Minimum​ becomes:​
d) Depends on the distance a) 5 V​
b) 20 V​
Q27. NEET 2006​ c) 40 V​
The electric field due to a point charge varies with d) 2.5 V
distance r as:​
a) 1/r​ Q34. JEE Main 2002​
b) 1/r²​ The electric field due to a uniformly charged ring at
c) r​ its center is:​
d) r² a) Zero​
b) Maximum​
Q28. JEE Advanced 2005​ c) Minimum​
A charged particle is placed in an electric field. The d) Infinite
potential energy of the particle is:​
a) qV​ Q35. NEET 2002​
b) qE​ The potential energy of a system of two like charges
c) q/r​ is:​
d) qE² a) Positive​
b) Negative​
Q29. NEET 2005​ c) Zero​
The electric potential at a point due to a point d) Infinite
charge is:​
a) Directly proportional to r​ Q36. JEE Advanced 2001​
b) Inversely proportional to r​ The electric field at a point due to a dipole is:​
c) Inversely proportional to r²​ a) Along the dipole axis​
d) Independent of r b) Perpendicular to the dipole axis​
c) Zero​
Q30. JEE Main 2004​ d) At an angle of 45° to the dipole axis
The electric field inside a hollow conducting sphere
is:​ Q37. NEET 2001​
a) Zero​ The electric potential at a point due to a dipole is:​
b) Constant​ a) Zero​
c) Infinite​ b) Maximum​
d) Varies with distance c) Minimum​
d) Depends on the position
Q31. NEET 2004​
The work done in moving a charge in an electric Q38. JEE Main 2000​
field is zero when the displacement is:​ Two charges +Q and −Q are placed at a distance 2a
a) Along the field​ apart. The electric potential at a point on the
b) Opposite to the field​ perpendicular bisector at a distance r from the center
c) Perpendicular to the field​ is:​
d) At an angle of 45° to the field a) Zero​
b) kQ/r​
Q32. JEE Advanced 2003​ c) 2kQ/r​
A point charge is placed at the center of a spherical d) kQ/(r²)
shell. The electric field inside the shell is:​
a) Zero​ Q39. NEET 2000​
b) Constant​ An electric dipole of dipole moment p is placed in a
c) Infinite​ uniform electric field E. The torque acting on the
d) Varies with distance dipole is:​
a) pE sinθ​
Q33. NEET 2003​ b) pE cosθ​
The electric potential at a point due to a point c) p/E​
charge is 10 V. If the distance is halved, the potential d) E/p
3.
Q40. JEE Advanced 1999​ CHEMISTRY
A uniformly charged infinite plane sheet produces a
field of magnitude E. If another identical sheet is Q46. NEET 2022​
placed parallel to it, the resultant field between the In the electrochemical cell:​
sheets is:​ Zn | Zn²⁺ (0.01 M) || Cu²⁺ (1.0 M) | Cu, the emf of this
a) 2E​ Daniell cell is E₁. When the concentration of Zn²⁺ is
b) E​ changed to 1.0 M and that of Cu²⁺ is changed to 0.01
c) Zero​ M, the emf changes to E₂. The relationship between
d) E/2 E₁ and E₂ is:​
a) E₁ = E₂​
Q41. NEET 1999​ b) E₁ > E₂​
Electric flux through a cube of side a which encloses c) E₁ < E₂​
a charge q at its center is:​ d) E₁ = 0 ≠ E₂
a) q/ε₀​
b) q/6ε₀​ Q47. NEET 2021​
c) 6q/ε₀​ The molar conductance of NaCl, HCl, and
d) Zero CH₃COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16,
and 91.0 S cm² mol⁻¹ respectively. The molar
Q42. JEE Main 1998​ conductance of CH₃COOH at infinite dilution is:​
A charge is placed at a distance R from the center a) 698.28 S cm² mol⁻¹​
of a conducting spherical shell of radius R. The b) 540.48 S cm² mol⁻¹​
electric field inside the shell is:​ c) 201.28 S cm² mol⁻¹​
a) Zero​ d) 390.71 S cm² mol⁻¹
b) kQ/R​
c) kQ/R²​ Q48. NEET 2020​
d) kQ/2R On electrolysis of dilute sulphuric acid using
platinum electrodes, the product obtained at the
Q43. NEET 1998​ anode is:​
The potential energy of a pair of like charges a) H₂S gas​
separated by a finite distance is:​ b) SO₂ gas​
a) Negative​ c) Hydrogen gas​
b) Positive​ d) Oxygen gas
c) Zero​
d) Infinite Q49. NEET 2020​
The number of Faradays (F) required to produce 20
Q44. JEE Advanced 1997​ g of calcium from molten CaCl₂ (Atomic mass of Ca
Which of the following statements is correct?​ = 40 g mol⁻¹) is:​
a) Electric field is always perpendicular to a) 3​
equipotential surfaces.​ b) 4​
b) Electric field is always parallel to equipotential c) 1​
surfaces.​ d) 2
c) Electric field can be either perpendicular or
parallel to equipotential surfaces.​ Q50. NEET 2019​
d) Electric field is zero on equipotential surfaces. For a cell involving one electron, E°cell = 0.59 V at
298 K. The equilibrium constant for the cell reaction
Q45. NEET 1997​ is:​
The electric field at the center of a uniformly a) 1.0 × 10²​
charged semicircular wire is:​ b) 1.0 × 10⁵​
a) Along the diameter​ c) 1.0 × 10¹⁰​
b) Perpendicular to the diameter​ d) 1.0 × 10³⁰
c) Zero​
d) Cannot be determined Q51. NEET 2019​
For the cell reaction:​

4.
Ni(s) + 2Ag⁺ (0.001 M) → Ni²⁺ (0.001 M) + 2Ag(s),​ c) The cell is at equilibrium.​
the emf of the cell at 298 K is:​ d) The cell cannot operate.
a) 0.9615 V​
b) 1.05 V​ Q57. NEET 2014​
c) 1.0385 V​ The electrolysis of an aqueous solution of CuSO₄
d) 1.385 V using platinum electrodes results in:​
a) Deposition of copper at the cathode and
Q52. NEET 2018​ liberation of oxygen at the anode.​
Consider the change in oxidation state of bromine b) Deposition of copper at the anode and liberation
corresponding to different emf values as shown in of hydrogen at the cathode.​
the diagram below. The species undergoing c) Liberation of oxygen at the cathode and
disproportionation is:​ deposition of copper at the anode.​
a) BrO₃⁻​ d) Liberation of hydrogen at the anode and
b) BrO₄⁻​ deposition of copper at the cathode.
c) Br₂​
d) HBrO Q58. NEET 2013​
The conductivity of a solution of an electrolyte is
Q53. NEET 2017​ measured by:​
In the electrochemical cell:​ a) Conductometric titration​
Zn | Zn²⁺ (0.01 M) || Cu²⁺ (1.0 M) | Cu, the emf of this b) Potentiometric titration​
Daniell cell is E₁. When the concentration of Zn²⁺ is c) Colorimetric method​
changed to 1.0 M and that of Cu²⁺ is changed to 0.01 d) Gravimetric method
M, the emf changes to E₂. The relationship between
E₁ and E₂ is:​ Q59. NEET 2012​
a) E₁ = E₂​ The equivalent conductance of a 0.01 N solution of
b) E₁ > E₂​ a weak electrolyte is 1.5 S cm² eq⁻¹ at 25°C. If the
c) E₁ < E₂​ equivalent conductance at infinite dilution is 150 S
d) E₁ = 0 ≠ E₂ cm² eq⁻¹, the degree of dissociation of the electrolyte
is:​
Q54. NEET 2016​ a) 0.01​
The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm³ solution of b) 0.1​
AgNO₃ with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 × 10³ S c) 0.001​
cm⁻¹ at 298 K is:​ d) 0.015
a) 2.88 S cm²/mol​
b) 11.52 S cm²/mol​ Q60. NEET 2011​
c) 0.086 S cm²/mol​ The standard electrode potential of Zn²⁺/Zn is -0.76
d) 28.8 S cm²/mol V and that of Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.34 V. The emf of the cell
Zn | Zn²⁺ || Cu²⁺ | Cu is:​
Q55. NEET 2016​ a) 1.10 V​
If the E°cell for a given reaction has a negative b) 0.42 V​
value, which of the following gives the correct c) 0.34 V​
relationships for the values of ΔG° and K_eq?​ d) 0.76 V
a) ΔG° > 0; K_eq < 1​
b) ΔG° > 0; K_eq > 1​ Q61. NEET 2010​
c) ΔG° < 0; K_eq > 1​ The electrochemical equivalent of a substance is
d) ΔG° < 0; K_eq < 1 the:​
a) Mass of the substance liberated per coulomb of
Q56. NEET 2015​ charge.​
The standard electrode potential (E°) of a cell is b) Mass of the substance liberated per mole of
positive. Which of the following statements is electrons.​
correct?​ c) Charge required to liberate one gram of the
a) The cell reaction is spontaneous.​ substance.​
b) The cell reaction is non-spontaneous.​

5.
 d) Charge required to liberate one mole of the c) Anode to cathode through the salt bridge​
substance. d) Cathode to anode through the salt bridge

Q62. NEET 2009​ Q69. NEET 2002​

In the electrolysis of aqueous CuSO₄ solution using The standard electrode potential of a cell is 1.10 V.
copper electrodes:​ The cell reaction is:​
a) Copper is deposited at the cathode and an equal a) Spontaneous​
amount dissolves from the anode.​ b) Non-spontaneous​
b) Copper is deposited at the anode and an equal c) At equilibrium​
amount dissolves from the cathode.​ d) Reversible
c) Oxygen is evolved at the cathode.​
d) Hydrogen is evolved at the anode. Q70. NEET 2001​
The electrochemical equivalent of a substance is
Q63. NEET 2008​ related to its molar mass (M) and valency (n) by the
The molar conductivity of a solution increases with relation:​
dilution due to:​ a) M/nF​
a) Increase in the number of ions.​ b) nF/M​
b) Increase in ion mobility.​ c) F/nM​
c) Decrease in ion mobility.​ d) nM/F
d) Decrease in the number of ions.
Continuing the pure NEET PYQs from the chapter
Q64. NEET 2007​ Electrochemistry (1983–2023) in a clean, copyable
The cell reaction is spontaneous when:​ format from Q71 to Q90:
a) E°cell is positive.​
b) E°cell is negative.​ Q71. NEET 2000​
c) E°cell is zero.​ The electrolysis of molten NaCl using inert
d) E°cell is infinite. electrodes results in the formation of:​
a) Na at cathode and Cl₂ at anode​
Q65. NEET 2006​ b) H₂ at cathode and Cl₂ at anode​
The unit of molar conductivity is:​ c) Na at cathode and O₂ at anode​
a) S cm² mol⁻¹​ d) H₂ at cathode and O₂ at anode
b) S cm mol⁻¹​
c) S cm⁻¹ mol​ Q72. NEET 1999​
d) S mol cm⁻¹ Which of the following increases the conductivity of
an electrolytic solution?​
Q66. NEET 2005​ a) Decreasing temperature​
The conductance of a solution is measured in:​ b) Adding a non-electrolyte​
a) Siemens (S)​ c) Increasing temperature​
b) Ohm (Ω)​ d) Adding heavy water
c) Volt (V)​
d) Ampere (A) Q73. NEET 1998​
The correct expression for the molar conductivity
Q67. NEET 2004​ (Λm) of an electrolyte is:​
The electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution using a) κ × M​
inert electrodes results in the formation of:​ b) κ / M​
a) H₂ at cathode and Cl₂ at anode​ c) κ × V​
b) Na at cathode and Cl₂ at anode​ d) κ / C
c) H₂ at cathode and O₂ at anode​
d) Na at cathode and O₂ at anode Q74. NEET 1997​
When 1 Faraday of electricity is passed through
Q68. NEET 2003​ molten AlCl₃, the amount of aluminium deposited is:​
In a galvanic cell, the electrons flow from:​ a) 1 mole​
a) Anode to cathode through the external circuit​ b) 0.5 mole​
b) Cathode to anode through the external circuit​
6.
c) 0.33 mole​ dilution is:​
d) 1.5 mole a) Minimum​
b) Maximum​
Q75. NEET 1996​ c) Zero​
The cell reaction is spontaneous when:​ d) Independent of concentration
a) E°cell is positive​
b) E°cell is negative​ Q82. NEET 1989​
c) E°cell = 0​ Which of the following metals is least reactive and
d) ΔG = +ve used as the reference electrode in electrochemical
cells?​
Q76. NEET 1995​ a) Zinc​
The relation between Gibbs free energy and EMF of b) Copper​
a cell is:​ c) Platinum​
a) ΔG = nFE​ d) Hydrogen
b) ΔG = -nFE​
c) ΔG = E/nF​ Q83. NEET 1988​
d) ΔG = nF/E In a galvanic cell, the anode is the electrode where:​
a) Reduction takes place​
Q77. NEET 1994​ b) Oxidation takes place​
The electrochemical equivalent of silver is 1.118 mg c) No reaction occurs​
C⁻¹. The charge required to deposit 1.118 g of Ag is:​ d) Electrons enter the electrode
a) 10⁵ C​
b) 10³ C​ Q84. NEET 1987​
c) 100 C​ If 0.5 mol of electrons are passed through molten
d) 1 C MgCl₂, the mass of Mg deposited is:​
a) 6.0 g​
Q78. NEET 1993​ b) 12.0 g​
A conductivity cell filled with 0.1 N KCl solution has c) 3.0 g​
a resistance of 100 ohm. If the specific conductance d) 24.0 g
of 0.1 N KCl is 1.29 S m⁻¹, then the cell constant is:​
a) 1.29 m⁻¹​ Q85. NEET 1986​
b) 0.129 m⁻¹​ Which one of the following statements is correct?​
c) 0.0129 m⁻¹​ a) In galvanic cell, electrons flow from cathode to
d) 12.9 m⁻¹ anode​
b) In galvanic cell, oxidation occurs at the anode​
Q79. NEET 1992​ c) In galvanic cell, reduction occurs at the anode​
Which metal is deposited at the cathode when d) Salt bridge carries electrons
aqueous CuSO₄ is electrolyzed using platinum
electrodes?​ Q86. NEET 1985​
a) Copper​ The reduction potential of a half-cell depends on:​
b) Hydrogen​ a) Nature of the electrode​
c) Sulfur​ b) Temperature​
d) No deposition c) Ion concentration​
d) All of these
Q80. NEET 1991​
When two half-cells are combined, the direction of Q87. NEET 1984​
electron flow is from:​ Which metal is deposited at the cathode in the
a) Lower E° to higher E°​ electrolysis of molten PbCl₂?​
b) Higher E° to lower E°​ a) Pb​
c) Cathode to anode​ b) Cl​
d) Electrolyte to electrode c) O₂​
d) H₂
Q81. NEET 1990​
The equivalent conductance of a solution at infinite
7.
Q88. NEET 1983​ pollination?​
The quantity of electricity required to liberate one a) Geitonogamy involves pollination between two
mole of a univalent element is:​ different species.​
a) 96500 C​ b) Autogamy requires pollinators for pollen transfer.​
b) 1 C​ c) Xenogamy leads to genetic variation.​
c) 193000 C​ d) Cleistogamy promotes cross-pollination.
d) 9650 C
Q95. NEET 2016​
Q89. NEET 1983​ Which type of ovule is characterized by the
A solution has a conductance of 1.5 × 10⁻³ S and micropyle, chalaza, and funicle lying in a straight
cell constant of 1.2 cm⁻¹. The conductivity of the line?​
solution is:​ a) Anatropous​
a) 1.8 × 10⁻³ S cm⁻¹​ b) Orthotropous​
b) 1.8 × 10⁻² S cm⁻¹​ c) Campylotropous​
c) 1.2 × 10⁻³ S cm⁻¹​ d) Hemianatropous
d) 1.2 × 10⁻² S cm⁻¹
Q96. NEET 2015​
Q90. NEET 1983​ In which type of ovule does the embryo sac lie at
In a galvanic cell, the salt bridge:​ right angles to the funicle?​
a) Maintains electrical neutrality​ a) Orthotropous​
b) Generates electrons​ b) Anatropous​
c) Acts as a catalyst​ c) Campylotropous​
d) Connects electrodes physically d) Amphitropous

Q97. NEET 2014​

BOTANY
Which of the following is the most common type of
Q91. NEET 2020​ ovule in angiosperms?​
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a) Orthotropous​
wind-pollinated flowers?​ b) Anatropous​
a) Large, colorful, and fragrant flowers​ c) Campylotropous​
b) Small, inconspicuous flowers with well-exposed d) Amphitropous
stamens​
Q98. NEET 2013​
c) Flowers with nectar and scent​
The interaction between pollen and stigma to
d) Flowers with sticky pollen grains
determine compatibility is known as:​
Q92. NEET 2019​ a) Pollination​
In which type of pollination does the pollen come b) Fertilization​
from the same plant but a different flower?​ c) Pollen-pistil interaction​
a) Autogamy​ d) Germination
b) Geitonogamy​
Q99. NEET 2012​
c) Xenogamy​
Which structure guides the pollen tube to enter the
d) Allogamy
ovule?​
Q93. NEET 2018​ a) Synergids​
Which of the following is not a mechanism to b) Antipodals​
prevent self-pollination?​ c) Egg cell​
a) Herkogamy​ d) Central cell
b) Dichogamy​
Q100. NEET 2011​
c) Cleistogamy​
Double fertilization is a characteristic feature of:​
d) Self-incompatibility
a) Gymnosperms​
Q94. NEET 2017​ b) Angiosperms​
Which of the following statements is true regarding c) Pteridophytes​
d) Bryophytes
8.
Q101. NEET 2010​ b) Central cell​
In double fertilization, one male gamete fuses with c) Synergid​
the egg to form the zygote, while the other fuses d) Antipodal cell
with:​
a) Synergids​ Q108. NEET 2003​
b) Antipodals​ Which of the following is a post-fertilization event in
c) Central cell​ flowering plants?​
d) Ovule wall a) Pollen germination​
b) Embryo development​
Q102. NEET 2009​ c) Pollination​
The product of triple fusion in angiosperms is:​ d) Pollen-pistil interaction
a) Diploid zygote​
b) Triploid endosperm​ Q109. NEET 2002​
c) Haploid embryo​ The fusion of one male gamete with the egg and the
d) Diploid endosperm other with the two polar nuclei is called:​
a) Syngamy​
Q103. NEET 2008​ b) Triple fusion​
Which of the following statements is true about c) Double fertilization​
double fertilization?​ d) Autogamy
a) It occurs in all plants.​
b) It involves two pollen grains fusing with one egg.​ Q110. NEET 2001​
c) It results in the formation of both zygote and Which of the following structures is haploid?​
endosperm.​ a) Zygote​
d) It is unique to gymnosperms. b) Endosperm​
c) Antipodal cells​
Q104. NEET 2007​ d) Embryo
The entry of the pollen tube through the micropyle is
termed as:​ Q111. NEET 2000​
a) Chalazogamy​ The function of the filiform apparatus in synergids is
b) Mesogamy​ to:​
c) Porogamy​ a) Attract the pollen tube​
d) Apogamy b) Nourish the embryo​
c) Protect the egg cell​
Q105. NEET 2006​ d) Facilitate fertilization
Which of the following is not involved in the process
of pollination?​ Q112. NEET 1999​
a) Wind​ Which of the following is not a type of ovule?​
b) Water​ a) Orthotropous​
c) Animals​ b) Anatropous​
d) Embryo sac c) Campylotropous​
d) Heterotropous
Q106. NEET 2005​
Which type of pollination occurs when pollen is Q113. NEET 1998​
transferred from the anther to the stigma of the same In which type of pollination does genetic variation
flower?​ occur?​
a) Autogamy​ a) Autogamy​
b) Geitonogamy​ b) Geitonogamy​
c) Xenogamy​ c) Xenogamy​
d) Allogamy d) Cleistogamy

Q107. NEET 2004​ Q114. NEET 1997​

In angiosperms, the pollen tube releases its Which of the following prevents autogamy?​
contents into:​ a) Cleistogamy​
a) Egg cell​ b) Herkogamy​
9.
c) Homogamy​ c) Xenogamy​
d) Chasmogamy d) Allogamy

Q115. NEET 1996​ Q122. NEET 1989​

The term 'syngamy' refers to the fusion of:​ The entry of the pollen tube through the
a) Two male gametes​ integuments is termed as:​
b) Male gamete and egg cell​ a) Porogamy​
c) Male gamete and central cell​ b) Chalazogamy​
d) Two polar nuclei c) Mesogamy​
d) Apogamy
Q116. NEET 1995​
Which of the following is not a feature of Q123. NEET 1988​
wind-pollinated flowers?​ Which of the following structures in the ovule is
a) Small and inconspicuous​ diploid?​
b) Produce large quantities of pollen​ a) Egg cell​
c) Sticky pollen grains​ b) Synergids​
d) Well-exposed stamens c) Nucellus​
d) Antipodals
Q117. NEET 1994​
The process of pollen tube entering through the Q124. NEET 1987​
chalaza is known as:​ Which of the following is not involved in the process
a) Porogamy​ of fertilization?​
b) Mesogamy​ a) Pollen tube​
c) Chalazogamy​ b) Synergids​
d) Apogamy c) Antipodals​
d) Egg cell
Q118. NEET 1993​
Which of the following is true about cleistogamous Q125. NEET 1986​
flowers?​ The fusion of male gamete with the egg cell is
a) They are always cross-pollinated​ termed as:​
b) They never open​ a) Syngamy​
c) They are pollinated by insects​ b) Triple fusion​
d) They promote genetic variation c) Autogamy​
d) Allogamy
Q119. NEET 1992​
Which of the following is a disadvantage of Q126. NEET 1985​
self-pollination?​ Which of the following is a feature of entomophilous
a) Requires pollinators​ flowers?​
b) Promotes genetic diversity​ a) Small and inconspicuous​
c) Leads to weaker progeny​ b) Produce large quantities of pollen​
d) Ensures cross-pollination c) Brightly colored and fragrant​
d) Lack nectar
Q120. NEET 1991​
In angiosperms, the endosperm is formed as a Q127. NEET 1984​
result of:​ The central cell in the embryo sac is:​
a) Syngamy​ a) Haploid​
b) Triple fusion​ b) Diploid​
c) Double fertilization​ c) Triploid​
d) Autogamy d) Tetraploid

Q121. NEET 1990​ Q128. NEET 1983​

Which of the following is not a type of pollination?​ Which of the following is not a component of the
a) Autogamy​ embryo sac?​
b) Geitonogamy​ a) Egg cell​
10.
b) Synergids​ is:​
c) Antipodals​ a) Entomophily​
d) Pollen grain b) Anemophily​
c) Hydrophily​
Q129. NEET 1982​ d) Zoophily
Which of the following is true about double
fertilization?​ ZOOLOGY
a) It occurs in gymnosperms​
b) It involves two pollen tubes​ Q136. NEET 2023​
c) It results in the formation of both zygote and Which of the following cells during gametogenesis is
endosperm​ normally diploid?​
d) It is a type of self-pollination a) Primary polar body​
b) Spermatid​
Q130. NEET 1981​ c) Spermatogonia​
Synergids are essential in:​ d) Secondary polar body
a) Nutrition of embryo​
b) Attracting the pollen tube​ Q137. NEET 2022​
c) Developing endosperm​ The process of transformation of spermatids into
d) Fusion of polar nuclei spermatozoa is called:​
a) Spermiation​
Q131. NEET 1980​ b) Spermatogenesis​
Double fertilization involves:​ c) Spermiogenesis​
a) Two pollen grains​ d) Spermatocytogenesis
b) Two ovules​
c) Two male gametes​ Q138. NEET 2021​
d) One male and one female gamete Which of the following hormones is responsible for
the development of the Graafian follicle?​
Q132. NEET 1979​ a) LH​
Which of the following is true for anatropous ovule?​ b) FSH​
a) Micropyle, chalaza, and funicle are in a straight c) Progesterone​
line​ d) Estrogen
b) Ovule is straight​
c) Ovule is curved so that micropyle lies close to Q139. NEET 2020​
funicle​ In human females, meiosis-II is not completed until:​
d) None of the above a) Puberty​
b) Fertilization​
Q133. NEET 1978​ c) Birth​
In angiosperms, the female gametophyte is also d) Menopause
called:​
a) Embryo​ Q140. NEET 2019​
b) Ovary​ Which of the following layers in an ovary is the site
c) Embryo sac​ of follicle development?​
d) Endosperm a) Tunica albuginea​
b) Germinal epithelium​
Q134. NEET 1977​ c) Stroma​
Which part of the ovule forms the seed coat after d) Medulla
fertilization?​
a) Nucellus​ Q141. NEET 2018​
b) Integuments​ The release of the ovum from the ovary is under the
c) Chalaza​ influence of:​
d) Micropyle a) FSH​
b) LH​
Q135. NEET 1976​
The most common method of pollination in grasses
11.
c) Estrogen​ Q148. NEET 2011​
d) Progesterone Which of the following is not a function of the
placenta?​
Q142. NEET 2017​ a) Nutrition​
Which of the following is not a part of the female b) Respiration​
reproductive system?​ c) Excretion​
a) Uterus​ d) Hormone secretion
b) Oviduct​
c) Prostate​ Q149. NEET 2010​
d) Ovary The part of the female reproductive system where
fertilization usually occurs is:​
Q143. NEET 2016​ a) Uterus​
The primary function of the corpus luteum is to:​ b) Vagina​
a) Produce estrogen​ c) Fallopian tube​
b) Produce progesterone​ d) Cervix
c) Release the ovum​
d) Initiate menstruation Q150. NEET 2009​
Which of the following hormones is not secreted by
Q144. NEET 2015​ the human placenta?​
The process of formation of sperms from a) hCG​
spermatogonia is called:​ b) hPL​
a) Spermiogenesis​ c) Estrogen​
b) Spermatogenesis​ d) LH
c) Spermiation​
d) Spermatocytogenesis Q151. NEET 2008​
The inner lining of the uterus is called:​
Q145. NEET 2014​ a) Myometrium​
Which of the following is the correct sequence of b) Perimetrium​
spermatogenetic stages leading to the formation of c) Endometrium​
sperms in a mature human testis?​ d) Epimetrium
a) Spermatogonia → Spermatocyte → Spermatid →
Spermatozoa​ Q152. NEET 2007​
b) Spermatogonia → Spermatid → Spermatocyte → The hormone responsible for milk ejection in
Spermatozoa​ lactating mothers is:​
c) Spermatogonia → Spermatozoa → Spermatocyte a) Prolactin​
→ Spermatid​ b) Oxytocin​
d) Spermatogonia → Spermatocyte → Spermatozoa c) Estrogen​
→ Spermatid d) Progesterone

Q146. NEET 2013​ Q153. NEET 2006​

The hormone responsible for the maintenance of Which of the following structures in the ovary acts
pregnancy is:​ as an endocrine gland after ovulation?​
a) Estrogen​ a) Graafian follicle​
b) Progesterone​ b) Corpus luteum​
c) FSH​ c) Primary follicle​
d) LH d) Secondary follicle

Q147. NEET 2012​ Q154. NEET 2005​

In human females, the secondary oocyte is arrested The process of release of the mature ovum from the
at which stage until fertilization?​ ovary is termed as:​
a) Prophase I​ a) Ovulation​
b) Metaphase II​ b) Fertilization​
c) Anaphase I​ c) Implantation​
d) Telophase II d) Parturition
12.
Q155. NEET 2004​ a) Spermatogenesis​
Which of the following is the correct sequence of b) Oogenesis​
events in the menstrual cycle?​ c) Gametogenesis​
a) Menstrual phase → Follicular phase → Ovulation d) Fertilization
→ Luteal phase​
b) Follicular phase → Menstrual phase → Ovulation Q162. NEET 1997​
→ Luteal phase​ Which of the following is not a part of the male
c) Luteal phase → Ovulation → Follicular phase → reproductive system?​
Menstrual phase​ a) Testes​
d) Ovulation → Follicular phase → Menstrual phase b) Vas deferens​
→ Luteal phase c) Uterus​
d) Prostate gland
Q156. NEET 2003​
Which of the following cells is haploid?​ Q163. NEET 1996​
a) Spermatogonia​ The hormone responsible for the maintenance of
b) Primary spermatocyte​ the corpus luteum is:​
c) Secondary spermatocyte​ a) FSH​
d) Sertoli cell b) LH​
c) Estrogen​
Q157. NEET 2002​ d) Progesterone
The hormone responsible for the contraction of the
uterus during childbirth is:​ Q164. NEET 1995​
a) Estrogen​ The site of implantation of the fertilized egg is:​
b) Progesterone​ a) Ovary​
c) Oxytocin​ b) Fallopian tube​
d) Prolactin c) Uterus​
d) Cervix
Q158. NEET 2001​
Which of the following is not a function of the Sertoli Q165. NEET 1994​
cells?​ The hormone responsible for the development of
a) Nourishment of sperms​ male secondary sexual characteristics is:​
b) Secretion of inhibin​ a) Estrogen​
c) Formation of blood-testis barrier​ b) Progesterone​
d) Secretion of testosterone c) Testosterone​
d) LH
Q159. NEET 2000​
The structure that helps in the nourishment of the Q166. NEET 1993​
developing embryo is:​ The process by which the blastocyst becomes
a) Amnion​ embedded in the endometrium is called:​
b) Chorion​ a) Fertilization​
c) Placenta​ b) Ovulation​
d) Yolk sac c) Implantation​
d) Parturition
Q160. NEET 1999​
The hormone responsible for the development of Q167. NEET 1992​
secondary sexual characteristics in females is:​ The hormone responsible for the initiation of
a) Estrogen​ spermatogenesis is:​
b) Progesterone​ a) FSH​
c) FSH​ b) LH​
d) LH c) Testosterone​
d) Estrogen
Q161. NEET 1998​
The process of formation of the female gamete is Q168. NEET 1991​
called:​ The structure that connects the fetus to the placenta
13.
is:​ b) Epididymis​
a) Amnion​ c) Vas deferens​
b) Chorion​ d) Seminal vesicles
c) Umbilical cord​
d) Yolk sac Q176. NEET 1983​
The hormone responsible for the maturation of the
Q169. NEET 1990​ Graafian follicle is:​
The hormone responsible for the milk production in a) FSH​
lactating mothers is:​ b) LH​
a) Oxytocin​ c) Estrogen​
b) Prolactin​ d) Progesterone
c) Estrogen​
d) Progesterone Q177. NEET 1982​
The process of release of the ovum from the ovary
Q170. NEET 1989​ is called:​
The process of childbirth is called:​ a) Parturition​
a) Fertilization​ b) Implantation​
b) Ovulation​ c) Fertilization​
c) Parturition​ d) Ovulation
d) Implantation
Q178. NEET 1981​
Q171. NEET 1988​ Which of the following produces the female gametes
The hormone responsible for the ejection of milk is:​ in humans?​
a) Prolactin​ a) Uterus​
b) Oxytocin​ b) Fallopian tube​
c) Estrogen​ c) Ovary​
d) Progesterone d) Cervix

Q172. NEET 1987​ Q179. NEET 1980​

The structure that produces testosterone in males Which part of the male reproductive system stores
is:​ sperm and assists in its maturation?​
a) Sertoli cells​ a) Testis​
b) Leydig cells​ b) Epididymis​
c) Epididymis​ c) Vas deferens​
d) Seminal vesicles d) Urethra

Q173. NEET 1986​ Q180. NEET 1979​

The process of formation of the zygote is called:​ Spermatogenesis is directly stimulated by:​
a) Fertilization​ a) LH​
b) Ovulation​ b) Estrogen​
c) Implantation​ c) FSH​
d) Parturition d) Progesterone

Q174. NEET 1985​

The hormone responsible for the development of
the mammary glands is:​
a) Estrogen​
b) Progesterone​
c) Prolactin​
d) Oxytocin

Q175. NEET 1984​

The structure that stores the spermatozoa is:​
a) Testes​
14.